1. Which statement is true about FTP implementations?

The protocol interpreter (PI) function engages once the data transfer process (DTP)

function is complete.

The DTP function is responsible for the login sequence.

FTP requires two connections, one for control and one for data.

Both the PI and the DTP close automatically when the transfer is complete.

2. A user is able to ping an FTP server across a WAN but is unable to download files from

the server. What should be checked to resolve this problem?

the NIC drivers

the IP configuration

the LED status of the NIC

firewall settings

3.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All

interfaces are properly configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What

two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.)

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added a route by using the ip route

10.13.13.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 command on R1. Hosts on the 10.12.12.0

network cannot communicate with hosts on the 10.13.13.0 network. What is the reason

for this?

The gateway of last resort is not set.

The destination prefix mask is incorrectly configured.

The routing protocol has not been configured on R1.

The static route has not been configured correctly.

 

5. Which two statements are true about resolvers in the DNS hierarchy? (Choose two.)

The resolvers attempt to resolve client queries by using the records that the resolvers

maintain in their zone database files.

The DNS server queries the resolvers to translate the domain name to an IP address.

There can be only one resolver in a DNS zone.

Resolvers may be configured on DNS clients.

The DNS server uses the resolver to forward the name resolution request to another DNS

server.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured with the commands that are

displayed. Which fact can be determined from the configuration?

All passwords are encrypted.

The privileged EXEC mode password is “password1.”

The router can support four Telnet sessions simultaneously.

The router can be accessed from the console without using any password.

7.

Refer to the exhibit. A new router has been configured for the first time with the

commands that are displayed. Which two facts can be determined about the interface of

this router? (Choose two.)

It will act as a DCE device.

It is administratively down.

It will operate at a speed of 6.4 Mb/s.

It is the first interface on slot 0 of controller 1.

Because MOTD is not configured, the interface will not work.

8. What are two reasons for issuing the show ip protocols command on a router?

(Choose two.)

It displays the routing protocol in use.

It displays the routed protocol in use.

It displays the routing activity in real time.

It displays the static routes that are contained in the routing table.

It displays the networks that are being advertised by the router.

 

9. Which statement correctly describes an SLA?

It lists the terms of the agreement between the user and the manufacturer of the system.

It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network.

It specifies the software and hardware configurations of a system.

It describes the operation of a system.

 

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The S0/0/0 interface of R2 is configured correctly with the default

encapsulation. Which configuration should be implemented at the S0/0/0 interface of R1

to complete the connection between the two routers?

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.31 255.255.255.252 

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.33 255.255.255.252 

R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP 

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.28 255.255.255.252 

R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP 

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.29 255.255.255.252 

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

 

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What method is most commonly employed by large ISPs, such as

ISP1, ISP2, and ISP3, to exchange and maintain routing information?

static routes

IGP protocols

EGP protocols

directly connected routes

 

12. Which cable should be used to connect a PC to the console port of a Cisco router?

serial

crossover

rollover

straight-through

 

13. What is the effect of issuing the hostname RouterA command on a router?

A description will be configured on the router interfaces identifying them as belonging to

RouterA.

The router will attempt to establish a connection to the host with the name RouterA.

The router will map an IP address to the domain name RouterA.

The router prompt will change from Router(config)# to RouterA(config)#

 

14. Which routing protocol excludes the subnet information from routing updates?

EIGRP

OSPF

RIPv1

BGP

 

15.

Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn about the exhibited command

output? (Choose two.)

Router RTB is directly connected to a router and a switch.

Router RTB is able to ping its directly connected neighbors.

The network administrator needs to log in to the neighboring devices to gather this

information.

Router RTB has Layer 2 connectivity with two neighboring devices.

Router RTB is connected to two Cisco devices by FastEthernet links.

 

16. Which statement correctly describes MIB?

It is software that is installed on a device which in turn is managed by SNMP.

It is installed on a system that is used to monitor networking devices.

It is a database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance

parameters.

It is a communication protocol that is used between the management station and the

management agent.

 

17. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the

customer, the technician discovers that all network applications are functioning except

for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?

misconfigured firewall

bad port on switch or hub

misconfigured IP addressing on the customer’s workstation

wrong DNS server configured on the customer’s workstation

wrong default gateway configured on the customer’s workstation

 

18.

The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic

and the following output was displayed: 

C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 

R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0 

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 

R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1 

C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1 

From which router was this command executed?

A

B

C

D

 

19. While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two directly connected routers,

the network administrator checks the encapsulation settings on the serial interfaces of

both routers. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator troubleshooting?

application layer

network layer

data link layer

physical layer

 

20. Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?

The maximum number of simultaneous connections that a server can support for HTTPS

is more than for HTTP.

HTTPS and HTTP use different client request-server response processes.

HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the

web server.

HTTPS specifies the rules for passing data between the physical layer and the data link

layer.

 

21. Which two subnet masks can be used when subnetting a Class A IP address? (Choose

two.)

255.0.0.0

240.0.0.0

224.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

 

22. A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside

the corporate network. A network security solution inspects the entire packet, determines

that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside network. Which security

measure protected the network?

an IDS

an IPS

a host-based firewall

Anti-X software

 

23. Which statement describes a feature of TCP?

It provides low overhead data delivery.

It acknowledges the receipt of packets.

It does not provide error checking.

It is a connectionless protocol.

 

24. Which routing protocol depends on the DUAL algorithm to calculate the shortest path

to a destination?

OSPF

EIGRP

RIP

BGP

 

25. What is a characteristic of Syslog?

It requires users to prove their identity with the use of a username and password before

users can access network resources.

It listens to network traffic and sends an alert to a management station to track which

applications are used and the length of time for which they are used.

It enables devices to send information to a daemon that runs on a management station.

It provides users the rights to access specific resources and perform specific tasks.

 

26.

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask would accommodate the number of hosts

indicated for all subnets if the major network address was 192.168.25.0/24?

255.255.0.0

255.255.224.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.240

255.255.255.248

 

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Devices need to connect to the file server from remote networks.

What method should be used to provide the file server with an IP address to allow these

connections?

static NAT

static PAT

dynamic NAT

dynamic PAT

 

28. Which two statements are true about the c:> ping command? (Choose two.)

It tests the accessibility of an IP address.

It sends a TCP packet to the destination IP address.

It sends an ICMP echo request packet to the destination address.

It traces the route of a data packet from the source to the destination.

It determines where a packet was lost or delayed during transmission.

 

29. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28?

host address

network address

broadcast address

multicast address

 

30. Which type of cable may be used for backbone cabling between data centers that are

located on different floors and that are separated by a distance of 1640 feet (500

meters)?

STP

UTP

coaxial

fiber-optic

 

31. Which WAN connection provides a dedicated circuit with fixed bandwidth available at

all times?

point-to-point

circuit-switched

packet-switched

cable

 

32. When does a router enter the setup mode?

when the Cisco IOS is missing in flash

when the configuration is missing in NVRAM

when the setup command is run from the user mode

when the boot system command is missing in the configuration

 

33. What is a feature of PAT?

It maps IP addresses to URLs.

It displays private IP addresses to public networks.

It sends acknowledgments of received packets.

It allows multiple hosts on a single LAN to share globally unique IP addresses.

 

34. How many host addresses can be assigned in each subnetwork when using network

address 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.252.0?

256

510

512

1022

024

 

35. What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission.

It is a connectionless protocol.

It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish

each conversation.

It specifies how messages are reassembled at the destination host.

It requires only 8 bytes of overhead.

It breaks the data packet into datagrams.

 

36.

Refer to the exhibit. A computer with the displayed IP settings is unable to access a

server on the 192.168.2.0 network using the server IP address but can access hosts on

the 192.168.1.0 network. What should the network administrator do to troubleshoot this

problem?

Issue the ping 192.168.1.1 command on the host to determine if the host can

communicate with the default gateway.

Issue the ipconfig /all command to determine if a DNS server IP address was configured.

Verify that the host has a link light.

Check the cabling of the host.

 

37. Which address does a switch use for implementing port security?

the source IP address

the source MAC address

the destination IP address

the destination MAC address

 

38. Which two parameters are stored in the routing table? (Choose two.)

the best route to reach remote networks

the interfaces used to forward packets

the ARP requests from connected routers

the number of times a route has been used by the router

the packets that are placed in the buffer before being forwarded

 

39.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the highlighted value 120 represent?

the number of hops between the router and network 10.0.5.0

the administrative distance of the routing protocol

the UDP port number that is used for forwarding traffic

the bandwidth that is allocated to the serial interface

 

40. What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link?

ISDN

Frame Relay

dialup

T1/E1

 

41.

Refer to the exhibit. Which combination of cable types should be used to complete the

connection?

Cable A – straight-through; Cable B – straight-through; Cable C – serial

Cable A – straight-through; Cable B – straight-through; Cable C – rollover

Cable A – rollover; Cable B – straight-through; Cable C – crossover

Cable A – straight-through; Cable B – crossover; Cable C – serial

 

42.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a

default route on RTB: 

RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 fa0/0 

A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request packets arrive at PC1

but the echo replies do not make it back to PC3. What will fix this problem?

RTA must be configured to forward packets to the 192.168.2.0 network.

The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.

The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.2.1 address is the next

hop address.

The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.

Another default route should be configured on RTA with a next hop address of 10.1.1.6.

 

43. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?

They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.

They alert network administrators to various type of denial of service attacks as they

occur.

They prevent viruses, worms, and Trojans from infecting host computers and servers.

They enable encryption and authentication of confidential data communications.

 

44. A tracert command is run on a host to determine if another host can be reached

across a network. Which two events will occur if connectivity with the other host is

unsuccessful? (Choose two.)

The command will display all the successful hops a packet makes before it is lost.

The command will calculate the time between successful and unsuccessful packets.

The host on which the command is run will send a UDP request message to the other

host.

The command helps to determine where a packet was lost on the path from the source to

the destination.

All hops between the two hosts display !!!!! to signify success.

 

45. A building has experienced a power outage. When the power returns, none of the

devices on one floor can access the Internet. The network administrator checks the

switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST LED on the

front of the switch is amber. 

What is a possible cause of this problem?

The switch is functioning properly.

The switch has failed POST.

The switch configuration file was not saved to NVRAM.

The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegotiate speed and

duplex properly.

 

46.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added networks A and B to router R1.

Which two subnetwork numbers should be used to address networks A and B so that

these networks use the same subnet mask as networks C and D? (Choose two.)

192.168.1.32/26

192.168.1.64/26

192.168.1.96/26

192.168.1.160/26

192.168.1.192/26

 

47. If the start-up configuration is not found in NVRAM, where will the router look for it

next by default?

flash

ROM

RAM

TFTP server

 

48. What is the basis for determining the vector component of a route in the distance

vector routing algorithm?

the bandwidth of the route

the reliability of the route

the IP address of the next hop

the number of hops

 

49.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the data conversation shown?

(Choose two.)

The data conversation was started by the HTTP application process running on the client.

The data conversation is identified by TCP port 80 on the client.

The user started the data conversation by sending an e-mail.

The IP address of the Internet server is 192.168.17.43.

The Internet server will send data to port 8547 on the client.

 

50. What is the function of the forward lookup DNS zone in the DNS name resolution

process?

It resolves fully qualified domain names into IP addresses.

It stores the information about the domain namespace structure.

It forwards zone information updates to the secondary server.

It maintains a database of ARP entries for all servers.

 

51.

Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces on R1 and R2 have been properly configured with the

IP addresses as shown. No dynamic routing protocols have been configured. The network

administrator has entered the commands that are shown in the exhibit. 

Which two additional commands need to be entered on the routers to enable host A to

access the Internet? (Choose two.)

R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.213.219.1

R2(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1

R1(config)# ip route 198.133.219.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

 

52.

Refer to the exhibit. There is no dynamic routing protocol that is running on this network.

The network administrator adds a static route via the use of the ip route 192.168.4.0

255.255.255.0 10.1.1.6 command. On which router should the network administrator

issue this command?

R1

R2

R3

R4

 

53.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the serial connection

between R1 and R2. There is no communication between R1 and R2. Based on the output

of the show ip interface brief command, what is the cause of the problem?

There is a misconfiguration of IP addresses.

There is a mismatch of encapsulation methods.

The no shutdown command has not been issued on R2.

The routing protocols are not compatible.

 

54. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP

addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.)

DNS

WINS

HTTP

DHCP

SMTP

 

55. The network administrator can ping a remote router but is unable to telnet to it. At

what layer of the OSI model does this error occur?

physical

network

data link

application

 

56. What will a router do with a packet that is destined for a host with the IP address

192.168.1.5/24 if no entry for the 192.168.24.0/24 network exists in the routing table?

It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces except the interface that

received the packet.

It will send the packet back to the source address.

It will drop the packet.

It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces.