CCNA Exploration 4

CCNA Exploration 4 : Accessing the WAN

CCNA Exploration 4 : Module 1 Exam Answers

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

• Physical Layer

• Data Link Layer

• Network Layer

• Transport Layer

• Presentation Layer

• Application Layer

2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

• ATM switches

• core routers

• CSU/DSU

• Ethernet switches

• Frame Relay switches

• repeaters

3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users

to and from a network?

• core router

• access server

• Frame Relay switch

• ATM switch

4. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data,

voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

• Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

• metro Ethernet

• Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)

• Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)

5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)

• CIR

• DLCI

• DSLAM

• PVC

• SPID

• 53-byte cells

6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and

permanent virtual circuits?

• ATM

• ISDN

• Frame Relay

• metro Ethernet

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

• low cost

• availability

• traffic encryption

• available bandwidth

• support for voice and video

8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

• DLCI

• circuit switching

• packet switching

• data bearer channels

• switched virtual circuits

• time-division multiplexing

9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

• smaller cells

• number of subscribers

• committed information rate

• distance from the central office of the provider

10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private

network?

• PVCs

• DLCIs

• tunnels

• virtual circuits

• dedicated Layer 2 links

11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to

the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is

estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this

company?

• ATM

• ISDN

• analog dialup

• T1 Leased Line

12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer

equipment and the local loop?

• CSU/DSU

• Frame Relay switch

• ISDN switch

• modem

• PBX switch

13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

• DLCI

• DTE

• DCE

• BRI

• PRI

14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and

only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

• circuit-switched

• dedicated switched lines

• frame-switched

• packet-switched

15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a

minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

• X.25

• DSL

• ATM

• ISDN BRI

• ISDN PRI

16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

• modem

• router

• CSU/DSU

• ISDN switch

• Ethernet switch

17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

• The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network

devices.

• Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.

• Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.

• The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity.

• The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

• Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.

• The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

• The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.

• Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.

19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

• WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.

• A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.

• A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does

not.

• All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN

Layer 2 protocols in use.

20. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

• Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.

• It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.

• A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.

• Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

• ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.

• Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

• The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.

• ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched

technology.

22. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

• Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.

• Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

• Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.

• Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.


1. Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.)

• uses only PVCs

• is useful for video transfers

• has data rates beyond 155 Mbps

• cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead

• mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection

2. Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer?

(Choose two.)

• Each packet carries an identifier.

• Each packet carries full addressing information.

• Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.

• Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory.

• The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous

copper circuit.

3. A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale

card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation?

• ATM

• X.25

• Frame Relay

• Leased lines

4. Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment?

• ISDN

• modem

• router

• CSU/DSU

5. A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The

connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company?

• ATM

• ISDN BRI

• X.25

• analog dialup

6. Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a

WAN technology?

• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

• to determine the WAN topology

• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

• to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

7. On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based?

• IP

• PPP

• HDLC

• SLIP

• HSSI

• CSU

8. A company only requires a WAN connection to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home

office. All transfers will occur after business hours. They estimate they will never need a connection faster

than 56 kbps. Which type of connection is best for this company?

• ATM

• ISDN

• analog dialup

• T1 Leased Line

9. Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.)

• DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps.

• DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.

• DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.

• DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line.

• For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).

• DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to

strong security.

10. Which of the following are disadvantages of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)

• Data is subject to unpredictable delays while it waits for other subscribers to transmit data.

• The connection capacity is used inefficiently due to irregular traffic bursts.

• Data delivery is less reliable because only connectionless delivery methods are used.

• Circuit-switched networks are more expensive for data traffic.

• Circuit-switched networks are less expensive for 24/7 data traffic.

11. Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the

company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN

design?

• to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link

• to determine the WAN topology

• to determine the requirements for latency and jitter

• to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link

12. Which of the following is true of WANs?

• Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less

latency and jitter than dedicated lines.

• ISDN is suitable for large enterprises.

• The more network devices that data has to pass

• WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM.

13. A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at

least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20

offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design

model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation?

• a mesh network of all branch WANs

• a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces

• a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs

• a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a

region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN

14. Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies?

• Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM.

• Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN.

• WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.

• WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic.

15. A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business

hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails.

What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation?

• X.25

• DSL

• ISDN

• cable modem

• 56 kbps

16. Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN

service provider?

• CPE

• CO

• local loop

• DCE

• DTE

17. Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for

large businesses?

• BRI

• PRI

• DLCI

• PSTN

• POTS


1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

• Customers can define their virtual circuit needs in far greater combinations, with increments as small as

64 kbps.

• Customers pay for an end-to-end connection that includes the local loop and the network link.

• Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

• Connecting new sites requires new lower cost circuit installations when compared to ISDN dialup costs or

adding additional

• hardware for leased service.

2. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose

two.)

• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?

• local address identifying a destination router across a Frame Relay network

• locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit

• logical address identifying the interface between a router and a Frame Relay switch

• logical address used to identify the DCE

4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?

• ISDN circuit

• limited access circuit

• switched parallel circuit

• virtual circuit

5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame

Relay network?

• (Choose two.)

• ARP

• RARP

• Proxy ARP

• Inverse ARP

• LMI status messages

• ICMP

6.

Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be

used to send the ping?

• 110

• 115

• 220

• 225

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.)

• The broadcasts will be forwarded to 10.1.1.1.

• The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1.

• DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1

• Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22.

• Inverse-ARP will now add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the Frame Relay map table using DLCI 22.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on

the operation of the

• router?

• It helps to conserve IP addresses.

• It establishes multiple PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces.

• It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops.

• It requires the configuration of the encapsulation command on the subinterface.

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9. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames

in its queue? (Choose three.)

• puts a hold on accepting frames in excess of the CIR

• drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set

• reduces the number of frames it sends over the link

• re-negotiates flow control with the connected device

• sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link

• sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.)

• The IP address of the local Frame Relay interface is 172.16.1.4.

• The local DLCI number is 401.

• Inverse ARP is being used on this connection.

• This interface is in the active state and in the process of negotiating configuration parameters.

• Multicast is not enabled on this connection.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show

interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for

this problem? (Choose two.)

• The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected.

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• The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown.

• The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch.

• The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI.

• The address of the Frame Relay switch is not in the routing table.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown?

• It is currently not transmitting data.

• It is in the process of establishing the PVC.

• It has put a hold on processing frames in excess of the CIR.

• It is experiencing congestion.

13.

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Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the

commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely

cause?

• The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword.

• The DLCIs on each end of the PVCs are not identical.

• The R2 S0/0/0 interface has not been brought online.

• The LMI or Inverse ARP or both are not working.

14. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

• Multipoint interfaces will automatically forward routing broadcasts but will consume more IP addresses

than point-to-point

• subinterfaces will consume.

• Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

• Interfaces with multiple PVCs require a separate subinterface for each PVC.

• Multipoint configurations cannot use subinterfaces.

15.

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Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame

Relay topology that

• interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets

with IP addresses of

• 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How

should the serial interface

• on HQ be configured to complete the topology?

• one multipoint subinterface

• two point-to-point subinterfaces

• with the physical interface configured with two ip addresses

• one IP address on a point-to-point subinterface and one IP address on the physical interface

16. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks?

• To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map

command

• coupled with the broadcast keyword.

• Inverse ARP must be enabled to turn routing update broadcasts into unicast traffic that can be propagated

to other Frame Relay

• nodes.

• Because broadcast traffic is not supported, RIPv1 cannot be implemented on Frame Relay networks.

• To forward broadcast routing updates, dynamic mapping must be enabled.

17.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is

failing?

• Split horizon must be disabled.

• The LMI type must be specified.

• Logical subinterfaces must be used instead.

• The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3.

Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1?

• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1

R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 102

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1

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• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point

R2(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point

R3(config-if)# no frame-relay invers-arp

• R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point

R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201

R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point

R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301

19.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output?

• The Frame Relay LMI DLCI has been incorrectly configured as DLCI 1023.

• The Frame Relay LMI type has been changed from its default.

• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

• The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

20.

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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited

output?

• LMI updates are not being received properly.

• The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration.

• Cisco HDLC is used as a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol on the Serial 0/0/0 interface.

• The Serial 0/0/0 interface has been configured as a data communications equipment device.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output?

• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201.

• Serial 0/0/0 has the feature frame-relay inverse-arp enabled.

• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an IP address of 172.16.4.3.

• Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with the command frame-relay map ip 172.16.4.3 201 broadcast.

22.

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Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3.

What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to

ping each other successfully?

• R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 broadcast

R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 broadcast

• R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast

R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast








1. Which two statements are true regarding network security? (Choose two.)

• Securing a network against internal threats is a lower priority because company employees represent a

low security risk.

• Both experienced hackers who are capable of writing their own exploit code and inexperienced individuals

who download exploits from the Internet pose a serious threat to network security.

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• Assuming a company locates its web server outside the firewall and has adequate backups of the web

server, no further security measures are needed to protect the web server because no harm can come

from it being hacked.

• Established network operating systems like UNIX and network protocols like TCP/IP can be used with

their default settings because they have no inherent security weaknesses.

• Protecting network devices from physical damage caused by water or electricity is a necessary part of the

security policy.

2. Which two statements are true about network attacks? (Choose two.)

• Strong network passwords mitigate most DoS attacks.

• Worms require human interaction to spread, viruses do not.

• Reconnaissance attacks are always electronic in nature, such as ping sweeps or port scans.

• A brute-force attack searches to try every possible password from a combination of characters.

• Devices in the DMZ should not be fully trusted by internal devices, and communication between the DMZ

and internal devices should be authenticated to prevent attacks such as port redirection.

3. Users are unable to access a company server. The system logs show that the server is operating slowly

because it is receiving a high level of fake requests for service. Which type of attack is occurring?

• reconnaissance

• access

• DoS

• worm

• virus

• Trojan horse

4. An IT director has begun a campaign to remind users to avoid opening e-mail messages from suspicious

sources. Which type of attack is the IT director trying to protect users from?

• DoS

• DDoS

• virus

• access

• reconnaissance

5. Which two statements regarding preventing network attacks are true? (Choose two.)

• The default security settings for modern server and PC operating systems can be trusted to have secure

default security settings.

• Intrusion prevention systems can log suspicious network activity, but there is no way to counter an attack

in progress without user intervention.

• Physical security threat mitigation consists of controlling access to device console ports, labeling critical

cable runs, installing UPS systems, and providing climate control.

• Phishing attacks are best prevented by firewall devices.

• Changing default usernames and passwords and disabling or uninstalling unnecessary services are

aspects of device hardening.

6. Intrusion detection occurs at which stage of the Security Wheel?

• securing

• monitoring

• testing

• improvement

• reconnaissance

7. Which two objectives must a security policy accomplish? (Choose two.)

• provide a checklist for the installation of secure servers

• describe how the firewall must be configured

• document the resources to be protected

• identify the security objectives of the organization

• identify the specific tasks involved in hardening a router

8. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

• It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.

• It communicates consensus and defines roles.

• It is developed by end users.

• It is developed after all security devices have been fully tested.

• It defines how to handle security incidents.

• It should be encrypted as it contains backups of all important passwords and keys.

9. Which two statements define the security risk when DNS services are enabled on the network? (Choose

two.)

• By default, name queries are sent to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255.

• DNS name queries require the ip directed-broadcast command to be enabled on the Ethernet interfaces

of all routers.

• Using the global configuration command ip name-server on one router enables the DNS services on all

routers in the network.

• The basic DNS protocol does not provide authentication or integrity assurance.

• The router configuration does not provide an option to set up main and backup DNS servers.

10. What are two benefits of using Cisco AutoSecure? (Choose two.)

• It gives the administrator detailed control over which services are enabled or disabled.

• It offers the ability to instantly disable non-essential system processes and services.

• It automatically configures the router to work with SDM.

• It ensures the greatest compatibility with other devices in your network.

• It allows the administrator to configure security policies without having to understand all of the Cisco IOS

software features.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM, but it is not

functioning correctly. What could be the problem?

• The privilege level of the user is not configured correctly.

• The authentication method is not configured correctly.

• The HTTP server is not configured correctly.

• The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.

12. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of

the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

• The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.

• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.

• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.

• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.

• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13.

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Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is trying to back up the Cisco IOS router software and

receives the output shown. What are two possible reasons for this output? (Choose two.)

• The Cisco IOS file has an invalid checksum.

• The TFTP client on the router is corrupt.

• The router cannot connect to the TFTP server.

• The TFTP server software has not been started.

• There is not enough room on the TFTP server for the software.

14. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS

image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

• Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

• Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

• Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

• Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.

• Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

15. The password recovery process begins in which operating mode and using what type of connection?

(Choose two.)

• ROM monitor

• boot ROM

• Cisco IOS

• direct connection through the console port

• network connection through the Ethernet port

• network connection through the serial port

16.

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Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) is installed on router R1. What is the result of opening

a web browser on PC1 and entering the URL https://192.168.10.1?

• The password is sent in plain text.

• A Telnet session is established with R1.

• The SDM page of R1 appears with a dialog box that requests a username and password.

• The R1 home page is displayed and allows the user to download Cisco IOS images and configuration

files.

17. Which statement is true about Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM)?

• SDM can run only on Cisco 7000 series routers.

• SDM can be run from router memory or from a PC.

• SDM should be used for complex router configurations.

• SDM is supported by every version of the Cisco IOS software.

18. Which step is required to recover a lost enable password for a router?

• Set the configuration register to bypass the startup configuration.

• Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration.

• Reload the IOS from a TFTP server from ROMMON.

• Reconfigure the router using setup mode.

19. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

• Schedule antivirus scans.

• Schedule antispyware scans .

• Schedule training for all users.

• Schedule operating systems updates.

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20.

Refer to the exhibit. Security Device Manager (SDM) has been used to configure a required level of

security on the router.

• What would be accomplished when the SDM applies the next step on the security problems that are

identified on the router?

• SDM will automatically invoke the AutoSecure command.

• SDM will generate a report that will outline the proper configuration actions to alleviate the security issues.

• SDM will create a configuration file that can be copy and pasted into the router to reconfigure the

services.

• SDM will reconfigure the services that are marked in the exhibit as “fix it” to apply the suggested security

changes.

21.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the "ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 cisco" statement in the

configuration?

• to specify a key that is used to authenticate routing updates

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• to save bandwidth by compressing the traffic

• to enable SSH encryption of traffic

• to create an IPsec tunnel

22.

Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

• The commands filter UDP and TCP traffic coming to the router.

• The commands disable any TCP or UDP request sent by the routing protocols.

• The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security

vulnerabilities.

• The commands disable the BOOTP and TFTP server services to prevent security vulnerabilities.


1. By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router?

• blocked in and out of all interfaces

• blocked on all inbound interfaces, but permitted on all outbound interfaces

• permitted in and out of all interfaces

• blocked on all outbound interfaces, but permitted on all inbound interfaces

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

• packet size

• protocol suite

• source address

• destination address

• source router interface

• destination router interface

3. How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic?

• by destination UDP port

• by protocol type

• by source IP address

• by source UDP port

• by destination IP address

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4. Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.

• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.

• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.

• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

• close to the source

• close to the destination

• on an Ethernet port

• on a serial port

6. Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)

• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.

• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.

• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.

• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.

• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.

• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is

made.

7. Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask

0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.

• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

8. Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.)

ccess-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 20

access-list 101 deny tcp 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21

access-list 101 permit ip any any

• FTP traffic originating from network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

• All traffic is implicitly denied.

• FTP traffic destined for the 172.16.3.0/24 network is denied.

• Telnet traffic originating on network 172.16.3.0/24 is denied.

• Web traffic originating from 172.16.3.0 is permitted.

9. Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator

attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL?

• The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.

• Both ACLs are applied to the interface.

• The network administrator receives an error.

• Only the first ACL remains applied to the interface.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an extended ACL to deny traffic from the 192.168.30.0 network

destined for the Web

• server 209.165.201.30, where is the best location for applying the ACL?

• ISP Fa0/0 outbound

• R2 S0/0/1 inbound

• R3 Fa0/0 inbound

• R3 S0/0/1 outbound

11. Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.)

• Only named ACLs allow comments.

• Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL.

• Named ACLs offer more specific filtering options than numbered ACLs.

• Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.

• More than one named IP ACL can be configured in each direction on a router interface.

12. Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose

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three.)

• extended ACL

• reflexive ACL

• console logging

• authentication

• Telnet connectivity

• user account with a privilege level of 15

13.

Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a

destination of 192.168.10.13?

• It is allowed because of the implicit deny any.

• It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

• It is allowed because line 10 of the ACL allows packets to 192.168.0.0/16.

• It is allowed because line 20 of the ACL allows packets to the host 192.168.10.13.

14. A network administrator needs to allow traffic through the firewall router for sessions that originate from

within the

• company network, but the administrator must block traffic for sessions that originate outside the network

of the company.

• What type of ACL is most appropriate?

• dynamic

• port-based

• reflexive

• time-based

15.

Refer to the exhibit. How will Router1 treat traffic matching the time-range requirement of

EVERYOTHERDAY?

• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

• TCP traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 172.16.1.254/24 destined to the 10.1.1.0/24 network is permitted.

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• Telnet traffic entering fa0/0 from 10.1.1.254/24 destined to the 172.16.1.0/24 network is permitted.

16. The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24

Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands?

• The wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is assumed.

• The access list statements are misconfigured.

• All nodes on the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied access to other networks.

• No traffic will be allowed to access any nodes or services on the 172.16.0.0 network.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator wishes to block web traffic from 192.168.1.50 from reaching the

default port of the web service on 192.168.3.30. To do this, the access control list name is applied inbound

on the router R1 LAN interface. After testing the list, the administrator has noted that the web traffic

remains successful. Why is web traffic reaching the destination?

• Web traffic does not use port 80 by default.

• The access list is applied in the wrong direction.

• The access list needs to be placed closer to the destination, on R3.

• The range of source addresses specified in line 10 does not include host 192.168.1.50.

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18.

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?

• Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

• Hosts connecting to resources in the 191.68.30.0/24 network have an idle timeout of 15 minutes.

• Anyone attempting to telnet into R3 will have an absolute time limit of five minutes.

• Telnet access to R3 will only be permitted on Serial 0/0/1.

19. Which statement about standard ACLs is true

• Standard ACLS must be numbered and cannot be named.

• They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.

• They can filter based on source and destination address as well as on source and destination port.

• When applied to an outbound interface, incoming packets are processed before they are routed to the

outbound interface.

20. Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL?

• Extended ACLs can be named, but standard ACLs cannot.

• Unlike standard ACLs, extended ACLS can be applied in the inbound or outbound direction.

• Based on payload content, an extended ACL can filter packets, such as information in an e-mail or instant

message.

• In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination

port, and source port.

21. Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL?

• the ability to filter traffic based on a specific protocol

• the ability to filter traffic based on an entire protocol suite and destination

• the ability to specify source and destination addresses to use when identifying traffic

• the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-

creating the list

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22. A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet 172.16.16.0/21. Which

combination of network

• address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?

• 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

• 127.16.16.0 0.0.0.255

• 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

• 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255

• 172.16.16.0 0.0.255.255

23. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics of wildcard masks in an ACL? (Choose

two.)

• Wildcard masks are the inverse of the subnet mask.

• The word "any" indicates that all corresponding bits must be matched.

• The word "host" corresponds to a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0 in an ACL statement.

• A wildcard mask of 0.0.255.255 can be used to create a match for an entire Class B network.

• A wildcard mask bit of 1 indicates that the corresponding bit in the address must be matched.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about ACL 110 if ACL 110 is applied in the inbound direction

on S0/0/0 of R1?

• It will deny TCP traffic to the Internet if the traffic is sourced from the 172.22.10.0/24 network.

• It will not allow TCP traffic coming from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

• It will allow any TCP traffic from the Internet to enter the network 172.22.10.0/24.

• It will permit any TCP traffic that originated from network 172.22.10.0/24 to return inbound on the S0/0/0

interface.

25.

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Refer to the exhibit. ACL 120 is configured inbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1, but the hosts

on network 172.11.10.0/24 are able to telnet to network 10.10.0.0/16. On the basis of the provided

configuration, what should be done to remedy the problem?

• Apply the ACL outbound on the serial0/0/0 interface on router R1.

• Apply the ACL outbound on the FastEthernet0/0 interface on router R1.

• Include the established keyword at the end of the first line in the ACL.

• Include a statement in the ACL to deny the UDP traffic that originates from 172.11.10.0/24 network.

26.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator applied an ACL outbound on S0/0/0 on router R1.

Immediately after the administrator did so, the users on network 172.22.30.0/24 started complaining that

they have intermittent access to the resources available on the server on the 10.10.0.0/16 network. On the

basis of the configuration that is provided, what is the possible reason for the problem?

• The ACL allows only the mail traffic to the server; the rest of the traffic is blocked.

• The ACL permits the IP packets for users on network 172.22.30.0/24 only during a specific time range.

• The ACL permits TCP packets only if a connection is established from the server to the network

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172.22.0.0/16.

• The ACL allows only TCP traffic from users on network 172.22.40.0/24 to access the server; TCP traffic

from any other sources is blocked.


1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

• users are on a shared medium

• uses RF signal transmission

• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)

• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO

2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification

(DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

• channel widths

• access method

• maximum data rate

• modulation techniques

• compression techniques

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

• use higher RF frequencies

• allocate an additional channel

• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less

• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic

4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has

been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which

broadband technology should be used?

• cable

• DSL

• ISDN

• POTS

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network

administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over

the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?

• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS.

Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.

• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN

clientsoftware.

• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable

when supporting asingle user environment.

• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup

connections usingPOTS.

6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)

• accounting

• authentication

• authorization

• data availability

• data confidentiality

• data integrity

7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose

two.)

• digital certificates

• ESP

• hashing algorithms

• smart cards

• WPA

8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)

• digital certificates

• encryption

• encapsulation

• hashing

• passwords

9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption

protocols? (Choose three.)

• AES

• DES

• AH

• hash

• MPLS

• RSA

10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

• Diffie-Hellman

• digital certificate

• pre-shared key

• RSA signature

11. Which statement describes cable?

• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range,

and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.

• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)

• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.

• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.

12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the

company provide at theteleworker's site?

• a WiMAX tower

• a one-way multicast satellite

• a WiMAX receiver

• an access point connected to the company WLAN

13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access

(WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)

• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies

• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers

• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access

• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections

• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users

14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz.

Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?

• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

• Data is flowing downstream.

• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.

• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the

Corporate network.

• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate

network?

• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall

appliance installedon the edge of the network.

• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall

appliance installed on the edge of the network.

• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the

edge of the network.

• All locations can support VPN connectivity.

16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)

• AH

• L2TP

• ESP

• GRE

• PPTP

17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

• ATM

• CHAP

• IPsec

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• IPX

• MPLS

• PPTP

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure

connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?

• a GRE tunnel

• a site-to-site VPN

• a remote-access VPN

• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection

19.

Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over

the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to

protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)

• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.

• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.

• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.

• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.

• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.

• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.


1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?

• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.

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• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.

• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of

the network.

• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or

decrease available bandwidth.

2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based

on the information shown, what command produced the output?

• show spanning-tree

• show interfaces trunk*

• show cdp neighbors

• show interfaces

• show ip interface brief

3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?

• They select the functions that align with the business goals.

• They select the functions that occur at the network core.

• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.

• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary

classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found

that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected

properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the

router configuration, what is the source of the problem?

• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.

• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.

• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.

• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC

subnet.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the

network design? (Choose two.)

• Provide redundant connections to all end users.

• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.

• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.

• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.

• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.

6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the

enabled interfaces of SW11?

• discarding

• Forwarding

• learning

• listening

7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a

prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)

• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.

• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.

• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.

• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.

• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.

8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified.

Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device

was the command issued?

• R1*

• S1

• R3

• S2

• R5

• S3

9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the

network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?

• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.

• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.

• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.

• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.

• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the

port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east

wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the

configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed.

When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1,

the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?

• Add an enable password to the switch.

• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.

• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.

• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in

use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?

• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.

• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.

• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.

• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.

12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?

• the metric used for a particular route

• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface

• the priority number given to the device for the election process

• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number

• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing

13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is

detected?

• STP*

• BGP

• RSTP

• HSRP

14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route

summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating

a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?

• NBAR

• a pilot network

• a route summary

• a network simulator*

• a physical topology map

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In

which section of the test plan would this specification be found?

• Test Description

• Test Procedures

• Design and Topology Diagram

• Actual Results and Conclusions

• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified

device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?

• Appendix

• Test Procedures

• Test Description

• Actual Results and Conclusions

• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria

17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The

network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for

the least effect on other network traffic?

• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3

• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3


• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3


• outbound on S0/0 of R2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?

• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*

• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.

• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.

• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.

19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping

network security?

• a firewall at the network edge

• port security at the access design layer

• port security at the distribution design layer

• IP access control lists at the access design layer

20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output

shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)

• Switch1 is the root bridge.

• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.

• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.

• Based on the entries in the "Role" column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.

• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.

21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every

switched Ethernet LAN segment?

• root

• backup

• alternate

• Designated


1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

• cable types

• connector types

• interface identifiers

• DLCI for virtual circuits

• operating system versions

2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

• physical

• data link

• network

• transport

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

• incorrect encapsulation

• incorrect STP configuration

• incorrect ARP mapping

• incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline?

(Choose two.)

• information about the network design

• IP addressing allocation on the network

• requirements about the service provider setup

• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic

• expected performance under normal operating conditions

5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network

documentation? (Choose two.)

• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.

• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.

• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a

component of the topology diagram.

• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table

that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during

peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.

• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.

• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.

• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.

• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on

separate hosts.

• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_TY4rWcZRSlU/SPoA8kdu0WI/AAAAAAAAATU/KCgCkMLIKC4/s1600-h/1.jpg

7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in

the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing

normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber)

on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start

troubleshooting?

• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to

determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down

approach with the

• application servers in the data center.

• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing

tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.

• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one

until the error condition is fixed.

8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of

being caused by faulty network cabling?

• bottom up

• top down

• divide and conquer

• middle out

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network

and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect

caused by the changes?

• baselining tool

• knowledge base

• protocol analyzer

• cable tester

10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate

documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and

discover VLAN and port assignments?

• cable analyzer

• network analyzer

• protocol analyzer

• knowledge base

11.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network

administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the

administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

• physical

• data link

• network

• application

12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an

external administrator involved in the process?

• narrowing the scope

• gathering symptoms from suspect devices

• analyzing existing symptoms

• determining ownership

13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown?

(Choose three.)

• A carrier detect signal is present.

• Keepalives are being received successfully.

• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.

• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.

• The reliability of this link is very low.

• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

http://3.bp.blogspot.com/_TY4rWcZRSlU/SPoA8hd0ZkI/AAAAAAAAATc/bL85r8KUQvM/s1600-h/2.jpg

http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_TY4rWcZRSlU/SPoA876NzkI/AAAAAAAAATk/8kCGKoXAgjc/s1600-h/3.jpg

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a

server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1

successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two

statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.

• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.

• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.

• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem

has to be in the upper

• layers.

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface

command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the

administrator begin troubleshooting?

• application

• transport

• network

• data link

• physical

16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a

problem at which OSI layer?

• physical

• data link

• network

• transport

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17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses

in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7

• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15

• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15

18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a

remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers

of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

• physical layer

• data link layer

• network layer

• transport layer

• application layer

19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp

neighbors command?

• All layers

• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4

• Layer 6 and Layer 7

20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for

troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

• Determine fault.

• Get to know the user to build trust.

• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.

• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.

• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.

• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

CCNA Exploration 4 : FINAL Exam Answers(A)

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

• A modem terminates a digital local loop.

• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

• A modem terminates an analog local loop.

• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?

• CIR

• DE

• DLCI

• ISDN

• FRAD

• PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which

configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?

• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.

• The usernames are misconfigured.

• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

• The clock rate must be 56000.

• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the

serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)

• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.

• There is no clock present on the serial interface.

• The interface is shut down.

• RARP is not functioning on the router.

• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service

provider ends? (Choose three.)

• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).

• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.

• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.

• The point is called the demarcation point.

• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.

• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link

between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and

are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable

end?

• show interfaces serial 0/0

• show version

• show controllers serial 0/0

• show protocols serial 0/0

• show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP

configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet.

From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

• The DHCP server service is not enabled.

• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect

will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)

• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.

• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.

• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.

• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose

two.)

• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3

address in the internetwork in the diagram?

• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2

• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast

• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast

• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?

• ITU-T Q.921

• ITU-T Q.931

• ITU-T I.430

• ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

• create a full-mesh topology

• disable Inverse ARP

• use point-to-point subinterfaces

• use multipoint subinterfaces

• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of

a Cisco 806 broadband router?

• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

• defines which addresses are allowed into the router

• defines which addresses can be translated

• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the

troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:

- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.

- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.

- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.

- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.

- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

• Add a clock rate on RouterA.

• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.

• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.

• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network

administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional

office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping,

while otherwise functioning properly?

• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration

• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

• disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up

2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR

3 - route to destination is determined

4 - call is made

• 1,2,3,4

• 1,3,2,4

• 2,3,1,4

• 2,1,3,4

• 3,2,1,4

• 3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide

strong security through authentication?

• NAT with DHCP

• Frame Relay

• HDLC with encryption

• HDLC with CHAP

• PPP with PAP

• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)

• create subinterfaces

• define the LMI type

• set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

• set the interface DLCI

• set the switch type

• specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the

regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to

the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following

configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?

• use PPP multilink

• lower idle timer setting

• use CHAP authentication

• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a

router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are

true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)

• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of

other vendors.

• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.

• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.

• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.

• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address

192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.

• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.

• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.

• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which

configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?

• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

• The usernames are misconfigured.

• The clock rate must be 56000.

• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.

• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?

• dial string

• DLCI

• idle time out

• interesting traffic

• PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?

• Application Layer, Physical Layer

• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer

• Data Link Layer, Transport Layer

• Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?

• The routers are configured for different encapsulations.

• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.

• The circuit from WAN provider has failed.

• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.

• The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote

sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and

transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote

office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally

needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the

remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)

• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.

• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.

• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.

• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.

• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following

may occur? (Choose two.)

• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.

• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.

• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.

• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all

frames it receives on the congested link.

• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all

frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation.

The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows

a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?

• There is not a route to the remote router.

• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.

• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.

• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)

• Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.

• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.

• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.

• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.

• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.

• active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?

• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.

• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.

• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.

• The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 192.168.146.0/22

• 172.10.25.0/16

• 172.31.0.0/16

• 20.0.0.0/8

• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When

attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access

server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)

• PPP authentication is not properly configured.

• No dialer map is configured.

• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.

• No interesting traffic is defined.

• No route is determined to the remote network.

• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a

vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco

router and the other router?

• frame-relay pvc multipoint

• frame-relay pvc point-to-point

• encapsulation frame-relay cisco

• encapsulation frame-relay ietf

• frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and

additional capacity during peak usage times?

• X.25

• DSL

• ISDN

• cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is

communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?

• show dialer

• show isdn status

• show interfaces bri0/0:1

• show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three

remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different

authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to

accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to

accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?

• Install and configure a PRI.

• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.

• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.

• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.

• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The

ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator

configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

• Configure static NAT for all ten users.

• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

• Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.

• Configure DHCP and static NAT.

• What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)


• connection oriented

• OSI Layer 3

• packet-switched

• reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with

authentication?

• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols

• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment

• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication

• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment

• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols

• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA Exploration 4 : FINAL Exam Answers(B)

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250

users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?

• routable translation

• dynamic translation

• static translation

• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with

private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a

configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload

• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload

• ip nat inside serial0

• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload

• ip nat inside Raleigh overload

• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of

address translation is in effect on this router?

• static

• dynamic

• overload

• private

• public

4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 192.168.146.0/22

• 172.10.25.0/16

• 172.31.0.0/16

• 20.0.0.0/8

• 10.172.92.8/29

5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the

graphic?

• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.

• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.

• Both links will transmit bits one by one.

• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.

6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)

• DHCP uses TCP.

• DHCP uses UDP.

• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.

• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.

• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.

• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.

7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on

a router?

• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5

• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to

core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN

technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?

• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access

• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access

• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access

• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access

9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?

• show ip dhcp server statistics

• show ip dhcp binding

• debug ip dhcp server events

• debug ip dhcp binding

10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer

equipment and the local loop for digital lines?

• terminal adapter

• modem

• CSU/DSU

• PBX switch

• ISDN switch

• Frame Relay Switch

11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)

• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.

• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.

• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.

• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.

• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.

• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.

12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between

the router and the ISDN switch?

• HDLC

• IPCP

• LAPB

• LAPD

• NCP

• SS7

13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a

minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

• X.25

• DSL

• ATM

• ISDN BRI

• ISDN PRI

14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise

computer departments that support home users?

• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.

• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.

• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.

• DSL has limited geographical availability.

15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer

hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.

• It provides for redundancy.

• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.

• It is less expensive.

• It provides faster connection time.

• It provides less latency and jitter.

16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

• DLCI

• CO

• DCE

• DTE

• PRI

• BRI

17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)

• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.

• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.

• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.

• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.

• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.

• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.

18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN

link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial

connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN

connection?

• Nothing. The router is already suitable.

• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.

• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.

• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.

19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?

• determines the next-hop address for a packet

• multiplexes signals from several sources

• adapts information for use on a service provider's network

• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network

20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.

• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.

• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.

• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.

• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.

21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)

• modem

• router

• CSU/DSU

• ISDN Switch

• Frame Relay Switch

22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)

• CHAP

• Stacker

• IPCP

• CDPCP

• Multilink

23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa

with a password of florida?

• username tampa password florida

• username tampa florida

• hostname tampa password florida

• hostname tampa florida

24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)

• sends unencrypted authentication passwords

• performs a three-way handshake

• allows repeated login attempts

• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity

• sends a random challenge throughout the session

25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)

• to create firewalls on routers

• to conserve IP addresses

• to translate domain names into IP addresses

• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address

• to hide internal addresses from external devices

26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the

company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the

Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)

• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this

traffic interesting.

• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.

• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.

• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.

• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.

• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.

27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?

• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]

• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]

• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]

28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?

• exchange of call setup and teardown messages

• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic

• Layer 2 messages on the D channel

• protocol errors and statistics

• Layer 2 messages on the B channel

29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP

link between two devices? (Choose two.)

• the enable password on the remote device

• the ip host configuration on the remote device

• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device

• the hostname and enable password on the local device

• the local database for the username and password of the remote device

30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for

connectivity?

• 2

• 16

• 23

• 24

• 30

• 128

31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)

• Linux

• Windows 98

• Windows ME

• Windows XP

• Windows 2000

32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the

Orlando office?

• MAC address of the Orlando router

• MAC address of the DC router

• 192.168.1.25

• 192.168.1.26

• DLCI 100

• DLCI 200

33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)

• This is the first data frame sent by the router.

• This is a management frame.

• The encapsulation type is Cisco.

• The encapsulation type is IETF.

• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.

• The LMI type is Cisco.

34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI

interface? (Choose two.)

• Link Access Protocol - Data

• High-Level Data Link Control

• Logical Link Control

• Serial Data Link Control

• Point to Point protocol

• Binary Synchronous Control protocol

35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the

Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?

• 110

• 115

• 220

• 225

36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)

• show frame-relay map

• show frame-relay lmi

• show frame-relay pvc

• show frame-relay interface

• show interfaces

• show ip route

37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the

serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the

local router and sees the following line in the output:

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down

What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)

• remote CSU/DSU failure

• serial cable missing

• interface shutdown

• keepalives not being sent

• clocking signal missing

38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC

to forward the message? (Choose two.)

• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.

• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.

• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.

• A table of static mappings can be searched.

• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.

39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)

• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote

router.

• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.

• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.

• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.

• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.

40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.

• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.

• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.

• The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).

• There is currently no congestion on the link.

41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks?

(Choose three.)

• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits

• map DLCIs to network addresses

• provide flow control

• provide error notification

• provide congestion notification

• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC

42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model?

(Choose three.)

• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.

• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.

• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.

• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.

• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.

• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.

43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)

• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity

• sends authentication password to verify identity

• prevents transmission of login information in plain text

• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails

• initiates a two-way handshake

44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to

be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?


• packet-switched

• frame-switched

• dedicated-switched lines

• lease-switched

45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)

• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.

• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.

• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.

• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.

• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.

46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.

• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.

• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.

• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.

• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

CCNA Exploration 4 : FINAL Exam Answers(C)

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)

• improper placement of enterprise level servers

• addition of hosts to a physical segment

• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices

• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices

• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet

• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer

• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a

management console

3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?

• hold-down timers

• poison reverse

• spanning tree protocol

• time to live

• split horizon protocol

4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the

graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)

• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.

• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.

• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.

• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.

• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.

• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols

5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set'

message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the

Denver router to allow remote access?

• Router(config)# line console 0

Router(config-line)# login

Router(config-line)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# login


• Router(config)# line virtual terminal

Router(config-line)# enable login


• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# enable secret


Router(config)# enable secret cisco

Router(config)# enable cisco

6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

• low processor overhead

• poison reverse

• routing loops

• split horizon

• shortest-path first calculations

7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration

command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?

• The configuration register is set for 0x2100.




• Boot system commands are not configured.

• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM

• Nederst på formularen

8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)

• show ip interface

• show ip route

• show processes

• show running-config

• show cdp neighbor

• show access-lists

9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

• destination address and wildcard mask

• source address and wildcard mask

• subnet mask and wildcard mask

• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699

• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999

10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted

decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)

• most

• host

• all

• any

• some

• sum

11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the

Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose

two).

• 3 collision domains

• 3 broadcast domains

• 5 broadcast domains




12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be

configured on one of the serial interfaces?

• 192.168.16.63/27

• 192.168.16.158/27

• 192.168.16.192/27

• 192.168.16.113/30

• 192.168.16.145/30

• 192.168.16.193/30

13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

• prevents Layer 2 loops

• prevents routing loops on a router

• creates smaller collision domains

• creates smaller broadcast domains

• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?

• activates the OSPF neighboring process

• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process

• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process

15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?

• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.

• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding

16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1

Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1

Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0

• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1

Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1

Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)

• EIGRP

• OSPF

• RIP v1

• RIP v2

• IGRP

18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the

message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?

• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SW1(config-if)# duplex full


SW1(config-if)# full-duplex


SW2(config-if)# duplex full


SW2(config-if)# full-duplex

19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being

forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?

• EIGRP does not support VLSM.

• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.

• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.

• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP

operation?

• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.

• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully

21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the

show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following

devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)

• local router

• local Frame Relay switch

• remote router

• remote Frame Relay switch

• R3 has the following configuration:

• R3# show running-config

• --some output text omitted--

• interface serial0/0

• bandwidth 128

• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0

• encapsulation frame-relay

• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast

22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is

unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router

configuration, what might be problem?

• No clock rate assigned.

• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.

• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.

• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword

23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.

• The LMI type must always be manually configured.

• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.

• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.

• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.

• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE

24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.

• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.

• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.

• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address

configured

25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose

two.)

• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.

• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.

• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.

• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.

• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.

• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR

26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions

such as call setup, signaling, and termination?

• show interface bri0/0

• show isdn active

• debug isdn q921

• debug isdn q931

• debug ppp negotiation

• debug ppp authentication

27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)

• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.

• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.

• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection

28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following

reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

• establishes identities with a two-way handshake

• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities

• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

• transmits login information in encrypted format

• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks

• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?

• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.

• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network

administrator.

• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.

• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link

30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses.

(Choose three.)

• 192.168.14.8

• 192.168.14.16

• 192.168.14.24

• 192.168.14.32

• 192.168.14.148

• 192.168.14.208

31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is

received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic

signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following

groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?

• 1) fast forward

• 2) fragment free

• 3) store-and-forward

• 1) store-and-forward

2) fragment free

3) fast forward

• 1) fragment free

2) fast forward

3) store-and-forward

• 1) fast forward

2) store-and-forward

3) fragment free

32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router

prompt is shown?

• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL

EXTENT OF THE LAW. *

• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT

OF THE LAW.

• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT

OF THE LAW. *

• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT

OF THE LAW.)

• Øverst på formularen

33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the

router? (Choose two.)

• RouterA(config)# router ospf

• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?

• router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.0

• router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

• router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

• router ospf 1

network 192.168.10.0 area 0

35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network

addresses and their metrics?

• TCP

• RIP

• CSMA/CD

• Ethernet

36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?

• a router with a serial interface

• a router with an S/T interface

• a router with a U interface

• an ISDN terminal adapter

37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is

down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose

two.)

• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.

• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.

• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.

• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.

• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device

38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

• data transport reliability

• best path determination

• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits

• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses

• best-effort datagram delivery

39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9?

(Choose two.)

• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.

• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.

• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.

• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.

• This command is used to define a static route

40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

• SMTP

• FTP

• SNMP

• HTTP

• TFTP

• DHCP

41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

• BECN

• DLCI

• DE

• FECN

• LMI

• Inverse ARP

42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?

• Router# show ip interfaces brief

• Router# show ip route

• Router# show cdp neighbors

• Router# show running-config

• Router# show protocols

43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best

route to each destination router?

• router table

• topology table

• DUAL table

• CAM table

• ARP table

44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been

disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached

routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)

• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31

• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63

• serial interface on router A

• serial interface on router B

45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is

operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?

• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0

• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address

• the loopback with the highest IP address configured

• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces

• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces

46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does

this address reside?

• 172.0.0.0

• 172.16.134.0

• 172.16.134.32

• 172.16.134.48

• 172.16.134.47

• 172.16.134.63

47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)

• Router# show ip protocols

• Router# show version

• Router# show interfaces

• Router# show ip updates

• Router# show ip route

48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions

occurring between hosts?

• IP addresses

• subnet masks

• port numbers

• routed protocols

• routing protocols

• interfaces

49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would

describe this address?

• This is a useable host address.

• This is a broadcast address.

• This is a network address.

• This is not a valid address

50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C

IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one

of the subnetworks?

• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192

• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224

• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224

• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

CCNA Exploration 4

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