CHAPTER 1 p1-61 When does a host device issue an ICMP echo request? to initiate a ping to determine if a destination address is reachable to respond to a DNS name query to broadcast its identity to its locally connected neighbors to request the MAC address of a destination IP address

2

What is the maximum T1 transmission speed? 56 kbps 128 kbps 1.544 Mbps 2.4 Mbps

3

At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access? at a POP at an IXP at a Metro Ethernet link on the ISP extranet

4

Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link? customer service help desk network operations on-site installation

5

Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed? customer service help desk network operations planning and provisioning

6

What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-s ized businesses? (Choose three.) DSL cable modem Ethernet metro Ethernet T1 T3

7

What feature enables network devices to be scalable? a fixed number of interfaces ease of repair modularity low maintenance requirements low cost

8

Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP? peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents limits the offered services to small geographic areas

9

which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.) the number of routers between the source and destination device the IP address of the router nearest the destination device the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respons

10

The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and highbandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need? web hosting planning and provisioning application hosting equipment collocation Tier 1 ISP services

11

What was the original purpose of the Internet? voice communication marketing research commerce

12

What is the purpose of an RFC? to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet to document the development and approval of an Internet standard to indicate a contract that a customer signs when purchasing co-location services to document agreements between an ISP and the customer

13

What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth? bits per second bytes per second hertz megabytes per second packets per second

14

What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.) help desk computer support application readiness network operations center planning and provisioning implementation and documentation

15

Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information? help desk customer service network operations center on-site installation team planning and provisioning

16

What interconnects the Internet backbone? MDFs IXPs POPs satellite dishes

17

Refer to the exhibit. A host is having problems maintaining a connection to a server at 192.168.100.2. Which statement best describes the output of the ping command? The server is shut down. The server has no route back to the host. Two routers along the path are not responding to pings. Some packets made it to the destination. Ping services are not supported on the destination.

18

Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across? ping ipconfig tracert netstat nslookup

19 Refer to the exhibit. Host A cannot connect to the web server at 192.168.100.2. Based on the output of the tracert command, which device is most likely causing the problem? Router A Router B Router C Router D Router E Router F

CHAPTER 2 p7-121 The DHCP server in a lab environment is down when multiple DHCP clients in the lab are booted for the first time. Which two statements describe how the DHCP clients will be affected by the absence of a DHCP server during boot? (Choose two.) The clients will not boot completely until the DHCP server resumes functioning. The clients will attempt via the use of the IP address 127.0.0.1 to communicate with the other clients. All clients with link-local addresses will communicate with each other in a peer-to-peer manner. A link-local address will be automatically assigned to the hosts by the operating system. A link-local process will use a DNS query to determine if any other device uses the same linklocal address.

2

Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model? routes data between networks converts data to bits for transmission delivers data reliably across the network using TCP formats and encodes data for transmission transmits data to the next directly connected device

3

Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket? The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket. Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket. After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff. When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

4

Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.) placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission initiating the network communication process encrypting and compressing data for transmission segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

5

Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model? An incorrect IP address on the default gateway. A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration. A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server. An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

6

A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first? Can you access other web sites? Is there a firewall installed on your computer? What is your IP address? Is the link light lit on your NIC card?

7

What are two primary goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.) conserving support resources network optimization competitive scalability customer retention

8

What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.) opening a trouble ticket using diagnostic tools to identify the problem surveying network conditions for further analysis configuring new equipment and software upgrades adhering to a problem-solving strategy e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

9

Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.) ping a packet sniffer Telnet ipconfig traceroute

10

What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model? bits, frames, packets, segments frames, bits, packets, segments packets, frames, segments, bits segments, packets, frames, bits

11

What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.) adding the hardware address converting data to bits encapsulating data into frames signal generation routing packets

12

A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottomup troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.) Is the NIC link light blinking? What is the IP address and subnet mask? Can the default gateway be successfully pinged? Is the network cable properly attached to the modem? Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC? Can you access your e-mail account?

13

A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.) What is your subnet mask? What is your IP address? Is the NIC link light blinking? Can you ping the default gateway? Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem? Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?

14

Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks? source MAC address destination MAC address source IP address destination IP address

15

What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem? identify and prioritize alternative solutions isolate the cause of the problem define the problem select an evaluation process

16

While troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a host, a network administrator issues the ping 127.0.0.1 command. The pings are unsuccessful. What is most likely the problem? The TCP/IP stack is not loaded properly. The default gateway is down. ARP is not functioning correctly. An IP address has not been assigned to the host.

17

An accounting firm experiencing connectivity issues requires Level 3 support from the ISP. Which function requires Level 3 or higher support? the diagnosis of basic network connectivity the use of diagnostic tools to identify problems the installation and configuration of new equipment the documentation of basic user issues

18

What Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose Internet connectivity? wrong subnet mask wrong default gateway loose network cable wrong MAC address faulty printer cable

19

In what three ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to identify a customer's problems? (Choose three.) talking to the customer on the telephone upgrading hardware and software using various web tools making an onsite visit installing new equipment with remote desktop sharing applications

20

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to communicate with any other hosts. On this network is a DHCP server that is responsible for assigning addresses to hosts. Based on the output of the ipconfig command on host A, what is the most likely cause of the problem? The host did not get addressing configuration from the DHCP server. The DNS server could not be reached. The default gateway interface is down. The IP address is a public address and should be private.

CHAPTER 3 p13-181 A network technician is assigned to perform a site visit to a customer location to determine the requirements for a network upgrade. In addition to the currently installed equipment inventory, what other information about the hosts and networking devices should the technician obtain from the customer? the cost of the currently installed equipment all product keys for site license software any planned growth anticipated in the near future the memory requirements for installed application software

2

Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.) unlabeled cables only two power outlets per wall in each room poor physical security of network devices horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters lack of UPS for critical devices two users sharing the same computer

3

What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.) the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals the path that the data takes through a network the wireless signal coverage area the wiring closet and access point locations the device names and Layer 3 addressing information the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

4

When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.) configure the servers and routers prior to delivery upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems investigate and document the physical layout of the premises document the final design for approval by the customer perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

5

What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room? MDF POP IDF IXP

6

Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.) user workstations switches and routers fax machines network equipment racks the point of presence copier

7

Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains? repeater hub router switch

8

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device? A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

9

Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design? to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion to review the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10

Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.) faster communication speeds improved physical security more resistant to hacker attempts centralized cable management less electrical usage

11

What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network? scalability manageability compatibility reliability

12

Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering? STP UTP coaxial fiber optic

13

What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider? backbone area point of presence network distribution facility intermediate distribution frame

14

In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.) Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment. The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer. Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable. Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade. The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

15

What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router? An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device. ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management. An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures. ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

16

It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this? A down time of .00001% is unacceptable. A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time. Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements. The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week. The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

17

A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to accomodate growing network demands. What characteristic must this device have to meet this requirement? ability to monitor operation and change the settings for a device modular physical configuration ability to manage the device remotely ports that can be activated and deactivated

18

Refer to the exhibit. To allow IP communication between the two networks, what type of device is required? hub router switch access point

19

What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.) do not require leasing costs for the services predictable billing eliminate the need for data backup increase availability of help desk services do not require a Service Level Agreement

20

A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two procedures describe the selection and design phase components of the upgrade process? (Choose two.) Bring the network into service. Create and test prototypes. Monitor the operation and record changes. Identify and address the weaknesses of the design. Compare the user experience with the goals in the documentation.

CHAPTER 4 p19-241 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits? 128 254 255 256 512 1024

2

Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below. 11110010 11011011 11110110 11100111 11100101 11101110

3

How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask? 254 255 256 510 511 512

4

What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask? 192.168.0.0 192.168.0.255 192.168.32.0 192.168.32.254

192.168.32.255 5 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet? 6 14 30 62

6

Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network? Class A Class B Class C Class D Class E

7

Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks? Class A Class B Class C Class D Class E

8

Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses? Public addresses cannot be used within a private network. Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet. Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network. Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.

Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

9

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem? The host subnet mask is incorrect. The default gateway is a network address. The default gateway is a broadcast address. The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

10

What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.) to preserve registered public IP addresses to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet to make routing protocols operate more efficiently to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

11

IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits? 64 96 128 192 256 512

12

What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address? 127 to 191 127 to 192 128 to 191 128 to 192

13

Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.) It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit. The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network. Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100. Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address. All subnets in a network are the same size. Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

14

Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT? Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address. A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address. Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments. Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

15

What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet? The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address. The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address. The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address. The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

16

Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address? 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

17

Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks? 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

18

Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type? inside global outside local outside global private IP address

19

A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time? Configure static NAT for all ten users. Configure dynamic NAT for ten users. Configure dynamic NAT with overload. Configure DHCP and static NAT.

20

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server? 10.1.1.2 172.30.20.1 172.30.20.10 192.168.1.1

Chapter 5 p25-341 What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"? - Router> enable Router# configure terminal Router(config)# hostname LAB_A - Router> enable Router# hostname LAB_A - Router> enable Router# configure router Router(config)# hostname LAB_A - Router> enable Router(config)# host name LAB_A

2

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) VTY interface console interface Ethernet interface secret EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode router configuration mode

3

A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible? console AUX Telnet Modem

4

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) View a list of commands entered in a previous session. Recall up to 15 command lines by default. Set the command history buffer size. Recall previously entered commands. Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

5

A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display? global configuration mode setup mode ROM monitor mode user EXEC mode

6

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit? transmission of data reception of data clocking for the synchronous link noise cancellation in transmitted data

7

In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.) SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-ofband management. SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser. SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices. SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands. SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

8

What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.) host name DHCP options domain name interface IP addresses enable secret password DNS server IP addresses

9

Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.) ATM CHAP Frame Relay HDLC PAP PPP

10

What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? host name domain name DHCP address pool DNS server IP address

11

To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination? Tab Ctrl-P Ctrl-N Up Arrow Right Arrow Down Arrow

12

How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? blinks rapidly green steady amber steady green no light

13

Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch? Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop. Telnet to the switch from the router console. Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console. The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

14

Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.) platform routing protocol connected interface of neighbor device device ID IP addresses of all interfaces enable mode password

15

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2? - Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252 Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000 Router2(config-if)# no shutdown - Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252 Router2(config-if)# no shutdown - Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252 Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000 Router2(config-if)# no shutdown - Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0 Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252 Router2(config-if)# no shutdown

16

When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.) Static IP Address Frame Relay encapsulation IP Negotiated HDLC encapsulation IP Unnumbered

17

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1 X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126 X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190 X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192 X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

18

Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue? Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB. Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24. Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA. Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB. Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioning properly.

19

What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface? The interface must be shut down. The interface must be in access mode. The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured. The violation mode must be configured.

20

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true? The port has been shut down. Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port. There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port. Port security has been violated seven times on this port.

21

Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.) - Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192 - Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security - Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192 Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown - Switch1(config)# line con 0 Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login - Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)# login - Switch1(config)# enable secret class Switch1(config)# exit

22

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.) All router commands are available. Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command. This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up. Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured. Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

23

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router? - 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a straight through cable 3) the router's console port - 1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a crossover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port - 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port - 1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's console port -1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's console port -1) PC's Ethernet port 2) a rollover cable 3) the router's Ethernet port

24

An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed? the current configuration stored in RAM the networks learned from other neighbors the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses

25

A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excessive collisions are detected. What is the cause of this problem? The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch. There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port. The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC. The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

26

Which two statements are true about the NVRAM on a Cisco device?(Choose two.) stores the routing table retains contents when power is removed stores the startup configuration file contains the running configuration file stores the ARP table

CHAPTER 6 p34-411 What is the purpose of a routing protocol? It is used to build and maintain ARP tables. It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets. It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network. It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers. It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

2

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols? Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged. Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged. Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged. Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

3

In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)? when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork when more than one interior routing protocol is used when the company uses two or more ISPs

4

What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority? Internet intranet virtual private network autonomous system

5

Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol? BGP EIGRP OSPF RIP

6

What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data? border gateway router DSLAM web server interior router

7

Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions? source IP address source MAC address destination IP address destination MAC address

8

What statement is true regarding an AS number? AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use. Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers. ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers. All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

9

Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs? BGP EIGRP OSPF RIP v2

10

What type of route is this? R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1 a static route a default route a RIP route an OSPF route an EIGRP route a directly-connected route

11

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available? in 30 seconds in 60 seconds in 90 seconds immediately

12

What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates? metric subnet mask area identification hop count autonomous system number

13

What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.) a home business with one ISP connection a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

14

Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) They are created in interface configuration mode. They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes. They automatically become the default gateway of the router. They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

15

What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations. Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains. Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

16

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown? routerA(config-router)# no version 2 routerA(config)# interface fa0/0 routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0 routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0 routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

17

What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP? to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

18

Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why? A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric

19

Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from RTA to HostB? 14 15 16 17

20

Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do? drop the packet use the default route forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0 forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64

CHAPTER 7 p42-481 A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client? applies the default service configured in directory services uses ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router sends a request to the client asking for the appropriate service identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field

2

What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake? It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts. It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data. It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers. It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

3

What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.) connection oriented full-duplex operation low overhead no flow control no error-recovery function reliable transmission

4

Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair? source port with destination port source IP address with destination port source IP address and destination IP address source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

5

What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur? dynamic zone transfer local recursive query root domain query top-level domain query

6

Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name? dynamic lookup forward lookup resolution lookup reverse lookup

7

Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.) maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries maintaining the ISP server mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

8

Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server? SNMP FTP SMTP HTTPS

9

A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.) FTP HTTP DNS SNMP DHCP SMTP

10

To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.) accessibility adaptability availability reliability scalability

11

Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.) The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model. The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols. The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model. The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection. The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

12

What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP? caching-only root second-level top-level

13

Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.) DNS - 25 FTP - 110 HTTP - 80 POP3 - 25 SMTP 25

14

What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.) It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses. It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers. It supports authentication. It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows. It encrypts packets with SSL. It requires additional server processing time.

15

User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.) It utilizes TCP port 110. A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message. It utilizes a store and forward process. The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server. SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

16

Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.) source port window checksum destination port acknowledgment number sequence number

17

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.) IP address MAC address session number sequence number

18

What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.) Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability. Reliability is measured based on the number of applications in use on the network. The longer the MTTR, the greater the reliability. Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability. The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability. An ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all of its customers.

19

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2. Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2. Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1. Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

20

Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request? Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80 Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045 Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80 Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061

21

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.) If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically. The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10. If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried. The command ping mypc will use IP address 172.16.5.1. Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS

22

Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.) It uses well-known port 23. The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function. The FTP client initiates the transfer of data when using a passive data connection. It requires two connections between client and server. FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

CHAPTER 8 p49-531 Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router? encryption TCP usage authorization connection using six VTY lines

2

Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information? query broadcast ICMP ping trap poll

3

What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from the Internet? "clean" LAN intranet DMZ Extranet

4

Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up? daily differential full incremental partial

5

A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should be deployed? packet filtering proxy stateful packet inspection stateless packet inspection

6

Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for transmission across the internet? (Choose three.) SMTP IPSEC SSL HTTPS FTP TFTP

7

What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used for communication? HTTPS IMAP FTPS IPSEC TLS

8

Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.) date and time of message ID of sending device length of message message ID checksum field community ID

9

What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources? auditing accounting authorization access control authentication acknowledgement

10

A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator take? (Choose two.) Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs. Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs. Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested. Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks. Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.

11

A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network? The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key. The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop NIC. The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the wireless LAN. The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC address to the list of permitted addresses.

12

What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network? It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access. It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point. It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with enterprise equipment. It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list of approved MAC addresses.

13

When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary? when a server needs to be monitored across the network when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP

14

What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data? (Choose two.) Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data. Data tapes are difficult to store offsite. Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often. Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability. Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.

15 Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet, the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have? It logs the user out of router A. It suspends the connection to router B. It closes the connection to router B. It logs the user out of both router A and router B.

16

What two measures help to verify that server backups have been successfully completed? (Choose two.) reviewing backup logs performing a trial restore performing full backups only replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape

17

Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.) FTP HTTP SNMP Telnet TFTP DHCP

18

Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.) ports physical addresses packet size frame sequence number protocols

19

Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior, and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across the network? authentication accreditation accounting authorization

20

While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean? The transfer is working. The TFTP server is not responding. The IOS file is corrupt and is failing the checksum verification. There is not enough space in flash to hold the image.

21

What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish? It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server. It copies the startup-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server. It copies the running-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server. It copies the configuration register settings in flash to a TFTP server.

CHAPTER 9 p53-61

1

Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.) The loopback address is not set. The encapsulation type is mismatched. A cable is not attached to the interface. Keepalive messages are not being received. The interface is administratively shut down.

2

A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is correctly recognized by the router? show flash: show version show ip route show startup-configuration

3

Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.) cables that exceed maximum length encapsulation errors viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic poor termination of cables receiving "line protocol down" messages on the router console

4

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.) FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly. The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0. FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup. Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem. FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem. Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in the output.

5

A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port? There is a duplex mismatch error. There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames. The port is operational and ready to transmit packets. This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames. The flash memory is busy.

6

A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method is the administrator employing? top-down bottom-up divide-and-conquer impossible to determine from this information

7

A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue? top-down bottom-up divide-and-conquer impossible to determine from this information

8

Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model? A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host. A host has an incorrect IP address. A router has no route to a host. A host sent a malformed HTTP request.

9

An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup, the administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring? Layer 2 Layer 4 Layer 5 Layer 6

10

A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network. However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the PC and the FTP server? cable tester digital multimeter protocol analyzer network analyzer

11

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity problems between hosts and servers? HostA HostB Server1 Server2 R1 Fa0/0 R1 Fa0/1

12

An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem? improper IP address configuration on the host hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP bad cables or connections at the customer site failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

13

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.) R2 is using a different version of RIP. R2 has a missing network statement. R1 has an incorrect network statement. R3 has an incorrect network statement. A routing loop is occurring between all three routers.

14

How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide? 254 128 127 126 64 62

15

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme? Serial0/0 is configured with a network address. The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1. Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address. The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.

16

Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.) There is no route to the Internet. The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect. The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect. The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction. The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

17

Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What is the problem? The PC is on the wrong subnet. The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1. The default gateway should be 192.168.2.2. The DNS server is incorrect. The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect.

18

A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem? Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC? Do you have a link light on your network card? Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP? What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings? Can you ping www.cisco.com?

19

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the IP address configuration? Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 can be in the same subnet. Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkA can be in the same subnet. Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet. Interface Fa0/1 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.

20

Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) ping show arp traceroute show ip route show controllers show cdp neighbor