CCNA 1 Practice Exam Final 2010
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Transcript of CCNA 1 Practice Exam Final 2010
8/7/2019 CCNA 1 Practice Exam Final 2010
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1.
Top of Form
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
Bottom of Form
2.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from
Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/
3.
Top of Form
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Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choosetwo.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
4.Top of Form
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM
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5.Bottom of Form
Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network
associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to
correct the network issue?
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
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issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G A, B, E, F C, D, G, I G, H, I, J
7. Top of Form
7.
Refer to the exhibit. The command that is shown was issued on a PC. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2represent?
IP address of the host
default gateway of the host
IP address of the homepage for the host
primary domain name server for the host
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IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.loca
8. Top of Form
8. Which OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
transport
Network
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9. Top of Form
9. Which OSI layer manages data segments?
application layer presentation layer session layer transport layer
10. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uniquely identifies each host.
It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
It is not a configurable address.
It is a physical address.
It identifies the host from the first part of the address.
11. Top of Form
11. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?access switch
DHCP server
hub
Route
12.Bottom of Form
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Bottom of Form12. Top of Form
12. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
the host portion of the IP address
the network portion of the IP address
host default gateway address
the MAC address
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13.
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different
devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-throughcable
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14.
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Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the
ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the
output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
This PC cannot communicate with other networks
. The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet
. The assigned address is a private address
15.
Top of Form
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 usingmodem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
console
Ethernet
auxiliary
serial
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16.
Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star ring point-to-point multi-access
17. Top of Form
17.
Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
PC
switch
router interface fa0/0
router interface fa0/1
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18.Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A tothe router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
It provides out-of-band console access.
It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. Bottom of Form
19.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.
20. Top of Form
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20.
Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC.However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 toenable the PC to access the Internet?
192.168.1.191
192.168.1.101
192.168.1.1
192.168.1.254
21.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Ciscoswitch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
rollover cable
serial cable
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22. Top of Form
22. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
172.16.0.1
192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1
23. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses inthis range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
24.
24. Top of Form
A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password shouldthe administrator use?
enable
aux
console
VTY
25.
Top of Form
While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should thetechnician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
Router(config)#
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Router(config-line)#
26.
26. Top of Form
Which three IPv4 addresses represent subnet broadcast addresses? (Choose three.)
192.168.4.63 /26
192.168.4.129 /26
192.168.4.191 /26
192.168.4.51 /27
192.168.4.95 /27
192.168.4.221 /27
27.Bottom of Form
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During the encapsulation process, what identifiers are added at the transport layer?
source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
source and destination port numbers
source and destination channel identifiers
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28. Refer to the exhibit. Which service is needed in order for the hosts to access the Internet?
NAT
RIP
FTP
DHCP
29. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is theresult? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches
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30. Refer to the exhibit. A web browser running on host PC1 sends a request for a web page to the web serverwith an IP address 192.168.1.254/24. What sequence of steps will follow in order to establish the session beforedata can be exchanged?
The session will be initiated using UDP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish thesession.
The session will be initiated using TCP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish thesession.
The session will be initiated using UDP. The returned web page will serve as an acknowledgment for session establishment.
The session will be initiated using TCP. A three-way handshake must be successfully completed before thesession is established
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31. Thetracert 10.1.3.2 command was issued on computer A. Computer A can ping otheraddresses on the local subnet. Computer A sent the first ICMP packet toward computer B with aTTL value of 1. A protocol analyzer that was running on computer B showed that the packet
never reached its destination. Why did the packet not reach the destination?
There is a TCP/IP problem on computer A.
There is a routing loop between R1 and R2.
R1 does not have a route for the destination network.
The TTL for the packet was decreased to zero by R1
32.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame to host C with a destination MAC address CC. The MACaddress for host C is not in the MAC table of switch SW1. How will SW1 handle the frame?
Switch SW1 will drop the frame.
Switch SW1 will forward the frame to host C.
Switch SW1 will flood the frame out all ports. .
Switch SW1 will flood the frame out all ports except port Fa0/1
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33. What information is used at each hop to determine where the packet will be forwarded next?
the IP packet header
the incoming interface
the transport layer PDU
the source MAC address
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34. A user sees the command prompt: Router(config-if)# . What task can be performed at this mode?
Reload the device.
Perform basic tests.
Configure individual interfaces.
Configure individual terminal lines
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35. Which exhibit shows the interface that is configured by the command, router(config)#
interface serial 0/0/1?
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36.
Top of Form
Which combination of connectors will be used to make a straight-through cable when building a LAN to theT568A standard?
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37. Which topology divides the collision domain and provides full media bandwidth to the hosts in the networ
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•
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38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has been asked to test connectivity from PC1 to a remote network. Waction will indicate if there is remote connectivity?
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39. A network administrator is configuring several switches for a network. The switches have similar configurations and only minor differences. The administrator wants to save all commands that are issued on thefirst switch to a text file for editing. Which transfer option should be selected in HyperTerminal?
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•
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40. Refer to the exhibit. Which option shows the correct topology given the configuration of Router1?
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41. Top of Form
If an administrator wished to return a router to the default state, what additional step must be taken after issuthe command erase start-up config?
Reload the device.
Issue the command copy running-config start-up config.
Perform a show running-config to verify that the file was removed.
Enter the interface commands to allow the device to connect to the network
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42. Which statement is true about router hostnames?
A hostname should be unique on each router.
A router hostname cannot contain capital letters.
A router hostname is configured in privileged executive mode.
A router hostname must be created before any other configurations can be added to thedevice.
43. Top of Form
43. What purpose does a hostname serve on a router?
uniquely identifies a router on the internet
used by routing protocols to identify peer routers
provides device identification to users logging on remotely
determines the hosts that are allowed to connect to the device
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44. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram depicts the path through the network that is
represented in the output of the tracert command?
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45. Which fiber connector supports full-duplex Ethernet?
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Top of Form
46. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYNmessage to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host2.
Host1 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host2.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 0, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 0 to Host1.
Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.
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47. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
bus
Mesh
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48. Which command can be issued on a PC to determine which TCP/IP ports are in use?
tracert
netstat
nslookup
ipconfig /all
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49. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician creates equal-sized subnets of network 192.168.2.0/24 using thesubnet mask 255.255.255.224. If the technician wishes to calculate the number of host addresses in each subnetby using the formula that is shown in the exhibit, what value will be used for n?
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1
2
3
4
5
50. Top of Form
50. A user types theenable command. What task can be performed at the privileged EXEC mode?
Configure the device.
Configure individual interfaces.
Configure individual terminal lines.
Issue show and debug commands
1. 1correctness of response 2 points for Option 40 points for any other option 22Bottom of Form
Bottom of FormBottom of FormBottom of FormBottom of Form
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2. correctness of response 2 points for Option 2
0 points for any other option 22
3. correctness of response Option 3 and Option 4 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 22
4. correctness of response 2 points for Option 2
0 points for any other option 22
5. correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
6. correctness of response 2 points for Option 10 points for any other option 22
7. correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
8. correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
9. correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
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10.correctness of response Option 1, Option 2, and Option 3 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 33
11.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
12.correctness of response 2 points for Option 2
0 points for any other option 22
13.correctness of response 2 points for Option 5
0 points for any other option 22
14.correctness of response Option 2, Option 3, and Option 6 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 32
15.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
16.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
17.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
18.correctness of response 2 points for Option 20 points for any other option 20
19.correctness of response Option 1 and Option 3 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 2
20.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
21.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
22.correctness of response Option 1, Option 4, and Option 5 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.0 points if more options are selected than required. 33
23.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
24.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 22
25.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
26.correctness of response Option 1, Option 3, and Option 5 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 30
27.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
28.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 22
29.correctness of response Option 3 and Option 5 are correct.
1 point for each correct option.
0 points if more options are selected than required. 22
30.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
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31.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 2
32.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
33.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 22
34.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
35.correctness of response 2 points for Option 5
0 points for any other option 22
36.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 22
37.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
38.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 20
39.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
40.correctness of response 2 points for Option 10 points for any other option 22
41.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 22
42.correctness of response 2 points for Option 1
0 points for any other option 2
43.correctness of response 2 points for Option 3
0 points for any other option 22
44.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 20
45.correctness of response 2 points for Option 30 points for any other option 22
46.correctness of response 2 points for Option 6
0 points for any other option 20
47.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22
48.correctness of response 2 points for Option 2
0 points for any other option 22
49.correctness of response 2 points for Option 5
0 points for any other option 20
50.correctness of response 2 points for Option 4
0 points for any other option 22