Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs)and

Commercial Air Service Standards (CASS)

Part VII - Subpart 5

Guidance Material

Preamble

The Guidance Material provided in this publication is Transport Canada policy. It is for use by Transport Canada - Civil Aviation and the aeronautical industry. The Guidance Material is part of an evolving process in Canadian Aviation Regulations and will be developed on an ongoing basis.

Being explanatory by nature, guidance material is provided for any regulation or standard when:

1. the subject area is complex and needs a detailed explanation so that there is a consistent understanding by all constituents;

2. the words used could have multiple meanings or could be interpreted differently when used in a different context; or

3. questions have arisen regarding the interpretation or intent of the regulations or standards.

Canadian Aviation Regulation Numbering System

The Canadian Aviation Regulations provides an integrated numbering system. The following is a brief explanation of this numbering system.

Using section number 705.20 as example, we will describe the meaning of each digit:

7 The first digit identifies to which Part of the Canadian Aviation Regulations this section refers. The example is showing that regulation 705.20 will be found in Part VII (Commercial Air Services).

0 The second digit refers to the applicable publication and may vary as follow:

705.20 is the regulation imposing the requirements for an Operational Control System and it is found in the Canadian Aviation Regulations;

725.20 is the corresponding section of the Commercial Air Service Standards where the various options for Operational Control System are described;

745.20 is the corresponding section of the guidance material found various aspects of the Operational control system, such as approval procedures, inspection; etc.

5 The third digit identifies the subpart of the Canadian Aviation Regulations to which this section refers. The example shows that regulation 705.20 will be found in subpart 5 of Part VII (Airline Operations).

.20 The two or three digits right of the dot are a unique number attributed to each individual section. Number ".20", when used in 705/725/745/765 deals with Operational Control System throughout all publications.

Guidance Material Numbering System

Guidance material may provide explanations on either publication, the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs - 705 numbers) or the Commercial Air Service Standards (CASS - 725 numbers).

For ease of reference, guidance material is numbered as follows:

- numbers preceded by the letter "R" provide explanation to a section of the CARs (e.g. R745.20 provides explanation on CAR 705.20);

- numbers preceded by the letter "S" provide explanation to the appropriate section of the CASS (e.g. S745.20 provides explanation on CASS 725.20); and

- numbers preceded by both letters, "R" and "S", provide explanation to both, CARs and CASS (e.g. RS745.20 provides explanation on both CAR 705.20 and CASS 725.20).

Alternate Methods of Complying with the Regulation

Where an air operator proposes a different means of conforming with a regulation or standard it will be assessed for acceptability against the following criteria:

1. Does it provide an equivalent level of safety?

2. Is it less or more restrictive than the "normal" means of compliance?

3. Does it address the same intent and issues as the "normal" means of compliance?4. Does it utilise the most advanced or proven information available?

The above list may not be appropriate in some circumstances and additional criteria will be considered as necessary.

For questions, proposals or comments concerning this publication, please contact the following:

Office of Primary Interest: Commercial & Business AviationOperational Standards

Phone: (613) 998-3684

Facsimile: (613) 954-1602

Address: Transport Canada BuildingPlace de VilleTower 'C' (AARXB)330 Sparks StreetOttawa, OntarioK1A 0N8

Canadian Aviation Regulationand

Commercial Air Service Standards

Part VII - Subpart 5

Guidance Material

Definitions

The following definitions will apply when used for the purpose of this guidance material, and with respect to the regulations and standards for which it provides guidance.

First flight of the day: the first flight of the day with respect to an aircraft, is the first flight that departs an airport after 00:00 on that calendar day, based on the time system normally used in that aircraft's journey log book (UTC or local time).

Division I

General

745.01 Application

For the purpose of clarification, this subpart also applies to all cargo aircraft having a MCTOW of more than 19,000 pounds such as the C46, C130, DC-3, DC-4, L382, etc.

Division II

Certification

745.07 Issuance or Amendment of Air Operator Certificate

S745.07(1) - Application for an Air Operator Certificate

An applicant for an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) should request from Transport Canada the documents "Canadian Commercial Air Services Certification Requirements" and "Starting a Commercial Air Service".

These documents provide advice on what matters should be considered when planning a proposed commercial air service and they set out the basic requirements of Transport Canada. These documents may be requested from the appropriate Regional Office.

Certification Process:

(a) The certification process is initiated by completing and submitting a Statement of Intent form 26-0380 to Transport Canada.

(b) Subsequent forms to be submitted are listed in standard 725.07(1).

(c) Certification involves an inspection from Transport Canada which can take approximately 60 days from the time of making formal application (the time of formal application is considered to be the time when all documentation is complete, accurate and has been submitted to Transport Canada).

(d) Applicants for an AOC must also apply for a licence from the Canadian Transportation Agency (CTA). The CTA licence is required for the carriage of passengers and/or goods, but is not required for specialty operations (aerial work).

Amendments to the AOC:

Amendments to the AOC should also be applied for through the appropriate Regional Office. Information on the required forms is contained in the Certification Manual TP4711 as well as on the back of the required forms. TP4711 is an internal manual to Transport Canada that is referred to by air carrier inspectors; however, it is available if requested.

S745.07(1)(h) - Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

(a) MEL Amendments Following Foreign Approved MMEL Revisions.

Air Operators are allowed to submit amended MELs for Transport Canada approval immediately following the reception of a foreign approved MMEL revision. These amended MELs may then be approved by the Regional Office/AARX, provided they are not in contradiction with or less restrictive than the current Transport Canada Supplement. This, however, does not preclude an air operator from having to further amend a MEL if a Transport Canada Supplement amendment is introduced following the normal Transport Canada review of the MMEL revision. Should any conflict exist between the foreign MMEL

and an existing Transport Canada Supplement, the Transport Canada Supplement shall prevail.

(b) Establishment of a new MEL

A new MEL shall combine the manufacturer’s MMEL and the applicable Transport Canada Supplement. The approval of a MEL is the responsibility of the Regional Office and should be co-ordinated with the air operator and the Principle air Operations Inspector (POI).

S745.07(2) - Operations Manager - Qualifications

The air operator may use a different nomenclature for this position; however, the position shall be identified to Transport Canada as the Operations Manager.

An organization may have one individual filling the roles of Operations Manager, Chief Pilot and Flight Attendant Manager, as long as the requisite duties and responsibilities are assumed in totality and all requisite qualifications are met.

The form in Appendix A will help establish the qualifications required of the Operations Manager as per 725.07(2)(a)(i).

S745.07(2)(b)(i) - Chief Pilot - Qualifications

The operator may use a different nomenclature for this position; however, the position shall be identified to Transport Canada as the Chief Pilot. An organization may have more than one Chief Pilot if desired, as long as the requisite duties and responsibilities are assumed in totality by each designated individual.

Further, if more than one Chief Pilot is identified, there must be a clear delineation of responsibility i.e. a Chief Pilot may be responsible for a specific geographic region, aircraft type, etc.

The form in Appendix B will help establish the qualifications required of the Chief Pilot as per 725.07(2)(b)(i).

R745.07 (2)(b)(iv) Flight Attendant Manager - ApprovalS745.07 (2)(d) Flight Attendant Manager - Qualifications and Responsibilities

“Process for Approval of a Flight Attendant Manager” which is contained in Appendix C provides complete details regarding the approval process, qualifications and responsibilities of the Flight Attendant Manager.

S745.07(2) - Absence from Duty: Operations Manager, Chief Pilot or Flight Attendant Manager

There must be a mechanism to allow delegation of authority for the position when the Operations Manager, Chief Pilot or Flight Attendant Manager is off duty. This would apply for both short term and long term absences.

The intent is to ensure that a capable person is in charge at any time that flight operations are being conducted. The Operations Manager, Chief Pilot or Flight Attendant Manager need not be physically present at the company but must be able to fully exercise their authority as required.

When the Operations Manager, Chief Pilot or Flight Attendant Manager are unable to exercise their full authority over flight operations, another individual qualified in accordance with the standards must be available to do so on their behalf.

S745.07(3)(d) - Training Course for the Flight Safety Officer

A training course for the person accountable for managing the flight safety program can be developed by the operator or an outside organization and shall meet the requirements of 725.07(3)(d).

Each regional System Safety office offers a Safety Officer course that meets the requirements of the CARs. There may be other institutions world wide that also meet the standard; however, the course syllabus must meet the intent of the CASS. Flight Safety Officers are encouraged to attend the Company Aviation Safety Officer's Course, which is provided by Transport Canada. This course includes a detailed manual covering all aspects of the Flight Safety program.

S745.07(3)(g) - Emergency Response Plan

The Emergency Response Plan is an internal company or organization plan which is used in conjunction with existing airport emergency response plans or municipal or regional disaster plans.

The Emergency Response Plan is designed to be used by company management in case of emergencies. The Emergency Response Plan is not required to be part of the Company Operations Manual (COM); however, there should be adequate guidance to operations personnel to ensure that they are aware of who to contact in the event of an emergency.

745.08 Contents of Air Operator Certificate

R745.08 - Operations Specifications

Application for Operations Specifications (Part IV of the Air Operator Certificate) must be made to the appropriate Regional Office.

R745.08(g)(vi) - Authorizations for Navigation System

Transport Canada approval for long range navigation systems which are not dependent on VOR or NDB information (INS, GPS, IRS/FMS, LORAN, etc.) can be accomplished by means of an Operations Specification.

The air operator must apply for an Operations Specification detailing equipment to be used, pilot training, operating conditions and any other information considered pertinent to the accuracy and safety of the operation. Unless otherwise specified, the Operations Specification will not permit the use of non-ground based navigation aids within the terminal area.

R745.08(g)(x) - Authorizations for Use of Synthetic Flight Training Devices

Transport Canada approval is required for the use of synthetic flight training devices in training programs, requalification programs and pilot proficiency checks.

R745.08(g)(xi) - Authorizations - Others

The Air Operator Certificate shall include any authorizations deemed to be necessary for aviation safety and not addressed in the CARs.

Division III

Flight Operations

745.16 Exceptions

R745.16 - Exceptions

An air operator operating a flight with only company personnel on board may operate in accordance with CARs Subpart 604.

R745.16(3)(c) - Two Way Communication with the flight crew members

Passengers and flight crew members shall be able to communicate with each other during normal, abnormal and emergency situations.

A means of communication can be anything that permits information and instructions to flow unobstructed to and from the flight deck. This can be through interphones, megaphones or through spoken or shouted words or any other means that allows both parties to be heard and understood.

745.17 Operating Instructions

R745.17(1) - Definition of "All Operations Personnel":

"All operations personnel" means any person whose duties and responsibilities involve maintenance, loading, unloading, dispatching, servicing, weight and balance, and passenger handling (involved with passenger boarding), and includes flight crew members, cabin crew members, schedulers, flight dispatchers, deicing crews, ramp personnel and anyone else whose position has an effect on the aircraft operation or the safety of the flight.

745.18 General Operational Information

R745.18 - General Operational Information

Dissemination of information necessary to the safe conduct of the flight must be received prior to flight time.

The distribution of information can be done through computer, manual amendments, flight dispatch, bulletin board notices, telephone calls etc. The method(s) should be outlined in the COM and, where flight attendants are carried, in the Flight Attendant Manual.

The procedure for acknowledgement of this information shall also be outlined in the COM. It can be accomplished in writing, verbally to a responsible company person who records the acknowledgement, or through other approved procedures. This could also mean pilot signature on an operational flight plan if SOPs require the pilot to check certain sources of information prior to the flight.

745.19 Scheduled Air Service Requirements

R745.19(1) - Definition of Scheduled Air Service

Transport Canada Regulatory Committee has agreed to include the following definition in a subsequent amendment to Part I of the CARs. The definition is included in this Guidance Material as an interim reference.

“Scheduled Air Service” means a publicly available air transport service that provides transportation for passengers between points and serves those points in accordance with a published schedule at a charge per seat. (service aérien régulier)

R745.19(2) - Criteria for Authorization

Before an air operator is issued with an authorization to operate a scheduled air service from an aerodrome, the aerodrome shall be assessed by Transport Canada as safe for the aeroplane type being operated. Approval of the aerodrome for the purposes of scheduled air service will be in the form of an Operations Specification.

For the purposes of this section a military aerodrome is considered to be a certified airport.

Refer to TP312E for criteria against which an aerodrome will be evaluated before the above mentioned authorization is given.

The following is a summary of these requirements:

1. navigation aids, approach aids, runway length, runway surface, facilities, and obstacle clearance criteria are such as to permit safe operation of the aeroplane type under consideration; and

2. an obstacle clearance assessment must be accomplished to ensure compliance with 705.56 and 705.57 (performance requirements).

745.20 Operational Control System

S745.20 - Approval of Operational Control Systems where an Air Operator Has Operations Under More than One Type of Operational Control System

A single Air Operator Certificate will be issued to air operators operating aircraft under multiple subparts of the CARs. As an example, an air operator may operate Boeing 727 and Twin Otter aeroplanes. The Air Operator Certificate will show that the Boeing 727 shall be operated under CARs Part VII, Subpart 5 (705) and the Twin Otter under CARs Part VII, Subpart 4 (704).

The requirements for operational control system are different for 704 and 705. The air operator, in the example above, will probably be using a Type A or B (co-authority dispatch) system for operations under 705 and a Type C (pilot-self-dispatch) system for operations under 704.

The clear directive from the Moshansky Commission was to insure that the operational control system is clearly defined by the air operator. The intent of the commission was to eliminate "hybrid systems".

Transport Canada - Civil Aviation elected to implement this Moshansky recommendation and recommends that an air operator uses only one type of operational control system. Although, recognizing the complexity of operating environments in the industry, Transport Canada - Civil Aviation will also approve "multiple" operational control systems for an air operator.

The following is required in order to respect the intent of the Moshansky recommendation when approving operational control systems under the CARs for air operators having to use more than one type of operational control system:

(a) an air operator must clearly define the type of operational control system that applies to each individual sub-part (702, 703, 704 or 705) of his operation in the COM;

(b) the COM may have a section providing an overview of the operational control system with separate sections for each type of operational control system. Each separate section must outline the responsibilities and accountability of the personnel operating within this system;

(Example: operations under co-authority dispatch (Types A and/or B) must be clearly addressed in one section of the COM and operations under pilot-self-dispatch (Types C and/or D) must be in a separate section)

(c) the air operator's training program must detail the responsibilities of pilots and dispatchers/flight followers under each type of operational control system stated in the COM. This training should be part of the Company Indoctrination Training (725.124(5)).

For further information on approval of operational control systems contact Operational Standards at (613) 990-1081.

S745.20 - Line of Authority

It is important that the reporting structure of the air operator make clear the line of authority affecting operational control. Operational control must report directly to the operations manager.

Operational Control and Operations co-ordination:

(a) operations co-ordination is the commercial/marketing side of the air operator. Operations co-ordination means the exercise of authority by an air operator over its operating activities, excluding operational control. The purpose of operations co-ordination is to take decisions that will best serve the commercial needs of the air operator;

(b) the lines of authority must be clear and show that operations co-ordination does not interfere with operational control.

The following example outlines how operations co-ordination is expected to function:

A flight is inbound to Toronto and a NOTAM is received by the flight dispatcher indicating that the airport is closed. The available alternatives are to divert the flight to either Buffalo or Ottawa.

From a commercial perspective, operations co-ordination may have a preference as to where to best handle the flight. If the flight dispatcher does not object to either alternate airport, the selection of the preferred option is left to operations co-ordination; however, operations co-ordination cannot direct that the flight will go to this location. The flight dispatcher will forward the information, with the preferred option, to the PIC for final decision.

If in this case operations co-ordination preferred Buffalo and Buffalo was not operationally acceptable to flight dispatch, flight dispatch would select Ottawa as a suitable alternate and forward this choice to the PIC.

(c) the line of authority must show that operations co-ordination has no authority over operational control. This would be shown by a "dotted line" between operations co-ordination and operational control on an organization chart indicating that although operations co-ordination may provide information for operational decisions, the decision is made by operational control.

R745.20 - Certification and Monitoring of Operational Control System - Air Carrier Inspector Tasks

During the process of implementation and when monitoring an air operator operational control system, an air carrier inspector will have to perform the following tasks:

(a) approval of the air operator specific training program;

(b) certification of flight dispatchers;

(c) approval of check flight dispatcher;

(d) approval of the operational control system; and

(e) inspection of the air operator dispatch facilities (dispatch centre, bases and stations) and flight dispatchers while on duty (on-the-job monitoring).

R745.20 - Guidelines for Approval (Certification) of Operational Control Systems

The following is guidance for Transport Canada - Civil Aviation inspectors and air operators on items to be evaluated for approval of the operational control system.

(a) The air operator:

(i) has clearly defined the responsibility for operational control in the COM, including a statement that the operator (i.e. the corporate entity named on the AOC) is ultimately responsible for operational control;

(ii) has outlined the duties and responsibilities of each personnel member in the operational control organization;

(ii) has an adequate number of flight dispatchers available to effectively exercise operational control;

(iv) has the required manuals including Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM), performance, AOM, MEL, etc. for each aircraft type;

(v) has included policies regarding operational control in the COM;

(vi) has guidance material available to allow operational control personnel and flight crew members to carry out their duties efficiently, effectively, and with a high degree of safety;

(vii) has defined the PIC and dispatcher co-authority relationship and has a disagreement procedure in place;

(viii) has the communications capabilities as required in the Commercial Air Service Standards;

(ix) has provided facilities for flight watch procedures, weather and NOTAM warnings;

(x) has performed all functions as stipulated in the CARs as they pertain to operational control;

(xi) has formulated and published emergency procedures and contingency plans in the COM and has in place an occurrence reporting procedure for internal and TSB reporting;

(xii) has a training program as outlined in the Commercial Air Service Standards that stipulates the curriculum and syllabus for initial and annual recurrent specific training;

(xiii) has in place a system to verify dangerous goods are on board an aircraft and that dispatchers can access this information during emergency situations;

(xiv) has in place procedures for handling the transportation of deportees, prisoners, carrying of fire arms, etc. The easy access to this information by the dispatcher should be addressed in the operational control portions of the COM;

(xv) has in place a system, with a sign off procedure, for dissemination of new information to the flight dispatchers;

(xvi) has made available to the flight dispatch center the COM;

(xvii) has a process outlined in the COM indicating how daily operations information is sent through the company to the flight dispatcher, and a check in place to insure the information is received by the flight dispatcher;

(xviii) has procedures on how MEL items are to be handled by the flight dispatch center, including record keeping and forwarding of information to pilots (as example: maintenance should be required to advise the flight dispatcher well in advance that a weather radar is unserviceable rather than advising the pilots when passengers are boarding);

(xix) has direct communications with ATC (enroute and control tower), including special procedures if applicable (e.g. code word used to talk with a tower operator);

(xx) has in place a system to ensure mechanical defects are forwarded to the flight dispatcher (as example: maintenance personnel should advise the pilot-in-command and the dispatcher that a radar is unserviceable as soon as possible).

R745.20 - Guidelines for Inspection at Air Operator Facilities/Bases/Stations

The objective of the inspection of the operational control system is to ensure that the air operator is in compliance with the minimum requirements of the applicable sections of the CARs and the COM.

Air operators commonly have operations co-ordination representatives at line stations or central locations. These persons are not authorized to exercise any operational control or release of flights. Inspectors conducting inspections should be familiar with the COM outlining the responsibilities of operations co-ordination personnel and their relationship with the operational control of flight operations.

The following are suggested lists of check items during inspection of flight dispatch centres.

(a) The inspector must evaluate and ensure that the air operator:

(i) has trained operational control personnel to the level outlined in CASS;

(ii) has, at the flight dispatch center, the required manuals including AFM, performance, AOM, MEL, etc. for each aircraft type and the COM;

(iii) has provided operational control personnel with the necessary information for the safe planning, control, and conduct of all flights;

(iv) has the communications capabilities as required in the CASS;

(v) has provided adequate facilities for flight watch procedures, weather and NOTAM warnings;

(vi) has in place a system, which is up to date and has an appropriate sign off procedure, for dissemination of new information to the flight dispatchers;

(vii) has in place a system to track dangerous goods and maintain records within the operational control system;

(viii) has direct communications with ATC (enroute and control tower), and that the flight dispatcher is aware of any special procedures when dealing with ATC (e.g. code word used to talk with a tower operator).

(b) The inspector should monitor the following items during shift changes in the flight dispatch centre. The flight dispatchers should be able to answer the questions listed. Inspectors should be aware that all items or questions may not be applicable to a particular air operator. Items to inspect and questions should be selected as appropriate. It is recommended that questions asked pertain to actual or possible events related to actual flights. Care shall be taken to conduct the inspection with minimal interference to regular operations.

(i) At start of shift

(A) verify that the air operator procedures for shift change are followed;

(B) the incoming dispatcher must verify weather data and become familiar with the overall weather effecting the areas of operation;

(C) the departing dispatcher must brief the incoming dispatcher on the following:

(I) weather at departure/alternate/arrival and enroute airports under the dispatcher's jurisdiction, and on any other system or route limitation that may effect flight operations;

(II) PIREPS from flights during the previous shift;

(III) all aircraft deviations and NOTAM information effecting operations; and

(IV) any additional items that may effect the safety of flights under the dispatcher’s jurisdiction such as any abnormal incident that may have occurred during the previous shift.

(ii) During shift

(A) The inspector should:

(I) monitor the flight dispatcher's ability to exercise flight watch during the shift. Flight watch consists of monitoring weather, NOTAMs, aeroplane position and passing to the flight any information that may effect the flight's safety;

(II) verify that flight reports are directed to the flight dispatcher as per 725.20, Type A (5)(c);

(III) verify the flight dispatcher is thoroughly checking the runway limitations requirements;

(IV) check the de-briefing process after a flight has terminated; and

(V) verify timely communications.

(c) Dispatcher's general knowledge

The inspector should verify that the flight dispatcher:

(i) has knowledge of abnormal operations (example: fuel calculations for gear down operations, landing distances for anti-skid inoperative, conditions requiring specific paperwork/authorization from Transport Canada or the air operator, etc.);

(ii) has a good working knowledge of Transport Canada - Civil Aviation and the air operator's emergency procedures;

(iii) is familiar with the documents required for off line operations, government requirements or unscheduled landings (example: permit to proceed in the U.S., handling of contracting agencies at unscheduled airports, etc.);

(iv) knows where to find data for airports for unscheduled landings (where it is found in the Canada Air Pilot, company charts, etc.).

(d) Additional check items

The inspector should also check the following:

(i) ensure all flights have been authorized by a dispatcher;

(ii) monitor the flight release to make sure the time and date specified is consistent with the operational flight plan;.

(iii) ensure the dispatcher is aware of ATC requirements during an emergency (e.g. the difference between a company requesting ERS and ATC requesting ERS);

(iv) check the dispatcher's ability to react to emergency or abnormal operations.

(e) Monitoring operational control system during inflight inspection.

During inflight inspection, an inspector may ask the flight crew to communicate with the flight dispatcher and ask for a briefing.

The following items may be verified:

(i) timely communication; and

(ii) the quality of the briefing itself (weather, routes, alternates, NOTAMS, etc.),

S745.20 - TYPE A SYSTEM (1)(a) - Responsibility

The Concept of Co-authority Dispatch (or Co-dispatch)

Operational control begins with the formulation of the operational flight plan (at the beginning of flight planning, normally two to three hours prior to the arrival of the flight crew at the flight dispatch centre) and continues until the termination of the flight.

In the CARs' requirements for operational control system, Type A and Type B systems are co-authority (or co-dispatch) systems. As opposed to a pilot-self.-dispatch system (as is the Type C system), the pilot-in- command (PIC) and the flight dispatcher share the responsibility for the flight. The sharing of responsibility is different during the pre-flight and airborne phases of the flight.

(a) Pre-flight phase of the flight:

(i) in the pre-flight phase of the fight, the responsibility for the flight is shared between the flight dispatcher and the PIC;

(ii) flight dispatcher's tasks include all items required in preplanning a flight. The flight dispatcher must take into consideration weight and balance, aircraft performance, MEL items, weather, NOTAMS or any other restriction that may effect the safety of the flight;

(iii) although the operational flight plan is prepared by the flight dispatcher, the flight dispatcher and the PIC do share equal responsibility for the planning of the flight. Both must agree on the operational flight plan before the aeroplane leaves the ramp. In case of disagreement on the operational flight plan, the disagreement must be resolved before the flight proceeds. The shared responsibility is applicable until the pilot sets take-off power at the beginning of the take-off run. As long as the aeroplane is on the ground, the flight dispatcher and the PIC do have to agree on decisions affecting the safety of the flight;

(iv) a procedure for resolving disagreement between the PIC and the flight dispatcher during the flight planning phase should be contained in the COM.

(b) Airborne phase of the flight:

(i) the flight dispatcher has the responsibility to monitor the flight's progress and to forward any information related to the safety of the flight to the PIC. Events like enroute turbulence, thunderstorms, terminal weather, changes to weather forecasts or pertinent NOTAMs must all be relayed to the PIC;

(ii) the pilot-in-command is equally responsible for transmitting to the flight dispatcher any flight plan change or flight conditions that significantly vary from the mutually agreed or discussed plan;

(iii) in extreme case where the PIC ignores the flight dispatcher's recommendation or advice, the flight dispatcher still has the responsibility to forward all safety related information to the PIC until the termination of the flight.

Approval of Changes to Subsequent Flight Plans:

(i) If dispatchers and pilots plan multiple flight legs, the air operator must specify in their COM the procedures required when transiting a through station. (Example: the pilot and dispatcher plan a series of flights from Ottawa to Toronto to Winnipeg and then to Calgary. The air operator must indicate how the pilot and dispatcher will confirm the validity of the original flight plan as the flight transits through Toronto and Winnipeg.).

(ii) A simple station procedure with verbal confirmation of the original flight plan is acceptable. The station confirms with the pilot that the original flight plan remains valid.

(iii) If dispatch issues a new flight plan, the pilot will confirm acceptance or rejection of the new plan. The rejection of the plan will require further discussions between the pilot and dispatcher and both must again agree on the operational flight plan.

Separation of Flight Watch and Flight Planning

(i) Flight planning and flight watch can be separated into two functions requiring qualified dispatchers.

(ii) The air operator must specify the procedures required during the hand over from flight planning to flight watch.

(iii) The dispatcher planning flights must communicate with the dispatch performing flight watch to assure alternates and routes are mutually acceptable.

(iv) The dispatchers must agree prior to presenting the flight plan to the pilot in command.

(v) The air operator must designate the dispatcher of record and responsibility. The signing dispatcher is responsible for all revisions to the operational flight plan as per the CARs.

S745.20 - TYPE A SYSTEM (1)(c) - Communication Requirements

The communication requirements for Type A operational control systems are very complex. The intent of the CASS is to maintain direct communication between the flight dispatcher and the pilot-in-command (PIC). The ability to maintain direct communications is not always available. Air operators involved in operations where direct communications cannot be provided must clearly define in the COM how the necessary information will be exchanged between the flight dispatcher and the PIC.

In the case were ground communication at a remote destination is not available even with cellular phones, the COM should outline specific procedures that will be carried out at the last available communication facility. Specific procedures can be as simple as: "the flight dispatcher or/and PIC must establish contact through the last available radio facility, and from this time plus three hours, information must be received with regard to the departure". It is intended that after the stipulated time period certain procedures will be initiated by the flight dispatcher.

The following is an example to illustrate the options available:

An air operator is operating into a remote destination in South America on weekend flights during the winter months:

(i) the cost of full direct radio communications would be prohibitive for this type of operation;

(ii) the air operator may contract a third party for communications enroute and/or at the remote destination, but must be assured that personnel at the remote destination have the ability to communicate in the common language of the air operator;

(iii) the air operator may indicate in the COM how communications for remote destinations will be handled and that an operating document will be provided to the PIC and to the flight dispatcher when operating to these destinations;

(iv) the procedure in the COM and the content of the operating document may include airport radio frequencies (ground and tower), radio frequencies and phone numbers of handling agencies and, if a contract radio agency is used, how and when it will be used;

(v) example of an operating document issued for operations to remote destinations:

- flight 123 operating Ottawa - Baranquilla on Nov. 16;

- will use Houston Radio frequency XXX.XX to provide dispatch with a progress report over the following position(s) ...;

- upon arrival in Baranquilla, the PIC will insure that the handling agent has forwarded the arrival times to the flight dispatcher (or the captain will call the flight dispatcher with the arrival times),

- departure times will be forwarded to dispatch by the handling agent immediately on receipt of the departure times from the flight crew,

- the flight crew will also send the departure times to dispatch through Houston Radio no more than one hour after takeoff.

S745.20 - TYPE A SYSTEM (2) - Flight Dispatch Center

Physical Set Up of the Flight Dispatch Center

The following is a list of items required and/or recommended by the CASS that should be placed in a central location within easy access to the flight dispatcher's position:

- communication/electronic equipment (phone, radios, fax, teletypes, computers, etc.);

- filing system for information on individual flights (PIREPS, dispatch release information, operational flight plans, fuel calculation sheets, messages sent to the pilot-in-command as advice on changes to the flight, etc.);

- display system for weather information and NOTAM; and

- office furniture for storage of all required documentation, publications and equipment.

S745.20 - TYPE A SYSTEM (2)(b)(iv) - Additional Information Needed for Flight

Planning and Flight Watch

1. Additional informative documentation or equipment within the flight dispatch center will vary depending on the size and sophistication of the operation. The following is a suggested list of items that may be additional to basic requirements of the CASS:

(a) a system for timely dissemination of general operational information or changes in policies from the air operator or Transport Canada - Civil Aviation that includes a means for the flight dispatcher to acknowledge receipt of such information;

(b) computer flight plans that meet CARs' requirements with regard to the information required;

(c) a hand held computer to aid in fuel calculations, conversions, cross wind calculations, etc.;

(d) work sheets or running logs of operations. The work sheet or log should have space to record MTOW, minimum fuel, alternates, captain's name, delays, MEL item on the aircraft planned for that flight, an area for remarks, etc.;

(e) a log or file listing the MEL items on aircraft with proposed repair dates;

(f) a procedure for checking off MEL items;

(g) the air operator emergency procedures with call lists and any additional items such as sheets covering threatening calls to the air operator (example: male, female, accent, stress levels, etc. These sheets are readily available through security agencies and can be modified to the air operator’s needs);

(h) CANUTEC, security and rescue phone numbers;

2. To be able to perform his tasks, documentation must be made available to the flight dispatcher. The following is a guide of what Transport Canada is expecting to see in a flight dispatch center:

(a) Manuals that shall be readily available to the flight dispatcher:

- route manuals;- fuel calculation charts; and- airport charts.

(b) Manuals that should be placed in a central position within the flight dispatch center:

- MEL:- AOM;- COM; and- CARs and CASS as appropriate for operation.- Manuals that are used on occasion should be available promptly on

request from a company library.

(c) Other manuals that should be available, depending on the complexity of operations:

- Canadian AIP;- Canada Air Pilot;- foreign AIP (if applicable);- IATA dangerous good manual;- air operator's emergency procedures manual;- access to an updated MANOPS manual;- radio and communications manuals;- copy of the FAR's (if applicable); and- airport emergency manuals.

S745.20 - TYPE A SYSTEM (5)(c)(i) - Flight Watch

"Off" and "On" times

For flight watch purposes, the dispatcher must be aware of when the aircraft becomes airborne and when it lands.

The "off" and "on" times are transmitted to the flight dispatcher so that flight watch may begin and terminate. Additionally, any unexpected mechanical or meteorological phenomena should be transmitted at this time. At no time should this report take precedence over SOPs and proper traffic lookout.

The "off" and "on" times may be transmitted to the company via radio, data link, or any other means that satisfies the requirement. In some circumstances, it may be necessary to relay times via a government or other agency. This report should take place as soon as safely possible but in no cases later than one hour after takeoff.

S745.20 - TYPE B SYSTEM (1)(a)(ii) - General

Communication Facilities Missing

Where a flight has to depart as a pilot self-dispatch flight because of lack of communication facilities, the flight must undergo detailed planning:

- operational flight plans shall be calculated and recorded on a form provided by the air operator, in the same detail as if the flight was a co-dispatch flight;

- enroute and terminal weather, NOTAMS, MEL considerations and all other pertinent data should be assessed by the flight crew;

- weight and balance information shall also be shown on the operational flight plan or a form provided by the air operator;

- a copy of the entire flight planning package should be left at a point of departure or communicated to a responsible company authority for retention and action as may be required; and

- the pilot-in-command should signify approval of the operational flight plan by attaching his/her signature to the form used for flight planning.

745.21 Flight Authorization

R745.21 - Cargo Air Operators or Locations without Communication Facilities

The operations manager has responsibility and authority for all flights. The authorization for a flight may be issued as a dispatch release, as part of the operational flight plan or as any other appropriate form.

For cargo air operators or for other air operators at locations where lack of communications facilities prevents issuance of a flight authorization, the flight can be authorized by the pilot-in-command if it is so designated in the COM. In this case, the flight must meet approved criteria which are detailed in the COM.

Example of such criteria:

1. the operations manager has delegated authority for flight authorization to the pilot-in-command in writing, including the conditions and limits of the authority;

2. all aspects of the flight are conducted in accordance with the air operator certificate; and

3. the operations manager, chief pilot or his delegate are unavailable to authorize the flight.

745.22 Operational Flight Plan

R745.22(1) - Issuance of a Revised Operational Flight Plan for Late Load

(a) a flight may depart when the aeroplane take-off weight is higher than the planned take-off weight on the operational flight plan provided the following procedure is in place:

(i) the difference in weight is not greater than an amount previously approved by TC for a specific aeroplane type (Industry has been using, as a guide, an amount close to 1.25% of the aeroplane maximum take-off gross weight but the specific amount in all cases must be approved by TC);

(ii) the air operator develops a chart showing additional fuel required for significant increments in aeroplane weight;

(ii) the pilot-in-command ensures, in accordance with this chart, that the extra fuel required is on board and take-off data are corrected accordingly;

(iii) the flight dispatcher is advised of the revised take-off weight after take-off and he completes a revised operational flight plan to ensure the flight may safely proceed to destination; and

(iv) this procedure and the maximum acceptable change in load and the chart in (ii) for each aeroplane type operated are specified in the COM;

(b) a revised operational flight plan must be issued to the flight crew when values in (a)(i) above are exceeded.

R745.22(2) - Copy of the Operational Flight Plan at a Point of Departure

(a) the pertinent details of each flight must always be in the possession of, and available to, a responsible ground-based authority;

(b) an electronic or hard copy of the operational flight plan shall remain with the responsible ground-based authority. It may be left at a departure aerodrome or may be stored in a central location;

(c) the operational flight plan is to be immediately available for reference, should it be required by anyone involved in flight watch, operational control or accident alarm procedures in connection with the flight.

R745.22(3) - Storage of Operational Flight Plans

(a) Transport Canada shall be able to recreate the operation flight data for the purpose of audit, inspection, investigation and flight safety;

(b) the operator is required to retain a copy of the operational flight plan and the actual flight results;

(c) period of retention of operational flight plans:

(i) the period of retention of operational flight plans will be designated in the COM and shall be no less than 90 days;

(ii) consideration will be given to the volume of data and to the air operator willingness to comply with the regulation. As example: a new air operator or an air operator often found in non-compliance with the regulation may be obliged to a retention period of one year to ensure data is available for conducting follow-up audits.

(d) details of the actual flight to be included on operational flight plan:

(i) the route flown;

(ii) fuel on board at departure and landing; and

(iii) times (out, off, on and termination).

(e) electronic storage of operational flight plan - the data may be stored electronically if the following criteria are met:

(i) the operator must show that he has a system for safe storage of electronic data;

(ii) a hard copy must be retained for documents that require verification by a signature, unless the operator has an approved system of electronic signature verification and document authenticity;

(iii) the operator should have a documented plan detailing procedures for the recovery of all stored data. The company plan shall provide a list of the stored information pertinent to a flight and examples of the form and content of the data that can be recovered;

(iv) the operating flight plan used by the operating crew (master) must be retained; and

(v) retrieval of stored data must be presented in a format that is acceptable to Transport Canada within 48 hours from the time of a request.

S745.22(13) - Operational Flight Plan Routing

(a) the pilot-in-command and flight dispatcher shall be aware of the track to successive waypoints, the IAS required to achieve the filed TAS and the forecast ground speed. These parameters shall be available and used in the flight planning process;

(b) the above information must be available and utilized during the flight planning process and in flight. Where this information is included and utilized in computer flight planning calculations and is also available for in flight use, Transport Canada - Civil Aviation may approve alternate methods for presentation of this information.

S745.22(30) - Operational Flight Plan - Persons on Board

(a) the pilot-in-command and the flight dispatcher or a responsible person at the departure station or other responsible ground based party shall have in their possession a record of the number of persons on board the aircraft, including passengers and crew members. The record shall be readily available for transmission to an appropriate agency in the event of an accident, incident or as otherwise required, and will include the names of the passengers;

(b) the flight crew must possess actual load data prior to departure, part of which is the actual number of persons on board. The persons-on-board count may, or may not, include crew members. If crew members are not included in the persons-on-board count, the flight dispatcher or other responsible ground based authority must be aware of the number of crew members on board.

The record shall show the number of infants carried on board and will indicate whether the infants are travelling on their own ticket or that of the accompanying parent/guardian. Refer to ACAC No. 116, entitled Infant Passenger Count, for further information.

R745.24 - Checklist

The requirement to "follow" the checklist means "taken as a guide". Transport Canada is expecting air operators to comply with this requirement by having pilots read the appropriate checklist. Where this procedure is included in SOPs, checklist items may be accomplished through a flow or scan at first, followed by a reading of the checklist.

745.25 Fuel Requirements

R745.25(1) - Fuel Requirements to Alternate Aerodrome

(a) fuel requirements in CARs section 705.25 are additional requirements to CARs section 602.88;

(b) CARs paragraph 602.88(4)(a)(i) addresses fuel requirements to the alternate aerodrome, where fuel is required to "fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome", without specifying requirements to conduct an approach. Transport Canada - Civil Aviation will interpret the fuel requirement for the alternate aerodrome as follows: the fuel on board should allow the flight to proceed to alternate considering known conditions at time of pushback. For example, if the alternate aerodrome is forecast for VFR conditions at the time of arrival, no fuel is required for an approach at alternate. If the forecast weather is for IFR conditions and a full approach procedure is anticipated, fuel to carry out an approach at alternate shall be on board at take-off.

R745.25(1)(c)(i)(B) - Fuel Requirements to Cruise at 10,000 ft if Depressurization

(a) requirements to carry the necessary fuel for diversion in case of cabin depressurization must be based on calculations at 10,000 feet altitude;

(b) where an air operator wishes to divert at an altitude higher than 10,000 feet, fuel requirements may be based on that altitude provided it may be demonstrated to Transport Canada - Civil Aviation that the selected altitude is not above the aeroplane single-engine service ceiling and that the cabin is capable of providing an adequate supply of heat and oxygen to all occupants for the duration of the diversion; and

(c) the determination of the suitability of an oxygen delivery systems will have to be co-ordinated with the Airworthiness Branch of Transport Canada.

S745.25(1)(b)(ii) - Description of Caribbean Areas for Enroute Fuel Reserve Requirements:

A map showing the defined areas A, B and C is in Appendix D.

S745.25(2) - Reduced Enroute Fuel Reserve - Designated Routes

S745.25(2)(e) - Enroute Airports

(a) when flying on routes that do not require enroute reserve fuel, the aircraft should always be in a position to proceed to an alternate airport in the event that the fuel state, or any other matter that might affect the fuel state, makes diversion necessary; and

(b) there must always be an adequate airport within 60 minutes of flying time with one engine inoperative. In this case, adequate means that the airport should have navigation and approach aids as well as sufficient runway length to accommodate the aircraft.

S745.25(2)(f)(ii) - Weather Availability

"Proven reliability in wind forecasting" means that the winds are forecast by a government or recognized private agency using accredited meteorologists and accepted forecasting techniques that meet ICAO standards;

S745.25(2)(h) - Training on Foreign Rules

(a) pilots and dispatchers exercising operational control over flights that operate in foreign airspace shall be fully conversant with foreign operating rules, routes and airport facilities which pertain to the area in which the carrier is operating; and

(b) information on foreign rules can be obtained from enroute and airport charts, COM dealing with foreign areas, foreign A.I.P.s or any other recognized publication.

S745.25(3) - Reduced Enroute Fuel Reserve for the Portion of a Flight Outside Domestic Airspace (Reclear)

S745.25(3) - Tasks to Be Performed Before Being Granted with this Authorization:

The following is a summary, but not limiting, of changes required to operations:

(a) the operational control system must be adjusted accordingly by the addition of a "reclear" block of information and fuel/flight planning;

(b) MELs should be amended if required (more specifically communications requirements);

(c) establish the format of the inflight release message;

(d) establish the training program for flight crew members and flight dispatchers; and

(e) establish the SOPs and procedures for aeroplane systems.

S745.25(3)(a) - Definition of Suitable Aerodrome

For the purposes of this section, a suitable aerodrome is one which has the capabilities, services and facilities necessary to be designated as an adequate aerodrome and has the weather conditions and field conditions at the time of the particular operation which provide a high assurance that an

approach and landing can be safely completed with an engine and/or systems inoperative in the event that a diversion to an enroute alternate becomes necessary.

S745.25(3)(b) - Route Segmentation:

(a) the air operator has the option of segmenting a flight plan to only carry enroute fuel reserve for the segment requiring the most fuel;

(b) the segmentation of the route can be defined by the air operator, so long as the fuel requirements are met for each segment, including the 5% enroute reserve. Less fuel can be carried with shorter segments, but this increases the number of decision points and alternate airports required.

S745.25(3)(b)(i) - Suitable Enroute Destination and Enroute Alternate

See ETOPS Manual (TP 6327).

S745.25(3)(b)(iii) - Requirement for 5% of Fuel to Enroute Alternate

(a) the requirement for 5% of fuel from an enroute destination to associated enroute alternate has been reviewed and considered as almost insignificant, difficult to manage from a programming point of view, and not enhancing the safety of flight; and

(b) although still regulation, it will be proposed to CASO members to modify the CASS in order to remove the requirement for 5% of the fuel required from an enroute destination to an enroute alternate. This is information only.

745.27 Admission to Flight Deck

R745.27(3)(c) - Flight Deck Occupants

Revenue passengers are not allowed on the flight deck unless there is a seat available for that person in the passenger compartment. Air operators are not allowed to use the observer seat as an additional revenue passenger seat. Observer seat occupants shall possess sufficient knowledge or be suitably briefed such that they do not distract the crew during critical phases of flight.

In order to accommodate cabin safety inspectors under extenuating circumstances, it is suggested that the air operator includes Cabin Safety inspectors in the list of persons authorized for admittance to the flight deck/occupancy of the observer’s seat.

The procedure specified in the COM for authorizing persons to occupy an observer seat must contain at least the following:

(a) the procedure must show that, with the exception of air carrier inspectors, concurrence of the pilot-in-command is required before a person on the list is authorized to occupy an observer seat;

(b) the general physical capabilities of any observer admitted to the flight deck;

(c) the briefing given to the observer seat occupant should include at least the least the following items:

(i) the location and use of the seat belt and shoulder harness, oxygen mask, and life vest (as applicable);communication devices;

(ii) expected exit, responsibilities and actions in the event of an emergency, including emergency evacuation;

(iii) silent cockpit procedures and critical phases of flight where the flight crew shall not be distracted; and

(iv) any other items that is company or aeroplane specific and that may impact on the safety of the flight.

Note: The briefing content will vary according to the knowledge of the person being briefed, but the intent is that the person receives sufficient information to enable appropriate action to be taken during the various phases of flight and in the event of an emergency.

745.28 Seats for Cabin Safety Inspectors

R745.28 - Seats for Cabin Safety Inspectors

Cabin Safety Inspectors hold an Air Carrier Inspector Credential Card.

The air operator must provide the Cabin Safety Inspector, who is conducting an in-flight inspection, with a confirmed seat in the passenger cabin. This seat should, wherever possible, provide the Cabin Safety Inspector with a good view of the cabin.

Only in circumstances where an in-flight cabin inspection on a particular flight is necessary, shall a Cabin Safety Inspector bump a revenue passenger or deadheading crew member.

Where an Air Operator Certificate authorizes a Cabin Safety Inspector carrying out an in-flight Cabin Inspection to occupy an available flight attendant seat, the Cabin Safety Inspector may, at their discretion, occupy an available flight attendant seat or flight deck observer seat.

745.29 - Flight Crew Members at Controls

S745.29(2)(b) - Relief of the Captain

There shall always be a person designated to act as pilot-in-command or a person who is delegated with the responsibility for the safe operation of the flight when the captain is absent from the cockpit. For example, the first officer occupying the right seat is designated to act as pilot-in-command when the captain is absent from the flight deck for physiological reasons.

For the purpose of relieving the captain, the relief person does not have to complete the air operator's upgrade training.

Transport Canada - Civil Aviation's concern is that a person be designated "in charge" of the flight, as per a procedure established in the SOP. Terminology for designating persons for the purpose of relief is left to the air operator.

S745.29(3) - First Officer Relieved by a Captain

This subsection does not apply to captains occupying the right seat for the whole flight. In such case, refer to 725.124(18), right seat conversion training.

745.34 Take-Off Minima

RS745.34 - Computation of Distance to Take-Off Alternates

All computations of distances to take-off alternates referred to in the CARs and the CASS may be performed in still air conditions, not taking into account the effect of wind.

R705.34 (1) Take-off in weather conditions below the landing minima

Landing minima for approaches requiring authorization in the A.O.C, such as CAT II/III, are not to be considered for the purpose of this subsection.

745.38 Instrument Approach Procedures

R745.38(1)(b) - Transmissometer Requirements for Cat III Operations

(a) the Manual of All Weather Operations, Section 3.5.1(b) states that an ILS approach to Cat III minimum shall not be commenced unless there is RVR reporting systems at the touchdown (RVR A), mid-point (RVR B) and rollout (RVR C) areas;

(b) RVR C is advisory on Cat II approaches, but it is an essential part of Cat III. If RVR C becomes unserviceable, operations have to revert to Cat II;

(c) CARs section 602.130 states that all three RVRs have to be at or above the minimum specified in the CAP.

R745.38(2) - Landing Surface and Wind Conditions:

(a) "immediately prior to landing" is not meant to imply that radio or other procedures should take precedence over proper cockpit and crew discipline during a critical phase of flight. It is only necessary that the pilot-in-command be aware of, and satisfied that, the wind and surface conditions permit a safe landing to be accomplished within the confines of the runway;

(b) there are numerous means to acquire the necessary information including, but not limited to, ATIS, tower winds, F.S.S. reports, pilot reports, current J.B.I., and braking reports from previously landed aircraft.

R745.38 - Exemption from respecting MDA:

(a) this guidance applies to non-precision approach operations using FMS approach slope or other stabilized approach angle techniques;

(b) CAR 602.128 (2)(b) forbids descent below minimum descent altitude (MDA) during a non-precision approach unless the required visual reference has been established;

(c) an exemption to this regulation is available to turbo-jet aircraft with over 100,000 lbs. take-off gross weight if the air operator is using stabilized approach angle techniques, provided that certain conditions are met. This exemption permits pilots to treat MDA as a DH;

(d) all air operators who are not exempted from the requirements of CAR 602.128 (2)(b) must conduct non-precision approaches in such a way that the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA unless the required visual reference has been established (with due allowance for momentary variations during turbulent conditions). These air operators would be considered to be "respecting MDA" only if their operational procedures, training and checking programs required pilots to maintain an altitude at or above the published MDA prior to establishing visual reference;

(e) conditions for exemption :

(i) the air operator ground and simulator training program and operational procedures must address the following issues:

(A) factors that affect altitude loss during the initiation of a missed approach;

(B) the operation of aircraft computer generated approach slope systems or other methods of computing stable approach paths to the target touchdown point;

(C) the requirement to verify altitude and waypoint information from a navigation database against an independent source;

(D) crew co-ordination upon reaching MDA and during the execution of a missed approach; and

(E) utilization, when required, of temperature corrections to MDA and other published altitudes and remote altimeter correction factors;

(ii) the air operator must have procedures in place to ensure that pilots will add a specified amount to MDA that will compensate for the additional height loss during the go-around initiation during approaches where:

(A) there is a failure of an aircraft system that would affect the aircraft height loss during the initiation of a missed approach;

(B) the aircraft is above normal maximum landing weight;

(C) the aircraft landing weight is limited by aborted landing climb performance; or

(D) any other situation where a larger than normal height loss during the initiation of a missed approach could be expected;

(iii) the following equipment must be on board and serviceable :

(A) 2 barometric altimeters;

(B) 1 radar altimeter; and

(C) GPWS;

(iv) the final approach course must not be more than 15 degrees from runway centreline, except for the specific approach procedures identified in the exemption document; and

(v) this exemption applies to all turbo-jet aircraft above 100,000 pounds take-off weight, plus additional types as indicated in the exemption document.

(f) implementation of the exemption:

(i) it is Transport Canada policy, upon initial notice of intention from the air operator to request the exemption, to assess non-precision approaches as per the exemption; and

(ii) air operators will be allowed a reasonable time period (3 to 6 months) to make the required changes to their operation in order to comply with the exemption.

745.39 Weight and Balance Control

R745.39 - Implementation of Weight and Balance System

1. General

Weight and balance can be manually or automatically derived. In either case it shall meet section 725.39 of the standard.

(a) the weight and balance system shall be specified in the COM in accordance with subsection 705.39(3) of the CARs. It may be published under separate cover, in which case it must referred to and be considered as part of the COM.

(b) training is to be in accordance with subsection 725.39(9) of the Commercial Air Service Standards.

(c) when an air operator elects to implement an automatic weight and balance system, it should be carried out over a period of at least 6 weeks in a representative part of the operation. The previous method of weight and balance should be run as a shadow operation until the air operator is satisfied that the new system is safe and meets section 705.39 of the CARs.

2. Definitions

"air operator standard weight" means approved standard weights determined by the air operator through an approved survey and statistical computation in accordance with this guidance. They are applicable only to that air operator and may be used in lieu of published standard weights in circumstances consistent with those under which the survey was conducted; (poids normalisés de l'exploitant);

"basic empty weight" (see definition in section 101.01 of the CARs);

"holiday charter flight" means a charter flight solely intended as an element of a holiday travel package; (vol nolisé vacances);

"operational empty weight" (see definition in subsection 725.39(2) of the Commercial Air Service Standard);

"published standard weight" means the weights published by Transport Canada as the standard weight of passengers, including carry-on baggage and/or checked baggage, for use by air operators in weight and balance calculations, without the actual weighing; (poids normalisés publiés).

3. Duties and Responsibilities

(a) the air operator is responsible for the weight and balance system;

(b) a management plan will identify the following:

(i) the flight operations management position having overall responsibility for the system;

(ii) each subordinate position with associated duties and responsibilities;

(iii) the chain of command;

(iv) the management position(s) responsible for ensuring that:

(A) all necessary elements of the system have been developed, properly integrated, and co-ordinated;

(B) all personnel who have duties, responsibilities, and functions to perform receive adequate training;

(C) sufficient competent personnel and adequate facilities and equipment to effect the system are available at each airport of planned operations; and

(D) adequate management supervision of the system is maintained.

(c) responsibility during operations:

(i) the air operator shall establish a chain of responsibility for the loading and establishment of the weight and balance of the aircraft for every flight;

(ii) individuals, being either air operator personnel or other personnel authorized by the air operator to act on his behalf, must be accountable and identifiable, whether by signature or computer input identification, for load data or services provided in accordance with their duties and responsibilities as detailed in system.

4. Operational Requirements

The weight and balance system shall identify the following:

(a) how, before each flight, the air operator will establish the accuracy of items listed in subsections 725.39(1) to (7) of the CASS;

(b) preparation and disposition of all required documentation, whether completed by the air operator or other qualified personnel authorized by the air operator to act on his behalf;

(c) where suitable, a load manifest as follow:

(i) containing, as a minimum, the following:

(A) aeroplane registration and type;

(B) flight number and date;

(C) name of the pilot-in-command;

(D) name of the person(s) who prepared the document;

(E) aeroplane operational empty weight and centre of gravity;

(F) weight of the fuel;

(G) weight of consumables other than fuel;

(H) components of the load including passengers, baggage, freight and ballast;

(I) aeroplane zero fuel weight, take-off weight and landing weight;

(J) load distribution and centre of gravity position; and

(K) names of passengers;

(ii) all load manifest information need not appear on one individual document where such information is maintained by other means by the air operator. All pertinent information must be retained for a period specified in the COM; and

(d) the procedure to establish the maximum allowable weight for the flight which must not exceed the least of the following weights:

(i) maximum allowable take-off weight to meet performance requirements of section 705.54 to 705.61 of the CARs;

(ii) maximum design take-off weight specified in the Aircraft Flight Manual;

(e) the following procedure for the issuance of a revised weight and balance for late load (same procedure as operational flight plan in 745.22):

(i) a flight may depart when the aeroplane take-off weight is higher than the planned take-off weight provided the following procedure is in place:

(A) the difference in weight is not greater than an amount previously approved by Transport Canada for a specific aeroplane type (Industry has been using, as a guide, an amount close to 1.25% of

the aeroplane maximum take-off gross weight but the specific amount in all cases must be approved by Transport Canada);

(B) the pilot-in-command ensures the extra fuel required is on board and take-off data are corrected accordingly;

(C) the flight dispatcher is advised of the revised take-off weight after take-off and he completes a revised operational flight plan to ensure the flight may safely proceed to destination; and

(D) this procedure and, for each aeroplane type operated, the maximum acceptable change in load as late load are specified in the COM;

(i) a revised weight and balance must be issued to the flight crew when values in (i)(A) above are exceeded.

(f) Storage of weight and balance documentation (same procedure as operational flight plan in 745.22):

(i) Transport Canada shall be able to recreate the weight and balance data for the purpose of audit, inspection, investigation and flight safety;

(ii) the air operator is required to retain a copy of the weight and balance;

(iii) period of retention of weight and balance:

(A) an air operator should retain a copy of the weight and balance forms, including amendments to the forms, for a period of not less than six months. The period of retention of weight and balance will be designated in the COM;

(B) consideration will be given to the volume of data and to the air operator ability to comply with the regulation. For example, a new air operator or an air operator often found in non-compliance with the regulation may be obliged to have a retention period of one year to ensure data is available for conducting follow-up audits. A larger air operator that is compliant with the regulation may be obliged to have a retention period of 6 months;

(iv) electronic storage of operational flight plan must meet the following criteria:

(A) the operator must show that he has a system for safe storage of electronic data;

(B) a hard copy must be retained for documents that require verification by signature, except where the operator has an approved system of electronic signature verification and document authenticity;

(C) the operator should have a documented plan detailing procedures for the recovery of all stored data. The company plan shall provide a list of the stored information pertinent to a flight and examples of the form and content of the data that can be recovered; and

(D) retrieval of stored data must be presented in a format that is acceptable to Transport Canada, within 48 hours from the time of a request;

(g) computerized systems:

(i) where load data are generated by a computerised weight and balance system, the operator must verify the integrity of the output data by a check to be performed at intervals not exceeding 6 months; and

(ii) there must be a means in place to identify the person inputting the data for the preparation of every load manifest and the identity must be retained as in (f)(iii)(B) above.

(h) on-board weight and balance systems - an air operator must obtain approval to use an on-board weight and balance computer system as a primary source for dispatch;

(i) datalink - when load data are sent to the aeroplane via datalink, a copy of the final data as accepted by the pilot-in-command must be available on the ground;

5. Passenger and Baggage Weights

(a) a procedure specifying when to select actual or standards weights must be included in the COM. The methods used to compute the weight of passengers, carry-on baggage and checked baggage are as follows:

(i) actual weight of each person and the actual weight of baggage;

(ii) standard weights:

(A) published standard weight specified in Table 1; or

(B) air operator standard weights;

(b) actual weights:

In determining the actual weight by weighing, an air operator must ensure that all passenger's personal belongings and hand baggage are included. Infants shall be weighed together with the accompanying adult. Such weighing must be conducted at a location immediately prior to boarding;

(c) standard weights:

(i) weight of passengers as per published standard weights from Table 1 or air operator standard weights include carry-on baggage weight for each passenger carried as per carry on baggage specified in the operators carry on baggage control program, and the weight of any infant below 2 years of age carried by an adult occupying one passenger seat. Infants occupying separate passenger seats must be considered as children for the purpose of this paragraph;

(ii) at the present time there are no published standard checked baggage weights. Air operators are to use existing approved air operator standard weights;

(iii) on any flight identified as carrying a significant number of passengers whose weights, including hand baggage, are expected to exceed the standard passenger weight, the air operator must determine the actual weight of such passengers by weighing or by adding an adequate weight increment;

(iv) when using air operator standard weights, on any flight identified as carrying a significant amount of checked baggage that is expected to exceed the air operator standard checked baggage weight, the air operator must determine the actual weight of such baggage by weighing or by adding an adequate weight increment;

(Note: These average weights are derived from a Statistics Canada Survey, Canadian Community Health Survey Cycle 2.1, 2003)

Summer   Winter

200 lbs or 90.7 kg MALES 12yrs up 206 lbs or 93.4 kg

165 lbs or 74.8 kg FEMALES 12yrs up 171 lbs or 77.5 kg

75 lbs or 34 kg CHILDREN 2-11yrs 75 lbs or 34kg

30 lbs or 13.6 kg *INFANTS 0 to less than 2yrs 30 lbs or 13.6 kg

* Add where infants exceed 10% of Adults

Table 1 - PUBLISHED STANDARD WEIGHT VALUES

On any flight identified as carrying a number of passengers whose weights, including carry-on baggage will exceed the company approved standard weights, or the A.I.P. Canada published average weights, the actual weight of such passengers are to be used.

6. Establishment of Air Operator Standard Weights (Survey)

(a) general:

(i) air operators have the option to submit air operator standard passenger and/or checked baggage weights for approval and subsequently be authorized to use standard weights different from the published standard weights. The air operator standard weights must be derived via an approved weighing survey and the statistical analysis method detailed in this guidance. After verification and approval by the Minister, the revised standard weights, applicable only to that air operator, may be used in circumstances consistent with those under which the survey was conducted. Where air operator standard weights exceed those published by the Minister, then such higher values must be used;

(ii) air operator standard weights must be reviewed at intervals not exceeding five years; and

(iii) all adult standard weights must be based on a male/female ratio of 80/20 in respect of all flights except holiday charters which are 50/50. If an air operator wishes to obtain approval for use of a different ratio on specific routes or flights, data from the weighing survey must be submitted on a flight by flight or route basis to support such a variation.

(b) detailed weight survey plan:

(i) the air operator should submit a detailed weight survey plan prior to conducting a weight survey; and

(ii) the survey must be fully representative of the operation, i.e. the network or route, time of year, in/outbound, etc., for which the standard weights are intended to be used. The detailed plan must be specific in terms of weighing locations, dates, flight numbers and number of passengers/bags to be weighed in the survey. The actual survey must then be conducted in accordance with the plan and any deviations explained and the potential impact of the deviations on the survey results addressed.

(c) passenger weight survey:

(i) weight sampling method:

(A) the average weight of passengers and their hand baggage must be determined by random sample weighing; and

(B) the selection of random samples must, by nature and extent, be representative of the passenger volume, considering the type of operation, the frequency of flights on the routes, in/outbound flights, applicable season and seat capacity of the aircraft.

(ii) sample size - the survey plan must cover the weighing of at least the greatest of:

(A) a number of passengers calculated from a pilot sample, using normal statistical procedures and based on a relative confidence range (accuracy) of 1% for all adult and 2% for separate male and female average weights (see paragraph (e) below); and

(B) for aeroplanes with a passenger seating capacity of:

1. 40 or more, a total of 2,000 passengers; and

2. less than 40, a total number of 50 x (the passenger seating capacity).

(iii) collecting data for passenger weights:

(A) adults and children - adults are defined as persons 12 years of age and above. They are further classified as male or female. No differentiation according to sex shall be made for children who are defined as persons from two years of age up to and including 11 years of age. Passenger weights include the weight of their belongings which are carried onto the aircraft;

(B) infants are defined as persons less than two years of age. When taking random samples of passengers weights, infants shall be weighed together with the accompanying adult;

(C) weighing location:

(I) the location for the weighing of passengers shall be selected as close as possible to the aeroplane, at a point where a change in the passenger weight by disposing of or by acquiring more personal belongings is unlikely to occur before the passengers board the aircraft;

(D) weighing scales:

(I) the scales to be used for passenger weighing shall have a capacity of at least 150 kilograms or 300 pounds;

(II) the weight shall be displayed at minimum intervals of 500 grams or 1.0 pound; and

(III) the scales must be accurate to within 0.5%, or 200 grams or 0.5 pounds, whichever is the greater;

(E) recording of data:

(I) for each flight the weight of the passengers, the corresponding passenger category (i.e. male/female/children), the date and the flight number must be recorded.

(d) baggage weight survey:

(i) sampling size and sampling method:

(A) the statistical procedure for determining air operator standard baggage weights based on average baggage weights of the minimum required sample size is the same as for passengers as specified in subparagraph (c) above;

(B) for baggage, the relative confidence range (accuracy) is 1%;

(C) a minimum of 2,000 pieces of checked baggage or all the checked baggage associated with a passenger survey, whichever is greater, must be weighed.

(e) statistical evaluation of passenger and checked baggage weight data:

(i) general:

(A) to ensure that the use of air operator standard weights for passengers and checked baggage does not adversely affect operational safety, a statistical analysis must be carried out;

(B) such an analysis will generate average weight values for passengers and baggage;

(C) the analysis will, in addition, validate the values by establishing a statistical accuracy (confidence range) of the sample mean (standard weight);

(ii) consult with Transport Canada for guidance on the statistical method to be used to estimate the average passenger and checked baggage weights.

7. Training Program

Training on the weight and balance control system must be provided in accordance with subsection 725.39(9) of the CASS and be part of the air operator training program.

S745.39(8) - Weight and Balance Document Retention

Transport Canada must be able to recreate the operational flight data for the purpose of audit, inspection, investigation and flight safety:

1. The operator is required to retain copies of the weight and balance documentation when not incorporated in the operational flight plan.

2. The period of retention of the weight and balance forms, including amendments to the forms, will be not less than six months. The period of retention of weight and balance will be designated in the COM and will be at least equal to the retention time for the operational flight plan.

3. Weight and balance data may be stored electronically if the following criteria are met:

(a) the air operator shall show that the electronic storage system is safe;

(b) a hard copy of the data shall be retained for documents that require signature verification unless the air operator has a system of electronic document verification;

(c) the air operator shall have a documented plan detailing procedures for the recovery of all stored data; and

(d) stored data must be presented to Transport Canada in an acceptable hard copy format within 48 hours from the time of a request.

745.40 Passenger and Cabin Safety Procedures

S745.40(2) Fuelling With Passengers On Board

S745.40(2)(a) - Two Way Communication and Qualified Personnel

(a) two way communication shall be maintained between the ground crew supervising refuelling and the qualified personnel on board the aircraft;

(b) qualified personnel on board means either pilots, flight attendants or other personnel who have received training as specified in paragraph 725.40(2)(o) of the CASS;

(b) communication may be maintained in any way that allows the fuelling personnel and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane to communicate with each other at any time during the fuelling process;

(c) communication may also be through an intermediary such as a maintenance person assigned to operate fuelling controls; and

(d) communications methods will vary dependent upon aircraft type. This can entail direct verbal communications, hand signals or any other means that meets with the requirement.

S745.40(2)(d)(xi) - Photography When Fuelling is Taking Place:

Open flash photography shall not be used in close proximity when refuelling is taking place. Photographic equipment may be used provided it is not used within three (3) meters of the fuelling equipment or the fill or vent points of the aeroplane fuel systems in accordance with the National Fire Protection Association Standards (3.7.4). This requirement is for photographic equipment external to the aircraft. Passengers taking pictures inside the aircraft are not included in this

requirement, however, when conducting overwing fuelling, it would be prudent to prohibit their use if fumes were detected in the cabin.

All operations personnel must be aware of the potential danger of sparks when refuelling is taking place. Photographic equipment that poses no danger of a spark would be acceptable.

S745.40(2)(r) - Procedures to Advise Cabin Personnel that Fuelling isTaking Place:

(a) flight attendants shall be aware of when fuelling takes place so that associated procedures (manning designated exits etc) are accomplished; and

(b) the COM shall detail the process that will be used to inform flight attendants that fuelling is taking place. Some air operator's procedures may call for an assumption that fuelling takes place at each stop while others may identify special procedures for imparting this information to flight attendants. Where the COM states that flight attendants will assume that fuelling takes place at each stop, a procedure should be detailed to advise flight attendants if unusual refuelling procedures are to take place (i.e. overwing refuelling on aircraft that are usually pressure refuelled from underwing).

S745.40(3) - Use of Portable Electronic Devices

For interference to aircraft systems to occur from the use of portable electronic devices, the following conditions would have to occur simultaneously:

(i) the device is radiating above the threshold at which system (receiver) disruption can occur;

(ii) the device is located in the worst-case position in the aircraft cabin (i.e. in a seat with a window near the aircraft antennae);

(iii) the device is oriented to maximum peak radiation for minimum path (signal) loss (i.e. normally out the window);

(iv) suitable reflection paths are offered by objects outside the aircraft (i.e. wing, control surfaces, etc.);

(v) the frequency of emission from the device falls within the aircraft receiver system operational frequency band;

(vi) the emission characteristics are suitable to cause receiver disruption (which may or may not be noticeable to the flight crew); and

(vii) the receiver system is operating at or near its minimum signal level.

Because these condition are independently variable, the chances of all occurring simultaneously are very low.

The vulnerability of aircraft radio-navigation and communications system may be greatest during the take-off, climb, approach and landing phases of flight. During these phases,

the aircraft is at lower altitudes and may be in close proximity to numerous ground-based interference sources, which could increase the likelihood of disruptive interference due to combined interference effects.

Portable two-way radio communication devices include but are not limited to cellular phones, two-way radios, mobile satellite service handsets, personal communication service devices, etc. Passenger use of portable two-way radio communication devices onboard aircraft may interfere with the safe operation of the aircraft radio navigation/radio communication systems and flight management systems. The use of cellular phones falls under the purview of Industry Canada who prohibits the use and operation of these devices in an aircraft while airborne because it may result in interference to the cellular systems. Radio telephones which are permanently installed in aircraft are installed and tested in accordance with appropriate certification and airworthiness standards. In the context of this subsection, these devices are not considered portable two-way radio communication devices.

CAR 602.08(1) prohibits the use of a portable electronic device onboard an aircraft where the device may impair the functioning of the aircraft systems or equipment. The onus for determining if passenger-operated electronic devices will cause interference is placed on the operator of the aircraft because there is no airworthiness standards for the manufacture of passenger-operated devices, no maintenance standards and no performance standards in relation to their use on an aircraft. CAR 602.08 (2) prohibits a person from using a portable electronic device onboard an aircraft except with the permission of the operator of the aircraft.

Informing passengers includes information pertaining to prohibited devices, devices which are permitted with restrictions and devices which are permitted without restrictions. Prohibited devices are any transmitting device which intentionally radiates radio frequency signals, such as citizen band (CB) radios and transmitters that remotely control devices such as toys. Permitted devices (if demonstrated acceptable) with and without restrictions are as follows:

(a) personal life support systems may be operated during all phases of flight, provided that these systems will not cause interference with the aircraft systems or equipment;

(b) passenger use of portable two-way radio communication devices onboard aircraft is prohibited at all times when aircraft engines are running, excluding the auxiliary power unit (APU). If the pre-flight safety briefing and demonstrations begin prior to engine start, use of portable two-way communication devices must be terminated during the delivery of the safety briefing and demonstrations.

(c) Passengers may use portable two-way radio communication devices if the air operator has established procedures in COM and Flight Attendant Manual to inform the passengers when the use of these devices is prohibited, and to ensure these devices are turned off and properly stowed during the delivery of the pre-flight safety briefing and while the aircraft engines are running.

(d) Other portable electronic devices may be used except during take-off, climb, approach and landing. Typically these phases of flight coincide with the "seat belt on" sign and the requirement to stow seat trays. Devices that may be used include, but are not limited to audio or video recorders, audio or video playback devices, electronic entertainment devices, computers and peripheral devices, calculators, FM receivers, TV receivers, and electric shavers.

(e) Permitted devices which may be used without restrictions are hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electronic watches, and certified operator equipment such as operator provided passenger air/ground telephone equipment operated in accordance with all other safety requirements.

In accordance with regulatory requirements, if interference from a portable electronic device is suspected, the operator of the aircraft shall prohibit the use of the device. Where interference from a portable electronic device is suspected, crew members shall prohibit the use of the suspected device(s) by confirming passenger use of electronic device(s), terminating the use of the electronic device(s), and rechecking the aircraft electronic equipment.

Division IV

Aeroplane Performance Operating Limitations

745.54 Aircraft Performance Operating Limitations, Exceptions

S745.54(1)(a) - Wet and Contaminated Runways

Manufacturers are traditionally required to certify their aircraft on bare, dry runways. In many cases you will also find factors for use during take-off on wet or contaminated runways. For take-off, these factors may take the form of weight penalties, distance factors, or a V1 reduction which considers both weight and distance requirements simultaneously.

The aircraft manufacturer may provide Supplementary Operating Data for Contaminated Runway Operation. This is not certified data, but may be used subject to the Standard. In many cases this data permits the use of a 15 foot screen height for engine-out operations and allows credit for thrust reverse when calculating Accelerate-Stop Distance Required. There may be additional MEL items associated with contaminated runway procedures.

Reduced-thrust programs are commonly used and provide significant savings in operating and maintenance costs. Thrust reduction is often controlled using an assumed temperature method, but may also take the form of a "de-rate", in which the aircraft is certified as if the maximum engine thrust is some lower value. "De-rate" methods may permit the operator to use lower values for Vmcg and Vmca, advantageous in conditions of low runway friction. Several manufacturers support the use of "de-rate" thrust on slippery runways.

Despite the many operational benefits of using reduced thrust, there can be significant drawbacks when operating from a contaminated runway. The poor predictability of actual performance in the presence of contamination precludes assuming the additional risk of lower than certified thrust. Variability is compounded when a 15 foot screen height is in use. Lower than expected performance on departure could lead a crew to demand more than the scheduled (reduced) thrust from the engines, and this may in turn lead to control problems.

Thrust reduction, regardless of the method used, may not be employed when operating from a contaminated runway.

S745.54(1)(b) - Operations To or From Unprepared Surfaces

In the context of this standard, unprepared surfaces can be defined as a surface that is not defined in the aircraft flight manual (undefined surface). For example, if the aircraft flight manual contains information/data on operations from gravel runways, then this surface is not considered unprepared. A normal or standard operation for this aircraft is used and no operations specification is required. If the aircraft flight manual does not contain information on operations from gravel surfaces, then the surface is considered unprepared and an operations specification is required.

A pilot shall be familiar with operations involving take-offs and landings from unprepared surfaces.

Training and line indoctrination experience on unprepared surfaces is required when planning operations on to any surface not specifically addressed in the AFM. This training and experience may be acquired while operating as second in command on the same aircraft type.

S745.54(1)(b) - Operations using other than approved performance data

This standard also applies to a ski-equipped aeroplane such as the DC-3.

745.57 Aircraft Performance Operating Limitations, Net Take-Off Flight Path

R745.57(1) - Visual departures

It is not always possible to accurately determine an obstacle's height and bearing on departure. Visual obstacle separation may be used, but there are several considerations:

1. All relevant parts of the obstacle must be clearly discernible. At night, obstacles and any relevant supporting structures (guywires, etc) must be sufficiently lit.

2. Visual contact with the obstacle must be established and maintained continuously from the start of the takeoff roll until it is no longer a factor;

3. The pilot must be able to maintain visual contact with the obstacle at the deck angle anticipated during an all-engines climb;

4. The crew must be able to maintain visual contact at anticipated bank angles during departure (this permits assessment of the effectiveness of the turn with respect to the obstacle and winds); and

5. Where a group of obstacles exist, visual turns to avoid one obstacle may not lead toward another (any turn must be away from all obstacles).

R745.57(2)(a)(v) - Crosswind components

While specific factors are applied to headwind and tailwind components, there is no relief in this wording from consideration of crosswind. These rules are consistent with the F.A.A. requirements, which also currently require consideration of crosswind [Reference FAR 121.189 (e)]. The F.A.A. has acknowledged that the still-air 600 foot wide corridor is a common misapplication of their rules, one they hope to address in part with an Advisory Circular now in draft form.

Under CAR 705 criteria , the operator of an aircraft with a 120 knot groundspeed and expecting a 15 knot crosswind on a straight-out departure would remain within an obstacle clearance area identical to existing ICAO requirements for the first two nautical miles after takeoff, and more conservative than ICAO after that.

For aircraft operating with low groundspeeds or in high crosswinds, a fully wind-corrected track analysis may be very difficult to produce, and may impose an unacceptable weight penalty. In such cases, the operator may utilize an engine out departure routing to overcome the obstacle limit. This analysis can be based on IFR or VFR criteria, but must consider all of the effects of wind on the departure path.

Wind effect in turns can produce paradoxical results. A crosswind that moves the departure track away from a straight ahead obstacle may bring a previously unconsidered obstacle into play. For turns greater than 90 degrees from runway heading, winds that favour the runway in use may result in a significant degradation of climb gradient in the turn and subsequent climb, resulting in inadequate obstacle clearance following the turn.

The ICAO "area analysis" obstacle clearance criteria is acceptable as an alternative means of compliance with Part 705.57(2)(a)(v). When using the ICAO method, operators are reminded that headwind and tailwind components must still be considered for their effect on climb gradient.

R745.57(3) - Turns Exceeding 15 Degrees of Bank or 15 degrees of Heading Change

Most aircraft performance charts are valid up to 15 degrees of bank, provided that bank is not sustained for more than 15 degrees of heading change. Once outside either parameter, climb performance may degrade significantly, and the selected engine-out climb speed may no longer provide adequate margin above stall. Operators considering turning departures must account for reduced climb gradient and stall margin, and adjust speed, obstacle clearance heights and turn radii as appropriate.

745.59 Enroute Limitations with Two Engines Inoperative

R745.59 - Enroute Limitations - Two Engines Inoperative

For aircraft with three or more engines, there are two options to ensure that an adequate level of safety is maintained. Either the operator can plan an alternate within 90 minutes of the route that meets 705.60 or can ensure that the enroute altitudes are sufficient in case of the failure of two engines. This is a dispatch function and does not limit the course of action of the PIC under actual circumstances.

745.60 Dispatch Limitations: Landing at Destination and Alternate Aerodromes

R745.60 - Dispatch Limitations - Landing at Destination

An aircraft shall not be dispatched nor shall it depart for a destination airport unless the required landing distances are available at destination and alternate. Once airborne, if a runway closure or other unforeseen circumstances reduce the runway length available, the flight may continue to planned destination provided that the performance calculations show that a safe landing can be accomplished within 100% of the landing distance available.

Where an aircraft malfunction in flight increases the landing distance required, the flight may continue to planned destination provided that the performance calculations for the malfunction show that a safe landing can be accomplished within 100% of the landing distance available.

745.61 Dispatch Limitations: Wet Runway - Turbo-Jet-Powered Aeroplanes

R745.61(2) - Dispatch Limitations - Wet Runway

A runway is deemed to be wet when there is sufficient moisture on it's surface to cause it to be reflective. In this case, additional landing distances, required for dispatch, must be available. Most AFMs do not contain wet runway landing distances. Should an air operator wish relief from the 115% requirement, wet runway landing distances must be demonstrated to Transport Canada in accordance with a test program approved by Transport Canada.

If a flight has been planned to a dry destination and unforeseen precipitation makes the planned runway wet, the flight can continue so long as the aeroplane can stop on the runway available plus 15 percent.

Division V

Aircraft Equipment Requirements

745.71 Protective breathing Equipment

R745.71 - Protective breathing Equipment (PBE)

Protective breathing equipment is defined in CAR 101.01 as equipment designed to cover the eyes, nose and mouth of the wearer, or the nose and mouth where accessory equipment is provided to protect the eyes, and to protect the wearer from the effects of smoke, carbon dioxide or other harmful gases. NOTE: the PBE must provide a minimum 15 minute supply of breathing gas at a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet.

The locations of the PBE units are intended to allow immediate access of a PBE unit by the crew member to maintain a safe environment on board the aircraft. Placing a PBE unit in a Class A, B or E cargo compartment to satisfy subparagraph 705.71 (3)(b)(i) of the regulation would require the crew member to don the PBE in a less than ideal environment during a potential fire. Common sense prevailing, the PBE unit should be located in close proximity to the entrance outside the cargo compartment to allow the crew member immediate access to the PBE unit and to don the equipment in the cabin environment. The crew member would then proceed into the cargo compartment to monitor and/or combat the fire.

For aircraft operating in a combined cargo/passenger configuration (combi), especially those aircraft operating with one flight attendant, some relief in the total number of PBE units installed on board an aircraft may be achieved by placement of PBE units in appropriate locations. More than one requirement set out in Section 705.71 of the regulation can be satisfied by combining the cargo fire fighting PBE requirements with the cabin PBE requirements. For example, on an a combi aircraft operating with one flight attendant, with the main deck comprised of the flight deck, forward cargo compartment, aft cargo compartment and passenger compartment, placing one PBE unit on the forward cabin bulkhead can cover both requirements for a PBE unit accessible and readily available for the cargo area and for a PBE unit next to the halon extinguisher on the forward bulkhead in the cabin. Similarly the placement of a PBE unit next to a halon extinguisher in the aft galley area would also satisfy the requirement to have a PBE unit accessible and readily available for the aft cargo compartment.

A PBE unit is required for each hand-held fire extinguisher located in each isolated galley. An isolated galley is defined as a galley that is isolated from the normal working environment in such a way that fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin are not readily available for use in the galley area. For example, the DC-10 lower lobe galley is an isolated galley; the galleys on the B737 are not isolated.

745.72 First Aid Oxygen

R745.72 - First Aid Oxygen

The purpose of First Aid Oxygen is to provide oxygen for those passengers who may have suffered a respiratory or cardiac emergency as a result of a decompression or a medical condition. A passenger may not necessarily have the same fitness level as a crew member and may not be accustomed to the normal cabin pressure altitudes of 6,000 to 8,000 feet. For some passengers, the decrease in pressure at altitude can aggravate or trigger an existing medical condition necessitating the need for supplemental oxygen.

There must be first aid oxygen for a minimum of one person, or, when 2% of the occupants (crew and passengers) total more than one person, there must be sufficient first aid oxygen for 2% of the occupants.

To determine the period of time for which first aid oxygen must be provided, calculate which of the following is the longer period with respect to the particular flight operation/routing:

(a) one hour; or

(b) the duration of the flight, following depressurization of the cabin, that is operated at a cabin altitude above 8,000 feet. (When making this calculation assume that the cabin depressurization occurs at the “worst case” point along the route.)

The requirement for sufficient first aid oxygen for “…the entire duration of flight at a cabin pressure altitude above 8,000 feet” does not mean that sufficient first aid oxygen is required for the duration of the originally planned flight. Rather, that the supply is sufficient for the period of time following a cabin depressurization, that the aircraft will be operated with the cabin pressure above 8,000 feet. This time period will vary according to the flight routing, possible en route alternates and the planned altitude of operation either to the original destination or to an alternate airport if a diversion is necessary. For example, on one route the terrain being overflown may preclude descent to levels that would allow operation at a cabin pressure altitude below 8,000 feet, while on another route this may not be a factor.

However, the one hour requirement is not predicated on cabin pressure altitude. Therefore, if the period of flight (following depressurization) that would have to be operated at a cabin pressure-altitude of above 8,000 feet is determined to be less than one hour, then the one hour supply is the minimum required.

745.73 Interphone System

R745.73 - Interphone System

The interphone system and the public address system must be able to be operated independently. The exceptions are the handsets, headsets, microphones and selector switches that can be common to both systems. For example, the switch that enables the user to go from public address to intercom may be defective; however, this does necessarily prevent the operator of the system from making a public address announcement. Similarly, if the public address handset becomes defective (e.g. the press bar or its connection has a short in it), that defect may not prevent the operator of the system from using the same handset to operate in the intercom mode. The aircraft cannot be dispatched with both the passenger address system and intercom system inoperative.

745.76 Lavatory Fire Protection

R745.76(e) - Lavatory Fire Protection

The Non Smokers Health Act prevents smoking on a scheduled commercial flight and thus it is possible that an aircraft may never be used for smoking flights. Nonetheless, there remains a requirement for ashtrays to be installed where such installation is required by the aircraft design standards to comply with Airworthiness Directive (AD) 74-08-09 (02) issued by the FAA and adopted by Transport Canada. This AD provides for some time limited relief for ashtrays required for lavatory fire protection and Transport Canada is currently reviewing Transport Canada Supplements to ensure that the relief is included in MMELs where appropriate. Where such MEL relief is sought but not yet provided for in the MMEL, or Transport Canada Supplement, the air operator is advised to submit a formal request to Transport Canada Aircraft Certification (Flight Test) for consideration.

Division VI

Emergency Equipment

745.92 Crash Axe

R745.92 – Crash Axe

The required crash axe should be carried in a discrete location that is not known or accessible to a potential terrorist. The flight deck has always been considered as a prime location. An unplacarded locked cabinet in the cabin would also be considered as a suitable location for this purpose. Although our regulation only requires the carriage of one crash axe, some air operators have elected to carry more than one. Given that the usage of a crash axe is more likely to be required to facilitate an escape from the flight deck than from the cabin, because of the reduced number of exits, it is recommended that at least one crash axe be carried on the flight deck.

745.93 Hand Held Fire Extinguishers

R745.93(3) - Hand Held Fire Extinguishers - Isolated Galley

An isolated galley is defined as a galley that is isolated from the normal working environment in such a way that fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin are not readily available for use in the galley area. For example, the DC-10 lower deck galley is an isolated galley; the Boeing 767 galleys are not. As it is important that the person manning the galley have access to a suitable fire extinguisher, the rule is specific in requiring installation of one hand held fire extinguisher in each isolated galley.

745.95 - Survival Equipment

S745.95(2)(k) - Survival Equipment - Water Requirements

Medical and survival experts agree that dehydration is a greater threat to survival than starvation in a water survival situation. Therefore, the calorie requirements were removed from the list of survival equipment contents and water requirements were increased. Canned water, desalting tablets and manual desalinators approved for use in life rafts are all acceptable means of meeting the water requirements. Manual desalinators occupy far less space and weigh considerably less than fresh water or desalting tablets (about 200 kilograms of desalting tablets would be required for an A340). Manual desalinators can provide several gallons of water per day, can be as small in size as a brick, and can weigh from as little as approximately 2.5 pounds.

Division VII

Personnel Requirements

745.106 Pilot Qualifications

R745.106 - Pilot Qualifications - Non Revenue Flight

If the aircraft is being operated for a training, ferry or positioning flight, then the additional qualifications of a commercial standard are not required so long as the licensing requirements are met. For example, this would allow a pilot who has completed the PPC on the aircraft to fly the aircraft on a non revenue flight without meeting the requirements of line indoctrination.

R745.106(1)(b) - Pilot Qualifications within the previous 90 days

A crew member, in addition to the requirement for takeoffs and landings, must be current on departure, arrival and cruise procedures.

A sector is comprised of a takeoff, departure, arrival and landing including a cruise segment of at least 50 nautical miles. Completion of the sector will also count as one of the three take-offs and landings for the pilot manipulating the controls (pilot flying). A crew member can remain current by completing five sectors assigned to duty as a flight crew member in an aircraft of that type and need not complete a landing. Use of synthetic training devices shall be in accordance with the standard 725.106, Schedule I.

R745.106(3) - Pilot Qualifications - Line Checks

The operator will be permitted to utilize instructors/check pilots who do not meet the requirements of 705.106(1) to train an initial cadre of pilots when introducing a new aircraft type to its fleet. The number of these instructors/check pilots and the duration of their instructor/checking privileges will be dependent upon the size, complexity and logistics of the aircraft introduced into service. Once a sufficient number of pilots have been trained that can sustain service and training requirements, the operator shall be required to revert to the requirements of 705.108. Further information is contained in the standard 725.106(6).

S745.106(3)(a)(i)(E) - Pilot Line Checks - Aircraft Servicing

Aircraft servicing will be assessed as appropriate to the type of operation. For example, a DC3 pilot, who is responsible for aircraft loading would be evaluated on their ability to accomplish this task correctly. Conversely, where pilots of an operator are not responsible for these tasks they will not be evaluated on these tasks.

R745.106 (Exemption) Pilot Qualifications- Transition and Mixed Fleet Flying programs

Air operators and flight crew members have multiple possibilities when it comes time to take advantage of the training, checking and currency credits offered by a Mixed Fleet Flying and/or Transition programs. It is important to note that there are differences between the two programs and that in most cases one may not be used without the other.

A Transition program is designed to offer training and checking credits when an air operator wants to obtain pilot qualifications on a variant of the same, common or different type when currently qualified on a base aeroplane. A Mixed Fleet Flying program is designed to offer 90-day currency

credits when operating both a base aeroplane and one or more variants of the same, common or different type within a 90-day period between training and checking events.

An air operator cannot operate under a Mixed Fleet Flying program without having a Transition program, but he can operate under a Transition program without having a Mixed Fleet Flying program. The Mixed Fleet Flying program is only required when the applicable Operational Evaluation Board report has identified that there are specific take-off, landing and sector currency requirements on either or both aeroplane intended to be operated in a Mixed Fleet Flying program in order to meet pilot qualification requirements. Here are examples of how an air operator may take advantage of either program.

Example 1- An air operator has been operating an A-320 for several years and decides to purchase an variant of a different type; the A-330. The flight crew member that is currently qualified on the A-320 that will transit to and only operate the new aeroplane will only need to comply with the air operator’s approved Transition program, which will include training and checking credits. The base aeroplane will be the A-320 until such time that all the training and checking credits have expired, at which point the A-330 will become the base aeroplane for the purpose of future transition to another variant.

Example 2- If after 3 years in Example 1, the A-330 flight crew member is reassigned to only operate the A-320, the flight crew member will need to comply with the air operator’s approved Transition program that contains training and checking credits where in this case the base aeroplane is now the A-330. The Transition program may also have provisions where the flight crew member will alternate between the A-320 and the A-330 every 6 months. This is not considered Mixed Fleet Flying as both aeroplane are not operated with a period of 90 days.

Example 3-The air operator in Example 1 has now decided to operate both the A-320 and the A-330 within the period between training and checking events with the same flight crew members. The flight crew member assigned to these aeroplanes will need to comply with both the air operator’s approved Transition program and approved Mixed Fleet Flying program. The approved Mixed Fleet Flying program could not be conducted without an approved Transition program.

Example 4- The air operator in Example 1 has decided to purchase variants of the same type of the A-320, the A-319 and A-321. These variants are considered a single type by the Operational Evaluation report. The air operator will be operating all the 3 variants at the same time with the same flight crew members. In this case the air operators must ensure that the training and checking differences, if applicable, are identified between the variants in the ODR tables required by the approved Transition program. However, because they are considered the same type, there is no currency requirement other than those prescribed for a single type required to comply with the 90 currency requirements of the CAR.

S745.106(7) Consolidation Period

The consolidation period as specified in 725.106(7) is the time frame within which a pilot must gain initial operating experience on the aircraft to which he/she has successfully completed an initial PPC. This period is intended to reinforce and enhance retention of the initial training received by the pilot. A pilot who has not completed the required flying time within the 120 day consolidation period may be permitted a thirty day extension provided that his/her proficiency is at a satisfactory level.

Should the required time not be completed within 120 days, the operator should make a ground evaluation of the pilot's proficiency as required by the Standard. The evaluation is accomplished by the carrier and should be recorded in the pilot's file. It may be accomplished through any means that assure the operator that the pilot's proficiency is at an acceptable level to continue the consolidation period without further training.

S745.106 (Exemption) - Pilot Qualifications- Transition programs

The identification of a base aeroplane is the responsibility of the air operator in order to adapt the its operational requirements. Normally when the air operator has been operating an aeroplane from which it wants to obtain training and checking credit under an approved Transition program, that aeroplane will initially become the base aeroplane but there is no obligation to do so. Applicable ODR tables may provide a greater relief to air operators in the long term in certain circumstances and the base aeroplane on which the approved Transition program is based may changes after the initial approval to facilitate training and checking requirements. However, every time a different base aeroplane is identified, new ODR table must be approved and some additional training and/or checking requirements may have to be met on the newly nominated base aeroplane.

S745.106 (Exemption) - Pilot Qualifications- Transition programs

The choice of the Operational Evaluation (OE) report to be used must be made between either the most applicable updated Transport Canada Operational Evaluation Board, Joint Operational Evaluation Board (JOEB) or Flight Standardization Board (FSB) report and is subject to the approval of the POI. Where two or more OE reports are available for a base aeroplane and the applicable variant(s) of the same type, common type or different type, the TC OEB report should be used. Where a TC OEB report is not available or where TC was not part of the OE, the JOEB or FSB report should be used. Where none of the above is available the OE report of the country that has the greatest regulatory commonality with Canada should be used. In case of uncertainty of what OE is to be used and approved, POI should contact the Chief of Certification and Operational Standards (AARXB).

RS 745.106 Schedule I, 2(c)(v) - Pilot Proficiency Check - RTO

The intent is to have the pilot perform the rejected take off at a speed which will demonstrate proficiency in the manoeuvre.

The words, "or less as appropriate to the aeroplane type", apply to aeroplane types where rejected take-off procedures differ considerably at low and high speeds. An example of this would be an advanced type aircraft where an RTO below a specific speed would result in manual control manipulations whereas a high speed RTO would result in many of the functions being accomplished automatically. Either procedure would adequately serve to validate a pilot's proficiency in the RTO manoeuvre.

S745.106 Schedule I, 2(f)(vii) - Pilot Proficiency Check - Manual Landing

Where automatic landings are the usual and customary means of landing, proficiency should also be demonstrated during a manual landing.

S745.106-Schedule II, 2(c)(iv) - Pilot Proficiency Check - Simulated Engine Failure - Aeroplane

Simulated engine failures in the aircraft will take place at sufficient altitude and speed so as not to jeopardise the safety of the flight.

Safe altitude and speed will vary with the type of aircraft involved and should be detailed for Transport Canada approval. Generally speaking, simulated engine failures on take-off should not take place with the gear down or below a minimum of 200 feet AGL and V2 plus 10 knots. Certain aircraft types will require greater altitudes and speeds for this exercise. Minimum altitudes and speeds should be included in the COM or Aircraft Flight Manual.

745.108 Crew pairing

S745.108(2)(b) - Flight Crew Pairing Restriction - Upgrade

Pilots upgrading to pilot in command status for the first time will be subject to flight crew pairing restrictions even though they may have acquired considerable experience as second in command on the same aircraft type. This restriction will be in effect until the air operator is satisfied that crew pairing restrictions no longer need to be applied; however, in no case shall the flight crew pairing restriction be less than 50 hours.

S745.108(2)(e) - Flight Crew Pairing Restriction - Different Technologies

A pilot who is, for the first time, transitioning to an aircraft type that is significantly different from the pilot's current aircraft type, will be subject to the crew pairing requirements of 725.108. This applies to the first transition made to an aircraft that utilizes significantly different technology. Subsequent transitions to the same aircraft (within 24 months of the PPC expiring) after having flown another aircraft type, do not require crew pairing restrictions.

S745.108(3) - Flight Crew Pairing - Consolidation Period

When crew pairing restrictions apply, they come into effect after the completion of the Pilot Proficiency Check in the new position or on the new type, and remain in effect until the completion of the same length of time as that of the consolidation period for a flight crew member (see subsection 725.106 (7) for consolidation period).

S745.108(4) - Flight Crew Pairing Restriction - Transition

This is intended to facilitate transition from the "old" system where there were no crew pairing limitations to this system.

A pilot who has successfully transitioned to an aircraft type prior to introduction of these requirements will be deemed to have completed the consolidation period

S745.108(5,6) - Flight Crew Pairing Limitations

For a new carrier or a new aircraft introduction, this standard gives a means of compliance. Should the crew not meet the standard, then a training pilot who does meet the standard must occupy the jump seat until the standard is met.

745.110 Flight Dispatcher Qualifications

R745.110 - Flight Dispatcher Qualifications

Qualified company flight dispatchers shall possess a flight dispatcher's certificate. The certificate, granted by an authorized person who is an employee of the operator, signifies successful completion of the Transport Canada approved flight dispatcher course. The operator shall advise the Minister of the names of people in the operator's employ who have been granted certificates. Similarly, the operator shall advise the Minister of dispatchers who no longer hold a valid certificate. This would be due to loss of competency or ceasing employment with the operator.

745.112 Check Authority

R745.112 - Check Authority

All PPC's will be conducted by a Transport Canada inspector or by a designated company check pilot, which is a delegated authority. Other checks may be done by a Transport Canada inspector or done by an individual assigned by the company.

745.113 Validity Period

R745.113 (1) - Validity Period - Expiry Date

Where a time is stated to begin with or end at a specified day, or to continue to or until a specified day, the time includes that day. Consequently where CAR705.113(1) provides that the validity period of a line check "expires on the first day of the thirteenth month", the validity period ends at midnight of that first day of the month.

R745.113(5) - Validity Period Extension

Extensions of up to 60 days to the normal expiry date may be granted under the following circumstances, provided the request is made before the expiry date:

1. illness, accident, injury or medical requirements preclude completion of checking/training within the appropriate time;

2. simulator, cabin emergency evacuation trainer, or training aid breakdown;

3. simulator or cabin emergency evacuation trainer unavailability for reasons beyond the operator's control;

4. pilot or flight attendant inability to attend scheduled session due to aircraft mechanical problems, weather related difficulties, or flight cancellation;

5. family emergency;

6. any other item which, in the opinion of the issuing authority, merits an extension and will not compromise safety; or

7. the elapsed time from the date of the last completed check (or required training) does not exceed nine months in the case of a mid year PPC (or training session), fifteen months in the case of a twelve month PPC or line check, or fifteen months in the case of flight attendant annual training.

Normally, the validity period will be extended by 30 days and a further 30 day extension will be granted (subject to number 7 above) if required. If it is known at the outset that the issue requiring an extension will not be resolved within 30 days, the validity shall be extended for 60 days or compliance with number 7 above, whichever is shorter.

S745.113 - Sixth Month Recurrence Training

Any pilot who completes an initial PPC must undergo a mid year PPC prior to entering a recurrent training program that permits substitution of a training session for the mid year PPC.

The requirement to pass a mid year PPC in the first twelve months of transitioning to a new aircraft type is also applicable to a pilot who is transitioning to the aircraft type for a second or subsequent time and, because of the length of time that their PPC has lapsed, requires an initial PPC. This means that a pilot whose PPC or line check validity has expired for 24 months or more must undergo an initial PPC followed by a mid year PPC. Similarly, a pilot upgrading on the same equipment type must also undergo a recurrent or mid year PPC following successful completion of the initial upgrade PPC. A captain who is qualified in the right seat, and subsequently becomes a first officer on the same equipment type, will be able to enter (or continue) the program that substitutes a training session for mid year PPC.

S745.113(2) - Sixth Month Recurrence Training - LOFT

Before the mid year PPC can be replaced with a LOFT training session, the airline and the pilot shall have one year's experience on the aircraft.

Currently, aircraft systems and emergency recurrent training (simulator) requires that pertinent systems and emergencies be covered in a twelve month period in the manner approved in the Company Operations Manual. When substituting a LOFT session for the mid year PPC, the

pertinent systems and emergency requirements may be completed over a three year period as approved by Transport Canada.

Division VIII

Training

745.124 Training Program

R745.124(2)(d) - Contamination Training

This training ensures that all personnel involved in flight operations are competent to recognize, report and deal with surface contamination as appropriate to their position.

A training program, approved by Transport Canada, shall be successfully completed by personnel involved in flight operations. Flight operations personnel are comprised of pilots, flight attendants, deicing personnel, maintenance personnel (involved with servicing flights on the ramp prior to departure), passenger handling personnel (involved with passenger boarding) and ramp personnel involved with loading, towing or pushing back flights prior to departure. The training program should be appropriate to the position held by the individual undergoing the training (i.e. training for flight crew would be different from training for ramp personnel).

Companies who offer deicing services on a contract basis are required to give contamination training to their personnel.

R745.124(3c) - Contamination Training - Safety Awareness Program

Anyone whose job may, at some time, put them in a position to observe possible surface contamination shall be aware of its hazardous effects and how to report it. This safety awareness program containing information regarding aircraft critical surface contamination shall be established for personnel involved in flight operations that are not included in (2d).

A safety awareness program can consist of posters, articles, videos or any other medium that is circulated to appropriate personnel. The program must identify the hazards of contamination and to whom it should be reported. Recipients of the program are flight dispatchers, passenger handling personnel (involved with passenger boarding), fuelling personnel, ramp personnel not directly involved in aircraft servicing prior to departure and anyone also who has, or may have, visual contact with an aircraft such that they would be able to detect aircraft critical surface contamination.

S745.124(4)(c)(i) - Qualifications and Responsibilities of a Training Pilot

The COM shall include the minimum qualifications for a training pilot. This would not normally be less than 500 hours on type. These qualifications can be more demanding but will not be less than those indicated in the standard.

The Chief Pilot will internally promulgate a list of training pilots for line indoctrination that meet this standard. All training pilots must be so approved by the Chief Pilot before they can operate as a training pilot. The POI may request that this list be forwarded to Transport Canada whenever there is a change.

Training pilots who do not have pilot in command status with the operator must be checked to pilot in command on that aircraft type before conducting line indoctrination on captains or first officers.

S745.124(4)(c)(ii) - Responsibilities of a Training Pilot

Training pilots monitor the operation and make recommendations to the chief pilot for amendments, or modifications to, existing standard operating procedures and other programs.

Training pilots are in a unique position to observe application of the operator's standard operating procedures as well as logistical or other issues that may affect a pilot's proficiency. It is important, because of this insight for the training pilots to bring to the attention of the chief pilot any procedural or standards issues that they feel should be addressed.

S745.124(4)(e)(ii) - Qualifications of a LOFT Facilitator - CRM

A LOFT facilitator must be sufficiently proficient in the use of CRM skills to effectively facilitate a LOFT session.

The completion of a CRM course within the previous three years is not intended to mean that an initial CRM course is mandatory every three years. Recurrent training will be required in order to maintain currency as a LOFT facilitator.

S745.124(4)(e)(iv) - Qualifications of a LOFT Facilitator - ATPL

An experienced pilot who has not held an ATPL, or been endorsed on a particular aircraft type, will not be precluded from utilizing this experience as a LOFT facilitator.

This section permits experienced pilots who may be retired airline pilots, furloughed pilots, military pilots, pilots who may not have a current medical or any other pilots that have experience that would contribute to being a competent LOFT facilitator, to be used as LOFT facilitators

S745.124(4)(f)(i) - Flight Dispatcher Instructors

(a) flight dispatcher instructors should be certified flight dispatchers; and

(b) an instructor qualified for ground training for pilots may be used for training flight dispatchers on aeroplane systems, provided this instructor liaises with the person responsible for the operational control, and aeroplane systems are taught in view of their impact on operational control.

S745.124(4)(f)(ii) - Check Flight Dispatcher

(a) the dispatcher nominated and approved for a checking position by Transport Canada shall hold a valid Flight Dispatcher Certificate and have operational control experience;

(b) any flight dispatcher holding a checking position at the time the Canadian Aviation Regulations are promulgated will be deemed acceptable and approved by Transport Canada; and

(c) the air operator can request that a Transport Canada inspector perform the flight dispatcher competency checks. It is expected that only the smaller operators will require inspectors to perform these checks.

S745.124(8) - Synthetic Flight Training Device

Synthetic training devices can be used for training at every possible opportunity. The term synthetic training device refers to full flight simulators and flight training devices. Training and checking referred to in connection with synthetic devices must be approved by Transport Canada. For an in depth description of the various classes of synthetic training devices, consult TP 9685 Aeroplane and Rotorcraft Simulator Manual.Following are the characteristics of different levels of synthetic training devices:

(a) a Flight Training Device is a cockpit replica with operative switches, gauges, dials etc., and is mainly used for cockpit procedures training. It may have a motion or visual system but unless approved gets no credit for the extra systems. The devices are certified by Transport Canada and are assigned a level of from one to seven, with one being the least sophisticated. A higher level of sophistication permits the device to be used for more advanced training requirements;

(b) a Level A Full Flight Simulator has a motion and visual system that permits completion of a visual training program and PPC. However, the sophistication of the device is such that there is also a requirement to complete airborne training and an airborne PPC. Recurrent training (and PPCs) may be conducted wholly in a level A device;

(c) a Level B simulator has a higher fidelity visual and motion system than that of Level A devices. The system allows the device to accurately replicate aircraft handling when within ground effect and permits accurate depth perception and visual cues to assess sink rate. As a result it has "landing credits" attached to it (i.e. all recurrent training and 90 day currency requirements may be completed in a Level B synthetic training device). A Level B synthetic training device is compatible with Phase I training programs;

(d) a Level C simulator has a higher fidelity than the Level B device. The visual system encompasses a wider angle (i.e. side view) than the Level A and B devices. It is compatible with Phase 2 training programs and permits zero flight time training provided that certain pilot experience requirements are met; and

(e) a Level D simulator includes a daylight visual presentation and is of a higher fidelity than the Level C simulator. It is compatible with Phase 3 training programs which permits zero flight time training for pilots with no experience in similar type aircraft.

S745.124(8) - Synthetic Flight Training Device - Use of Foreign Flight Simulators

Canadian operators may use a foreign simulator for the purpose of training, licensing or checking flight crews, provided these simulators have Transport Canada approval. An FAA simulator approval up to Level A has TCA approval.

An operator seeking approval to use a foreign simulator for training, checking or licensing flight crew members must apply, in writing, to the appropriate Transport Canada Regional Office or AARX requesting an evaluation of the foreign simulator. This request shall contain the simulator's Approval Test Guide (ATG) and a compliance statement certifying that:

1. the simulator meets the technical specifications for the level (A, B, C or D) requested; and

2. specific hardware and software configuration control procedures have been established.

S745.124(8) Recurrent Training

The recurrent training program must cover all of the training program every two or three years as applicable.

S745.124(8-13) PF and PNF Duty Allocation

PNF and PF duties are to be shared on a reasonable basis between both pilots.

Every effort should be made to have the flight crew in training be crewed according to their position. For example, the ideal pairing would be a captain and a first officer.

As a general rule, flight crew members should be trained one half of the time as PF and one half of the time as PNF. This can be modified according to training and student needs but PNF should not be less than 25% nor more than 60% of the allocated simulator/aircraft training time.

S745.124(11)(a) Level C – Aeroplane Flight Training Requirements

The reference for the aeroplane flight training at paragraph 725.124 (11)(a) is incorrect. The paragraph should read as follows:

a) An air operator with an approved Level C training program using an approved Level C FFS is permitted zero flight time training for candidates with at least second-in-command experience on a similar aeroplane with the same air operator or has had verifiable line currency as a second-in-command on a similar aeroplane within the previous two years. Candidates who do not qualify shall undergo aeroplane flight training in accordance with those items listed in paragraph   (2)(i) of Schedule I of Section 725.106.(amended 2004/12/01; previous version)

S745.124(11)(c) Level C - Extra Requirements

There is a requirement to have flight crews participate in a number of additional simulated tasks. Completing these additional tasks will allow the operator to delete the requirement for aeroplane training if the conditions of S724.124(11)(b) are met. All of the additional tasks can be incorporated into the approved training syllabus and do not have to be done as a block of activities.

The simulated line flight should be structured to emulate an actual line flight as closely as possible. It should include flight planning, weather forecasts and actuals, ATC clearances, radio frequency changes etc. Each pilot should operate one sector as pilot flying (PF) and one sector as pilot not flying (PNF). If the approved training program already incorporates this exercise or the equivalent there of in the training scenarios, then this requirement is satisfied.

S745.124(11)(c)(iii) and (12)(b)(i) - Runway Illusion and Surface Conditions

Varying visual views of the runway are required to satisfy the training requirements. The following are examples of what would be required:

(a) Less than ideal visibility due to obscuring phenomena such as fog, haze, blowing snow, snow showers;

(b) The use of different runways with different approach, threshold and centre-line lighting configurations; and

(c) The varying runway "sight picture" presented to a pilot on visual approaches with glidepaths that are too shallow, too steep, and nominal (corresponding to an ILS). This is especially important for wide/long-bodied aircraft where the pilot is relatively inexperienced.

S745.124(14)(d) Emergency Training - Evacuation and Ditching

Emergency evacuation training shall be given on all aircraft types. Ditching training shall be given on aircraft types operated on extended overwater flights and which are therefore exposed to the possibility of ditching or inadvertent water contact. Ditching is a planned, controlled descent to a water surface as a result of an emergency situation while inadvertent water contact is an unexpected contact with the water (e.g. during departures or approaches over water surfaces).

If the aircraft is flown in the regime where life rafts must be carried then crew training is necessary on ditching and the deployment of rafts and emergency equipment on board the raft.

Practical emergency evacuation procedures training refers to the performing of actual checklists and actions that the crew would have to complete in the event of an emergency evacuation. The following items should be addressed:

- which checklists to complete;- which agencies to inform and what information to pass;- briefing to flight attendants;- briefing to passengers;- actions on landing, securing the aircraft, PA to passengers; and- exits and evacuation procedures.

S745.124(17) - Upgrade Training

Requirements for airborne training and checking are not required for a pilot who requires upgrade training on an aircraft type on which he/she has previously qualified as second in command provided they are current on the aircraft as a second in command with 100 hours on type

S745.124(18) Right Seat Conversion Training

The captain on type shall receive training and demonstrate competency prior to operating from the right seat on a revenue flight. The amount of training will vary depending upon operational differences between the two seats. Where duties are considerably different the magnitude and scope of training will reflect this.

S745.124(21)(a) - Flight Dispatcher Age Limitations

Transport Canada has legislated that no person shall be issued a Flight Dispatcher Certificate who is less than 21 years old. This age restriction was imposed to harmonize with ICAO standards. The air operator should have available in their employee records the age or birth date of the dispatcher. It is suggested that this information be available in the dispatcher’s training record file.

S745.124(21) - Summary/Sequence of Flight Dispatcher Training

Operational control systems of types A and B require certified flight dispatchers. The following is the sequence of events related to training and certification of flight dispatchers.

(a) Generic Training:

(i) this training is not approved by Transport Canada. A study guide, Publication TP 12513, Study and Reference Guide - Flight Dispatchers, may be obtained from Commercial and Business Aviation, Operational Standards in Ottawa at (613) 990-1081. The guide provides information on subject matter covered by the two generic examinations mentioned below.

A candidate may elect self-study or attend generic training at the following schools (not approved by Transport Canada):

-Centre québecois de formation aéronautiqueCEGEP de Chicoutimi534, rue Jacques-Cartier estChicoutimi (Québec)G7H 1Z6

(514) 462-9168, Jacques Monast

-Transport Canada Training Institute1950 Montreal Rd.Cornwall Ontario.

(613) 936-5127, c\o Ms. Jennifer Kinch

-York UniversityAtkinson College4700 Keele Street

North York, OntarioM3J 1P3

(416) 736-5616

-Canadian Aviation Institute Georgian CollegePart Time Studies1 Georgian Dr.Barrier, OntarioL4M 3X9

(705) 728-1968, ext. 1618, c\o Steve Robinson

- Nova Scotia Community CollegeI.W. Akerley Campusc/o Ms. Annett Muise21 Woodlawn Rd.,Dartmouth N.S.B2W 2R7

Phone (902) 434-2020Fax (902) 462-4320

(ii) the candidate must pass two generic examinations, one on operations and one on weather. The subjects covered are listed in the study guide (TP 12513). The examinations are administered by the Licensing Branch of Transport Canada. The pass mark is 70%. After each successful examination, Transport Canada issues a letter certifying that the candidate has passed the examination. If the candidate fails an examination, a 14 day waiting period should normally be allowed to elapse before rewriting. When both examinations are passed, the candidate has to be hired by an air operator and have completed the air operator’s specific training within 24 months after passing the first generic examination;

(iii) the completion of the dispatcher’s annual competency check revalidates the Transport Canada generic exam to the first day of the twenty-fifth month following the competency check.

(iv) Where a previously qualified Dispatchers has not actively dispatched with any air operator for a period exceeding twenty-four months, that dispatcher must rewrite the Transport Canada generic exams. In such case, the air operators’ principal operation inspector (POI) may allow a reduction of the air operators’ initial specific training as per Policy letter #160, based on the Dispatcher’ involvement with the company’s operation and the duration of the hiatus period. This training shall be followed by on-the-job training and a successful competency check.

(b) Specific Training:

(i) specific training is tailored to each air operator and reflects knowledge required for the particular operation. It is approved by Transport Canada. The examinations are part of the air operator training program. They are produced and handled by the air operator;

(ii) content of the specific training:

(A) ground school;

(B) on-the-job training (air operator specific. The time will vary depending on complexity of operations. If the air operator’s operational control system functions over a number of specified shifts, training shall be done on all shifts);

(C) cockpit familiarization during actual flights;

(D) examination; and

(E) competency check.

(c) Certification:

(i) the flight dispatcher will be issued a certificate after all above mentioned training has been completed and competency check successfully passed; and

(ii) the certificate is valid for acting as a flight dispatcher for the air operator where the candidate received the specific training.

S745.124(21)(i) - Guidelines for Competency Check for Flight Dispatcher

The air operator can request that a Transport Canada Civil Aviation inspector performs the flight dispatcher competency checks. It is expected that only the smaller operator will require inspectors to perform these checks. The normal procedures used by the air operator in appointing a person to represent the Minister and ensure that all training and familiarization has been completed is outline in the CASS.

Competency Check

The competency check for flight dispatcher in the CASS, paragraph 725.124(21)(i), gives a lists of items to be covered during the check. The list is a minimum and may be expanded at the air operator's discretion. The following is a suggested list of check items during competency check of a flight dispatcher.

(a) At start of shift -the oncoming dispatcher must ensure he is briefed on the following by the departing dispatcher:

(i) the overall weather effecting the areas of operation;

(ii) weather at departure/alternate/arrival and enroute airports under the dispatcher's jurisdiction and on any other system or route limitation that may effect a flight;

(iii) PIREPS from flights during the previous shift;

(iv) all aircraft deviations and NOTAM information effecting operations; and

(v) any additional items that may effect the safety of flights under the dispatchers jurisdiction such as any abnormal incident that may have occurred during the previous shift.

(b) During shift - the inspector should:

(i) monitor the flight dispatcher's ability to exercise flight watch during the shift. Flight watch consists of monitoring weather, NOTAMs and passing to the flight any information that may effect the flight’s safety;

(ii) monitor the flight dispatchers ability to efficiently use Jeppeson, Canada Air Pilot, and/or company route charts without reference to the legend;

(iii) monitor the flight dispatchers ability to quickly calculate the fuel to alternates from the flight plan during enroute or emergency situations;

(iv) ensure that the flight dispatcher thoroughly checks the runway limitations requirements;

(v) check the flight dispatcher's knowledge of emergency or incident procedures as outlined in the air operators Company Operations Manual.

(c) Dispatcher's general knowledge - the inspector should ensure that the flight dispatcher:

(i) has a good working knowledge of the air operator's computer system;

(ii) has a good knowledge of Canadian Aviation Regulations as they pertain to the company operation;

(iii) has a working knowledge of the air operator's operating rules and policies;

(iv) is familiar with the air operator's approved fuel release procedures including a re-release procedure, the information required on the release, the responsibilities for revising a release including foreign destination requirements, etc.;

(v) has knowledge of abnormal operations (example: fuel calculations for gear down operations, Transport Canada requirements, air operator's requirements);

(vi) has a good working knowledge of Transport Canada - Civil Aviation and air operator's emergency procedures;

(vii) has knowledge of Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulations (TDG) and flight dispatcher's responsibilities. The flight dispatcher must be familiar with TDG codes and accurately assess and adjust operational planning for TDG;

(viii) has knowledge of the air operator's weather operating minima and associated flight operations requirements;

(ix) is familiar with the requirements for content of an operational flight plan as indicated in the Commercial Air Service Standard;

(x) is familiar with the individual fields on an ICAO flight plan if applicable;

(xi) is able to file accurately and quickly an ICAO flight plan;

(xii) is familiar with ETOPS procedures if applicable;

(xiii) has a working knowledge of the FAR's or other foreign countries regulations effecting the air operator's operation if applicable;

(xiv) is familiar with the documents required for off line operations, government requirements or unscheduled landings (example: permit to proceed in the U.S., handling of contracting agencies at unscheduled airports, etc.);

(xv) knows where to find data for airports for unscheduled landings (where it is found in the Canada Air Pilot, company charts, etc.);

(xvi) knows how the operator handles the transportation of deportees, prisoners, carrying of fire arms etc; and

(xvii) is aware of ATC requirements during an emergency (e.g. the difference between the air operator requesting ERS and ATC requesting ERS, etc.).

(d) Abnormal procedures - the inspector should verify the flight dispatcher's:

(i) ability to react to emergency or abnormal operations;

(ii) knowledge of information required by government during abnormal procedures or incidents (e.g. documents or authorization to be obtained to operate an aircraft with one engine inoperative, etc.); and

(iii) knowledge of standard procedures and documents required for investigation of emergencies or accidents (e.g. information that a flight dispatcher should note if an unlawful threat is received such as male/female, accent, young/old, etc.).

(e) General Considerations

(i) the competency check should be performed through various shifts; and

(ii) after a failed competency check, the second check should be conducted by another check flight dispatcher/inspector only if requested by the candidate.

S745.124(21)(f) - Flight Dispatcher - Instructor and Check

Dispatcher initial and recurrent competency checks should be conducted by company flight dispatchers approved by Transport Canada to conduct such checks.

The dispatcher nominated and approved for a checking position shall hold a valid Dispatcher Certificate and have operational control/dispatch experience. Any dispatcher holding a checking position at the time the CARs are promulgated will be deemed acceptable and approved by Transport Canada.

S745.124(21)(n) - Contracted Flight Dispatch and Flight Watch Services

All dispatchers providing flight dispatch and flight watch services for Canadian air operators shall be certified.

Prior to contracting an outside organization to provide flight dispatch/watch services, it is the responsibility of the air operator to ensure that all dispatchers hold the appropriate certificates. If not certified, the air operator is responsible for ensuring that a proposed training program is furnished to Transport Canada for approval and that all training is conducted in accordance with an approved training program.

Employees of the contracting agency who provide flight dispatch and/or flight watch services for the air operator, will be viewed by Transport Canada as employees of the air operator from a certification stand point.

S745.124(31) - Aeroplane Servicing and Ground Handling Training for Pilots

Training regarding ground servicing and handling requirements shall be appropriate to the operator's operation.

Training appropriate to the operation is required where servicing is part of a pilot's duties and he/she will be trained in accordance with the standard. Where servicing requirements are not part of a pilot's duties, training is not required.

S745.124(32)(d) - Line Indoctrination Training for Pilots, Flight Engineers and Second Officers - Ground Servicing

The training regarding ground servicing and handling requirements shall be appropriate to the operator's operation. Where servicing is part of a pilot's, flight engineer's or second officer's duties, he/she will be trained in accordance with the standard.

S745.124(32)(m,v) - Line Indoctrination Training for Pilots, Flight Engineers and Second Officers - Emergencies

Prior to a pilot becoming checked out on type, he/she shall receive training on all appropriate normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.

If RTO procedures, use of the brake cooling chart, emergency procedures and engine inoperative procedures were covered during simulator training, they need not be covered during line indoctrination. Completion of these items during the simulator portion of training should be recorded in the pilot's training file.

S745.124(33)(b)(c)(f) - Line Indoctrination - Sectors/Hours Requirements

The purpose of line indoctrination is to refine, in a line context, the initial training a pilot candidate has received on that aircraft type. This training should ensure that the candidate will be fully prepared to conduct operations in his/her designated position on all company routes for which he/she may be assigned.

The most demanding phases of any flight are the take-off and landing and therefore, these phases of flight should be emphasised during line training. The enroute portion may have varying levels of significance, starting from a very routine domestic enroute operation to those which can be more complex and demanding, such as MNPS, ETOPS, etc. In this context, training requirements for line indoctrination should start with the basic requirement to safely conduct a domestic flight or a domestic sector. A sector is considered the best reference unit because it ensures that the fundamentals of line operations will always be covered; flying hours often provide only limited exposure to an operation and not valuable "hands on" training and experience.

For those carriers whose operations are more complex and/or sophisticated, the line indoctrination sectors must be representative and consistent with the company route and airport qualification requirements and with the standard. In most cases, for these carriers, this will result in additional line indoctrination training (more sectors) being required. If the pilot is familiar with the technology of the aircraft and/or has flown similar routes before, then the sectors must meet the minimum in the standard.

S745.124(33)(a,c,d,e) - Line Indoctrination - Operating Manoeuvres

The emergency/abnormal conditions outlined in 725.124(13) may be covered verbally to the satisfaction of the instructor conducting the line indoctrination. It is also permissible that these items be covered during aircraft/simulator training (prior to line indoctrination) as long as their completion is noted in the pilot's training file. It is not intended that all of these manoeuvres be demonstrated during line indoctrination.

S745.124 (35)(a) - Aerodrome Qualifications Training

To ensure that the standard is applied the operator must maintain a record indicating the aerodromes for which the PIC has demonstrated the appropriate knowledge.

The standard requires that the PIC demonstrate knowledge of a number of details of an aerodrome to receive qualification on that aerodrome. Qualification can be accomplished in a number of ways:

1. by attending and completing an initial company training course that covers a sample of the aerodromes that the operator flies into;

2. by a self-briefing method where the information for the various aerodromes is kept up to date and available to the PIC;

3. by occupying the observers seat into a representative aerodrome;

4. by having a CCP or training pilot occupy the observers seat to guide the PIC into a representative aerodrome; or

5. by flying to the aerodrome with a CCP or training pilot in the other seat. This can be accomplished on line indoctrination, a line check or other type of flight.

The operator should designate:

1. which aerodromes can be classified as similar where the qualification into one would qualify the pilot for the other similar aerodromes. For example, a domestic classification could include all of those aerodromes in North America where the approach procedures and facilities do not require any special skills or knowledge.

2. how qualification will be achieved at the various aerodromes. For example will the qualification be achieved by a self - briefing, observers seat etc.

3. the period over which the qualification for that aerodrome or similar aerodromes is valid;

4. how the qualification will be recorded and how it will be maintained.

To qualify aerodromes as similar, some of the following criteria should be considered:

1. the Northern Domestic Airspace;

2. high density airports requiring special operations or procedures;

3. gravel strips; and

4. mountainous terrain.

For example, an initial qualification on gravel could qualify for all gravel strips or a qualification into Chicago O'Hare could qualify for all USA high density aerodromes. Each operator will have to review their operations to determine where additional qualifications are appropriate and how the aerodromes should be classified.

S745.124(35)(b) - Route Qualifications Training

To ensure that the standard is applied the operator must maintain a record on which routes the PIC has demonstrated the appropriate knowledge.

The standard requires that the PIC demonstrate knowledge of a number of details of a route to receive qualification on that route. Qualification can be accomplished in a number of ways:

1 by attending and completing an initial company training course that covers a representative sample of the operator’s routes;

2 by a self briefing method where the information for the various routes is kept up to date and available to the PIC;

3 by occupying the observers seat on a representative route;

4. by flying on that route with a CCP or training pilot in the other seat.

The operator should designate:

1. which routes can be classified as similar where the qualification for one route would qualify for the other similar routes. For example, a North Atlantic classification could include all of the routes to and from Europe where the procedures and facilities are similar and do not require any other special skills or knowledge.

2. how qualification will be achieved for the various routes. For example will the qualification be achieved by a self-briefing, observers seat or actual flight..

3. the period over which the qualification for that route or similar routes is valid;

4. how the qualification will be recorded and how it will be maintained, including details on how to re-qualify once a particular qualification has lapsed.

A flight may be used to accomplish both a route and an aerodrome qualification. For example, an actual flight into London (LHR) could be used to qualify for both North Atlantic routes and aerodromes in Europe.

S745.124(37) - Category II and III Operations

In addition to the training required by CASS 725.124 (37), additional considerations should be given during pilot training to anomalies at specific airports that could increase the work load of the flight crew members during an approach and landing, such as airports that are known for having moderate turbulence on approach, potential radar altimeter irregularity caused by rough terrain on short final, etc.

S745.124(39)(a) - Crew Resource Management Training

All crew members shall receive initial and annual training in the techniques of Crew Resource Management (CRM). Annual training shall be given on a joint basis to flight crew and cabin crew members in accordance with the standard.

CRM training should be an interactive training exercise with focus not only on the fundamentals of communication and decision making, but on the various styles (and use of these styles) associated with these disciplines. During initial CRM training, all crew members should receive training on subjects detailed in Part (a) of the standard. The CRM training referred to in Part (a) of the standard is not required to be accomplished on a joint basis nor is it a requirement that the training in (a) be identical for both flight crew and cabin crew members. Subsequent to initial CRM

training, each crew member shall receive annual joint training as specified in Part (b) of the standard. It is also essential that CRM principles are practised on a regular basis. Air operators are encouraged to include CRM exercises in all of their training programs (i.e. LOFT etc.). CRM courses are available for purchase; however, air operators are encouraged to develop their own course, specifically designed to their operations.

All CRM courses, either purchased from an exterior source or developed internally, shall be approved by the appropriate Regional Office.

S745.124(39)(b) - Crew Resource Management Training

Selected emergencies and evacuation drills should be done with the principle of CRM in mind.

Crew member evacuation drills [(b)(iv) of the standard] may be accomplished through briefing, role playing or performance of an actual evacuation drill; however, each crew member must take part in a simulated evacuation at least once every three years. CRM training and course development information is available as follows: Transport Canada Air Carrier Advisory Circular Number 0044; "The Elite Crew" in FAA Advisory Circular 120-51A; and from various suppliers of the program.

725.124 (56)Training Program – Simultaneous Operations On Parallel or Near Parallel Instrument Runways – ILS/Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) and Localizer type Directional Aid (LDA)/PRM – Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA)

This material is intended to provide guidance for Inspectors in the approval of an air operator’s training program / company operations manual for the conduct of PRM / SOIA approaches.

Initial Ground Training

(i) Example of required training topics for Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) operations:

(A) viewing the current FAA-produced and approved ILS/PRM video entitled “ILS PRM Approaches Information for Air Carrier Pilots”;

(B) the PRM system including “no transgression zones”;

(C) the proximity of other aircraft flying on the adjacent approach path;

(D) the use of Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) to advise when PRM or SOIA operations are in progress;

(E) the differences between ILS/PRM approach plates and normal ILS approach plates, including the special instruction pages for ILS/PRM;

(F) the unique communications requirements (equipment and procedures) for PRM and SOIA operations;

(G) the meaning of the term “breakout” and the requirement to immediately comply with a breakout instruction;

(H) ICAO and FAA terminology differences to initiate a “breakout” – “Breakout Alert” versus “Traffic Alert”.

(I) the items found in the “Attention All Users Page”: ATIS, Dual VHF Communiciations Required, and All “Breakouts”, “For Consideration”; and,

(J) normal usage of Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) during PRM operations, understanding, however, that an ATC breakout turn instruction is the primary means of conflict resolution during a PRM approach.

(ii) Example of required training topics for LDA/PRM - SOIA operations:(A) viewing the current FAA-produced and approved ILS/PRM video entitled “ILS PRM Approaches

Information for Air Carrier Pilots”;(B) the LDA/PRM - SOIA system including the differences from the PRM system;

(C) the approach course separation (instead of the runway separation) meets established parallel approach criteria;

(D) the visual segment of the LDA/PRM - SOIA approach – permits the aircraft to transition in visual conditions from the LDA course to align with the runway and be stabilized by 500 feet above the touchdown zone elevation;

(E) the flight crew responsibility to remain on the LDA course until passing the LDA MAP prior to alignment with the runway centreline;

(F) the conditions that the flight crew must meet in order to continue past the LDA MAP, when ATC advises there is traffic on the adjacent ILS parallel approach course:

(G) The ILS traffic is in sight and is expected to remain in sight, and ATC has been so advised;

(H) The runway environment is in sight; and,

(I) Otherwise, a missed approach must be executed.

(J) the responsibility of the flight crew to maintain visual separation from the traffic on the ILS approach, between the LDA MAP and the runway threshold. Which means manoeuvring the aircraft as necessary to avoid the ILS traffic until landing and providing wake turbulence avoidance, if applicable;

(K) procedures required in the event that visual contact is lost with the ILS traffic; and,

(L) the requirement for the LDA aircraft to be the trailing aircraft.

Training Program – Simultaneous Operations On Parallel or Near Parallel Instrument Runways – ILS/Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) and Localizer type Directional Aid (LDA)/PRM – Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approaches (SOIA)

Background Material

1. Introduction

1.1 Precision Runway Monitor (PRM) equipment and procedures enable simultaneous independent approaches to be made in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) to parallel or near-parallel runways whose centrelines are spaced less than 4,300 ft apart.

Note - PRM is a term used to describe a method by which an air traffic controller who monitors aircraft making an approach to land uses suitable secondary surveillance radar equipment with a minimum azimuth accuracy of 0.06 degrees (one sigma), an update period of 2.5 seconds or less, and a high resolution display that provides position prediction and deviation alert.

1.2 PRM approaches differ from conventional arrivals insofar as the flight crew must comply with specific procedures that will ensure the receipt of uninterrupted communications from the PRM monitor controller and know how they must respond to any avoidance instructions they may be given. Approval to fly PRM approaches will be issued by the State of the Operator only when satisfied that all required training in the use of these specific procedures has been given.

Note ― Reference documents include: Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Air Traffic Management, (PANS-ATM, Doc 4444), Chapter 6 – Visual Separation in the Vicinity of Aerodromes, Section 6.7 – Operations on Parallel or Near-Parallel Runways, and Chapter 12 – Phraseologies; and to ICAO PANS-OPS (Doc 8168-OPS/611) – Procedures for Air Navigation Services, Volume I – Flight Procedures, Part VII – Simultaneous Operations on Parallel or Near-Parallel Instrument Runways.

2. General

2.1 The design specification of radar commonly used to monitor aircraft making their approach to land, including the display resolution and functionality, limits the minimum lateral distance at which two aircraft can fly independent parallel approaches to runways whose centrelines are more than 4,300 ft apart. Where runway centrelines are less than 4,300 ft apart, and PRM is not available, approaches must be dependent – that is to say the controllers must maintain a minimum along-track spacing, or stagger, between aircraft on the adjacent ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. The position of the first (or leading) aircraft affects what the controllers can do with the second (or trailing) aircraft: this restricts aerodrome capacity and increases the controllers’ workload.

2.2 PRM ground equipment includes radar that updates once per second, almost five times as fast as conventional aerodrome surveillance radar. This high update-rate radar has magnified displays, future-position

predictive software, and visual and aural alerts, which together significantly improve the controllers’ ability to monitor traffic on final approach. Because the radar updates so often, the controllers see a set of target trails that provide extremely accurate trend information. The automatic alerting function will issue cautions and warnings designed to assist the controllers to identify any potential conflict between aircraft and so issue appropriate instructions to either or both crews. During PRM operations, a separate controller monitors the traffic approaching each runway, ensuring that the required lateral separation between aircraft on final approach is maintained.

2.3 These features and procedures allow aircraft to fly independent approaches in IMC where the parallel or near-parallel runway centrelines are between 4,300 ft and 3,400 ft apart and each ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track is aligned with its respective runway centreline. Independent approaches in IMC may also be flown where the runway centrelines are between 3,400 ft and 3,000 ft apart provided that one of the ILS localizer courses and/or MLS final approach tracks leading to the threshold is offset from the other by between 2.5 and 3 degrees. PRM procedures will therefore restore some lost air traffic movement capacity, reducing delays, fuel consumption, and environmental impact.

3. Pre-Descent/Arrival Briefings

3.1 Briefings given before arrival at an aerodrome where PRM approaches can be expected or are known to be in use should address all of the topics described in the paragraphs that follow as are relevant in the circumstances.

4. Automated Terminal Information System (ATIS)

4.1 Aerodrome ATIS broadcasts should state when PRM approaches are being provided. If any aircraft and its crew are unable or unwilling to carry out a PRM approach (equipment deficiency, not approved, not acceptable to the pilot-in-command, etc.), they should inform air traffic control at the earliest opportunity.

4.2 PRM approaches may be suspended under certain weather conditions that could include: windshear, turbulence, downdrafts, crosswinds and severe weather (such as thunderstorms), which might otherwise increase ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track deviations to the extent that safety might be impaired. ATIS may give notice of PRM approach suspension.

5. Approach Charts

5.1 Flight crews should refer to the appropriate PRM approach chart for the aerodrome of intended landing, noting that this may not be the same as for non-PRM approaches. PRM approaches require that additional information be provided, including the monitor frequency and any special requirements and/or limitations that apply at that aerodrome.

6. Aircraft Equipment Requirements

6.1 The aircraft equipment must enable ILS or MLS signals to be displayed such that pilots can continuously follow the lateral and vertical guidance information presented.

6.2 At least two separate and serviceable means of receiving radio transmissions simultaneously from controllers must be available to the pilots of each aircraft when they are commencing a PRM approach.

7. Autopilot Coupled Approaches

7.1 With the aim of reducing the risk that an aircraft making an approach will fail to complete the turn on to the final approach course or, once established, will deviate from it, pilots should consider using the localizer and glide path capture functions before flying a fully-coupled approach.

8. Communications

8.1 To avoid blocked transmissions, each runway will be served by two frequencies, a primary and a secondary (or ‘monitor’) frequency. [The term ‘frequency’ used in this Document should be taken to include ‘channel’.] The tower controller and the monitor controller can transmit on both frequencies, but the monitor controller will have the ability to override the tower controller’s transmissions. Pilots are required to listen to both frequencies but will transmit only on the primary frequency. On the flight deck, receiver volume levels should be set at about the same for both frequencies so that incoming transmissions can be heard through one receiver if anything should interrupt messages received through the other (blocked transmissions, an open microphone, radio equipment failure, etc). 8.2 The point at which pilots should begin to listen to the monitor frequency as well as to the primary frequency will be as specified by the air traffic service provider and published in the related PRM approach chart.

9. Procedures Designed to Maintain Separation between Arriving Aircraft

9.1 To ensure adequate lateral separation between aircraft on adjacent localizer courses or final approach tracks, the PRM approach concept incorporates a no-transgression zone (NTZ) corridor of airspace at least 2,000 ft wide, equidistant between parallel or near-parallel runway centrelines. This zone is intended to act as a buffer between aircraft on approach. Aircraft will be vectored to intercept their respective ILS localizer courses or MLS final approach tracks with a minimum of 1,000 ft vertical separation. The NTZ begins at the point where the higher of the two aircraft intercepts its glide path and begins to descend, and the 1,000 ft vertical separation is lost. The task of the monitor controller is to ensure that no aircraft overshoots the turn onto the localizer course or final approach track or, after it has become established, takes up a track that will cause it to penetrate the NTZ. If the controllers observe any of these errors, they will immediately issue instructions to correct the reduction in separation.

9.2 When an aircraft is observed to overshoot the turn on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, or to continue on a track that - if not corrected - will penetrate the NTZ (but has not yet done so), the controllers will instruct that aircraft to return immediately to the correct course or track. The instructions are likely to be:

(Aircraft call sign) YOU HAVE CROSSED THE LOCALIZER (or MLS FINAL APPROACH TRACK). TURN LEFT (or RIGHT) IMMEDIATELY AND RETURN TO THE LOCALIZER (or MLS FINAL APPROACH TRACK).

9.3 When an aircraft is observed penetrating the NTZ, defined as a ‘blunder’ (i.e. not responding to instructions given to return to the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track), the controllers will instruct the pilot of the aircraft on the adjacent course or track to immediately turn and climb to an assigned heading and altitude in order to avoid the deviating aircraft. This manoeuvre is defined as a ‘breakout’, and its purpose is to direct the aircraft out of the approach stream. Exceptionally, and only where the air traffic controller considers the manoeuvre essential, the aircraft may be instructed to descend provided there is no other viable alternative and the manoeuvre will not cause the aircraft to descend below the minimum flight altitude.

9.4 Due to the nature of this ‘breakout’ manoeuvre, the pilot is expected to immediately initiate the turn, and climb or descend as appropriate. Any heading instruction will not exceed 45 degrees track difference with the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. Internationally, ‘breakout’ instructions are likely to be:

(Aircraft call sign) BREAKOUT ALERT, (aircraft call sign) TURN LEFT (or RIGHT) DEGREES (or HEADING) (three digits) IMMEDIATELY TO AVOID TRAFFIC [DEVIATING FROM ADJACENT APPROACH], CLIMB (or DESCEND) TO (altitude).

The FAA is using the term “Traffic Alert” to initiate a breakout. Thus, in the United States, ‘breakout’ instructions are likely to be:

(Aircraft call sign) TRAFFIC ALERT, (aircraft call sign) TURN LEFT (or RIGHT) DEGREES (or HEADING) (three digits) IMMEDIATELY TO AVOID TRAFFIC [DEVIATING FROM ADJACENT APPROACH], CLIMB (or DESCEND) TO (altitude).

9.4 Pilots must be aware of the terminology used in the State that they are flying in to initiate a breakout manoeuvre.

10. Breakouts

10.1 Pilots should keep an increased sense of awareness when conducting PRM approaches, so as to immediately act and respond to any ‘breakout’ instruction they may be given.

10.2 The probability is low that any aircraft will ‘blunder’ from its assigned ILS approach course or MLS final approach track and enter the NTZ, causing the monitor controller to issue ‘breakout’ instructions to the aircraft approaching on the adjacent ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track. However, because of the close proximity of the two localizer courses or final approach tracks, it is essential that pilots follow the ‘breakout’ instructions precisely and expeditiously. These instructions provide conflict resolution for the threatened aircraft, with the turn portion of the ‘breakout’ being the single most important element in achieving maximum protection.

10.3 A turn away from a ‘blundering’ aircraft should reduce the risk that an ACAS Resolution Advisory will be displayed. However, if an RA is received, this should also be followed.

10.4 If both an RA and a ‘breakout’ instruction are received, the pilot should always follow the RA (even if it differs from the monitor controller's climb/descent instruction) while complying with the turn portion of the breakout instruction. As soon as practicable after responding to an RA, flight crew should inform the controller of their manoeuvre.

11. Aircraft Handling

11.1 ‘Blunders’ are less likely to arise and ‘breakout’ instructions are less likely to be required when pilots pay close attention to the initial turn on to the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, ensuring that their aircraft does not fail to capture as intended. Lateral separation is less than normal when flying PRM approaches. For this reason, close monitoring of the flight path and a prompt response to controller instructions are especially important, as is strict compliance with any heading and speed constraints given to reduce the rate of closure.

11.2 Monitored Approach Course Corrections If a controller observes an aircraft deviating from the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the pilot will be instructed to return to correct course or track. The pilot should initiate the correction without delay using whatever flight management system overrides will result in swift compliance with the instruction or, if this cannot be achieved, by disconnecting the autoflight systems and performing the manoeuvre manually. Failure to respond in a timely manner could require the ‘breakout’ of an aircraft on the adjacent approach course.

11.3 Breakouts With regard to handling the ‘breakout’ manoeuvre, the fastest way to initiate an immediate turn and/or change in pitch angle is to do so manually, applying control wheel or side-stick inputs after disengaging the autoflight systems as necessary. Subsequent actions should be to adjust the power and trim before re-engaging any flight management system. In some aircraft it will be necessary to disengage the autothrottles. The rate-of-change algorithms built into the autopilot vertical or lateral flight path control selectors in many aircraft are unlikely to deliver the immediate response and change of flight path expected by a controller in a breakout manoeuvre.

12. Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach Procedures

12.1 When PRM approach procedures are used at aerodromes where the parallel or near-parallel runway centrelines are between 3,000 ft and 750 ft apart, independent approaches may be designed using a procedure described as a Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach (SOIA). SOIA geometry requires that the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track serving one of the runways is offset and that the associated transmitter is displaced to one side of the runway. This approach also provides glide path information. The other runway is served by an in-line ILS or MLS.

12.2 In general, the arrangements described above for PRM approaches apply also to SOIA, but with these differences:

12.2.1 Aircraft flying adjacent in-line and offset approaches are paired by ATC such that the aircraft flying the offset approach trails the aircraft flying the in-line approach. The transmitter of the offset localizer course or final approach track positioned at one side of the runway it serves ensures that adequate lateral separation, which progressively reduces as the offset and in-line approaches converge, is provided between aircraft pairs. The position where this separation becomes 3,000 ft defines the Missed Approach Point (MAP) for the offset approach.

12.2.2 The pilot of the aircraft flying the offset approach will be expected accomplish three tasks in order to proceed past the MAP with the intention of landing:

a) visually acquire the aircraft ahead flying the in-line approach;

b) report traffic in sight to ATC (noting that the controller may not acknowledge this transmission); and

c) have the runway environment in sight.

12.2.3 If the pilot does not comply with these requirements, a missed approach must be executed upon arrival at the MAP. After passing the MAP, separation between aircraft on adjacent approaches is by visual means only. When appropriate, the pilot flying the offset approach must adjust the aircraft flight path to align with the landing runway, and should aim to become stabilized by 500 ft above the threshold elevation. This pilot then becomes responsible for maintaining visual separation from the aircraft ahead flying the adjacent in-line

approach. Therefore, whilst aircraft may be flying in IMC during their descent towards the MAP, visual conditions must exist at and beyond that point.

13. Training

13.1 Operators should ensure that pilots and flight engineers are given appropriate training in PRM addressing all the topics described in this Document. Specific instructions appropriate to the type of aircraft flown should be given on handling and flight deck management techniques.

13.2 Use should be made of any suitable video, DVD, etc intended to assist flight crew understanding of PRM approach procedures.

13.3 Pilots and flight engineers should practice PRM procedures in an aircraft or flight simulator suitable for the purpose before flying PRM approaches in IMC. Such experience should include: pre-descent/arrival briefing; use of PRM approach charts; joining the ILS approach course or MLS final approach track; transition to visual approach associated with SOIA; response to controller instructions to correct a ‘blunder’; and the correct response to ‘breakout’ instructions both with and without an ACAS RA.

Division IX

Manuals

745.135 Contents of Company Operations Manual

R745.135 - Company Operations Manual - Titles

The operator may title this manual anyway that they see fit. If titled differently, then an instruction in the preface or introduction of the manual must state that this manual is the Company Operations Manual.

If the contents of the COM are located in more than one manual, then each of these manuals must indicate the areas of the COM that they address and where the other areas of the COM can be found.

R745.135 - Company Operations Manual - Structure

There are many ways of structuring a COM. The following example meets all of the regulatory and standards requirements and is recommended as a format. This format is organized in the same manner as the CARs, part VII subpart 5 and maintains the same division titles.

Division I. General;

1. A table of contents (705.135);

2. A list of effective pages (705.136);

3. Amendment procedures, and distribution list; and

4. Preamble (the preamble should state that the Company Operations Manual is a contract between Transport Canada Aviation and the company as to how they are approved to operate).

Division II. Certification;

1. A copy of the air operator’s certificate and operations specifications;

2. A management organization chart; and

3. The duties, responsibilities and succession of command of management and operational personnel.

Division III. Flight Operations;

1. The responsibilities for control of flight operations, operations co-ordination and operational control including:

(a) who may authorise flights and how;

(b) procedures for operational flight plans including procedures to ensure that flight crews, at the time that they receive the flight plan, are informed of any aeroplane defects that have been deferred by an MEL;

(c) the retention period of operational flight plans for audit purposes;

(d) VFR and IMC operating requirements (705.25 & 725.25);

(e) alternate aerodrome requirements (602.122, 602.123);

(f) procedures for establishing company routes in uncontrolled airspace, if required;

(g) the official publications utilized by the company for approach plates and enroute charts including which company supplies the publications, who must carry the publications, how they are distributed and who is responsible for amendment and up-date;

(h) the company's authorized operating weather minima (602.126, 602.127);

(i) the company procedures for the dissemination of operational information, bulletins, temporary amendments etc. including who is responsible for the dissemination and how the information is distributed;

(j) the company weight and balance control system including procedures, responsibilities and methodology (705.38 & 725.38);

(k) the company's control program to prevent dispatch of an aircraft with an unserviceable APU to airports with no serviceable or useable AMU when:

(i) the aeroplane has no internal engine start capability;

(ii) refuelling may be necessary and the aeroplane is prohibited from being refuelled with an engine running; or

(iii) when de-icing may be necessary and the aeroplane is prohibited from being de-iced with an engine running.

2. Company procedures for encounters with and avoiding windshear including take off, enroute and approach;

3. Company policy on fuel and oil requirements including calculation methods, quantities, computer flight plan biases, contingency fuel, responsibilities etc. (705.25 &725.25);

4. Company policy and method of complying with flight and duty time limitations and crew rest requirements including responsibilities of individual crew members and others and tracking methods (604.26-29);

5. Company procedures including log keeping for applicable operating procedures such as ETOPS and MNPS, and the responsibilities for the reclearance of flights;

6 Company policy and responses required to GPWS and TCAS warnings (602.31);

7. Company procedures for enroute recording and log keeping of navigation and communications and the responsibilities for these tasks;

8. Company policy and procedures for the carriage and securing of cargo, carry on baggage and commissary supplies and equipment including task responsibilities (705.41, 602.86);

9. Company policy and procedures regarding the briefing of passengers and crew (602.87, 602.88, 705.31, 705.42, 725.31, 725.42);

10. Company policy and procedures for handling and crew co-ordination of emergencies on the ground and airborne (705.39) including;

(a) accident/incident reporting;

(b) ELT operating procedures;

(c) handling of unlawful interference and unruly passengers;

(d) cabin and passenger preparation for an emergency landing or ditching and aeroplane evacuation including the responsibilities for emergency and evacuation decisions;

(e) an inventory of and procedures on how and when to use emergency/survival equipment carried on board the aircraft (705.89-94, 725.89-94) and a description of any other aircraft equipment which could be used in a survival situation;

(f) company procedures for reporting an overdue aeroplane and any other information related to safety;

(g) company policy on simulated emergency situations (705.30);

11. Company policy on use of minimum equipment lists;

12. Company policy and procedures for handling the transportation of dangerous goods;

13. Company policy and procedures for refuelling, including refuelling with an engine operating, if permitted;

14. Company policy and procedures for occupying the observer seat including when and by whom (705.27, 705.28, 725.27, 725.28);

15. The forms utilized by the company including how, when and by whom they are to be completed and their distribution;

16. Company Flight Safety Program, policy and procedures;

17. Company Operations Control System (705.20, 725.20);

18. Company policy and procedures for the use of checklists (705.24); and

19. Company policy and procedures for flight crew members at the flight controls (705.29, 725.29).

Division IV. Aircraft Performance.

1. Company policy, procedures including who is responsible for preparing and updating runway analysis and how the analysis is used (705.54-61, 725.54);

Division V. Aircraft Equipment.

1. Company aeroplane critical surface contamination program including procedures and responsibilities (705.69);

2. Company policy and procedures for operating aeroplane instrumentation and equipment (705.72-80, 725.70);

3. Company policy and procedures for handling applicable inspections and defects;

4. Company policy and procedures for operating FDR and CVR (705.71, 725.71); and

5. Company policy and procedures for the use of oxygen (705.75, 705.93).

Division VI. Aircraft Emergency Equipment.

1. Company policy and procedures for operating aeroplane emergency equipment (705.89 to 705.94).

Division VII. Personnel Requirement.

1. Company policy and requirements for designation as pilot-in-command and second-in-command (705.103);

2. Company policy and requirements for flight attendant (705.104, 725.104);

3. Company policy and requirement for designation as flight attendant in-charge (705.105);

4. Company policy and requirements for pilot qualifications (705.106, 725.106);

5. Company policy and requirements for flight engineer or second officer (if required) (705.107, 725.107);

6. Company policy and procedures regarding crew paring requirements (705.108, 725.108);

7. Company flight attendant qualification requirements (705.109, 725.109);

8. Company flight dispatcher qualification requirements (705.110, 725.110);

9. Company policy and procedures for the tracking of route and aerodrome qualifications( 705.111, 725.111); and

10. Company policy and procedures for check authority (705.112);

11. Company policy and procedures for control of validity periods (705.113, 725.113);

Division VIII. Training.

1. The company training program shall include:

(a) indoctrination training;

(b) line indoctrination training;

(c) upgrade training;

(d) initial aircraft type training;

(e) recurrent aircraft type training;

(f) aircraft servicing and ground handling training;

(g) emergency training;

(h) aircraft surface contamination training;

(i) flight attendant aviation indoctrination training;

(j) flight attendant line indoctrination training;

(k) in-charge flight attendant training;

(l) flight attendant initial and recurrent training , including;

(i) safety procedures training;

(ii) aircraft type training;

(iii) aircraft surface contamination training; and

(iv) first aid training.

(m) flight dispatchers training, including;

(i) initial and recurrent aircraft type training;

(ii) on-the-job training; and

(iii) aircraft cockpit familiarization training.

The COM is to include a syllabus of all training programs (705.124, 725.124).

Division IX. Manuals.

1. The company Aeroplane Operating Manual (A.O.M.) for each aircraft type must be based on the manufacturers suggested manual and contain all differences and modifications for the company fleet, the company SOPs and the type checklists (705.137, 725.137);

2. Company SOPs must layout the method of performing all checklists, aircraft checks, crew co-ordination, emergency drills and approach procedures (705.138, 725.138);

3. Procedures in the Company Flight Attendant Manual (FAM) must be co-ordinated so as not to conflict with the COM, AOM and the SOPs (705.139).

S745.135(g) - Operational Control Manual

The air operator is permitted to have a separate operational control manual but this manual will be considered as part of the COM. New or revised operations manuals must ensure that the information in the operational control section is cross referenced to other appropriate parts of the operations manual.

R745.135(2a) - Company Operations Manual - Terminology

The COM will ensure that pilots, cabin attendants, flight dispatchers, maintenance and ramp personnel use identical terminology when referring to situations or procedures that require, or may require, co-ordinated action ( for example, the use of “evacuation” and “deplane”). This is to preclude the possibility of misunderstandings.

S745.135 - Company Operations Manual - Amendments

The company operations manual should accurately reflect how operations are performed within the company.

When there is a requirement for amending a particular operation, it is imperative that approval and manual amendment occur before the actual change of procedures is implemented. Where time is of the essence, then this process can be simplified, but all affected personnel must be aware of the change before the change is implemented.

S745.135(x)(ii) - Passenger Preparation for Emergency Landing/Ditching

Emergency procedures for the preparation of passengers for emergency landing/ditching are to include but are not limited to the following:

(a) notification of the emergency,

(b) flight deck to in-charge flight attendant briefing items:

(i) type of emergency,

(ii) time to prepare,

(iii) signal for brace position,

(iv) evacuation signal,

(v) who will notify the passengers and when,

(vi) special instructions such as exit(s) not to be used, etc., and

(vii) initiation/cancellation of the evacuation.

(c) if the terms evacuation and deplanement are used in the procedures, each term must be defined in the COM.

S745.135(x)(iii) - Emergency Evacuation

The emergency evacuation procedures must include crew member responsibilities including the responsibility for initiation of the evacuation.

S745.135(x)(iv) - Ground Emergency Co-ordination Procedures

Ground emergency co-ordination procedures may also include the post evacuation and survival procedures as listed below, as applicable to the air operator's operation:

(i) responsibilities of crew members such as grouping of passengers, first aid, etc.;

(ii) survival priorities such as first aid, signals, shelter, water, food, etc.;

(iii) hazards inherent in different environments as applicable to the air operator, (e.g. sea, desert, jungle, wilderness, and arctic);

(iv) identify on board equipment and supplies that can enhance survival;

(v) survival equipment; and

(iv) signalling and recovery techniques.

S745.135(dd) - Passenger and Cabin Safety Procedures

Passenger and cabin safety procedures include, but are not limited to, communication from flight deck to flight attendants such as:

(a) pre-flight crew briefings;

(b) procedure for flight attendants to be seated for take-off and landing;

(c) procedure for flight attendants to be seated during periods of in-flight turbulence, including the procedure to discontinue service when levels of turbulence exceeds light; and

(d) procedure for flight attendants to either:

(i) notify the flight deck that the cabin is secure and ready for take-off; or

(ii) notify the flight deck that the cabin is not ready.

S745.135(rr) - Procedures to control admission to the flight deck

It is expected that the air operator will develop and implement procedures that will ensure that there is no situation, emergency or otherwise, where there is only one able-body-person on the flight deck, unless there is a mean to re-enter the flight deck without the assistance of the remaining pilot. It is also expected that the person who will occupy the flight deck to ensure the re-entry of the second flight crew member, is an qualified employee of the air operator or a transport Canada inspector.

(i) It is intended that the procedures to control the admission to the flight deck is a two-step procedure. First, the person has to be authorized to occupy the flight deck, and the air operator has to establish the mean by which that authorization will be transmitted to the flight crew. Second, the person has to be admitted to the flight deck, after the captain is

satisfied that the authorization is in good order and after that that person has been identified by the required means to be the same person as who he/she claims to be.

745.138 Standard Operating Procedures

S745.138 - Aeroplane Standard Operating Procedures

SOPs will be published and available on board the aircraft.

Where an operator has SOPs that are common across several aircraft types, then these SOPs can reside in the COM. The procedures in the SOPs cannot be contrary to other parts of the COM.

S745.138(8) – Standard Briefings

These briefings are intended to include the security briefing referred to at recommendation number 16 of the Aircraft Security Operations Working Group. An amendment to the Commercial Air Service Standard (CASS) has been accepted at CASO under NPA 2003-39, and will be published in the near future.

S745.138(10) - Ramp/Gate Procedures

Items to be included in the ramp/gate procedures include, but are not limited to:

(a) no smoking policy,

(b) door closing procedures/signals,

(c) the seating of passengers prior to aircraft movement,

(d) the completion of standard passenger safety briefings,

(e) procedures for securing the cabin/galley for take-off, and

(f) passenger head count and weight and balance adjustments.

S745.138(15) - Cruise

Items to be included in the cruise procedures include, but are not limited to:

(a) Turbulence procedures including procedures to discontinue service when the level of turbulence exceeds light;

(b) fuel management, including automated operation of fuel transfer and weight and balance management;

(c) fuel accuracy checks at each waypoints identified on the operational flight plan, including independent check of each fuel quantity indicator, confirmation of fuel remaining at

destination and reconciliation of fuel burned and fuel remaining with the fuel quantity at departure;

(d) navigation accuracy checks at each significant waypoints identified in the flight plan or at each 10 degree of latitude or longitude, whichever is less, including plotting the present position approximately 10 minutes after passing each waypoints;

S745.138(16) - Descent Procedures

Items to be included in descent procedures include, but are not limited to:

(a) procedures for securing the cabin/galley for landing; and

(b) fuel dumping procedures (if applicable).

S745.138(21) - Refuelling with Passengers Onboard

If fuelling with an engine running is prohibited, a statement to that effect must be contained in the COM. If fuelling with an engine running is allowed, the COM shall specify that it is not standard practice and shall detail the procedures to be followed. At least the following elements will be included in the COM:

a) A prohibition against refuelling with passengers an board the aircraft;

b) The permissible distance of the aircraft from the passengers and terminal buildings;

c) A stipulation that the entire refuelling operation be monitored;

d) A description of how the refuelling is to be conducted;

e) A description of the bonding procedures to be used;

(f) A stipulation that cargo may not be loaded/unloaded during refuelling; and

(g) A stipulation that other aircraft servicing may not be carried out during refuelling.

S745.138(25) - Emergencies

Other emergencies could include but are not limited to:

(a) gate/apron emergencies;

(b) APU torching/fire;

(c) fuel spill/fire;

(d) fire fighting;

(e) fuel fumes in cabin;

(f) taxi emergencies.

S745.138(25)(d) - Bomb Threat and Hijacking

Bomb threat and hijacking procedures include:

(a) procedures with the aircraft on the ground;

b) procedures with the aircraft in flight; and

(c) use of code words.

Summary of Chief Pilot QualificationsAppendix B

Name of Carrier Headquarters File Number Regional File Number

Resume of Qualifications — Chief Pilot, CASS 725.07(2)(b)(i) __________Chief Pilot Nominee Licence Number

Hours FlownPilot-in-Command Multi-Engine Pilot-in-Command Single Engine Grand Total Flying Time

Aviation Background (Companies, Duties and Aeroplane Dates

From To

Supervisory Experience From To

Suitability for Chief Pilot Duties as Laid Out in Company Operations Manual

I certify that to the best of my knowledge, the information provided above is true and I accept the position of Chief Pilot. My qualifications meet the requirements of CASS 725.07(2)(b)(i) __________________________

__________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________Signature of Chief Pilot Nominee Date

Recommended

__________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________Signature and Title of Company Executive Date

Appendix B

Page 2

Transport Canada Use Only

1. Recommendation of ACI (If Required)

________________________________________________ _________________________Signature of ACI Date

2. Regional Recommendation/Action

_________________________________________________ _________________________Signature of Regional Director, Air Carrier Date

3. Headquarters Action (If Required) (Deviation Authority Operations Specifications)

_________________________________________________ _________________________Signature Date

Appendix A

Nomination for Operations ManagerCASS 725.07(2)(a)(i). ____________

I, _______________________________________________ of ____________________________________________

(Print Name and Executive Position) (Name of Air Carrier)

hereby nominate _______________________________________________________________ as Operations Manager.

(name and, if applicable, licence number)

Nominee's Resume

1. Background (Companies, Dates and Duties)_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2. Administrative Experience (Companies, Position and Duties)_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________3. General Suitability to Carry out Duties of Operations Manager as stated in the

Company Operations Manual_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________The nominee is personally suitable and has a thorough knowledge of the Company's Operations, Maintenance and applicable Aircraft Flight and Operating Manuals.

_____________________________________________________ _______________________________Signature of Company Executive Date

_____________________________________________________ _______________________________Signature of Nominee Date

Page 1 to be completed by applicant; Page 2 to be completed by TCA only.

Appendix A

Page 2

Transport Canada Use Only

1. Recommendation of ACI (If Required)

_________________________________________________ _________________________Signature of ACI Date

2. Regional Recommendation/Action