BP 1B 01 –MATHEMATICS QP.pdf · 28. Explain the terms sample point and sample space Part C (Short...

BP 1B 01 –MATHEMATICS

Model Question Paper

Time 3hrs Part A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries weightage 1 A. 1. The derivative of is

a) b) c) d)

2. If y = , is

a) Sin hx b) Cos hx c) Cosec hx d) Sec hx

=-------------------------

a) b) c) d)

4. If y = log x, y3 is

a) b) c) d)

B. 5. The integrating factor of + is _______________

6. The integrating factor of cos3 x is

a) log sec x b) sec x c) tan x d) sinx

7. The solution of the differential equation + = is

a) + c b) + c

c) + c d) + c

8. The solution of ydx+xdy = 0 is

a) xy=c b) = c c) x=c d) x = c

C. 9. One value of (x) dx is

a) f (x) b) c) f(x) d) none of these

=

a) b) c) log x d) log

sin = _______________

dx =

a) log (cosx) + c b) log (sin x) +c

c) log (sin x + cos x) + c d) log (sin x – cos x) + c

D. 13. If = 7, then the value of m is ____________

14. If = 0, then its roots are

a) 1 only b) 0,1 c) 0 only d) 1,-1,0

15. If A = B = , then AB =

a) b) c) [13] d) none of these

16. If A is a square matrix such that A2 + I = 0 then A=

a) b) c) d)

E. 17. The unit vector perpendicular to each of the vectors and

is

a) b) c) d)

18. The volume of the parallelepiped whose edges are represented by

,

, is 546. Then a is

a) 3 b) 2 c) -3 d) -2

19. [ = __________________

20. If = , divergence of

Part B (Short answers)

Answer any six questions. Each question carries a weightage of 1 .

21. Show that y=a cos h satisfies the differential equation =

22. If x= a y = b find .

23. Solve tan y dx + sec2 y dy = 0

24. Find .

25. Given A = find A-1.

26. Find the rank of the matrix .

27. Find the divergence of = at (1,1,1)

28. Given = , = , = and =

. Find

Part C (Short Essay)

Answer any four. Each question carries a weightage of 2.

29. If y= sin (m , show that (1-x2) - x + m2 y = 0.

30. Evaluate

31. Find dxdy

32. Show that (2xy + y – tan y) dx + (x2 - x tan2y + sec2 y + 2) dy = 0 is exact and solve it.

33. Solve x + y = y2 log x.

34. Find a, b, c if = (3x-3y+az) is irrotational.

Part D

Answer any two. Each question carries a weightage of 4.

35. Applying Leibnitz’s Theorem find the nth derivative of x2 e3x .

36. Obtain the row equivalent canonical matrix of

37. Evaluate .

BP 2B 03 - BIOSTATISTICS Model Question Paper

Time: 3hrs Part A Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries weightage 1

A. 1. Aims of biostatistics are a)To design experimental investigation and sample surveys for generating data. b)To organize and represent the data in suitable tables, diagrams or graphs

c)To draw valid inferences from the data d)All of them.

2.The term biometry was coined by …………………(Francis Galton/ Weldon) 3. Sample size depends on

a) Type of problem investigated b) Resources available c) Required precision d) All of them.

4. In ………………… random sampling, the population is divided into a number of sections, called strata (multistage / stratified)

B. 5. When data is classified according to the magnitude it is called

a) Chronological data b)Qualitative data c) Quantitative data d)Continuous data.

6. Process of arranging primary data in a systematic way from smallest to the largest is

called ………………….. of data (Classification / array) 7. Continuous variables are represented by

a) Histogram b) Line diagram c) Bar diagram d)Pie Chart. 8. Mode can be located graphically with help of

a) Line Diagram b) Bar Diagram c) Histogram d) Pie Diagram

C. 9. The algebraic sum of the deviations of set of ‘n’ values from their arithmetic mean is

a) n b) o c) I d) none of these. 10. ……….. divide the series of observations into hundred equal parts (deciles / percentiles) 11. Standard deviation

a) Is square root of arithmetic mean of the squares of the deviations of the observation from their arithmetic mean

b) Is the average difference between the items of distribution and mean of that series

c) Ignores 50 percent of the extreme items d) Represents the dispersion of the sample mean around the total population

mean 12. Coefficient of variation is

a) X b) σ c). X d) X

X σ

X 100 X 100

σ

D. 13. If each of a set of observations of a variable is multiplied by a constant (non- zero) value, the variance of the resultant variable

a) is unaltered b) increases c) decreases d) none of these. 14. Square of standard deviation is called ……….. (mean deviation/ Variance) 15. Coefficient of correction

a) can take any value b) is always more than +1 c) is always less than -1 d) can take any value between +1 and -1

16. When values of two variables deviate in the same direction, it is called ……………correlation (negative / positive)

E. 17. The Correlation between X and Y is -.6. Their covariance is 4.8 and the

variance of Y is 4. Then S.D of X is: a) 2 b) 4 c) 9 d) 16 18. If the regression coefficients of X on Y and Yon X are -0.4 and -0.9 then the correlation coefficient between X and Y is: a) -0.65 b) 0.6 c) -0.6 d) 0.65 19. If A and B are mutually exclusive events and P (A) = 0.2 and P (B) = 0.7, then P (AUB) is

a) 0.14 b) 0 c) 0.9 d) 0.2857. 20. If A and B are independent events and P (A) = 0.3 and P (B) = 0.6, then P (AUB) is

a) 0.78 b) 0.72 c) 0.5 d) 0.9


Answer any six questions. Each question carries weightage 1

21. Define biostatistics. 22. What is discrete data? 23. What is cumulative frequency curve? 24.Calculate mean and median from the following ungrouped data relating to Hemoglobin percent in g/100 ml.

6.5, 6.0, 7.5, 8.2, 8.5, 8.7, 8.8, 8, 9, 9 and 9.5 25. What is correlation? 26. Differentiate between type I and type II errors 27. What is the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays? 28. Explain the terms sample point and sample space

Part C (Short essays)

Answer any four questions. Each question carries weightage 2 29. Describe advantages of random sampling 30. The blood groups of 25 blood donors are given below. Summarize the data using a frequency distribution.

AB, B, A, O, B O, B, O, A, O

B, O, B, B, B A, O, AB, AB, O A, B, AB, O, A

31. Draw a histogram to represent the following data of earnings of workers.

Monthly Earning

Number of workers

80-120 120-140 140-160 160-180 180- 200 200-220

4 7 13 8 5 2

32. Find out mean, median and mode for the distribution of the weights of 150 sheep from the data given below:

Weight in Kg: 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90 Frequency 18 37 45 27 15 8

33. For five patients, temperature (X) and pulse (Y) are given. Calculate the Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Correlation between X and Y

Patient Temperature X Pulse Y A B C D E

102 101 100 99 98

100 90 80 70 60

34. Discuss various steps in the procedure of testing the hypothesis.

Part D (Long Essay) Answer any two questions. Each question carries weightage 4

35. What do you mean by presentation of data? Describe various methods of presenting data collected by investigators? 36. What are the properties of a good average? Examine these properties with reference to the A.M, Median and Mode, and give an example of situations in which each of them can be the appropriate measure for the average. 37. Explain what are regression lines. From the data given below obtain the regression equation of X on Y

X: 2 3 7 8 10 Y: 10 9 11 8 12

Core Course- V

BP 3B 05 CHEMISTRY - I


Time 3 hrs

Part A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries weightage 1

A. Choose the correct answer

1. An isotope of Th231 can be converted in to Th227 by the emission of ………….

(a)one alpha particle,(b) one beta particle,(c)two alpha particle and one beta,

(d)one alpha and two beta

2. Nuclei having the same atomic and mass numbers are known as ………. (a)isotones, (b)isotopes, (c)isobars, (d)none) 3. The nuclear reaction D+D�He is…….. (a)fission, (b)fusion (c)chain (d)thermal 4. With the passage of time the rate of radioactive disintegration…….. ( a)remains same (b)increases (c) decreases (d)none

B. 5-8 Match the following

a. Isotopes stability

b. Reactor unit of radio activity

c. Mass defect mass spectrograph

d. Curie uranium

C. Fill up the blanks

9. Radio active disintegration is a………………………………….. 10. Pseudounimolecular reactions are otherwise called ………….

11. The unit of a zero order reaction is ………………….. 12. The unit of rate is ……………………………..

D. Choose the correct answer 13. Activated complex theory is related to……..

(a)kekule (b)Heisenberg (c) Polanyi (d) none 14. Active site is related to ……….

(a)aromacity (b)benzene (c)catalyst d)none 15. LCAO is related to …………….

(a)Hunds rule (b)molecular orbitals (c) electrons (d) none) 16. The shape of SP2 hybridisation is

(a)cyclic b)tetrahedral c)pentagonal d)triagonal

E. 17-20 Match the following a. lattice energy covalent bond b Hydro carbon ionic bond c. water Born Haber cycle d. Sodium chloride Angular shape

Part B (Short Anwers) Answer any six questions. Each question carries weightage 1

21. Define ionic product of water? 22. What is bond order? 23. What is binding energy? 24. What are isotopes? 25. Third order reaction rarely takes place.Why? 26. What is buffer solution? 27. Write a proton induced nuclear reaction? 28. Write a nuetron induced nuclear reaction?

PART C (Short essays)

Answer any four question. Each question carries weightage 2

29. Discuss the structure of benzene?

30. Briefly outline the theory of covalent bonding?

31. Derive the equation for the rate constant of a first order reaction?

32. Differentiate order and molecularity?

33. Explain the optical isomerism of tartaric acid?

34. Discuss the geometrical isomerism of aldoximes?

PART D (Long essay)

Answer any two question. Each question carries weightage 4 35. Outline the function of a nuclear reactor? 36. Describe two methods of separation of isotopes? 37. Derive Henderson-Hassel back equations for acidic buffer and basic buffer?

BP 3B 06 INTRODUCTORY BIOPHYSICS


Part A


A. 1. Phospholipid is an example for ______________ a. Compound lipid b. Simple lipid c. Steroids

2. Carbohydrate that contain an aldehyde group are called __________. 3. The most important pentoses in biology are ______________ 4. Storage polysaccharides of animals

a. Glycogen b. Starch c. Glucose

B. 5. Tyndall effect is exhibited by. a. True solution b. Colloidal solution c. Suspension

7. 6. A system in which that can exchange energy with its surroundings but 8. not the mass is called

a. Isolated system b. Closed system c. Open system

7.An example for intensive property

a. Temperature b. Mass c. Volume d. Energy

8. Osmosis is the movement of ___________ from a region of

________ solute concentration to a region of ________ solute concentration

C. 9. In polypeptides the amino acids are joined by _____________

a. Hydrogen bond b. Covalent bond c. Peptide bond

10. Nucleosides are the combination of _____________ and ____________

11. Which type of sugar is present in DNA a. Ribose sugar b. Hexose sugar c. Deoxyribose

12. An example for an imino acid is a. Glycine b. Proline c. Alanine

D. 13. Cellulose is a polysaccharide of _______________ molecules

14. Purine bases are ___________ and ___________________

15. In RNA thymine is replaced by ___________ a. Adenine b. Uracil c. Cytosine

16. The acidic nature of nuclic acids is due to the presence of __________ a. Phosphoric acid b. Deoxy ribose c. HCl

E. 17. The disorder and randomness of the system is __________

a. Entropy b. Enthalpy c. Free energy

18. Movement of glucose across the membrane is an example for __________ a. Passive diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion c. Osmosis

19. The process of conversion of a sol in to a gel is called _______________ 20. Formation of delta is an application of _____________ property.

a. Osmotic property b. Colloidal property c. Surface tension



21. Nucleotides. 22. Enthalpy.

23.Redox potential.

24.High energy compounds.

25.Surface tension.

26.Hemodialysis.

27. Tyndall effect. 28.Lyophilic colloids.


Answer any four questions. Each question carries weightage 2

28. Biological importance of adsorption.

29. Discuss the importance of redox potential in biological system.

30. Bomb calorimetry. 31. Energy of activation. 32. Properties of amino acids. 33. Nernst equation.

Part D (Long essay)

Answer any two questions. Each question carries weightage 4

34. Discuss about the laws of thermodynamics. 35. Discuss about colloids, and its properties and uses. 36. Discuss about the important types of biomolecules.

BP 4B 07 CHEMISTRY - II


Part A


A. Fill up the blanks 1. Chirality of a carbon compound is due to its ………….

2. Butane exhibits ……………. Isomerism. 3. Dissymmetric object is one which is …………………………… 4. Tartaric acid has …………. number of optical isomers

B. 5-8 Match the following

a. Coloumn chromatography RF value

b. Paper chromatograph optical isomerism

c. Lanthanides Alumina

d. Resolution Ion exchange chromatography

C. 9. Carbonium is an anion in which carbon carries………………..

10. Which is more stable (a)10 carbonium ion.(b) 30 carbonium ion (c) 40 carbonium ion (4) none

11. Methylene is an example of ………………….. (a) Carbonium ions (2) inorganic compound (3) Carbene (4) Aromatic compound 12. Walden Inversion is related to ………………

(a)SN1 reaction, (b)SN2 reaction, (c) peroxide effect ,(d) none

D. 13-16. Match the following

a. .Pyrrole 5- carbon atoms

b. Pyridine Aromatic

c. Indole Oxygen

d. Furan 8- carbon atoms

E. Fill up the blanks

17. The catalyst used in in Friedel Crafts acylation is………………..

18. Chlorine ……………. directing group in mono substituted benzene. 19. Aniline on bromination gives …………………….. 20. The chloronium ion is nucleophilic or electrophilic Part B (Short answers) Answer any six questions. Each question carries weightage 1

21. What is Huckels rule? 22. What is enentiomer? 23. Write notes on Rf value? 24. Write a note on mesomerism? 25. Why is flouraceticacid is stronger than chloracetic acid? 26. Draw the structure of indole? 27. Write a note on radioactive equilibrium ? 28. Define PH ?


Answer any four questions. Each question carries weightage2

29. What is Nuclear fusion ? Explain the working of Hydrogen bomb? 30. Write notes on asymmetric synthesis? 31. Explain the functioning of acid and basic buffer? 32. Explain thin layer chromatography? 33. Write down the structure and importance of purine? 34. Explain steric effects with example? Part D ( Long essay)


35. Explain electrophilic substitution reaction with mechanism –halogenation and nitration? 36. Explain inductive effect ? What are its applications? 37. How Lanthanides are separated using Ion- Exchange chromatography?

BP 4B 08 CELLULAR BIOPHYSICS


Part A

Answer all questions . Each bunch of four questions carries weightage 1

A. 1. Lysosomal enzymes are collectively called as _______________ 2.Energy converting organelles in the eukaryotic cells.

a. Chloroplast b. Mitochondria c. Endoplasmic reticulum

3.Phospholipids present in inner mitochondrial membrane ______________ C. Microtubules contain the proteins

a. Tubulin b. Myosin c. Actin

B. 5. The second gap phase is the ______________ phase of the cell cycle. a. G1 phase b. G2 phase c. S phase

6. Ageing is otherwise known as ________________ 7. Peroxisomes help in the decomposition of _____________ 8. The process of conversion of normal cells in to malignant cell is known as

_______________

D. 9. The cell division in prokaryotes are a. Amitotic b. Mitosis c. Meiosis

10.Ribosome are an example for

a. Membraned structure b. Non-membraned organelle c. Cytoskeleton

11. Power house of the cell a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic c. Ribosome

12. An example of cytoskeleton a. Microtubules b. Lysosome c. Golgi Apparatus

D. 13. Cdk are _______________

14. The final stage of cell division by which the cell is divided into two a. Telophase b. Cytokinesis c. Anaphase

15. Chiasmata are seen in ___________ stage a. Diplotene b. Metaphase1 c. Anaphase1

16.Fluid Mosaic Model was proposed by

a. S J Singer and Nicholson b. Danielli and Davison c. Robertson

E. 17. Membrane proteins are classified in to ___________ and ___________ 18. Two types of endoplasmic reticulum are __________ and ___________ 19. An organelle which helps in protein synthesis

a. Mitochondria b. Golgibodies c. Endoplasmic reticulum

20. An organelle which helps in fertilization a. Lysosomes b. Mitochondria c. Ribosomes



21. Pachytene stage

22. Malignant tumour 23. Metastasis 24. Apoptosis

25.Endoplasmic reticulum

26. Membrane potential 27. Oxidative phosphorylation 28. Functions of golgi bodies



29. Difference between mitosis and meiosis 30. Structure and functions of Cell membrane 31. Active transport 32. Receptors and its functions 33. Cellular changes during aging 34. Cell cycle and its control

Part D (Long essay)


35. Using suitable diagram discuss about the difference between the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

36. Discuss about signal transduction 37. Explain about the molecular mechanism of fertilization.

BP 5B 09 – BIOCHEMISTRY


Time 3hrs

Part A


A. 1. Amino acid with no optical activity is

a) glycine b) alanine c) proline d) tyrosine

2. Additional functional group present in Argenine is ___________

3. Prominent amino acid separation technique is

a) TLC b) Paper c) iron exchange d) column

4. The net charge of zwitter ion is _______________

B. 5. Simplest sugar is

a) sucrose b) glyceraldehyde c) glucose d) fractose

6. The linkage in sucrose is _____________

7. 2′ epimer of D glucose is

a) D mannose b) galactose c) fructose d) ribose

8. Sucrose is non reducing sugar. True or false

B. 9. Unsaturated fatty acids with more than 20 carbon atoms are called as __________

10. Linoleic acid is

a) essential fatty acid b) non essential c) saturated d) mono unsaturated

11. Name of steroid nucleus is _____________

12. Vitamin D is synthesized from

a) stearic acid b) cholesterol c) lanosterol d) vitamin C

C. 13. Uracil is __________ base

14..DNA is genetic material because it is

a) double helical b) single stranded c) stable d) unstable

15. 216 nm absorption is more for RNA. True or false

16. Carboxylase enzyme is included in

a) hydrolase class b) Transfreace c) lyase d) ligase

D. 17. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes _________________

18. Glucokinase is active in

a) pancreas b) liver c) muscle d) heart

19. Free glucose is not released from muscles because __________ enzyme is absent.

20. Number of ATP produced from the oxidation of mitochondrial NADH is

a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 0



21. Write the principle of paper chromatography.

21. Prove Km = S.

23. What do you mean by optical specificity?

24. What are essential fatty acids?

25. Write the osazone reaction of glucose.

26. What is the role of PEPCK.

27. Write one irreversible reaction of glycolysis.

28. How pyruvate is converted to Acetyl – CoA in mitochondria?

Part C (Short essay)


29. Write short note on TLC.

30. Principle and instrumentation of photometry.

31. Differentiate competitive and non competitive enzyme inhibition

32. Explain gluconeogenesis.

33. Write the reactions of monosaccharides.

34. Write the primary structure of nucleic acid.

Part D (Long essay)

Answer any two. Each question carries weightage 4

35. Detailed note on primary structure of protein.

36. Features of Watson and Crick model of DNA.

37. Explain glycolysis.

BP 5B 10 RADIATION BIOPHYSICS


Time 3hrs

Part A


A.1. Half life of Co-60 radio isotope

a) 30 years b) 74 days c) 3.16 years d) 5.26 years

2. Beta ray spectrum is

a) continuous b) discrete c) pulsed d) uniformly distributed

3. Isotopes have

1. same mass number, but different atomic number

2. same atomic number, but different mass number

3. same number of neutrons

4. none of the above

4. How many HVT is one TVT

a) 1.22 b) 3.3 c) 0.963 d) 0.5

B. 5. Photo electric interaction

1. depends on Atomic number of target material only

2. does not depend on Atomic number of target material

3. depends on Atomic number of target material and energy of

interacting radiation.

4. does not depends on Atomic number of target material and

energy of interacting radiation.

6. Unit of absorbed does

a) kerma b) roentgen c) gray d) bequerre

7. Energy of X-ray depends on

a) kV b) mA c) kV & mA d) time

8. One Grey is

a) 100 rad b) 10 rad c) 0.1 rad

C. 9. Dose limit for public

a) 20mSv b) 50mSv c) 1 mSv d) 2mSv

10. Target of a conventional X-ray tube

a) W b)Pb c)Mo d) steel

11. Principle of detection of radiation in pocket dosimeter is

a) ionization b) thermoluminescence c) chemical reaction d) none of the

above

12. Radiation from cobalt – 60 isotope

a) gamma b) beta c) gamma & beta d) gamma & alpha

D. 13. Which of the following are ionizing radiations

a) proton b) alpha c) both alpha & proton d) none of the above

14. The type of particle entered into a gas detector is identified in which region

a) ionization b) proportion c) GM d) all the above

15. Minimum gamma energy required for pair production is

a) 511keV b) 1021keV c) 511MeV d) 1021MeV

16. The functioning of dianodes in photomultiplier tube is to

a) conversion of electron into photon b) conversion of photon into

electron

c) multiplication of electron d) multiplication of photon

E. 17. The intensity of X-ray is controlled by

a) varying the current b) varying the voltage

c) varying the target temperature d) all the above

18. Bragg ionization curve is related to which of the following

a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) all of them

19. Biological half life is due to

a) physical half life of isotope in the body

b) descretion of isotope from the body

c) both d) none of the above

20. Radioactive iodine is used in which of the following

a) scanning of lungs b) study of liver

c) treatment of thyroid cancer d) all of the above.



21. Explain ALARA principle and its importance. Give the dose limit for

radiation worker.

22. What is radiation weightage factor? Explain its importance in radiation

protection.

23. Write decay schem of Co-60 radio isotope.

24. Explain linear, mass, electronic and atomic attenuation coefficients.

25. Explain interactions of electron with matter.

26. What is characteristic radiation and bremstrahlung radiation.

27. What are percentage depth dose and TAR? Explain how it varies with field size.

28. Explain free-air ionization chamber with a diagram.



29. Calculate the activity of 1gm of Co-60. What will be the activity after 10 years (T

1/2 5.26 yrs)

30. Explain the working and principle of a TL Dosimeter.

31. With a neat diagram explain the working of rotating anode x-ray tube.

32. Explain 5 interactions of electromagnetic radiation with matter. How do they

depend on atomic number of target material and energy of radiation?

33. A gamma ray of energy 2MeV undergoes Compton scattering with an atom. The

gamma ray is scattered in an angle 45° from the original direction. Calculate the

energy of scattered gamma ray and direction of electron emitted.

34. Explain semi conductor Dosimetry with example.

Part D (Long essay)


35. a) Explain how the following are correlated and what are their effect in radiation

measurements Kerma, Cema, relative biological effectiveness, effective dose.

b) Sketch the voltage characteristics of gas detector. Explain the working under

different operating regions.

36. a) Explain deterministic and stochastic effects of radiation on living things.

Explain oxygen enhancement ratio.

b) A radioactive isotope is having strength of 10 curie. Calculate the number of

radiation detected by the detector of 2×2 cm2at distance of 1m & 2m away

from the source.

37. a) With a suitable diagram discuss the working of a cydotrone. Derive the

expression for the maxim energy of charged particle.

(b) In tungsten the K and L levels have the energies 69KeV and 10.5KeV

respectively. Calculate the wave length of Kα X-ray and the smallest wave

length of X-ray emitted from W target.

BP 5B 11 MOLECULAR BIOPHYSICS

Model Question paper

Time 3 hrs

Section A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries a weghtage 1

A. 1.Primary structure of protein is ------------

a) amino acid sequence b) nucleoside sequence c) nucleotide sequence

d) base sequence

2. Cis conformation is found commonly in --------

a ) alanine b) glycine, c) proline d) serine

3. Alpha helix is an example of

a) quaternary structure b) tertiary structure c) secondary structure

d) primary structure

4. Hydrogen bond in alpha helix is between ------- residues

a) nth and n+3

rd b) n

th and n+4

th c) n

th and n+5

th

d) nth and n+6

th

B. 5. Collagen is mainly composed of a) antiparallel beta sheet b)parallel beta sheet c)double helix

d) triple helix

6. Silk fibroin is mainly composed of

a) antiparallel beta sheet b)parallel beta sheet

c)double helix d) triple helix

7. Allostery and cooperativity is exhibited by ------------------

a) lysozyme b) thrombin c) Myoglobin d) hemoglobin

8. Following protein possesses quaternary structure

a) hemoglobin b)trypsin c) myoglobin c) lysozyme

C. 9. Metal ion found in hemoglobin

a) Zn b) Cu c) Fe d) Mn

10. A Salt bridge is possible between

a) lysine and alanine b) lysine and glutamic acid

c) leucine and aspartic acid d) leucine and arginine

11. Which of the following statement is appropriate for a water soluble protein

a) hydrophobic residues are mainly found on surface b) hydrophilic residues

are mainly found on surface c) hydrophobic residues are absent

d) hydrophilic residues are absent

12. Lysozyme is an example of -----------

a) hormone b) enzyme c) receptor d) membrane protein

D. 13. A nucleotide contain

a) base, ribose and phosphate group b) base, amino acid and phosphate group

c) peptide, ribose and phosphate group d) lipid, ribose and phosphate group

14. DNA contain following bases

a) adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil b) adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine

c) adenine, guanine, thymine and uracil d) adenine, thymine, cytosine and uracil

15. Following is Watson – Crick base pairing

a) G-T b) A-C c) A-T d) G-A

16. ------- is a left handed DNA

a) A DNA, b) B DNA c) C-DNA d )Z-DNA

E. 17. A codon contain

a) one nucleotide b) two nucleotides c) three nucleotides d) four nucleotides

18. A t-RNA contain

a) codon b) anticodon c) both codon and anticodon

d) neither codon nor anticodon

19. Which of the following is correct

a) G-C base pair is more stable than A-T base pair

b) A-T base pair is more stable than G-C c) Both are equally stable

d) Base pair stability depends on DNA conformation

20. A B-DNA contain

a) 9 base pair per turn b) 10 base pair per turn c) 11 base pair per turn

d) 12 base pair per turn

Section B (Short answer)


21. Why peptide bond is planar?

22. What are ‘turns’ in polypeptide?

23. What is meant by active site of an enzyme?

24. What is the function of chaperonins? .

25. Illustrate antiparallel beta sheet

26. Illustrate G-C base pairing.

27. What is a salt bridge?

28. What is the Clover-leaf model?

Section C (Short essay)

Answer any four questions . Each question carries a weightage 2

29. Ramachandran map

30. Immunoglobulins

31. Zinc finger motif.

32. Watson-Crick model of DNA

33. DNA supercoiling

34. Structure of ribosomes

Section D (Long essay)

Answer any two. Each question carries a weightage 4

35. Different levels of protein structure.

36. DNA polymorphism

37. Protein-DNA interactions

BP 5B 12 MOLECULAR BIOLOGY


Time 3hrs

Part A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries weightage

A.1. Which enzyme contributes the proof reading activity in DNA replication?

a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II

c) DNA polymerase III d) Taq polymerase

2_____________ is act as the inducer in the case of lac operon

b. The second type of control mechanism in Tryp operon

a) repression b) induction c) activation d) attenuation

c. Haemoglobin is an example for ___________________

B. 5.HEPA is the part of _____________.

a) laminar b) incubator c) refrigerator d) ovan

6.___________ is an example for genetically engineered protein

7.Alexander Fleming isolated penicillin from

a) P.notatum b) P.botulenm c) proteus d) lactobacillus

8.___________ is an example for restriction enzyme

C. 9. Group of genes acting along is known as

a) chaperons b) operons c) proteins d) hormones

10. DNA melting starts with _________ enzyme

11. Arabinose is a ___________ operon

a) +vely inducible b) –vely inducible

c) +vely repressible d) –vely repressible

12. Core part of nucleosome contains

a) histone proteins b) non histone proteins

c) globular proteins d) chromatins

D. 13. AUG is ______________ codon

14. Which enzyme helps to multiply cDNA copies in RT-PCR.

a) reverse transcriptase b) taq polymerise

c) photolase d) gyrase

15. Reverse transcriptase uses in _______________ PCR

16. ______________ is the restriction site for ECOR1

E. 17. Streptomycin is a __________________

a) antibiotic b) hormone c) protein d) enzyme

18. BT toxin derived from _____________ bacteria.

19. Allostery is a _______________ property

a) enzyme b) protein c) hormone d) drug

20. Teleomerase helps in _____________



21. DNA protein interaction.

22. Significants of reverse transcriptase.

23. Comment on solenoid.

24. RNA splicing

25. Structure of tRNA.

26. Telomerase enzyme.

27. Wobble hypothesis.

28. Plasmids



29. Structure of histone.

30. Structural assembly and organization of ribosome.

31. Properties of genetic code..

32. Post translational modifications.

33. Role of reverse transcriptase in genetic engineering

34. Explain about nucleosome organization.

Part D


35. Explain mechanism of gene expression with an example.

36. Prokaryotic translation and post translational modifications.

37. Explain about the main techniques used in molecular biology

BP 6B 13 – PHYSIOLOGICAL BIOPHYSICS


Time:3 hrs

PART- A

Answer all questions .Each bunch of four questions carries weightage of 1

A . 1. Which of the following is one of the four basic cell types in the body?

(a) Respiratory (b) Epithelial (c) Endocrine (d) Immune

2 In a reflex arc initiated by touching a hand to a hot stove, the effector will belong to

which class of tissue?

(a) nerve (b) connective (c) muscle (d) epithelial

3 Most of the water in the human body is found in

(a) The interstitial fluid compartment (b) the intracellular fluid (c) the plasma

compartment (d) the total extracellular fluid compartment

4 A molecule that loses an electron to a free radical

(a) becomes a free radical itself (b) is permanently destroyed (c) becomes electrically

neutral (d) becomes more stable

B. 5. Which cell structure contains the enzymes required for oxidative phosphorylation?

(a) mitochondria (b) peroxisomes (c) endosomes (d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

6. If a small amount of urea were added to an isotonic saline solution containing cells,

what would the result be?

(a) The cells would shrink and remain that way (b) the cells would first shrink, but

then be restored to normal volume after a brief period of time (c) the cells would

swell and remain that way (d) the urea would have no effect, even transiently

7. In considering diffusion of ions through an ion channel, which driving forces must

be considered?

(a) the ion concentration gradient (b) the electrical gradient (c) osmosis (d) both a

and

8. Which best describes an afferent neuron?

(a) the cell body is in the central nervous system and the peripheral axon terminal is

in the skin (b) the cell body is in the dorsal root ganglion and the central axon

terminal is in the spinal cord (c) all parts of the cell are within the central nervous

system (d) the dendrites are in the peripheral nervous system and the axon

terminal is in the dorsal root

C. 9. Which is a true statement about resting membrane potential in a typical neuron

(a) the membrane potential is closer to the sodium equilibrium potential than to the

potassium equilibrium potential (b) the chloride permeability is higher than that

for sodium or potassium (c) there is no ion movement at the steady resting

membrane potential (d) Ion movement by the Na+/K+- ATPase pump is equal

and opposite to the leak of ions through sodium and potassium channels

10. Which correctly associates a neurotransmitter with one of its characteristics?

(a) dopamine is a catecholamine (b) GABA is a neurotransmitter that mediates long

term potentiation (c) Serotonin is an endogenous opioid associated with “

runner’s high” (d) Glutamate is released by most inhibitory interneurons in the

spinal cord

11. What region of the brain contains the primary visual cortex?

(a) The occipital lobe (b) the frontal lobe (c) the temporal lobe (d) the

somatosensory cortex

12. Which is a false statement about skeletal muscle structure?

(a) a myofibril is composed of multiple muscle fibers (b) most skeletal muscles

attach to bones by connective –tissue tendons (c) a cross-bridge is a portion of

of the myosin molecule (d) Thin filament contain actin, tropomyosin and

troponin

D. 13. When a muscle fiber undergoes an isotonic contraction:

(a) M lines remain the same distance apart (b) Z lines move closer to the ends of

the A bands (c) A bands become shorter (d) I bands become wider

14. Which of the following contains blood with the lowest oxygen content?

(a) aorta (b) left atrium (c) right ventricle (d) pulmonary veins

15. Which of the following is not characteristic of the body’s capillaries?

(a) large total surface area (b) small individual diameter (c) thin walls (d) high blood

velocity

16. Hematocrit is increased

(a) When a person has a vitamin B12 deficiency (b) by an increase in secretion of

erythropoietin (c) following a hemorrhage (d) when the number of WBC is

increased

E. 17. The principle site of erythrocyte production is

the liver (b) the kidney (c) the bone marrow (d) the spleen

18. After the expiration of a normal tidal volume, a subject breaths in as much as air

as possible.The volume of air inspired is the

(a) inspiratory reserve volume (b) Vital capacity (c) Inspiratory capacity (d) Total

lung capacity

19. Which of the following will increase alveolar PO2?

(a) increased alveolar ventilation with no change in metabolism (b) increase in

metabolism and no change in alveolar ventilation (c) breathing air with 15 %

oxygen at sea level (d) carbon monoxide poisoning

20. Which of the following is consistent with respiratory alkalosis?

(a) hyperventilation (b) an increase in arterial CO2 (c) an increase in plasma

bicarbonate (d) an increase in alveolar ventilation during mild exercise

PART –B(Short answers)

Answer any six questions. Each question carries a weightage of 1

21. What change in cell volume will occur when a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?

22. What characteristics distinguish facilitated diffusion from active transport? 23. List the differences between graded potentials and action potentials

24. What is Chronaxie

25. Explain EPSP

26. Describe the function of pulmonary stretch receptors

27. What factors determine lung compliance? Which is most important?

28. What is Rh factor

PART-C (Short essay)

Answer any four questions. Each question carries a weightage of 2

29. Explain the principle and working of calorimeter

30. Draw and label a normal ECG. Relate the P, QRS, and T waves to the arterial

and ventricular action potentials

31. Describe the sequence of events leading to excitation-contraction coupling in

cardiac muscle

32. Describe the visual pathway

33. Compare and contrast the transmission of electrical activity at a neuromuscular

junction with that of a synapse

34. Explain the role of the crossed- extension reflex plays in postural stability

PART-D (Long essay)

Answer any two questions. Each question carries a weightage of 4

35. Write an essay on exchange and transport of gases in respiratory system

36. (a) Discuss synapse with suitable diagram (b) Explain the process of synaptic

transmission.

37. Describe the events in cardiac cycle

BP 6B 14 BIOMEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION


Time : 3 hrs

Part - A


A. 1. A microcontroller contains-------------

( a)Mouse (b) RAM (c) key board (d) Pendrive 2. The physical quantity that the instrumentation system measures is called

(a) Measurand (b) Sensor (c) Signal conditioner (d) Display system 3. The recording of the electrical activity associated with the functioning of the

heart is known as------------ (a) EEG (b) ECG (c) EMG (d) EGC

4. Cardiac monitor is useful for (a)Monitoring cardiac problems (b) Monitoring cardiac and lung problems

(c) Monitoring lung problems (d) Neither cardiac nor lung problems

B. 5. Determination of the % of oxygen saturation of the circulating arterial blood

(a)Spirometry (b) Oximetry (c) Flow cytometry (d) Endoscopy

6.The volume of gas inspired or expired during quiet breathing is known as--------- (a)Vital capacity (b) Tidal volume (c) Minute volume (d) Inspiratory reserve volume

7. Spirometer is used to measure (a) Liver function (b) Cardiac function (c) Lung function (d) Renal function 8. The normal pH of the extracellular fluid lies in the range of------------ (a)7.35 to 7.45 (b) 7.45 to 7.55 (c) 6.35 to 6.45 (d) 6.45 to 6.55

C. 9. Who discovered X-ray

(a) Wilhelm Konrad Rontgen (b) Robin Hook (c) Charles Darwin (d) Widmaier

10. Tomography is a term derived from the Greek word-----------------

(a) Tamas (b) Tomos (c) Temes (d) Tomes

11. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is given by

(a) t1/2=0.693/λ (b) t1/3=0.693/λ (c) t1/2=0.603/λ (d) t1/4=0.693/λ

12. Ultrasonics follow the general wavelength and frequency relationship given by (a) V=nλ (b) V=nβ (c) V=nα (d) V=n€

D. 13. Which is the best method for the diagnosis of mitral stenosis

(a)Echocardiograph (b) Electrocardiograph (c) Electroencephalograph

(d) Electromyograph

14. Dialyser is the part of -------------------- (a)Artificial lung system (b) Artificial kidney system (c) Artificial cardiac system (d) Artificial brain system

15. Half-life of cobalt-60 isotope is (a) 5.26 years (b) 4.56 years (c) 5.62 years (d) 4.65 years

16. PO2 means--------- (a) Pressure of Oxygen (b) Partial Pressure of Oxygen (c) Pulmonary

pressure of Oxygen (d) None of these

E. 17. Sphygmomanometer is used to measure

(a)Renal flow (b) Cardiac output (c) Blood pressure (d) Pulse pressure 18. Nitrogen wash out technique is employed for --------------------

(a) Lung volume (b)Inspiratory flow rate (c) Expiratory flow rate

(d) Dead space

19. Cochlea is a part of ----------------------------------

(a) Skin (b) Nose (c) Ear (d) Tongue

20. A- scan comes under (a) Ultrasonic imaging system (b) Magnetic resonance imaging system

(c) Thermal imaging system (d) none of these

Part – B (Short answers)


21. Physiological transducers 22. Transmission electron microscopy 23. Electromyograph 24. Cardiac pacemaker 25. LASER 26. Pulse oximetry 27. Application of UV radiation in medicine 28. Peak flow meter Part – C (short essay)


29. Use of radioisotopes in medicine

30. Telemedicine Technology

31. Echocardiograph

32. Hearing Aids

33. Phase contrast microscopy

34. Radiation hazards

Part – C (Long essay)


35. Write an essay on principle of MRI imaging system, biological effect of MRI,

and advantage of MRI imaging system.

36. Application of LASER in medicine.

37. Write an essay on electron microscopy.

Open Course I for Semester V

BP 5D 01 GENERAL BIOPHYSICS


Time 3hrs

Part A

Answer all questions. Bunch of four questions carries weightage 1 each

A.. 1. Adsorption is a _____________ Phenomenon.

2.During osmosis solvent enters through a semi permeable membrane from

a) Low to high concentration b) Higher to lower concentration

c) Higher to higher d) Isotonic to hypotonic

3.Osmotic pressure is a _____________ property

4.Which of the solution is having more osmotic pressure

a) Kcl b) Sucrose c) Glucose d) Protein

B. 5. Milk is ____________ type of emulsion.

6. Emulsifying agent in milk is

a) Casein b) Lactose c) Albumin d) Globulin

7. Precipitation of a colloid is done by _____________

8. pH of human blood is

a) 7.4 b) 7.38 c) 7.45 d) 7

E. 9. pH of a buffer is determined by

a) -log[H+] b) –log[OH-] c) Henderson – Hasselbalch equation d) Nernst

equation

10. Major buffer system in human blood is

a) phosphate b) bicarbonate c) protein d) citrate

11. Capacity of a buffer is determine by

a) salt/acid ratio b) concentration of salt and acid

c) both these d) only salt

12. To increase the pH of a buffer add __________

F. 13. Oxidative phosphorylation is taking place in

a) mitochondria b) mitochondrial inner membrane

c) outer membrane d) nuclear membrane

14. NAD – NADH couple is a __________ redox potential couple.

15. Electron carrier which is oxidized directly by oxygen is

a) cyt.b b) cyt.c c) cyt.c1 d) cyt a.a3

16. Colourless solutions absorb UV light – True/False

G. 17. In X-ray crystallography reflections are due to

a) electron b) proton c) both d) metals

18. In _________ spectroscopy molecules respond on the basis of their proton.

19. ___________ forms of molecule is subjected to X-ray crystallography.

20. UV spectro photometer is working on the basis of

a) Beer’s law b) Lambert’s law c) Newton’s law d) Beer- Lambert’s law



21. How will you prepare a buffer?

22. Name few emulsifying agents. 23. What do you mean by simple diffusion? 24. Differentiate active and passive transport. 25. What are the different complexes function in mitochondrial electron transport

chain? 26. Write the composition of plasma membrane. 27. Name different types of spectroscopic techniques. 28. Write the principle of NMR.



29. Write note on mitochondrial membrane.

30. Details of photosynthetic electron transport.

31. Explain the properties of colloids 32. Details of NMR spectroscopy. 33. Comments on the different electron carriers in mitochondrial electron transport

chain. 34. Note on UV spectrophotometer.

Part D


35. Explain active transport.

36. Note on X-ray crystallography and its applications. 37. Explain mitochondrial electron transport chain.

Open Course II –Semester V

BP 5D 02 General Microbiology


Time 3hrs

Part A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of 4 questions carries weightage 1

A. 1.. Microbiology is the branch of science deals with.

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) Microorganisms

2.______________ is an example of fungal toxin

3. Who is the father of Microbiology

4. Vaccination introduced by _________________

B. 5. Time and pressure duration in the case of sterilization by auto clave.

a) 120Lb – 15’ b) 180lb – 12’ c) 160lb – 17’ d) 100lb – 13’

6. Fleming isolated penicillin from _____________

7 . This is the organism which stand as a major controversy against Koch’s postulates

1. Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) Algae

8. ___________ is a bacterial disease transmitted through water

C. 9. Lacto bacillus is a representative of __________

a) gram+ve b) gram-ve c) cyano bacteria d) sulpher bacteria

10.Pneumonia caused by __________ bacteria

11.Phenolic compounds used for

a) physical sterilization b) chemical sterilisation

c) disinfection d) tyndallisation

12. SARS is caused by ____________

D. 13.. Tyndallisation introduced by

a) John Tyndall b) Pasture c) Koch d) Fleming

14. HIV causes _______________________.

15. _____________ is a representative of symbiotic bacteria

a) L.bacillus b) Azotobacter c) Proteus d) Strepto coccus

16. ___________ is a fungal disease.

E. 17. Mac-Conkey is an example of

a) simple media b) basal media

c) selective media d) differential media

18. _________ is a symptom of tuberculosis.

19. Salmonella typhi causes.

a) mumps b) chicken pox c) typhoid d) tuberculosis

20. Fungal diseases mainly transmitted through _______________


Answer any 6 questions. Each question carries weightage 1

21. Contribution of Louis Pasture

22. Fermentation.

23. Wine

24. Sterilization

25. Aflatoxin

26. Viral diseases.

27. Transgenic plants.

28. Endospores.



29. Air borne diseases.

30.Preservation of meat products.

31. Microbial spoilage of diary products

32. Bacterial cell wall.

33. Bacterial classification

34. Fungal toxins.

Part D(Long essay)


35. Write an essay on fermented foods.

36. What is fermentation? Write on fermented diary products.

37. Write an essay on industrial application of microorganisms.

Open Course III for Semester V

BP 5D 03 – Human Physiological Chemistry


Time 3hrs

Part A


A.. 1. The enzyme which digest starch in human intestine is _______________. 2. Gas exchange in lunges is happening through

a) alveoli b) air c) blood vessel d) vein

3. Gas exchange is due to the __________ pressure of CO2 and O2 4. Filtration activity is carried out by

a) cortex b) medulla c) nephron d) blood vessel

E. 5. The gastric pH is between __________. 6.Liver cells are called as

a) neuron b) nephron c) hepatocytes d) muscle cells

7.The outer cover of heart is ___________ 8.The higher level of blood pressure is due to

a) diastolic b) systolic c) cardiac cycle d) partial pressure

F. 9. Blood is a __________ tissue 10. Blood cell with no mitochondria is

a) RBC b) WBC c) nutrophil d) eosinophil

11. ESR means ________________ 12. Essential nutrient is

a)carbohydrate b) lipid c) vitamin d) protein

G. 13. The chemical name of Vitamin E is _____________ 14. Water soluble vitamin are

a) B & C b) C & A c) K & A d) D & A

15. Female sex hormone is _______________ 16. Thyroid gland is stimulated by

a) FSH b) TSH c) TH d) PTH

H. 17. Iodine deficiency causes _______________ 18. Iron deficiency causes

a) sickle cell anemia b) anemia c) head ache d) pellagra

19. Insulin is secreted by a) α-cells b) β-cells of islets of langerhans

c) chief cells d) pancreatic cells

20. Normal human volume is between ____________________



21. Factors affecting pulmonary breathing.

22.What do you mean by tidal volume

23. What are zymogens? 24. How glucose is absorbed from human intestine?

25. Draw the structure of nephron and label the parts. 26. Write the components of bile. 27. What are trace elements? 28. Name polypeptide hormones.



29. Give a note on gas exchange in lungs 30. Outline heart function. 31. Explain the extrinsic path way of blood clotting 32. Essay on mineral deficiency. 33. How pituitary glands control the endocrine system. 34. Comment on lymph function and composition.

Part D


35. Essay on blood composition and function 36. Explain protein calorie mal nutrition and protein rich foods 37. Write an essay on functions of fact soluble vitamins and their deficiency.

Open Course III for Semester VI

BP 6E 03 EXPERIMENTAL TECHNIQUES FOR STRUCTURE

ELUCIDATION

Model Question paper

Time 3 hrs

Part A

Answer all questions. Each bunch of four questions carries a weightage 1

A. 1. Number of molecules in a unit cell is normally represented by the letter

a) A, b)B c) C d) Z

2. Following is a symmetry element not observed in crystals

a) 3-fold rotation axis b) 4-fold rotation axis c) 5-fold rotation axis

d) 6-fold rotation axis

3. A protein cannot be crystallized in following space group

a) P21 b) P212121 c) P2/m d) P41

4. Conventionally the unique axis in hexagonal system is

a) a b) b c) c d) any

B. 5. How many point groups are there in crystals

a) 24 b) 32 c) 64 d) 230

6. Crystal system with lowest symmetry among the following

a) triclinic b) monoclinic c) orthorhombic d) cubic

7. Intensity of a reflection is proportional to

a) square of its amplitude b) its amplitude c) square-root of its amplitude

d) none of the above

8. Which information is missing during diffraction data collection

a) amplitude b) intensity d) phase d) space group

C. 9. How many peaks will be there in Patterson map if there are 3 atoms in

unit cell

a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 1

10. Direct methods is used for

a) crystallization b) data collection c) structure solution d) refinement

11. Which of the following does not possesses a magnetic moment

a) C12

b) C13

c) N14

d) O16

12. Following is a reference compound used in NMR experiment

a) methane b) tetramethyl silane c) carbon tetrachloride

d) hydrogen peroxide

D. 13. Vibrational energy levels of a molecule corresponds to ------------region

of electromagnetic spectrum

a) x-ray b) UV c) IR d) Radio wave

14. A change in electric dipole moment during molecular motion is

associated with

a) x-ray b) UV c) IR d) Radio wave

15. In Raman scattering the frequency of the scattered radiation is -----------

that of the incident radiation

a) equal to b) lower than c) higher than d) either lower or

higher than

16. Symmetrical stretching vibraton of a triatomic linear molecule is

a) Raman active and IR inactive b) Raman inactive and IR active

d) Raman active and IR active d) Raman inactive and IR inactive.

E. 17. Mass spectroscopy is based on

a) charge / mass ratio b) mass / charge ratio c) mass alone

d) charge alone

18. UV- visible spectra is due to the transition between

a) electronic energy levels b) vibrational energy levels c) rotational

energy levels d) translational energy levels

19. Polar solvents induce a shift towards

a) longer wave length b) shorter wave length c) shorter frequency

d) none

20. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is mainly used to detect

a) alpha helices b) beta sheets c) double bonds d) metals


Answer any six questions. Each question carries a weightage 1

21. Define a unit cell

22. What is Miller indices?

23. Define point groups

24. Define Bragg’s law

25. What is hanging drop vapour diffusion method for crystallization?

26. What is shielding constant?

27. What is FT-NMR

28. Give different vibrational motion of a triatomic molecule.


Answer any four of the following. Each question carries a weightage 2

29. Crystal systems

30. Symmetry elements

31. Fourier transformation

32. Interference of waves.

33. Applications UV-visible spectroscopy.

34. Applications of atomic absorption spectroscopy.

Part D (Long essay)

Answer any two of the following. Each question carries a weightage 4

35. Solving the phase problem.

36. Basic principles of NMR spectroscopy.

37. Applications of Raman and IR spectroscopy.

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