Big Idea #3 Packetkenwoodacademy.enschool.org/ourpages/auto/2020/8/20... · 2020. 8. 20. · Big...

Name: ___________________________ Big Idea # 3 Packet - Information Date: ______________ Period: ____

Living systems store, retrieve, transmit and respond to information essential to life processes.

• Heritable information provides for continuity of life. o DNA is the heritable genetic information – heritable (meaning passed to offspring from parent organism); genetic (meaning determining protein

determining unit). DNA is the code that determines mRNA that determines amino acid (proteins). Proteins are used for ~all cellular reactions. § DNA structure is double stranded helix – determined by Chargaff (double-stranded, A=T, C=G) and Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and

Franklin (helical shape, determined by Watson, Crick and Wilkins using x-ray crystallography by Franklin and Chargaff’s Rule) • Purines (A,G) bind with pyrimidines (T,C). A=T, 2 Hydrogen bonds. C=G, 3 Hydrogen bonds, higher melting point. • DNA is antiparallel: 5’à 3’ and 3’à 5’. The 5’ end refers to the 5th carbon that has the phosphate group attached.

§ DNA is genetic – determined by Hershey-Chase – bacteriophages inject radioactive viral DNA (32P) into bacteria, not proteins (35S) § DNA is genetic transformative unit – determined by Avery-McCleod, McCarty – take heat-killed smooth strain virulent DNA add

proteinases à transformation, death. Add RNAse à transformation, death. Add DNAse àno transformation, cells live. § DNA is genetic transformative unit – determined by Avery-McCleod, McCarty – mice injected with rough strain and heat-killed smooth

strain killed the mice because the nonvirulent rough strain bacteria picked up the smooth strain virulent DNA allowed it to kill the mice § All organisms (living things) use DNA as their genetic information. Viruses (not living) can have RNA as their genetic information –

these are called retroviruses and the RNA genetic information is converted to DNA before proteins can be made. o DNA must be replicated before cellular replication can occur (mitosis or meiosis). DNA replication is semi-conservative; old parental strand

serves as the template strand and the new daughter strand is created using complementary pairing. DNA polymerase is the enzyme that creates DNA by adding nucleotides to the 3’end (5’à3’ direction). Helicase is the enzyme to unwind the DNA. Primase is the enzyme to lay down RNA primers that the DNA polymerase can use as a starting point for DNA synthesis. The leading strand is made all at once but the lagging strand is made in pieces due to unexposed 3’ end sections of the DNA. Ligase enzyme glues the lagging DNA (Okazaki fragments) together.

o Inheritance of genetic information occurs through asexual reproduction (budding, mitosis, etc) and sexual reproduction (meiosis). § Sexual reproduction produces gametes/germ cells. Gametes are haploid cells that unite during fertilization to form new organisms (egg

+ sperm, ovum + pollen, etc). Genetic disorders are passed from parents to offspring through sexual reproduction. • Chromosomal disorders – nondisjunction = unequal chromosome distribution – oocytes are stuck in meiotic division and during

ovulation meiosis continues, but the egg is older and more likely to have nondisjunction. o Example: Down’s syndrome – three copies of the 21st chromosome à mental retardation o Example: Turner syndrome – only one X chromosome à infertility

• Mitochondrial disorders – inherited from the mother as part of the egg that is fertilized by the sperm. Mitochondria have their own DNA and can be used to trace maternal lines. Ex: leber hereditary optic neuropathy – vision loss

• Single-gene disorders: recessive = skip generations on pedigree. dominant = at least one parent has it for a kid to have it. o Remember humans have 46 chromosomes. Each gamete has 23 chromosomes – 22 autosome chromosomes and 1 sex

chromosome. Men randomly pass the X chromosome into sperm to make a female child. Men randomly pass the Y chromosome into sperm to make a male child. Men have XY chromosome and women have the XX chromosome.

o Y-linked – genes linked on the Y-chromosome can only be inherited from fathers through sperm. o X-linked – genes linked on the X-chromosome – inherited from the mother or father.

§ Recessive – must have two affected alleles (XaY, XaXa) - female carriers only (XAXa) –males affected more • Example: hemophilia – causes blood clotting disorder – patients have limited clotting, continually bleed

§ Dominant – one need one affected allele (XAY, XAXA, or XAXa) – no carriers – equal males and females affected

• Example: fragile X syndrome – causes intellectual disabilities o Autosomal – on one of the 22 pairs of non-sex chromosomes.

§ Recessive – must have two affected alleles (aa) - can have carriers (Aa) – equal males and females affected • Example: sickle cell disease – causes sickling of RBCs – clogs blood vessels.

§ Dominant – one need one affected allele (AA or Aa) – no carriers – equal males and females affected • Example: achondroplasia – causes shortening of bones

• Multifactorial disorders - caused by a gene mutation(s) and environmental factors – ex: cancer, Alzheimer’s disease § Mendelian genetics – simple recessive and dominant inheritance resulting from one gene mutation – not true of most illnesses

• Single gene disorders. Punnett squares – each square is 25%. Two heteros à 3:1: 75% dominant pheno, 25% recessive pheno Dihybrid cross: two heterozygotes for two traits à 9:3:3:1

§ Nonmendelian genetics - do not follow the simple recessive and dominant inheritance • Incomplete dominance = one allele is not dominant over the other – the alleles blend; heterozygous condition somewhere in

between (flowers = red (RR) and white (WW) à pink (RW)) • Codominance= condition in which both alleles for a gene are expressed equally when present (ex. Human blood types = A, B à

AB and cattle = red, white, roan coat (spotted red and white – showing red and white equally)) • Multiple alleles = trait that is determined by more than two alleles of a gene – but remember each person still only gets two

alleles - one from mother, one from father (ex. human blood types and hair colors) • Polygenic traits = trait influenced by several genes; genes may be on same chromosome or on different one (ex. skin tone)

• Expression of genetic information involves cellular and molecular mechanisms. o DNA à mRNA is transcription. Transcription occurs in the nucleus because DNA does not leave the nucleus (large and double stranded). The

DNA strand (3’à 5’) is transcribed into mRNA, specifically pre-mRNA in eukaryotes that is 5’à 3’. RNA Polymerase uses complementary base pairing to form mRNA. Transcription happens in three parts: initiation, elongation, and termination. Initiation is when transcription factors cause RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter region of DNA. Elongation is when mRNA is built 5’ à 3’. Termination is when RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence of DNA. In eukaryotes for pre-mRNA to leave the nucleus it must be processed and converted into mRNA. mRNA processing includes adding a 5’ G cap, a 3’ Poly A tail, intron splicing removal.

§ DNA is double-stranded, helical in shape, contains A,T,C, and G, large, and long-term storage of genetic information. § RNA is single-stranded, linear in shape, contains A,U,C, and G, short, and temporary-term storage of genetic information.

o mRNA à amino acids is translation. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm at ribosomes either free-floating in the cytoplasm or at the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (ribosomes attached to the RER). AUG is the start codon to initiate ribosomal binding. Ribosome reads three nucleotides (codon) at a time and matches the anti-codon of the appropriate tRNA to the codon = extension. The termination stage occurs when the ribosome reads the stop codon.

o Epigenetics – differentiation expression/transcription of DNA through methylation – you can have the gene and not transcribe it due to the gene being ‘hidden’ through coiling around histone.

o Hormones can alter the transcription of DNA, especially steroid hormones. Transcription is also called gene expression. o Genes can alter transcription (gene expression)

§ Proto-oncogenes cause cells to enter the cell cycle. Tumor suppressor genes (like p53) stop cells from entering the cell cycle. § Cell specialization (differentiation) is based on differential transcription of DNA. All cells have the same DNA but the transcription of

the DNA into pre-mRNA and then mRNA will be different. Remember alternative intron splicing of pre-mRNA can change the order of exon transcription too.

o In prokaryotes transcription and translation occur simultaneously because there isn’t a nucleus and the DNA is exposed directly to the

ribosomes. Transcription is controlled with operons – regulation of operons in prokaryotes and transcription factors and promoters in eukaryotes allow proteins to be formed only when necessary.

§ Operons contain an operator, which is a region of DNA to which the repressor binds when the operon is turned off and not producing a protein product. The promoter region indicates to RNA Polymerase where to bind to make mRNA during transcription. The repressor is a protein that suppresses transcription of the genes. Operons that a typically turned on but can be turned off when need be are referred to as repressible operons. Alternatively, those that are normally off but can be turned on when need be are called inducible operons.

• The processing of genetic information is imperfect and is a source of genetic variation. o DNA mutations occur when DNA polymerase randomly makes a mistake during DNA replication. Point mutations change one nucleotide of

DNA (ex. AàC). Deletion mutations remove nucleotide(s). Substitution mutations occur when a different amino acid is formed during translation. Silent mutations result in the same amino acid being made during translation. Some mutations are silent because there is redundancy in the genetic code (multiple tRNAs code for the same amino acid). Insertion mutations add nucleotide(s). Deletion and insertion mutations can be frameshift mutations since when DNA à mRNA the mRNA nucleotides are read in threes (called codons) so inserting or deleting nucleotides in non-multiples of three can shift the codon reading frame to make proteins. Mutations lead to genetic diversity.

o Changes in genotype à altered phenotype. AA = normal skin color. Aa = normal skin color. aa = albino (melanocytes produce no pigment) o Genetic variation through mutations &sexual reproduction (independent assortment, crossing over, random mating & random fertilization) o Mutations happen more often in viral replication and bacterial replication because there aren’t enzymes to fix the mistakes of DNA Polymerase o Horizontal gene transfer (HGT) increases genetic diversity of bacteria. HGT includes transduction, transformation, and conjugation.

§ Transduction – when a bacteriophage (viruses that infect bacteria) infects a bacteria some of the bacterial DNA is incorporated into the viral DNA so when the bacteriophage infects another bacteria some of the bacterial DNA is introduced to the bacterium being infected

§ Transformation – bacteria pick up naked chromosomal or plasmid DNA. If they pick up the DNA then they can express the gene. § Conjugation – when a plasmid is passed from one bacterium to another. Plasmid DNA is ‘extra’ and are independently transferred.

• Cells communicate by generating, transmitting and receiving chemical signals. o All organism use similar communication systems suggesting common evolutionary history. o Neurotransmitters, cytokines, and hormones are all chemical signals that are generated, transmitted, and received in cell communication. o The three stages of cell signaling are reception, transduction, and response. Reception is when the target cell detects the incoming signal. The

signal is detected when the chemical signal binds to receptor proteins at the cell surface. Transduction is the conversion of a signal from the outside of a cell to a form that can bring about a specific cellular response inside the cell, including amplification. Response is when the appropriate behavior (change) is carried out by the cell.

§ Receptors include: G-protein linked receptors, ligand-gated ion channels, and receptor tyrosine kinases. § Signaling cascades relay signals from receptors to cell targets, often amplifying the incoming signals, with the result of appropriate

responses by the cell. Second messengers are often essential to the function of the cascade. Examples include: ligand-gated ion channels and second messengers (such as cyclic GMP, cyclic AMP calcium ions (Ca2+), and inositol triphosphate (IP3)).

§ Phosphorylation cascades in which a series of protein kinases add a phosphate group to the next protein in the cascade sequence o Cell signaling example: Blood glucose levels increase. Insulin is released from the beta islet cells of the pancreas. Insulin hormone binds to the

insulin receptor of an insulin cell. Glut4, a glucose transporter protein, moves to the cell membrane to create a passageway for glucose. Glucose enters the cell (from the blood) through Glut4. Glycogen is formed using the extra glucose, called glycogenesis. Blood glucose levels decrease.

§ However with Type 1 Diabetics don’t produce much insulin so there blood glucose stays high for a very long time, and Type 2 Diabetics have an insensitive insulin receptor so their blood glucose levels stay high as well.

• Transmission of information results in changes within and between biological systems. o All organisms communicate with other organisms of the same species, and many organisms communicate with other species as well.

§ One individual will attack other individuals that enter its territory – they transmit signals of aggression to make the invader flee § Within a biosphere there are levels of organization: individualà population à community à ecosystem à biome à biosphere

o Communication signals include: olfactory (smell) pheromones—chemicals; auditory cues—sounds; visual cues; tactile cues—touch. Communication behaviors—and/or the capacity for learning these behaviors—arise through natural selection. Heritable communication behaviors that increase an organism's likelihood of surviving and reproducing will tend to persist and become common in a population or species. The nervous system and endocrine system of animals allows it to sense stimuli, perceive the stimuli, and respond accordingly.

§ In bacteria, the use of chemical messengers by microbes to communicate with other nearby cells and to regulate specific pathways in response to population density (quorum sensing)

o Cells communicate by cell-to-cell contact. Examples include: immune cells interact by cell-cell contact, antigen-presenting cells (APCs), helper T-cells and killer T-cells. Plasmodesmata between plant cells that allow material to be transported from cell to cell.

o Cells communicate over short distances (ex: neurotransmitters) or long distances (ex: hormones).

DNA Replication, Mutations and Chromosome Structure Review

A) the leading strand is synthesized 3' to 5'B) the lagging strand is synthesized in separate

pieces called Okazaki fragmentsC) helicases only attach to the leading strandD) the lagging strand is synthesized 5' to 3'E) DNA ligase is attached to the leading strand

17. During DNA replication, the leading strand is easilydistinguishable from the lagging strand because

A) separation of the parental DNA strands by theDNA helicase

B) primase joins RNA nucleotides to make aprimer

C) telomerase terminates replication at the end ofthe synthesized strand

D) DNA polymerase replaces RNA nucleotideswith DNA nucleotides

E) telomeres are added to the end of thesynthesized strand

18. During DNA replication, all of the following mustoccur before the completion of a new strandEXCEPT

A) be incapable of proofreading the newlysynthesized strand

B) be unable to terminate elongationC) be incapable of unwinding the DNA helixD) catalyze the DNA strand at incorrect locationsE) not seal the Okazaki fragments on the lagging

strand

19. A eukaryotic cell lacking helicase during DNAreplication would

A) DNA replication only occurs once.B) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs

during prophase.C) Genetic composition is the same throughout.D) Both involve production of cells for growth and

tissue repair.E) Sister chromatids never separate.

20. Which of the following is true about both mitosisand meiosis?


21. Base your answer to the following questions on the passage below.

Cells that normally reproduce by mitosis are lost in third-degree burn patients. Until recently,the only option for these patients was implanting skins from cadavers, pigs or other unaffectedareas of the body. Scientists are now using small fragments of un-burned epithelial cells of thedermis, which are cut into small pieces and then suspended in a solution with specific quantitiesof nutrients similar to those found in the blood. This process will take two to three weeks and canproduce as much skin as needed, which can be then implanted without the danger of rejection.

a. Identify one nutrient that should be in this solution and explain its importance in the creation ofthese new cells.

b. Describe in detail how the absence of this nutrient can lead to the disruption of a metabolicprocess in the initial cells, as well as it's effect on cell division.

A) DNA B) mitochondriaC) cell membrane D) ribosomesE) cytoplasm

22. Prokaryotic cells lack

A) DNA has a deoxyribose sugar, while RNA hasa ribose sugar

B) Both DNA and RNA are double-strandedC) Both DNA and RNA contain the bases adenine

and thymineD) The nitrogenous bases classified as purines

include adenine and cytosineE) Cytosine pairs with thymine

23. Which of the following statements is true?

A) synthesizing DNAB) synthesizing RNAC) storing moleculesD) transporting liquidE) maintaining its shape

24. A cell lacking its microtubules has problems

A) regions where DNA is loosely bound tonucleosomes

B) areas where the nucleosomes are more tightlycompacted, and where DNA is inactive

C) DNA segments within a DNA molecule that areable to move to new locations

D) bundles of proteinsE) nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat

25. The term euchromatin describes

A) DNA B) RNAC) lipids D) amino acidsE) polypeptides

26. The end products of translation are

A) A modern procedure for analyzing the basecomposition of DNA

B) A modern procedure for counting humanchromosomes

C) A revolutionary method for categorizingbacteria

D) A new method for radioactively tagging DNAE) A modern procedure for analyzing the base

composition of RNA

27. Tijo and Levan developed which of the following?

A) uses only DNAB) uses only RNAC) uses RNA as a template for DNAD) uses DNA as a template for RNAE) replicates continuously

28. The virus HIV replicates using reverse transcriptase.Thus it can be inferred that the virus

A) they are changes in the DNA base sequenceB) they occur in germ cells and somatic cellsC) they drive evolution by creating mutation

pressuresD) they are a source of variation for evolutionE) they may be lethal or result in the loss of

function of a particular gene

29. All of the following are true statements concerningmutation EXCEPT

Which problem(s) were you confused about? Why? Do you understand why your answer is wrong? Do you know the right answer now?


A) DNA synthesisB) chromosomal separationC) crossing-overD) chromosomes uncoilingE) spindle apparatus forming

30. In both meiosis I and II, the interphase periodincludes

A) DNA fingerprintingB) CloningC) Paternity testingD) Diagnosing diseasesE) Mapping the human genome

31. RFLPs are important in all of the followingEXCEPT

A) Recombinant DNAB) Reconstructed DNAC) Reconstituted DNAD) Re-annealed DNAE) Reanalyzed DNA

32. Which of the following contains DNA from differentsources?

A) DNA B) RNAC) enzyme D) sugarE) base

33. A single strand containing phosphate, ribose, and thebases adenine, guanine, uracil and cytosine is called

34. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram:

A) DNA adenosine nucleosideB) DNA adenosine nucleotideC) RNA adenosine nucleosideD) RNA adenosine nucleotideE) RNA adenosine phosphate

The molecule depicted above is a

A) DNA synthesis does not occurB) G1, S and G2 phases do take placeC) crossing over does not occurD) there are twice as many chromosomesE) they do not differ in any way

35. Meiotic interphase differs from mitotic interphase inthat:

A) histones B) inhibitor proteinsC) nitrogenous bases D) operonsE) repressor proteins

36. When DNA is condensed, chemical reactionsbetween parts of DNA are prevented by

A) read 3’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 5’B) read 3’ to 5’ and made 5’ to 3’C) read 5’ to 3’ and made 3’ to 5’D) read 5’ to 3’ and made 5’ to 3’E) read 5’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 3’

37. In DNA synthesis, DNA is

A) DNA lagging strandB) DNA leading strandC) mRNA strandD) tRNA strandE) rRNA

38. Okazaki fragments are formed on


A) DNA helicase B) DNA ligaseC) DNA polymerase D) DNA primaseE) topoisomerase

39. Okazaki fragments are joined by

A) DNA helicaseB) DNA ligaseC) DNA polymerase ID) DNA primaseE) topoisomerase

40. Mutations caused by damage to DNA are detectedby

A) 1 DNA nucleotideB) 5 DNA nucleotidesC) 5 RNA nucleotidesD) 1 methionine codonE) 1 water codon

41. The primer that initiates DNA synthesis is composedof

A) DNA B) mRNAC) tRNA D) rRNAE) DNA polymerase

42. Which of the following does NOT participate intranscription or translation?

43. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram

A) DNA B) mRNAC) rRNA D) tRNAE) none of the above

The above picture depicts

A) DNA B) RNAC) Lipids D) RibosomesE) Secretory vesicles

44. Which of the following molecule(s) can exit thenucleus of a cell in order to carry the geneticmessage to the protein-synthesizing machinery ofthe cell?



Base your answers to questions 45 and 46 on the image below.

A) attaching amino acids to DNAB) encoding the instructions for the polypeptide chainC) placing the correct protein on the mRNA strandD) transcribing the DNA strand from its templateE) synthesizing mRNA from a complementary protein strand

45. A triplet code is responsible for

A) DNA B) mRNAC) tRNA D) polypeptide chainE) nucleotide chain

46. Identify the structure indicated by letter B

A) an RNA polymerase, a DNA molecule, andaccessory proteins

B) an mRNA, a tRNA molecule, and tworibosomal subunits

C) a DNA polymerase, an mRNA molecule, and apolypeptide chain

D) a tRNA molecule, an amino acid, and ananticodon

E) an mRNA, an rRNA molecule, and a smallribosomal subunit

47. During translation, the initiation complex iscomposed of

A) Prokaryotes do not have DNAB) Prokaryotic DNA can only be single strandedC) Prokaryotic DNA is coiled in a single ringD) Eukaryotic DNA can be either double or single

strandedE) Prokaryotic DNA cannot be cloned

48. One of the main differences between eukaryotic andprokaryotic DNA is

A) they stop the replication of DNAB) they can transcribe DNA from RNA and

integrate into the human genomeC) they prevent cells from completing mitosisD) they cause the misfolding of protein moleculesE) they cause DNA to be packed together as

chromatin

49. Retroviruses are detrimental to the body because


A) replicate in acidic conditionsB) disintegrate after replicationC) replicate the entire chromosomeD) separate the DNA helixE) withstand high temperature

50. To amplify DNA using PCR, the DNA polymeraseneeds to be able to

51. Base your answer to the following question on theimage below.

A) Fusion of sperm DNA with the egg DNA.B) Entry of the sperm nucleus into the egg.C) The cortical reaction.D) Contact of the sperm with the egg jelly coat.E) The acrosomal process.

Polyspermy cannot occur immediately followingwhich of the events?

A) Lanes 1 and 2 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.

B) Lanes 2 and 4 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.

C) Lane 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.

D) Lanes 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 2 contains DNA from the offspring.

E) Lanes 2 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.

52. The diagram below depicts bands produced by anelectrophoresis produced using DNA from fourindividuals. All DNA is treated with identicalrestriction enzymes.

Which of the following correctly describes theparents and offspring?



Base your answers to questions 53 through 58 on the following diagram depicting the amount of DNA in a cell undergoing gamete formation.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

53. Sister chromatid separation occurs in region

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

54. Which of the following represents the amount of DNA in a spermatogonium?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

55. In which region would chromosome disjunction be occurring?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

56. Crossing-over occurs in region

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

57. The amount of DNA in a sperm cell is equal to that present in region

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

58. Which of the following represents the amount of DNA present during metaphase I of meiosis?


Base your answers to questions 59 through 63 on the following graph depicting the amount of DNAcontent in a somatic cell.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

59. Chromosome duplication occurs in region

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

60. Daughter cells will be found in region

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

61. This cell is in metaphase within region

A) 1/2 n B) n C) 2n D) 4n E) 8n

62. The amount of DNA present in region 3 is equal to

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

63. Organelle replication is occurring in region

A) conjugation B) lysogenicC) lytic D) transductionE) transformation

64. Viruses can incorporate their DNA into the host'schromosome and remain latent. The term for thistype of replication is called

A) Males have half the likelihood of having thedisease, since they have only one Xchromosome.

B) A color blind son is always produced if hisfather has the gene.

C) Mothers can pass the gene with equalprobability to either a son or daughter

D) Females can only be carriers of the disease,they can never have the disease

E) Inbreeding has no effect on the incidence of thedisease

65. Color blindness is a disease caused by a sex-linkedrecessive gene on the X chromosome. Which of thefollowing statements are true about color blindness?

A) Chiasma B) Sister chromatidsC) Crossing over D) CentromeresE) Synapsis

66. Which of the following is the constricted point onthe chromosome at which sister chromatids areattached?

A) diversion B) deletionC) translocation D) duplicationE) inversion

67. The chromosomal mutation by which the fragmentreattaches to the original chromosome, but in areversed orientation is called a(n):

A) The chromatids of each chromosome areseparated.

B) Both synapsis and crossing-over occurs.C) The nuclear envelope breaks down.D) The haploid number of chromosomes is

changed to the diploid number.E) The chromosomes line up at the metaphase

plate.

68. Which of the following occurs during meiosis I butNOT during mitosis?



69. Base your answer to the following question on the picture below.

A) chromosome B) chromatidC) spindle fiber D) chromatinE) centromere

The structure labeled B is called a

A) the X chromosome that is not passed on to adaughter cell

B) an X chromosome that is condensed, visible,and inactive

C) genes on the same chromosome that staytogether during assortment and move as a group

D) a trait that results from the interaction of manygenes

E) an equal expression of both alleles

70. A Barr body can be described as

A) pilus B) retrovirusC) phage D) capsidE) plasmid

71. A small circle of DNA found outside the mainchromosome in bacteria is called a

A) chromosome B) centromereC) multichromatid D) chiasmaE) dihybrid

72. Two sister chromatids are better known as a

A) G H F B) F G HC) H F G D) G F HE) H G F

73. Chromosome mapping shows that genes F and G are60 map units apart, genes F and H are 20 map unitsapart, and genes H and G are 40 units apart. What isthe sequence of these 3 genes on this chromosome?

A) Inversion B) DuplicationC) Translocation D) DeletionE) Point mutation

74. In terms of chromosomal mutation, which of thefollowing refers to the reversed orientationreattachment of the chromosome fragment to theoriginal chromosome?

A) KJML B) KMLJC) JMLK D) LJMKE) KLJM

75. Four genes on a chromosome C are mapped andtheir crossover frequencies were determined.

Genes Crossover FrequencyK and J 10J and M 15M and L 20J and L 35K and L 45

Which of the following represents the relativelocations of these 4 genes on chromosome C?

A) Genes located far apart on the chromosomehave a high likelihood of being separated bythe exchange of segments.

B) Genes located far apart on the chromosomehave a low likelihood of being separated by theexchange of segments.

C) Genes located far apart on the chromosomecannot be linked.

D) Crossing-over decreases genetic variability.E) Crossing-over occurs during Anaphase of

Mitosis.

76. Which of the following accurately describescrossing-over?


A) inversion B) translocationC) point mutation D) duplicationE) transcription

77. If a chromosome fragment becomes attached to anonhomologous chromosome, the result is known asa

A) 12 B) 10 C) 8 D) 6 E) 4

78. If 2n = 8 for a particular cell, then the chromosomenumber in each cell after meiosis would be

A) RSQ B) SRQ C) SQR D) QSR E) RQS

79. After mapping a chromosome, a scientist find thatgenes Q and R are twenty units apart, and genes Rand S are eleven units apart, and genes Q and S arethirty units apart. The sequence on the chromosomewould be

A) Chromosome condensationB) Centromere duplicationC) Kinetochore disintegrationD) Sister chromatid alignmentE) Spindle fiber detachment

80. Which of the following occurs during mitoticmetaphase?

81. Base your answer to the following question on the following picture.

A) centrioles B) chromatidsC) cilia D) kinetochoresE) microfilaments

The main elements responsible for chromosomemovement are

A) chiasmata B) euchromatinC) genetic coil D) heterochromatinE) kinetochore

82. mRNA synthesis occurs in regions of thechromosome called

A) It divides and separates among each somaticcell.

B) It condenses into a Barr body.C) It undergoes translocation.D) It is altered and degraded by lysosomes.E) It is deleted.

83. After X inactivation in female mammals, whathappens to the X chromosome?

A) a Y chromosomeB) nondisjunctionC) aneuploidyD) autosomesE) homozygous genes for the trait

84. In order for a female to express a sex-linked trait,she must have



85. Base your answer to the following question on the information below.

Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problemsincluding learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Mutations in the FMR1 gene causefragile X syndrome. The FMR1 gene provides instructions for making a protein called FMRP.This protein helps regulate the production of other proteins and plays a role in the development ofsynapses, which are specialized connections between nerve cells. Synapses are critical forrelaying nerve impulses. Fragile X syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. Acondition is considered X-linked if the mutated gene that causes the disorder is located on the Xchromosome, one of the two sex chromosomes. (The Y chromosome is the other sexchromosome.)

A) All of his children will inherit the disease.B) Only his male children will inherit the disease.C) Only his female children will inherit the disease.D) Only 50% of his male children will inherit the disease.

Which of the following statements best explains the possibilities of a man passing this disease to hischildren?

Base your answers to questions 86 and 87 on the information below.

Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problemsincluding learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Mutations in the FMR1 gene causefragile X syndrome. The FMR1 gene provides instructions for making a protein called FMRP.This protein helps regulate the production of other proteins and plays a role in the development ofsynapses, which are specialized connections between nerve cells. Synapses are critical for relayingnerve impulses. Fragile X syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. A condition isconsidered X-linked if the mutated gene that causes the disorder is located on the X chromosome,one of the two sex chromosomes. (The Y chromosome is the other sex chromosome)

A) The FMR1 gene might might have different bases that affect the shape of the resulting protein.B) The FMR1 gene might have additional proteins that inhibit its expression.C) The FMR1 gene can express as many times as it wants.D) The FMR1 is regulated by the FMRP protein.

86. Which of the following statements best describes the FMR1 gene in individuals with fragile Xsyndrome?

A) All of his children will inherit the disease.B) Only his male children will inherit the disease.C) Only his female children will inherit the disease.D) Only 50% of his male children will inherit the disease.

87. Which of the following statements best explains the possibilities of a man passing this disease to hischildren?


A) Deletion B) DuplicationC) Translocation D) InversionE) Point

88. Which type of chromosomal mutation can bedescribed as a mutation where segments of twonon-homologous chromosomes are exchanged?

A) deletionB) inversionC) an adenine changing to guanine in a codon's

third baseD) substitutionE) point

89. Which mutation can result in a change in the readingframe?

90. Base your answer to the following question on theinformation given below. A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates witha white-eyed male. Their offspring are one red-eyedfemale, one white-eyed female and one red-eyedmale.

A) a genetic mutation in the femaleB) dominant and autosomalC) dominant and sex-linkedD) recessive and autosomalE) recessive and sex-linked

The white-eyed allele is

A) genus B) inbreedingC) mutation D) polymorphism

91. Two or more morphologically distinct forms in apopulation constitute a(n)

A) duplication B) replicationC) point mutation D) inversionE) translocation

92. H I J K L M N H I J K J K L M N

In the diagram above, the chromosomal mutation ofthe original sequence of 7 genes is a

A) gene flow B) genetic driftC) mutation D) selective pressure

93. Genetic variability of a population begins with



Base your answers to questions 94 and 95 on the image and passage below.

https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/sickle-cell-disease#inheritance

"Sickle cell disease affects millions of people worldwide. It is most common among peoplewhose ancestors come from Africa; Mediterranean countries such as Greece, Turkey, and Italy;the Arabian Peninsula; India; and Spanish-speaking regions in South America, Central America,and parts of the Caribbean."

https://ghr.nlm.nih.gov/condition/sickle-cell-disease#inheritance

The figure above shows patterns of inheritance of a mutation where the presence of both recessivealleles results in sickle-cell anemia.

A) The law of segregation which predicts a 3:1 phenotypic ratio and a 1:2:1 genotypic ratio in thecrossing of two heterozygous individuals.

B) The law of independent assortment which predicts that heterozygous offspring, 50%, will becarriers of the defective gene and therefore show a new phenotype.

C) The law of autosomal recession which predicts that both the phenotypic and genotypic ratio willbe 3:1, in the crossing of two homozygous individuals.

D) The law of co-dominance which predicts the presence of the recessive allele in a ratio of 3:1 andtherefore.

94. The pattern shown in the F1 generation is best predicted by:


A) The cellular changes in red blood cells infected with malaria can fix the defective Hemoglobingene.

B) The mutation also provides a genetic advantage that increases fitness in this population.C) The phenotype in these individuals might result in the malaria-carrying mosquito avoiding to

bite them.D) Natural selection acts in favor of the homozygous trait, causing the heterozygous carriers to

decrease.

95. Individuals who carry the defective gene for sickle-cell anemia are known to have a protectiveadvantage against malaria. In addition, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is higher ingeographical regions that are more prone to malaria. What could be a possible explanation for thisoccurrence?


A) replicate in acidic conditionsB) disintegrate after replicationC) replicate the entire chromosomeD) separate the DNA helixE) withstand high temperature

1. To amplify DNA using PCR, the DNA polymeraseneeds to be able to

A) PCR B) RFLP analysisC) Gene therapy D) SNPsE) Denaturation

2. A crime lab is given a DNA sample found on the cuffof a button down shirt. Which of the following DNAtechnologies would be necessary for generatingsufficient DNA for comparison purposes?

A) The process by which bacteria take up andincorporate foreign DNA.

B) The process of assembling amino acids intoproteins at the ribosomes according to geneticinformation encoded in mRNA.

C) A mutation in which a chromosomal piecebecomes attached to another chromosome.

D) The transport of food through the phloem of avascular plant.

E) The process of coping the DNA code into a pieceof mRNA.

3. Transformation refers to which of the following?

A) Mitosis B) Binary FissionC) Conjugation D) TransformationE) Transduction

4. Monera reproduce by all of the following mechanismsEXCEPT

A) transduction B) translationC) transformation D) plasmidsE) conjugation

5. Bacteria can accept segments of foreign DNA andincorporate them into their own chromosomesthrough all of the following EXCEPT

A) RFLP B) enzymeC) genetic fingerprint D) PCRE) vector

6. A bacteriophage, plasmid, or other agent that transfersgenetic material from one cell to another is called a(n)

A) bacterial replication in which each bacteriumcodes for insulin.

B) bacterial replication in which each bacteriumcontains a recombinant plasmid and an unalteredplasmid

C) plasmid replication, whereby each time thebacterium undergoes cell division, the number ofplasmids within the cell doubles.

D) bacterial replication in which each bacteriumcontains no plasmids

E) bacterial replication, whereby the geneticallyengineered bacterium can regulate sodium levelsin its host.

7. Base your answer on the diagram below.

The stage labeled X in the diagram represents

A) At least three promoter sequences.B) Prokaryotic promoter upstream of eukaryotic

gene insertion site.C) Must be located in a eukaryotic organism.D) Vector must have a completely known sequence.E) Must have antibiotic resistance.

8. Which of the following is a requirement of a cloningvector?

A) A bacteriophage that transfers genetic materialfrom one cell to another.

B) A plasmid that is capable of the transmission ofDNA.

C) A disease-carrying microorganism.D) A single strand of DNA.E) An agent that transmits genetic material from

one cell to another.

9. A vector is defined as which of the following?

A) DNA is put into wells of an agarose gel with abuffer.

B) Electrical charge moves fragments.C) Positively charged fragments move towards the

negative pole.D) Smaller fragments move faster across the gel.E) This technique is used to separate and identify

DNA fragments.

10. Which of the following statements about gelelectrophoresis is FALSE?

A) mass B) chargeC) size D) compositionE) all of the above

11. DNA cut by restriction enzymes can be separatedusing gel electrophoresis. This process separates thefragments according to

A) Lanes 1 and 2 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.

B) Lanes 2 and 4 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.

C) Lane 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.

D) Lanes 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 2 contains DNA from the offspring.

E) Lanes 2 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.

12. The diagram below depicts bands produced by anelectrophoresis produced using DNA from fourindividuals. All DNA is treated with identicalrestriction enzymes.

Which of the following correctly describes theparents and offspring?

A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms(RFLP)

B) Complementary pairingC) DNA libraryD) cDNA libraryE) PCR

13. Which of the following is a difference in DNAsequence on homologous chromosomes made visibleby using restriction enzymes?


Base your answers to questions 14 through 18 on In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. colibacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin(ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, someof which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth aresummarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individualcolonies of bacteria.

A) I only B) III only C) IV only D) I and II

14. Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteriagrowing include which of the following?

A) The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin resistant.B) The transformation procedure killed the

bacteria.C) Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli growth.D) The bacteria on the plate were transformed.

15. Which of the following best explains why there isno growth on plate II?

A) demonstrate that the E. coli cultures wereviable

B) demonstrate that the plasmid can lose itsampr gene

C) demonstrate that the plasmid is needed forE. coli growth

D) prepare the E. coli for transformation

16. Plates I and III were included in the experimentaldesign in order to


A) Plate IV is the positive control.B) Not all E. coli cells are successfully

transformed.C) The bacteria on plate III did not mutate.D) The plasmid inhibits E. coli growth.

17. Which of the following statements best explainswhy there are fewer colonies on plate IV than onplate III?

A) I only B) III only C) IV only D) I and III

18. In a second experiment, the plasmid contained thegene for human insulin as well as the ampr gene.Which of the following plates would have thehighest percentage of bacteria that are expected toproduce insulin?

Base your answers to questions 19 through 22 on The following figures display data collected whilestudying a family, some members of which have sickle-cell disease—a rare genetic disorder causedby a mutation in the hemoglobin beta gene (HBB). There are at least two alleles of the HBB gene: theHbA allele encodes wild-type hemoglobin and the HbS allele encodes the sickle-cell form ofhemoglobin. Genetic testing provided insight into the inheritance pattern for sickle-cell disease.

Figure 1. Pedigree of a family with affected individuals.

Squares represent males, circles represent females, shaded

symbols represent individuals with sickle-cell disease.

5 CTG ACT CCT GAG GAG AAG TCT 3 Non-template Strand3 GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC AGA 5 Template Strand

Figure 2. A portion of the DNA sequence from the wild-type hemoglobin allele (HbA) that codes fornormal hemoglobin.


Figure 4. Image of a gel following electrophoretic separation of DNA fragments of the HBB genefrom three individuals in the pedigree in Figure 1.

A) All affected individuals possess at least one dominant allele of the hemoglobin betagene.

B) Healthy individuals may possess one mutant allele (HbS) of the hemoglobin beta gene.C) Individuals IV and V must be heterozygous for the HbS (mutant) allele.D) Individuals II and VI possess two copies of the HbA (wild-type) allele.

19. Based on the data shown in Figure 1, which of the following best describes the genotypes ofindividual family members in the pedigree?

Figure 4. Image of a gel following electrophoretic separation of DNA fragments of the HBB genefrom three individuals in the pedigree in Figure 1.

A) All affected individuals possess at least one dominant allele of the hemoglobin betagene.

B) Healthy individuals may possess one mutant allele (HbS) of the hemoglobin beta gene.C) Individuals IV and V must be heterozygous for the HbS (mutant) allele.D) Individuals II and VI possess two copies of the HbA (wild-type) allele.

19. Based on the data shown in Figure 1, which of the following best describes the genotypes ofindividual family members in the pedigree?

A) 5 GAC TGA GGA CTC CTC TTC AGA 3B) 5 UCU GAA GAG GAA UCC UCA GUC 3C) 5 AGA CTT CTC CTC AGG AGT CAG 3D) 5 CUG ACU CCU GUG GAG AAG UCU 3

20. The HbS allele, which causes sickle-cell disease, results from a mutation in the DNA sequence shownin Figure 2 that produces a valine (val) in the place of a glutamic acid (glu) residue in the hemoglobinprotein. Which of the following mRNA sequences is derived from the HbS allele?

A) The HbA DNA contains a recognition site for the Mst II restriction enzyme.B) The HbA/HbS DNA contains three recognition sites for the Mst II restriction endonuclease.C) Individual I has only one copy of the hemoglobin gene; therefore there is only one band on the

gel.D) The HbS/HbA DNA contains three different alleles for sickle-cell disease.

21. The restriction endonuclease Mst II recognizes the sequence 5 CCT(N)AG (where N = anynucleotide) and cuts DNA at that site, producing separate fragments. Which of the following bestexplains the banding patterns exhibited in Figure 4 ?

A) I B) II C) III D) V

22. Possessing a single copy of the HbS allele has been shown to provide some resistance toinfection by Plasmodium falciparum, the parasite that causes malaria. Which of the followingindividuals represented in the pedigree would have the greatest selective advantage in an areawhere malaria is common?

A) 0% B) 25%C) 50% D) 100%

23. Two individuals, one with type heterozygous Bblood and one with type heterozygous A blood havea child. The probability that the child has type Oblood is

Base your answers to questions 24 through 26 onPlease refer to the following answers:

A) pH B) chargeC) size D) polarity

24. The DNA placed in this electrophoresis gel separatesas a result of what characteristic?

A) Suspect A B) Suspect BC) Suspect C D) Suspect D

25. If this gel was used in a court case as DNA evidencetaken from the crime scene, which of the followingsuspects appears to be guilty?

A) A and B B) A and CC) B and C D) B and D

26. Which two suspects, while not guilty, could possiblybe identical twins?

A) an XY individual with female characteristicsB) an XY individual with male characteristicsC) an XX individual with male characteristicsD) an XO individual with male characteristics

27. The gene for the testosterone receptor protein is onthe X chromosome. If a mutation in this gene is oneof the X chromosomes results in a nonfunctionalreceptor protein, which of the following would mostlikely result?

Base your answers to questions 28 through 30 on

A) pH B) ChargeC) Size D) Polarity

28. The DNA placed in this electrophoresis gel separatesas a result of what characteristic?

A) Suspect A B) Suspect BC) Suspect C D) Suspect D

29. If this gel were used in a court case as DNAevidence taken from the crime scene, which of thefollowing suspects appears to be guilty?

A) A and B B) A and CC) B and C D) B and D

30. Which two suspects, while not guilty, could possiblybe identical twins?

A) TranslationB) ConjugationC) Specialized transductionD) Transformation

31. Which of the following is not a way to formrecombinant DNA?

A) specialized transductionB) conjugationC) transformationD) generalized transduction

32. The transfer of DNA between two bacterial cellsconnected by sex pili is known as

Base your answers to questions 33 through 36 on Four vials were set up to investigate bacterialtransformation. Vials 1 and 2 each contained E.coli bacteria that had been made competent and hadthen been mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for ampicillin (pAMP) resistance. Vials 3 and 4both contained E.Coli that had also been made competent but had not been mixed with a plasmid.Each vial of bacteria was poured onto a nutrient agar plate. Vials 1 and 3 were poured onto plates thatcontained the antibiotic ampicillin. Vials 2 and 4 were poured onto plates that did not containampicillin.

This figure shows what the nutrient agar plates looked like. The shaded plates represent extensivegrowth, and the dots represent individual bacterial colonies.

A) Plate 1 only B) Plate 2 onlyC) Plate 3 only D) Plates 1 and 3 only

33. Plates that have only ampicillin-resistnet bacteria growing on them include which of the following?

A) The heat shock technique to make the E. coli competent killed the bacteria.B) Those particular E. coli bacteria were inhibited from growing by the nutrient in the agar.C) Those bacteria were not transformed.D) The bacteria culture died because they have a short life span.

34. Which of the following statements explains why there was no growth on Plate 3?

A) The bacteria on Plate 2 did not transform.B) There was no antibiotic in the agar in Plate 2 that would have restricted growth of bacteria.C) The transformation of bacteria on Plate 2 was more successful.D) The bacteria on Plates 1 and 2 were not taken from the same culture.

35. Which of the following statements best explains why there were fewer colonies on Plate 1 than onPlate 2?

A) Plate 1 only B) Plate 2 only C) Plate 3 only D) Plate 4 only

36. In a variant of this experiment, the plasmid contained GFP (green florescent protein) in addition toampicillin resistance. Which of the following plates would have the highest percentage of bacteriathat would fluoresce?


Protein Synthesis Review

A) transcription B) initiationC) replication D) elongationE) translation

1. All of the following are steps involved in proteinsynthesis EXCEPT

A) RNA transcription B) TranslationC) Translocation D) DNA replicationE) Recombination

2. Which of the following processes can be referred to assemiconservative?

A) Bind nucleotides together during transcriptionB) Bind nucleotides together during translationC) Bring together the Okazaki fragmentsD) Unwind the double helixE) Cut and rejoin the helix

3. What is the function of DNA ligase?

A) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerasefrom binding to the promoter.

B) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerasefrom binding to the operator.

C) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerasefrom binding to the promoter.

D) The repressor protein prevents lactose frombinding to the repressor.

E) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerasefrom binding to the operator.

4. In the lac operon, why does the binding of a repressorprotein to the operator region block transcription ofthe structural genes?

A) It replicates via reverse transcription.B) Retroviruses have a low mutation rateC) E. coli is an example of a retrovirus.D) Retroviruses are free-living, unlike standard

viruses.E) It uses a DNA polymerase to transcribe its RNA

genome into a DNA intermediate.

5. Which is true of a retrovirus?

A) transcriptionB) transductionC) translationD) replicationE) reverse transcription

6. The process by which DNA is copied onto a strand ofRNA is called

A) The production of cDNA from an RNAtemplate.

B) The production of cDNA from a DNA template.C) Animal cell mitotic division.D) A bacterial cell taking up foreign DNA.E) The production of RNA from a cDNA template.

7. Reverse transcription results in which of thefollowing?

A) 3’- CAT GTT TCA- 5’B) 3’- GTA CAA AGT- 5’C) 3’- CAU GUU UCA-5’D) 3’- GUA CAA AGU- 5’E) 3’ – TGA AAC ATG- 5’

8. Which of the following is the correct sequence ofRNA that results from the transcription of the DNAsequence 5’-GTA CAA AGT- 3’?

A) DNA B) mRNAC) tRNA D) rRNAE) DNA polymerase

9. Which of the following does NOT participate intranscription or translation?

A) a primerB) the termination sequenceC) a promoter sequence on the DNA moleculeD) the codonE) an mRNA molecule

10. In prokaryotic cells, the transcription initiationcomplex binds to


A) They are removed from the nucleus to preventdouble replication.

B) They are rewound into a double helix.C) They are modified and released from the

nucleus.D) They are capped with a poly (A) tail to inhibit

degradation.E) They are spliced and packaged into ribosomes.

11. Following the elongation phase of transcription,what happens to the template DNA strands?

A) Strand 1 B) Strand 2C) Neither strand D) Both strandsE) mRNA strand

12. You conduct an experiment to determine whichstrand of DNA serves as the template for mRNAsynthesis. First, you obtain DNA and transcribemRNA from it. The DNA strands are then separatedand analyzed. The below data shows thecomposition of each strand. Which strand serves asthe coding strand, which serves as the template forthe mRNA transcription?

A) All three types of RNA (messenger, transfer,and ribosomal) are involved in translation.

B) A strand of mRNA dictates the amino acids thatwill be incorporated into protein.

C) rRNAs carry the amino acids to the mRNAstrand.

D) The mRNA has codons which form base pairswith the anticodons on the tRNA.

E) Protein synthesis occus on ribosomes.

13. Which of the following statements about translationis INCORRECT?

A) Excision of intronsB) Excision of exonsC) Addition of a poly(A) tailD) Formation of peptide bondsE) Proteins form a quaternary structure

14. Which of the following occurs during the alterationafter translation?

A) DNA B) RNAC) lipids D) amino acidsE) polypeptides

15. The end products of translation are

A) binds to the A siteB) binds to the P siteC) moves from A to P siteD) moves from P to A siteE) does not occur

16. During translation, mRNA

A) an RNA polymerase, a DNA molecule, andaccessory proteins

B) an mRNA, a tRNA molecule, and tworibosomal subunits

C) a DNA polymerase, an mRNA molecule, and apolypeptide chain

D) a tRNA molecule, an amino acid, and ananticodon

E) an mRNA, an rRNA molecule, and a smallribosomal subunit

17. During translation, the initiation complex iscomposed of

A) They are an important component of thetranslation initiation complex.

B) They unwind the DNA helix.C) They are necessary for the removal of the

introns from the pre-mRNA molecule.D) They ensure the correct binding between tRNA

and amino acids.E) They can make many copies of a polypeptide

very quickly.

18. Why are polyribosomes important to both eukaryoticand prokaryotic cells?



A) mRNA - carries the genetic information codedfor in the DNA to the ribosomes.

B) rRNA - interacts with the ribosomal protein andhelps maintain the characteristic shape of theribosome.

C) tRNA - inserts the amino acid specified by thecodon on mRNA into the polypeptide chain.

D) Recombinant DNA - laboratory manipulatedDNA in which DNA molecules or fragmentsfrom various sources are severed and combinedenzymatically and reinserted into livingorganisms.

E) Transposable elements - DNA sequences thatwrap around each other into clusters.

19. Which of the following are not paired correctly?

A) AUGCCAGU B) TACGGTCAC) TUCGGTCU D) ATGCCAGTE) AUCGGACU

20. What would be the sequence of mRNA basestranscribed from that DNA base sequenceTACGGTCA?

A) codon B) anticodonC) peripheral D) cistronE) anticistron

21. The triplet of nucleotides of mRNA that correspondsto another unit of nucleotides in tRNA is the

A) mRNA B) tRNAC) rRNA D) DNAE) DNA polymerase

22. Anticodons are part of which of the followingmolecules

A) UTGCT B) UCTGTC) CTGAT D) CUGAUE) AUGCU

23. The sequence GACTA of DNA is made into atranscript of mRNA. Thus the new sequence wouldbe

A) ACG B) TAG C) AUG D) GCG E) ATA

24. If the anticodon sequence on tRNA is UGC, thecomplementary sequence on mRNA is

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) 10

25. How many amino acids could be coded for using themRNA sequence 5'GUCGACGUC3'?

26. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram:

A) adenine B) cytosineC) guanine D) thymineE) uracil

The DNA monomer that would be transcribed toproduce the above molecule in an mRNA chaincould have the nitrogenous base

A) chiasmata B) euchromatinC) genetic coil D) heterochromatinE) kinetochore

27. mRNA synthesis occurs in regions of thechromosome called

A) condensed mRNA in the nucleolusB) DNA wrapped around histonesC) polypeptide chains around a metallic atomD) rRNA prior to ribosome assemblyE) spindle fibers during mitosis

28. Nucleosomes are formed by

A) formation of mature mRNAB) formation of mature tRNAC) DNA splicingD) lysis of GTP capE) recognition of initial codon

29. Spliceosomes and small nuclear ribonucleoproteinsare involved in


A) mature mRNA is formed within the nucleusB) mature mRNA lacks exonsC) mature mRNA has a poly A tailD) mature mRNA lacks a double helix

conformationE) mature mRNA contains uracil

30. Mature mRNA is different from immature mRNA inthat

A) exonsB) GTP capC) non-coding regionsD) nucleotide tailsE) stop codons

31. Retroviruses are used by genetic engineers totransform mRNA into DNA because mRNA doesnot include

A) helicase B) RNA polymeraseC) promoter D) DNA polymeraseE) spliceosome

32. Which of the following is responsible for prying theDNA helix apart in order to transcribe the mRNA?

A) promote the attachment of RNA polymeraseB) provide a marker site for spliceosomes to begin

the removal of intronsC) signal attachment for polyribosomal clustersD) provide a signal for the attachment of genesE) protect the mRNA from degradation and

provide a signal for ribosome attachment

33. The 5' cap placed on the end of each pre-mRNAmolecule functions to

A) remove the noncoding regions called exonsB) excise the introns and splice the exons togetherC) splice together the 5'cap and the polyA tailD) excise the exons and attach the polyA tailE) be translated by the RNA polymerase

34. Before a molecule of mRNA can leave the nucleus itmust

A) The A site of the ribosome accepts anothertRNA called the terminator.

B) The polypeptide chain releases from the P siteof the ribosome.

C) The A site of the ribosome accepts a proteincalled a release factor.

D) The two ribosomal subunits dissociate andrelease the polypeptide chain.

E) The ribosome undergoes a conformationchange.

35. What event occurs when a ribosome reaches atermination codon on mRNA?

A) The maintenance of hydrogen bonds betweenthe anticodon and mRNA codon.

B) The mRNA moving in the 3' to 5' direction.C) The ribosome bypassing the intron regions on

the mRNA strand.D) The release factor must bind in order to move

the tRNA molecules.E) The small ribosomal subunit must dissociate

from the mRNA strand.

36. Which of the following is important during thetranslocation of tRNA from the A site to the P site?

A) Polypeptides would form at a slower pace.B) Amino acids would not elongate.C) The tRNA in the A site would not translocate to

the P site.D) The small ribosomal unit would not bind to the

large ribosomal subunit.E) The ribosomal subunits would not be recycled.

37. What would occur if an mRNA molecule did nothave polyribosomes?

A) within a tRNA moleculeB) on the polypeptide chainC) within an mRNA moleculeD) on the large subunit of the ribosomeE) attached to the end of an amino acid

38. The anticodon region can be found



39. Base your answer to the following question on the chart below.

A) CCA CGA TTT B) CCA CGA AAAC) GGU GCU UUU D) GGU GCU AAAE) GGT CCA TTT

If a polypeptide chain has the amino acid sequence, Leu-Arg-Lys, what would be the correspondinganticodons found on the tRNA?

A) Plasma membraneB) Endoplasmic reticulumC) Golgi apparatusD) NucleusE) Cytoplasm

40. A tRNA molecule transfers amino acids from a poollocated in which of the following locations?

A) The tRNA molecule cannot leave the nucleus.B) Each tRNA can attach to any one of the 20

amino acids.C) The tRNA molecule can be used repeatedly.D) The anticodon of the tRNA consists of four

nucleotide bases.E) Each tRNA molecule can be used once.

41. Which of the following is true about tRNA inprokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) mitochondriaB) nucleolusC) peroxisomes and glyoxysomesD) rough endoplasmic reticulumE) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

42. In the cell, the instructions to make rRNA andribosome protein is found in the

Operon Review

A) It is the inducer. B) It is the promoter.C) It is the repressor. D) It is the inhibitor.E) It is the operator.

1. In the lac operon of a bacterial cell, lactose serveswhat purpose?

A) It is involved in gene regulation in prokaryotes.B) It is involved in gene regulation in eukaryotes.C) It helped geneticists understand control of

meiotic division.D) It is involved in tRNA transcription.E) Understanding how the lac operon functions has

economically improved the dairy farmingindustry.

2. Which of the following statements is true about the lac operon?

A) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerasefrom binding to the promoter.

B) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerasefrom binding to the operator.

C) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerasefrom binding to the promoter.

D) The repressor protein prevents lactose frombinding to the repressor.

E) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerasefrom binding to the operator.

3. In the lac operon, why does the binding of a repressorprotein to the operator region block transcription ofthe structural genes?

A) The effect of an inducer on gene expression.B) Differentiation of tissues.C) Failure of apoptosis.D) Spatial organization within a fetus.E) Transcriptional regulation during protein

synthesis.

4. A human child with webbed feet is indicative ofwhich of the following?

A) Reproduction B) GrowthC) Speciation D) DevelopmentE) Gene expression

5. For some plants, their flower color is based on thesoil's pH. This is an example of how the environmentcan alter


A) The offspring that inherited the dominantphenotype.

B) A homozygous organism.C) An organism having two different alleles for a

trait.D) A heterozygous organism.E) An organism whose pair of alleles will separate

independently during gamete formation.

1. According to Mendel, true breeding refers to which offollowing?

A) All the plants had the same genotype andphenotype

B) All the plants had an intermediate phenotype toeither parent

C) All the plants had the recessive phenotype andgenotype

D) All the plants had a homozygous dominantgenotype

E) All the plants had the same phenotype butdifferent genotypes.

2. When Mendel crossed two true-breeding plants withdifferent traits, what was the result?

A) the law of segregationB) Mendel's lawC) the law of independent assortmentD) test crossE) the law of dominance

3. One allele masking the effects of another allele isreferred to as

A) CodominanceB) A classical Mendelian pattern of dominant and

recessive inheritanceC) Incomplete dominanceD) Y-chromosome linked inheritanceE) X-chromosome linked inheritance

4. Which of the following best describes the geneticinheritance pattern of blood antigens?

A) CodominanceB) DominanceC) Independent AssortmentD) LinkageE) Segregation

5. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces twogamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates whichprinciple of Mendelian genetics?

A) Codominance B) Dihybrid crossC) Dominant cross D) Monohybrid crossE) Epistasis

6. What is it called when a tall green pea plant is crossedto a short yellow pea plant?

A) Dominant inheritanceB) Independent assortmentC) Incomplete dominanceD) CodominanceE) Sex linked inheritance

7. The ABO blood types is an example of

A) recessive inheritanceB) sex linked inheritanceC) codominanceD) incomplete dominanceE) polygenic inheritance

8. Height, skin color, and weight are all examples of

A) complete dominance.B) codominance.C) incomplete dominance.D) epistasis.

9. In humans, the dominance relationship between the Aand B alleles of the ABO blood group gene is anexample of

A) 0% B) 25%C) 50% D) 75%E) 100%

10. A pink (Rw) and a red (RR) flower mate. Assumingincomplete dominance, the chance of obtaining ared-colored offspring is

A) 0% B) 25%C) 50% D) 75%E) 100%

11. In a cross between a heterozygous pink flower (Rw)and a homozygous white flower (WW), what is theprobability that you will have a white flower?Assume incomplete dominance occurs in theseflowers.

A) incomplete dominanceB) codominanceC) epistasisD) multiple allelesE) linked genes

12. In mice, the genes for coat color at one locus maysuppress the expression of coat color genes atanother locus. This is known as

A) 0% B) 25%C) 50% D) 75%E) 100%

13. A particular flower inherits color via incompletedominance. A cross between a homozygous blueflower (BB) and a homozygous red flower (RR)yields 100% purple flowers. If a cross between apurple flower and a red flower is performed, whatpercentage of the progeny will be purple flowers?

A) incomplete dominanceB) codominanceC) pleiotropyD) polygenicE) epistasis

14. The interaction between genes that causes thesuppression of one of the genes is called

A) Incomplete dominanceB) PleiotropyC) CodominanceD) EpitasisE) Polygenic inheritance

15. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a whitesnapdragon, the resulting F1 hybrids are pink.Which of the following terms best describes thisphenomenon?

A) incomplete dominanceB) x-linked dominantC) x-linked recessiveD) autosomal dominantE) autosomal recessive

16. Assuming complete penetrance, the most likelygenetic mechanism to explain the inheritance of thistrait is

A) ABO blood typesB) Crossing true breeding white and red snap

dragon flowers, resulting in all pinksnapdragon flowers.

C) Crossing true-breeding green and white plants,resulting in all white plants.

D) Crossing true breeding green and white plants,resulting in half white plants and half greenplants.

E) 3 dominant to 1 recessive phenotypic ratio

17. Which of the following is an example of incompletedominance?

A) multifactor inheritance.B) multiple allelism.C) incomplete dominance.D) epistasis.

18. The ABO blood group system is the result of

A) dominance and recessiveness.B) hybridization.C) incomplete dominance.D) supplementary genes.

19. A red (RR) snapdragon flower mates with a white(WW) snapdragon flower. The resulting offspringare pink (RW). This situation is an example of


20. Base your answer to the following question on the information below.

http://whyy.org/cms/youbetyourgarden/where-oh-where-did-the-hygrangeas-go/

"Hydrangeas (from the same genetic variety) often change color on their own when they areplanted or transplanted. They are adjusting to the new environment. It is not unusual to see severaldifferent colors on one shrub the next year after planting."

http://www.hydrangeashydrangeas.com/colorchange.html

A) Hydrangeas' mechanism show that genetics are much more complex than Mendelian conceptionsbecause they cannot predict how changes in the environment will affect phenotypes.

B) Hydrangeas are capable of changing colors and therefore support Mendelian genetics.C) These organisms follow all of the observations set by Mendelian genetics, and their colors can

be predicted with punnet squares.D) Hydrangeas further refute Mendelian genetics and provide a newer explanation for incomplete

dominance.

Which of the following statements best explains how the above information extends ourunderstanding of genetics beyond Mendelian concepts?

A) Males have half the likelihood of having thedisease, since they have only one Xchromosome.

B) A color blind son is always produced if hisfather has the gene.

C) Mothers can pass the gene with equalprobability to either a son or daughter

D) Females can only be carriers of the disease,they can never have the disease

E) Inbreeding has no effect on the incidence of thedisease

21. Color blindness is a disease caused by a sex-linkedrecessive gene on the X chromosome. Which of thefollowing statements are true about color blindness?

A) The mother carries the allele for hemophiliaB) The mother has hemophiliaC) The father carries the allele for hemophiliaD) The father has hemophiliaE) Both parents carry the allele for hemophilia

22. In humans, hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.If two parents produce a son with hemophilia, whichof the following statements must be true?

A) 0% B) 25%C) 50% D) 75%E) 100%

23. If a woman is a carrier of the sex-linkedcolorblindness trait and she has a male child withman who has normal vision, what is the probabilitythat their first son will be colorblind?

A) HemophiliaB) PhenylketonuriaC) Turner's SyndromeD) Trisomy-21E) Klinefelter's Syndrome

24. Which of the following is a sex-linked recessivetrait?

A) 100% of the males will express the trait and 0%of the females will express the trait.

B) 100% of the males will express the trait and100% of the females will express the trait.

C) 50% of the males will express the trait and 50%of the females will express the trait.

D) 0% of the males will express the trait and 100%of the females will express the trait.

E) 0% of the males and 0% of the females willexpress the trait.

25. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who expressesa sex-linked recessive trait is mated with a wildtype D. melanogaster male, which of the following isexpected to occur?

A) a Y chromosomeB) nondisjunctionC) aneuploidyD) autosomesE) homozygous genes for the trait

26. In order for a female to express a sex-linked trait,she must have

A) Dominant B) Sex-linkedC) Hybrid D) EpistaticE) Codominant

27. A man and a woman, both having a recessive allelefor Tay-Sachs disease have two children. Child Ahas Tay Sachs disease and zero functional enzymesto metabolize lipids. Child B has equal numbers ofnormal and dysfunctional enzyme molecules, butdoes not exhibit the Tay Sachs phenotype.

Which of the following best describes Tay Sachsdisease at the molecular level?

A) polygenic traits.B) single allele traits.C) multiple allele traits.D) sex-linked traits.

28. The greatest amount of phenotypic variation is seenin


29. Base your answer to the following question on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder.

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

If Individual 14 married a normal male, what is the probability that they will have an affected son?

Base your answers to questions 30 through 32 on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder.

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

30. If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a normaldaughter?

A) nn B) Nn C) XnXn D) XNXn E) XNXN

31. The genotype of Individual 1 is

A) cystic fibrosis B) galactosemiaC) hemophilia D) thalassemia majorE) syndactyly

32. Individual 4 is most likely affected by

A) Linked genesB) Incomplete dominanceC) Multiple allelesD) CodominanceE) Polygenetic inheritance

33. In reference to blood types, sometimes both the Aallele and the B allele are expressed. Which of thefollowing terms best explains this?

A) It is an autosomal recessive disease.B) It is an X-linked recessive disease.C) It is an X-linked dominant disease.D) It is an autosomal dominant disease.E) The inheritance pattern of disease "S" does not

have a genetic basis.

34. Refer to the following pedigree that illustrates theinheritance of pattern of disease "S".

According to the diagram, disease "S" can beclassified as which of the following? A) If the child is female, that child will NOT be

colorblind. If the child is male, there is a 50%chance that child will be colorblind.

B) If the child is female, that child will becolorblind. If the child is male, that child willbe colorblind.

C) If the child is female, that child will becolorblind. If the child is male, that child willNOT be colorblind.

D) If the child is female, that child will NOT becolorblind. If the child is male, that child willNOT be colorblind.

E) If the child is female, there is a 50% chance thatthat child will be colorblind. If the child ismale, that child will NOT be colorblind.

35. Refer to the pedigree below which illustrates theinheritance of color-blindness.

If Barbara and Art have another child, which of thefollowing is true?


A) they inherited a normal allele from their motherB) they inherited a colorblind allele from their

motherC) they received a colorblind allele from their

fatherD) they received a normal allele from their fatherE) they inherited a normal allele from mother and

a normal allele from their father

36. Answer the following question based on thefollowing pedigree.

The most reasonable explanation for the fact thatBecki and Melissa do not have colorblindness isbecause

37. Base your answer to the following question on the pedigree below.

A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal codominantC) Sex-linked dominant D) Sex-linked recessiveE) Nondisjunction of chromosomes

What is the pattern of inheritance of sickle-cell anemia?

Base your answers to questions 38 and 39 on thepedigree below.

A) 0 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 3/4 E) 1

38. If individuals 5 and 6 from generation II haveanother child, what is the probability that the childwould have the sickle cell trait?

A) normalB) sickle-cell diseaseC) either normal or sickle cell diseaseD) sickle-cell carrierE) normal or sickle cell carrier

39. What is the most likely phenotype of individual 9 ingeneration 3

A) diploid germ cells B) somatic cellsC) gametes D) chromsomesE) nuclei

40. The alleles in a punnet square represent


A)testing the validity of an experim

ent

B)testing the validity of the statistics u

sed in the

experim

ent

C)testing the validity of a null hypothesis

D)finding the average results

E)developing the hypothesis

41.T

he chi-square test is useful in

A)Four vestigial w

ings

B)Tw

o vestigial and tw

o normal wings

C)Four normal wings

D)Three normal and one vestigial

E)Three vestigial and one normal

42.In fruit flies (Drosophila), vestigial w

ings (v

) are

recessive to normal wings (V

). What phenotype(s) of

offspring would you expect from the following

cross, Vv x vv?

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