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BIO152 SAMPLE EXAM QUESTIONS Dr. F. Rawle

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1. Louis Pasteur’s experiment had a good design becausea. simple equipment was used.b. a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested.c. the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions.d. the experiment was a success.d. all of the above.

2. According to the figure below, which of the following organisms is the most closely related to Red algae?

a. Diatomsb. Firmicutesc. Aeropyrumd. Euglenidse. Euglenids and diatoms

3. A maple tree is classified into domain __________ and kingdom _____________.a. Eukarya; Animaliab. Eukarya; Fungi

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BI110 FALL 2009 - FINAL EXAM (Dr. Rawle) Student ID #: _____________________

c. Eukarya; Plantaed. Eukarya; Protistae. Baceria; Archaea

4. Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?a. the ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systemsb. the universality of the genetic codec. the structure of the nucleusd. the structure of ciliae. the structure of chloroplasts

5. A pH is neutral due to the dissociation of water molecules in pure water. How many molecules of water have broken down into a hydroxide ion and a hydronium ion at pH7?a. 1 in 1 millionb. 1 in 10 millionc. 1 in 100 milliond. 1 in 1 billione. none of the above

6. While water has many exceptional and useful properties, which is the rarest property among compounds?a. water is a solventb. solid water is less dense than liquid water

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c. water has a high heat capacityd. water has surface tensione. all of the above

7. Carbon is an important element for biology becausea. of the variety of carbon skeletons and functional groups that can be built on them.b. it has a very high electronegativity and forms highly stable bonds.c. carbon is so rare, organisms conserve it highly.d. it has the ability to form six covalent bonds.

8. What results from an unequal sharing of electrons between atoms?a. a non-polar covalent bondb. a polar covalent bondc. an ionic bondd. a hydrogen bonde. a hydrophobic interaction

11. The tertiary structure of a protein is thea. bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds.b. order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain.c. unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.

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d. organization of a polypeptide chain into an α helix or β pleated sheete. overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation

12. What is the term used for a change in a protein’s three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?a. hydrolysisb. stabilizationc. destabilizationd. renaturatione. denaturation

13. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?a. a nitrogenous base and a phosphate groupb. a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugarc. a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugard. a phosphate group and an adenine or uracile. a pentose sugar and a purine or pyrimidine

14. Which of the following in not a protein?a. hemoglobinb. cholesterolc. an antibody

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d. an enzymee. insulin

15. Of the following functions, the major purpose of RNA is toa. transmit genetic information to offspring.b. function in the synthesis of protein.c. make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity.d. act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA.e. form the genes of higher organisms.

16.Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?a. guanine and adenineb. cytosine and uracilc. thymine and guanined. ribose and deoxyribosee. adenine and thymine

26. How is the structure of kinesin related to its function?a. Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to contract and shorten.b. Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to microtubules.c. The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities.

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d. Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved, and a tail region that attaches to microtubules.e. None of the above.

27. Of the following, what do both mitochondria and chloroplasts have in common?a. ATP is produced.b. DNA is present.c. Ribosomes are present.d. B and C only.e. A, B, and C.

28.In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?a. chloroplastb. lysosomec. central vacuoled. peroxisomee. glyoxysome

29. All of the following molecules are part of the cell membrane excepta. lipidsb. nucleic acidsc. proteinsd. phosphate groupse. steroids

30. Which would be the most accurate endomembrane route through which a protein is secreted from a cell? a. Golgi apparatus→lysosome→vesicles→plasma membraneb. plasmid→plasma membrane→nuclear envelope→smooth endoplasmic reticulumc. nuclear envelope→vesicles→Golgi apparatus→plasma membraned. rough endoplasmic reticulum→lysosomes→vesicles→cell membranee. rough endoplasmic reticulum→ Golgi apparatus→vesicles →plasma membrane

31. Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis. a. True b. False

32. Which of the following is TRUE of the proteome and its relationship to cell structure, function, and organization? a. It is a diverse collection of proteins.b. Its composition changes depending on the cells' environmental condition.c. Individual proteins may interact with each other to form larger cellular structures.d. Proteins have sorting signals to direct them to particular cellular compartments.e. All of the choices are correct.

39. A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to take place ______________.a. The parent cell must first be fertilized.b. The parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.c. The parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase.d. The parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions. In this way, differentiation occurs.

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40. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an organism's genetic material? a. The genetic material must contain information necessary to construct a whole organism.b. The genetic material must be transmitted from parent to offspring.c. To transmit information the genetic material must be replicated.d. The genetic material must be dynamic, changing rapidly in response to changes in the environment.e. Genetic material must account for the known variation within each species and among different species.

41. Which of the following statements about the structure or composition of DNA is FALSE? a. DNA is a double helix.b. Complementary base-pairing occurs between pyrimidine and purine bases.c. The amount of thymine closely approximates that of guanine within a particular organism.d. Each nucleotide within a DNA is separated by about 0.34 angstroms.e. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine.

42. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT? a. It begins at multiple origins of replication sites along eukaryotic chromosomes.b. It proceeds with the addition of new nucleotides to the 3′ end of a growing DNA strand.c. It is powered by the hydrolysis of ATP.d. Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.e. It requires that each strand in the double helix be separated from the other.

43. In order to pass the G1 checkpoint:a. nutrients must be sufficientb. chromosome replication is successfully completesc. DNA must be undamagedd. A and Ce. all of the above

44. In order to pass the G2 checkpoint:a. nutrients must be sufficientb. chromosome replication is successfully completesc. activated MPF is presentd. B and Ce. all of the above

45. In order to pass the metaphase checkpoint:a. nutrients must be sufficientb. chromosome replication is successfully completesc. all chromosomes are attached at the mitotic spindled. A and Ce. all of the above

46. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell witha. a single large nucleusb. high concentrations of actin and myosinc. two abnormally small nucleid. two nucleie. two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA

47. Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

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a. centromereb. centrosomec. centrioled. chromatide. kinetochore

48. Chromosomes first become visible during ______ of mitosis.a. prometaphaseb. telophasec. prophased. metaphasee. anaphase

49. How do two members of a pair of homologous chromosomes differ from each other?a. their lengthb. the identity and relative position of the genes present on each of the chromosomesc. their staining patternsd. the position of the centromere within each of the chromosomese. the precise sequence of the DNA within each of the chromosomes

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50. If the liver cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do its sperm cells have?a. 6b. 12c. 24d. 48e. 64

51. Meiosis I produces __________, and meiosis II produces _________ cells. a. two diploid, two haploidb. two diploid, 4 haploidc. two haploid, 4 haploidd. two haploid, two haploide. two somatic, two gametic

52. Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?a. they can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cellb. they can be dominant or recessivec. they can represent alternative forms of a gened. only A and Be. A, B, and C

53. When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?a. 0%b. 25%c. 50%d. 75%e. 100%

54. The karyotype of a normal human male would show a total of 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes. a. True b. False

55. Color blindness is a recessive X-linked trait. A normal couple has a color-blind child. Who else in this family is probably color blind? a. the child's maternal grandfatherb. the child's maternal grandmotherc. the child's paternal grandfatherd. the child's paternal grandmothere. the child's maternal grandmother or grandfather

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56. Which of the following inheritance patterns is matched with an inaccurate molecular basis? a. Incomplete dominance; The protein produced by a wild-type allele affects the phenotype in a concentration-dependent manner.b. Codominance; Two proteins are produced in heterozygotes.c. Sex-infuenced; Hormones alter the expression of proteins encoded by dominant and recessive alleles.d. X-linked; Hemizygotes with the recessive allele do not make a functional protein, but heterozygotes do.e. Simple Mendelian inheritance; The protein produced by a single allele cannot produce the dominant phenotype.

57. Place the following events of mitosis in the correct order. I. Sister chromatids align on the metaphase plate. II. The cleavage furrow forms.

III. The nuclear membrane breaks up.IV. Sister chromatids condense.V. Sister chromatids separate.

A. I, II, III, IV, V B. III, IV, I, V, II C. IV, III, I, V, II D. III, II, I, IV, V E. IV, I, III, V, II

58. Cancers arise from cells in which cell-cycle checkpoints have failed.a. true b. false

59. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for an organism's genetic material? a. The genetic material must contain information necessary to construct a whole organism.b. The genetic material must be transmitted from parent to offspring.c. To transmit information the genetic material must be replicated.d. The genetic material must be dynamic, changing rapidly in response to changes in the environment.e. Genetic material must account for the known variation within each species and among different species.

60. Which of the following statements about the structure or composition of DNA is FALSE? a. DNA is a double helix.b. Complementary base-pairing occurs between pyrimidine and purine bases.c. The amount of thymine closely approximates that of guanine within a particular organism.d. Each nucleotide within a DNA is separated by about 0.34 angstroms.e. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine.

61. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is INCORRECT? a. It begins at multiple origins of replication sites along eukaryotic chromosomes.b. It proceeds with the addition of new nucleotides to the 3 end of a growing DNA strand.c. It is powered by the hydrolysis of ATP.d. Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.e. It requires that each strand in the double helix be separated from the other.

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62. Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand, but not on the leading strand of DNA? a. The two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction only.b. It is substantially more efficient to make several shorter strands rather than one longer strand of DNA.c. There lacks enough cellular DNA ligase for bonding Okazaki fragments together if they were produced from both parental strands.d. By having one leading strand and one lagging strand the cell can limit the amount of DNA polymerase used for chromosomal replication.e. It is faster to make several smaller fragments than one larger fragment.

63. A researcher determined that a strain of E. coli is producing a shortened version of a protein required for glucose metabolism. What type of mutation could be responsible for this shorter than normal protein?a. nonsense mutationb. missense mutationc. silent mutationd. sense mutatione. chromosomal rearrangement

64. Which of the following is true concerning a somatic cell mutation? a. A small fraction of the gametes carry the mutation.b. Half of the gametes carry the mutation.c. All of the gametes carry the mutation.d. Only a small group of cells within the organism is affected by the mutation.e. All cells within the organism are affected by the mutation.

65. Based on the gene and protein sequences that follow, what type of mutation-polypeptide effect has occurred?

Normal gene: ATGGCCGGCCCGAAAGAGACCMutated gene: ATGGCCGGCACCGAAAGAGACCNormal protein: Met-Ala-Gly-Pro-Lys-Glu-ThrMutated protein: Met-Ala-Gly-Thr-Glu-Arg-Asp

a. base addition-silentb. base addition-nonec. base addition-missensed. base addition-nonsensee. base addition-frameshift

66. When cancer cells have the ability to migrate to other parts of the body, they are said to be a. invasive.b. benign.c. metastatic.d. oncogenic.e. genetic.64.

67. Activated MPF is a carbohydrate.a. true b. false

68. Mutations can produce a polypeptide with increased function. a. true b. false

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69. A mutation causes a gene to become overactive, contributing to uncontrolled cell growth. Which term best describes this gene?a. tumor-suppressor geneb. oncogenec. spliced gened. alternatively spliced genee. malignant gene

70. In cats, the Manx allele (M) causes a short or absent tail, while a recessive allele m confers a normal, long tail. Cats of genotype MM die as embryos. If two Manx cats mate, what is the probability that each surviving kitten has a long tail?a. 1/4b. 1/3c. 1/2d. 1/6e. none of the above

Refer to the pedigree below to answer questions 71-74.

71. What is the inheritance pattern of the disease displayed in the pedigree above?a. autosomal recessiveb. autosomal dominantc. x-linked recessived. x-linked dominante. y-linked

72.What is the genotype of II-3?a. AAb. aac. XmXm

d. xmxm

e.xmy

73. What is the genotype of III-3?a. AAb. Aac. XmXm

d. xmxm

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e.xmy

74. What is the probability of III-7 giving birth to an affected son?a. 1/4b. 1/2c. 1/3d. 0e. cannot be determined

Use the following information to answer questions 75-77

In Klingons, one gene determines hair texture; another gene determines whether the individual will have a sagittal crest (a protrusion on the forehead). The two genes are not linked.

K= curly Klingon hair (dominant); k = silky earthling-like hair (recessive)S = large sagittal crest (dominant); s = smooth, flat, earthling-like forehead (recessive)

Kayless is a half-human, half-Klingon with the genotype KkSs. He mates with an individual who is also heterozygous for both genes.

75. What fraction of the progeny are expected to be heterozygous for both genes?a. 1/8b. 1/6c. 1/4d. 1/3e. 1/2

76. What fraction of the progeny are expected to be homozygous for both genes?a. 1/8b. 1/6c. 1/4d. 1/3e. 1/2

77. Is it possible that any offspring will have a smooth forehead and silky hair?a. yesb. no

78. New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?a. nondisjunctionb. crossing overc. independent assortmentd. mixing of sperm and egge. both B and D

79. Genes are affected by both the physical environment and the genetic environment.a. true b. false

80. A gene that influences many traits is said to be pleiotopic.a. true b. false

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81. What is the function of the poly A tail? a. The poly A tail is required for the proper exit of mRNA from the nucleus.b. The poly A tail allows mRNA to bind to the ribosome.c. The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in eukaryotes.d. The poly A tail increases mRNA stability in prokaryotes.e. The poly A tail serves as a termination sequence for RNA polymerase III.

82. On which of the following processes would a defective ribosome have the most detrimental effect? a. translationb. replicationc. transcriptiond. replication and transcriptione. replication and translation

83. Which sequence of events is most CORRECT for the initiation and elongation steps of translation?(1) initiator tRNA binds start codon on mRNA(2) small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA(3) large ribosomal subunit binds(4) tRNA entry and peptidyl transfer reaction(5) tranlocation of ribosome and release of tRNA

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5D. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4E. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

Refer to the following figure on splicing to answer questions 84-87.

84. What is the correct label for (1) in the above figure?a. primary mRNA transcriptb. mature mRNA transcriptc. primary amino acid sequenced. DNA coding strande. DNA template strand

85. What is the correct label for (3) and (4) in the above figure?a. intronsb. exonsc. 5’cap and polyA tail

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86. What is the correct label for (2) in the above figure?a. snRNPsb. sRNPsc. snRPPsd. sRPPse.snuRPs

87. Because of alternative mRNA splicing,a. the primary mRNA transcript is much shorter than the mature mRNA transcriptb. the mature mRNA transcript is much shorter than the primary mRNA transcriptc. many more proteins than genes can be producedd. A and Ce. B and C

88. The DNA coding strand is 5’-ACT-TTC-ACT-ATG-TTT-TTA-TCC-TCC-ACT-CCT-TGA-3’. What is the mRNA strand?a. 5’-ACT-TTC-ACT-ATG-TTT-TTA-TCC-TCC-ACT-CCT-TGA-3’b. 5’-TGA-AAG-TGA-TAC-AAA-AAT-AGG-AGG-TGA-GGA-ACT-3’c. 5’-UGA-AAG-UGA-UAC-AAA-AAU-AGG-AGG-UGA-GGA-ACU-3’d. 5’-ACU-UUC-ACU-AUG-UUU-UUA-UCC-UCC-ACU-CCU-UGA-3’e. none of the above

89. The DNA coding strand is 5’-ACT-TTC-ACT-ATG-TTT-TTA-TCC-TCC-ACT-CCT-TGA-3’. What is the sequence of the polypeptide strand?a. N-Thr-Phe-The-Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro-Cb. C-Thr-Phe-The-Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro-Nc. C-Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro-N d. N-Met-Phe-Leu-Ser-Ser-Thr-Pro-Ce. none of the above

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Refer to the figure below to answer questions 90-93.

90. What is the most correct label for (A) in the above figure?a. aminoacyl tRNAb. tRNA synthetasec. tRNAd. RNA polymerasee. DNA polymerase

91. What is the correct label for (B) in the above figure?a. aminoacyl tRNA synthetaseb. aminoacyl tRNAc. tRNAd. RNA polymerasee. DNA polymerase

92.What is the correct label for (C) in the above figure?a. dNTPb. NTPc. amino acidd. proteine. monosaccharide

93. The process of transferring an amino acid to a tRNA does not require ATP.a. true b. false

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1. The first living cells are believed to have evolved on Earth approximately _________ years ago; the first multicellular eukaryotes are believed to have evolved approximately ________________ years ago. A. 1.5 billion; 500 million B. 2.0 billion; 1.0 billion C. 600 million; 300 million D. 100 million; 50 million E. 3.5 billion; 1.5 billion

2. Which of the biological molecules listed below is capable of each of the following functions? i. self-replication

ii. catalysis iii. information storage

A. DNA B. protein C. RNA D. (B) and (C) E. (A), (B) and (C)

3. Which one of the following statements about the fossil record is correct? A. 14C can be used to date any fossil. B. The fossil record is an indisputable story of the "history of life." C. The half-life of a radioisotope used in studying the fossil record is the time it takes for exactly one-half of the original isotope to decay. D. The fossil record can accurately date the appearance of a species on the planet. E. None of the above statements about the fossil record are correct.

4. Anatomical features that have no apparent function but resemble structures of presumed ancestors are most accurately referred to as _______________ structures. (Example: fingernails on manatees)A. homologousB. adaptiveC. analogousD. vestigialE. orthologous

5. Similar physical characteristics in very distantly related species representA. homologous structuresB. selective breedingC. adaptation to different environmentsD. convergent evolutionE. vestigial structures

6. In a population of 10 individuals, 7 have an FF genotype, 2 have an Ff genotype, and 1 has an ff genotype. What is the allele frequency of the F allele?A. 0.8B. 0.9C. 0.2D. 0.16E. It is impossible to say from the information provided

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7. If the allele frequency of a dominant allele is 0.6, then the genotype frequency of individuals that are homozygous for the recessive trait is:A. 60%B. 48%C. 40%D. 36%E. 16%

8. Which species concept relies on the ability to mate and produce fertile offspring?A. the biological species conceptB. the ecological species conceptC. the evolutionary species conceptD. the phylogenetic species conceptE. the natural selection species concept

9. Is temporal isolation a prezygotic or a postzygotic isolating mechanism?A. prezygoticB. postzygoticC. It depends on the species, whether it act pre- or postzygoticallyD. It can be either; depending on the time of yearE. Neither – temporal isolation is not an isolating mechanism

1. Why must the first single-celled prokaryotic organisms on Earth have been anaerobic?A. Because this is an energetically more efficient type of metabolism.B. Because they were at deep-sea vents, far away from the oxygen available in the atmosphere.C. Because they were autotrophs, and all autotrophs carry out anaerobic metabolism.D. Because no oxygen was present in the early Earth atmosphere.E. None of the above.

4. If a few members of a green lizard population (with a variety of shades of green) survived a volcanic eruption that burned their formerly green forest and covered it with gray ash, what would you predict to happen?A. The surviving lizards would immediately turn gray, so that they would not be visible to predators on the ash.B. The surviving lizards would reproduce, and the baby lizards that (by chance) were a little green gray (rather than bright green) would survive to reproduce, and over time, the lizard population would become more gray in coloration.C. The ash would cause mutations in the surviving lizards, so that the first generation of the offspring of the lizards would be entirely and uniformly gray and undetectable to predators.D. The brightest green survivors would reproduce, as they would be the most attractive and easiest to find; over time, the population would become brighter and brighter green.E. None of the above scenarios is possible.

5. You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous for a particular gene. What would be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?A. 0.09B. 0.30C. 0.49D. 0.70E. Allele frequency cannot be estimated from this information.

6. Who has the highest Darwinian fitness?A. A 38-year-old woman with no children who can run a marathon in 2 hours and 45 minutes.

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B. An 80-year-old man with emphysema who has five children.C. A 60-year-old Nobel Prize winner who has one son (the son graduated from a prestigious medical school).D. A 55-year-old elementary school teacher with six children (two biological children and four adopted children).E. There is not enough information to answer this question.

7. The biological species concept can be applied only to which of the following groups?A. Bird species living today.B. Dinosaurs.C. Bacteria.D. Archaea.E. All of the above.

8. Which gene family has a genetic history that parallels the increasing complexity of animal body form observed during evolutionary history?A. HoxB. BMP4C. gremlinD. webbinE. FVIII

9. Which of the following is most accurate?A. Mass extinctions are due to asteroid impacts; background extinctions may have a wide variety of causes.B. Mass extinctions focus on particularly prominent groups, such as dinosaurs; background extinctions affect species from throughout the tree of life.C. Only five mass extinctions have occurred, but hundreds of background extinctions have occurred.D. Mass extinctions extinguish groups rapidly and randomly; background extinctions are slower and often result from natural selection.E. None of the above.

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10. If humans and pandas belong to the same class, then they must also belong to the sameA. Order.B. Phylum.C. Family.D. Genus.E. Species.

13. According to the endosymbiosis theory, what type of organism is the original ancestor of the chloroplast?A. A photosynthetic archaen.B. A cyanobacterium.C. An algal-like, primitive photosynthetic eukaryote.D. A modified mitochondrion.E. A primitive protist.

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