b777 p&p Handout 2011

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FOR CREW INFORMATION ONLY Page - 1

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. BOEING 777-200 .

P & p

PREPARED BY

F/O : HISHAM HALWANI Mobile : +9665-0858-8580

E-mail : [email protected]

APPRECIATE YOUR NOTES AND CONCERNS REGARDING THIS PRINT

VOL-I Revision # 79

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Saudia B777-200 P&P Bulletins

-Operating cost index -ETOPS maximum diversion -Improved climb takeoff performance

1-What is the purpose of FMC cost index? It is a function used by the FMC to produce the ECON speed for each en-route portion based on relative importance of time & fuel cost 2-What is the cost index value for B-777? It is 80 based on the average cost index value for achieving fuel savings 3-Which speed shall be used in the FMC for climb/cruise/descent? Based on the flight duration

-Flight of 4 hours or more: must use the ECON speeds -Flight of less than 4 hours: must uses 310/.84 - .84 - .84/310

4-Which speeds does jeppesen CFP’s use for climb/cruise/descent? Why? Regardless of the duration of the flight it is based on standard speed, this will provide the crew option of changing from ECON to M0.84 during flight if required 5-Which speed shall be used in the FMC (climb/cruise/descent) for NAT OPS? It is based on the directional operation:

Outbound of the kingdom to NAT :

Shall be planned & operated at M.84 Inbound to the kingdom from NAT :

Shall be planned & operated across the Atlantic at M.84 (SCD) then to fly ECON as well SCD

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GENERAL 1-How does the planning & performance for B.777 based on? The most economical operation at all times as: - Close as to optimum altitude

- CRZ mach 0.84 2-What is the optimum altitude figure in FMC/CDU (CRZ page)? It is an altitude based on cruise speed:

- When using ECON SPEED:

This altitude to minimize the trip cost based on: -Weight -Coast index entry

- When using LRC SPD / EGN OUT SPD / SEL SPD:

This altitude to minimize the trip fuel based on weight only Note: All altitude does not reflect on speed, if speed intervention is in used 3-What is the maximum altitude figure in FMC/CDU (CRZ page)? It is the maximum operating altitude based on:

-Gross weight -Temperature -Number of operating engines -Cruise speed (LRC/EO/SEL/ECON)

Note: All altitude does not reflect on speed, if speed intervention is in used 4-What is the recommended altitude figure in FMC/CDU (CRZ page)? It is the most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 nm based on:

-Gross weight -Cruise speed -Wind -Temperature

Note:

- All altitude does not reflect on speed, if speed intervention is in used - If the ICAO is zero:

-The recommended altitude is the actual altitude +2000’ -When within 500 nm to top of descent it becomes the actual cruise altitude

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5- What is the required fuel reserve for Domestic & International flight under 121.645? Domestic:

- Be enough for 45 minimum flights at normal fuel consumption - Based on (B-777):

- 208,000 Kg missed approach weight - Fuel flow for LRC - ISA + 15 - Conditions at FL-310 - The domestic reserve is estimated around 4900 Kg

International: - Fuel of (5%) of the total time from departure to planed destination airport and land based on computed weight at which the flight is expected to arrive over the destination airport.

- Fuel of (30) min holding time at 1500’ AGL with holding speed and Slandered ISA temperature conditions above the alternate airport – if NO alternate has been specified holding is assumed to occur above the destination airport

Note:

If operating under re-dispatch. The fuel reserve at re- dispatch should be holding fuel + 10 % of the fuel burn for the FLT time from re-dispatch point to destination based on CFP calculated landing weight.

6- What are the weight limitations for the following faces? - Ramp & Taxi : 287,804 Kg - Takeoff : 286,897 Kg - Landing : 208,652 Kg - Zero-Fuel : 195,044 Kg 7- What is the purpose of 270/M.73 planning charts? This charts to be used if the flight is restricted by MEL/CDL to fly the speed of 250/270 for climb & 270/M.73 for cruise. 8- How does the NAM Nautical Air Mile can be calculated? TAS = NAM GS NGM

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9- What is the minimum fuel required for the flight (Policy)?

FUEL Definitions

Trip

The required fuel to fly from departure to destination including the following -Takeoff -SID -Climb -Cruise -Descent -STAR -Approach -Landing

En-route reserve for

International

-Flight 60 minutes or more: Fuel necessary for a flight to fly for 5% of total time required to fly from the departure to the planed destination and land based on the expected calculated weight over the destination -Flight less than 60 minutes : Fuel necessary for a flight to fly for 5% of total time required to fly from the departure to the planed destination and land based on the expected calculated weight over the destination or fuel required to fly for 15 minutes at 1500” above the destination at the computed landing weight(whichever is higher)

Contingency Compensate for any know traffic delays or other conditions may delay the landing of the flight (Weather /ATC/…….)

ETOPS To meet ETOPS requirements

Alternate*

It is the nearest suitable airport in order to minimize fuel requirements without jeopardizing the safety -If alternate is planned: Alternate fuel shall be adequate to fly from MAP at the destination to the alternate and make an IFR approach if forecast weather conditions exist and landing at the alternate -If alternate is not planned: The trip fuel will include fuel for possible missed approach

Final reserve*

-Domestic flight: Fuel required to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption -International flight: Fuel required to fly 30 minutes based on holding speed, at 1500” above alternate airport or destination if no alternate is required and ISA temperature

Additional Fuel required for operational purpose (MEL/CDL) or ballast for weight and balancing purposes

Through On multiple sector flight where fueling is not available and taxi –in and APU fuel shall be provided

Extra -Indicated on the release as tinkering fuel -Should not be more than round trip fuel

Taxi

-Must be added to minimum fuel in the dispatch release -Normally maintenance will add the standard taxi for each equipment (B-777) is 33 kgs/Min. = 462 kgs based on 14 minutes taxi may be increased or decreased SCD & + APU

WARNING In NO case may the MIN fuel be less than the required for the FLT

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ALTERNATE PLANNING

1- How does the alternate planning chart based on? 1- Missed approach 2- Climb to optimum altitude 3- Cruise at long range cruise 4- Descent and approach 5- With ISA condition 6- Maneuvering to landing at sea level airport

Note: If the actual distance is not shown rounded up to the next higher distance

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CLIMB

1- How does the climb planning chart based on? 1- Max climb thrust 2- From ISA-10 to ISA at 10˚C ISA deviation steps 3- Speed of 250 / 310 / M 0.84 4- Clean configuration 5- Buffet margin is 1.3G 6- Wind is zero 7- Anti-ice is OFF N1 % is also given 8- Takeoff alternate sea level N1 % is also given

Note: This chart can also be used to calculate the step climb time/weight/distance.

2- What is the purpose of flight with unreliable airspeed climb tables? The table provides the required information for climb when airspeed is unreliable based on:

270 K to 25000ft 280/M.82 above 25000ft

Note: Maintain a minimum speed of 15 kts above minimum maneuvering speed when below M.82

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M 0.84 FLIGHT PLANNING

1- How does the M 0.84 planning chart based on? Fuel burn from brake release to landing including descent from optimum altitude to sea level point Climb speed : 250 / 310 / M 0.84 Descent speed : M0.84 / 310 / 250

Note: 1- Interpolation is allowed for constant mach planning 2- In the LRC chart there is no CRZ TAS, only average CRZ speed 3- All charted distance is based on Nautical Air Miles (NAM) 4- NAM = TAS x NGM / GS

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CRUISE 1- How does the cruise chart based on?

1- Max continues N1 % 2- One engine inoperative 3- Both or ONE pack’s ON / OFF 4- Wing & engine anti-ice is OFF

2- What does the altitude capability chart provides? CRZ thrust limit weight for a given CRZ altitude at LRC and M0.84 Based on:

1- Pressure altitude & temperature 2- Optimum weight 3- Max gross weight

3- What is the purpose of maneuvering capability chart? This table is to provide the max altitude at which certain bank angle can be achieved Note: All the cruise tables and charts in the P&P and jeppesen CFP system

are based on 1.3G 4- What is the turbulence air penetration speed?

1- SPD 270 below FL-250 2- SPD 280 above FL-250 & below FL-360 3- M 0.82 at or above FL-360

Note: - The only reliable performance instruments is N1 % RPM -Maintain minimum speed of 15 kts above the minimum maneuvering speed (amber band) when below M.082

5- What is the purpose of M 0.73 / 270 / 310 CRZ chart? It is only provided for use with MEL/CDL restriction 6- What is the purpose of wind-altitude trade planning chart?

1- This to maintain same range at another altitude 2- The altitude might be lower than optimum altitude for LRC & M0.84 3- Based on comparing ground fuel mileage 4- There is no data available for climb or descent time or fuel or distance

7- What is the purpose of flight with unreliable airspeed cruise tables? The table provides the required information for cruise when airspeed is unreliable based on:

270 K to 25000ft 280/M.82 above 25000ft


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ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE / DESCENT & HOLDING

1- How does the holding chart based on?

1- One engine inoperative 2- Flaps up 3- FMS optimum holding speed

2- What is the purpose of the NET LEVEL OFF weight chart? This to determine the max altitude for terrain clearance 3- How does the NET LEVEL OFF weight chart based on?

1- One engine inoperative performance for optimum climb 2- This is only for planning purposes

4- Which performance calculation should be used in case of engine inoperative during cruise?

1- Set the MCT N1 % 2- Reduce speed to drift down speed 3- Decent to drift down altitude

5- What does the altitude capability on one engine inoperative chart provides? The max gross weight can be maintained with:

1- Pressure altitude 2- Temperature ISA

6- How does the altitude capability on one engine inoperative chart based on?

1- CRZ at speed 320 2- MCT CRZ

7- How does the drift down / cruise range capability time & fuel based on? Optimum drift down & targeting LRC & APU running 8- What is the purpose of flight with unreliable airspeed cruise tables? The table provides the required information for cruise when airspeed is unreliable based on:

280/M.82 above 25000ft 270 K below 25000ft


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LANDING 1- What is the max landing weight? The maximum landing weight is the lowest of the following:

1- Landing field length limit weight 2- Landing climb limit weight 3- Max certificated landing weight

2-What is an overweight landing? When landing to be made at weight greater than maximum certificated landing weight 3- What does the landing climb limit weight chart provides? If unscheduled landing must be made the chart will provide the approach climb and landing climb limit weight:

1- The critical temperature adjustment is not necessary 2- This weight may exceed the max certificated landing weight:

-Head wind components may not be used to increase the landing chart limit weight -Tail wind components must be used to reduce the landing charted limit weight

4- What is the Airport Critical Temp.? It can be exceeded? -It’s the hottest Temperature which the Approach Climb & Landing Climb Gradient can be met at the MAX Certificated Landing Weight. -Yes, it can be exceeded provided the weight reductions are applied to the max certified landing weight. 5- How does the Approach Climb Limit Weight based on? The Aircraft must be able to climb with:

1- Gradient of – 2.1 % 2- Landing Gear - UP 3- Flaps – (App. Setting) 4- Engine – One Engine Inoperative 5- Thrust – T/O Thrust on the remaining engine

6- Which VREF speed should be entered on the landing data card? ONLY : VREF speed (Normal) VREF speed (Modified) by MEL/CDL or other

Technical consideration NO : Gust wind correction entry on the landing VREF speed, as the wind

gust changes during approach & landing (will be add mentally) Note : The VREF speed is 30% above the aircraft stall speed on landing

configurations

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7-What is the maximum permissible weight in case of overweight landing? The maximum weight is the lower of the following: -Tailored landing chart limit weight -Landing climb limit weight 8- When the Field Length Limit Landing Weight chart can be used?

1- This chart to determine the field length limit landing weight for bank (Auto-Manual) 2- Incase of overweight landing 3- Incase of the tailored chart is not available

9- What does the Field Length Limit Landing Weight chart corrected for?

1- Wind 2- Brake deactivated 3- Runway condition (wet/dry)

10- What is the Landing Climb Limit Weight? The Aircraft must be able to climb with:

1- Gradient of – 3.2 % 2- Landing Gear - Down 3- Flaps – (Landing Setting) 4- Engine – All Engine operative 5- Thrust – G/A Thrust on All engines

11- How does the Landing Climb Limit Weight chart based on?

1- Airport pressure altitude 2- OAT 3- Engine bleed for two packs 4- APU is operating 5- Wing anti-ice is OFF 6- Engine anti-ice is OFF or ON 7- Flying in icing conditions & anti-ice operations

Note: This table ensures airplane ability to climb during icing conditions 12- When the Landing Climb Limit Weight chart can be used?

1- Overweight landing 2- Tailored landing chart is not available

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13- What is the DRY and WET Dispatch? DRY Dispatch:

1- Limited to GACA/FAA 121.195 & Airplane flight manual. 2- It is to plan land & stop on runway using no more than 60 % of

the length & without reverse thrust. 3- Condition: to Cross the Threshold at 50 FT with V-REF Speed.

WET Dispatch:

1- Limited to GACA/FAA 121.195 & Airplane flight manual. 2- It is to plan to land & stop on runway using the DRY stopping

distance plus 15 %. This requirements at the time of dispatch 3- Condition: When the forecast weather for that RWY at the time

of dispatch is wet and/or when the visibility is less than 1200m upon initializing the approach.

14- What are the ICAO & GACA/FAA definitions for runway being wet? ICAO:

Precipitation heavier than drizzle & other than showers is reported & the temperature is minus 4C or higher

GACA/FAA:

1- Precipitation is heavier than light & the temperature is minus 4C or higher

OR 2- The probability of any precipitation is forecast to be 50% or

greater whether continuous intermittent Note: 1-Flight crew should check before initiating an approach

when destination or alternate visibility has deteriorated to less than 1200M

2- No landing shall be made in wet snow, slush or standing

water exceed 1 inch (2.54 CM) 3- No landing shall be made in tailwind exceed 10 kts

unless allowed by the landing chart 15 - What is the reason that some aircraft reach destination with extra fuel exceeds max landing weight? The B-777 P&P and the computerized flight plan are produced with a 2% fuel bias for normal degradation of aircraft performance with time therefore for planning purpose flight with tankering fuel restrict the max landing weight to 207.000 kgs if tankering fuel is not required the max landing weight is 208.652 kgs

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16- What is the purpose of quick turnaround landing weight chart? This to determine the landing weight which if exceeded by actual landing weight required the following before next departure:

- A waiting period of at least 65 minutes. - Wheel thermal plugs must be checked to ensure there are not melted

17- What is the alternate procedure for the quick turnaround requirements? If there is no EICAS “BRAKE TEMP” advisory message displayed 10 to 15 minutes after parking then the waiting period is not required 18-What are the restrictions of (MOT) maximum operating temperature?

1-Dispatch to a destination where forecasting temperature is exceeding MOT is not permitted 2-Landing on airport where actual temperature exceeds the MOT is not permitted except for an emergency only

19-What is the normal landing flaps setting? Flaps 30 20-When normal landing cannot be made with flaps less than 30 (Information only reference is removed from P&P): 1-Runway is wet or contaminated 2-Runway length available is less than 8200 ft 3-Tailwind condition 4-Autobrakes inoperative 5-One or two brakes deactivated or capped off or removed 6-One thrust reverser inoperative 7-Minimum runway occupancy operation is required 21-What is the purpose of normal & non-normal configuration landing distance tables? Those tables provides an advisory information to determined the normal & non-normal landing distance required

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TAKEOFF Introductions:

1-The DER1 (D-TO1) thrust rating is 10% less than the 90B (D-TO) thrust rating 2-ATM = Assumed Temperature Method may applies on both DER1 or 90B performance data. 3-The ATM thrust reductions are GACA/FAA limited to a max reduction of 25% of DER1/90B engine thrust rating

1-How does the 25% of DER1/90B power reduction will not be exceeded GACA/FAA regulations & limit? By the FMC will restrict any assumed temperature for thrust reduction more than 25% from the selected type of thrust either DER1 or 90B. 2- What are the factors, the tailored takeoff charts data is based on?

1- Engine failure (VFE) one second before V1 2- Crew decision either

- To stop (RTO) at V1 or - To continue with one engine inoperative.

3- The departure flight path is

- Straight out from the end of the runway unless - Engine failure procedure is indicated in the runway notes section

4- All data are based on - Air condition packs ON or (OFF if requested by FPE) - T/O thrust for 10 minutes (one engine)

3- What is the definition of max takeoff weight? It is the maximum weight at which the airplane can takeoff and reach a height of 35 feet and V2 by the end of the runway with one engine inoperative. 4- What is the definition of balanced filed? It is the maximum weight at which the airplane can accelerate with all engines and rejecting takeoff at V1 and stop within the remaining runway

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5- When SAUDIA policies restrict the uses of ATM? (DER-1 or 90-B actual OAT with flaps 05 or 15)

1- Wet or Contaminated runway 2- Deicing/Anti-icing Fluids applied to the aircraft 3- One or two brakes deactivated (Special Tools)

(90-B actual OAT with flaps 05 )

4- Gear down dispatch / operation (flaps-05only) 5- One or two brakes Capt-off /removed (flaps-05 only)

(90-B actual OAT with flaps 05 or15 )

6- 30 day max thrust (policy) (flaps-05 or 15) 6- Which information is provided by the tailored takeoff charts?

1- Zero wind weight (Runway limit):

It is a weight corrected for wind, wet or contamination and/or MEL/CDL penalties. For specific runway at given temperature & zero wind condition & it is the most limiting of the following:

1- Runway length 2- Obstacle clearance 3- Brake energy 4- Tire speed limited weights 5-Restriction prohibiting tailwind takeoff for a given temperature & zero wind conditions

2- Climb weight limitation:

It is the maximum weight which will satisfy the engine out minimum climb gradient for the airport elevation or for specific runway and temperature

3- Structural limit:

It is the maximum weight which is limited by structural limit

7- What is the max takeoff weight? The maximum takeoff weight is the lowest of the following:

1-Takeoff field length limit weight 2-Climb limit weight 3-Max certificated takeoff weight 4-Brake energy limit weight 5-Tire speed limited weights

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8-When the FMC uses CLIMB or CLIMB-1 or CLIMB-2 thrust? Based on the selected takeoff thrust: -If 90B takeoff thrust is selected FMC use CLIMB -If thrust reduction (assumed) is less than 10% FMC use CLIMB -If thrust reduction (assumed) is between 10 to 20% FMC use CLIMB-1 -If thrust reduction (assumed) is = or greater than20%FMC use CLIMB-2

Note: 1-The use of de-rated climb thrust reduces the engines maintenance

cost BUT increase fuel required 2-CLIMB-1 is 10% de-rated of CLIMB thrust to 10.000’ then will

increases linearly with altitude to CLIMB thrust at 12.000’ 3-CLIMB-2 is 20% de-rated of CLIMB thrust to 10.000’ then will

increases linearly with altitude to CLIMB thrust at 12.000’ 9-When does the FMC/CDU engine out will auto pup-up? Under the following conditions:

-Engine-out procedures are in the FMC data base AND -Engine-out is detected AND -Flap’s are not in the up position

10- What is the definition of clearway? 1- It is an area beyond the runway which free of obstacles 2- It is not part of the runway 3- Not less than 500 feet wide 4- Up slope of not more than 1.25% 5- Saudia uses the clearway in calculations 6- It can be used only to cross at 35ft at speed of V2 therefore the V1 reductions is required to adjust the stopping distance Note: This area is controlled by the airport authority 11- What is the definition of stopway? 1- It is an area beyond the runway 2- As wide as the runway 3- Increase the capability of stopping without structural damage 4- Saudia DOES NOT use stopway in calculations 12- What are the definitions of MAT & temperature value followed by “A” & MOT? MAT : The maximum assumed temperature is the highest assumed

temperature which may be used for a reduced thrust takeoff

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“A” : To be used only for assumed temperature MOT : It’s the highest charted temperature without the “A”

No dispatch to an airport with forecasting temperature exceeds the MOT and landing must not be made unless for an emergency only Note:

- Interpolation is allowed between temperatures - For max thrust T/O - use - next colder temperature - For reduced thrust T/O - use - next hotter temperature

13- What is the temperature inversion? It is a layer of the atmosphere where the temperature rises with increasing of altitude between surfaces to 2500 ft, which will affect the takeoff when the following conditions exist simultaneously:

- High ambient temperature - Max T/O weight - Engine failure at V1

Note: - Temperature inversion based on SAT and must be received not less than 2 hours prior to ETD and not more than 3 hours prior to ETD - PIREPS outside this time will not be inconsideration and the prevailing forecast will be applied. - In the event that both PIREPS & approved temperature inversion is available, the PIREPS will be used - Add temperature inversion value to OAT and must not exceed MOT

14- What are the ( * / # ) symbols indicates in the tailor takeoff charts? The symbols in the runway denoted section indicates turn procedures in the event of an engine failure & these procedures are listed on the runway notes pages located after the takeoff chart index, shows performance related restrictions for specific airports 15- What are the takeoff chart colors? Those pages are based on packs ON takeoff

1- DER1 F-15 : Blue Pages 2- DER1 F-05 : Green Pages 3- 90B F-15 : White Pages 4- 90B F-05 : Pink Pages

Note: - For Flaps 20 is available as MTTL via FPE - For Flaps 05 & 15 & 20 packs OFF takeoff is available as MTTL via FPE this to increase payload when required - For packs OFF takeoff with Flaps 20 must be requested at least 90 minutes before departure

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16- What is the definition of climb gradients? It is the vertical height gained expressed as a percentage of horizontal distance traveled _______________________________________________________________ When 2.7 % climb gradient is required

27 feet 1000 feet _______________________________________________________________ 17- What are the T/O segments?

* The 800 AGL is based on GACA & SAUDIA policy & It’s 400AGL based on FAA. ** The second segment is usually the most restrictive & the climb limit weights on takeoff charts are based on these climb gradients 18- Which V-speeds are calculated and provided by FMS-CDU? 1- Dry runway 2- Slope must be entered before the V-speeds are read 3- Wind must be entered before the V-speeds are read 4- Temperature 19- Which V-speeds must be manually adjusted? 1- MEL’s (1-2 brake/s deactivated by either special tools or capped off or removed) 2- CDL’s speed penalties are required 3- Clearways 4- Wet or Contaminated runway 20- When the VMBE must be checked? It is required to check the maximum brake energy limit speed when one or two brakes are deactivated

SEGMENT FROM TO Required Climb gradient

1st Lift off Gear up +

Takeoff power

0.5 % for 4 – Engines 0.3 % for 3 – Engines

Positive rate for 2 - ENG

2nd Gear up 800 AGL * +

Takeoff power

3.0 % for 4 – Engines ** 2.7 % for 3 – Engines ** 2.4 % for 2 – Engines **

3rd 800 AGL * Flaps up + MCT - - - - - - - - - -

Final Flaps up 1500 AGL + MCT 1.2 %

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21- What action is required if V1 exceed VMBE? Decrease actual weight by 1700 kgs for each knot that V1 exceed VMBE and determine normal V-speeds for the lower weight otherwise takeoff is not allowed 22- What are the V-speeds rules? 1- V1 & VMBE when interpolated must be rounded to the next lower value. 2- Round all other speed to the next higher value including VMCG 3- V1 must be equal or exceed VMCG 4- VR must be equal or exceed V1 otherwise set VR equal V1 5- If VR is increased then V2 must be increased by same value 6- V1 must be manually corrected for clearway 23- What are the definitions of following Speeds? V1 : It is the critical engine failure speed, If the reject takeoff become a

diction then the aircraft can be stopped on the remaining runway. V2 : Minimum maneuvering speed which must be maintained after

takeoff with engine inoperative with this speed bank angle must be limited to 15˚ & V2 provides:

a. At least 20% above stall speed b. 10% above VMCG c. Maintaining minimum climb gradient required

VFS : It’s the final segment climb speed & it’s used in case of engine

failure conditions VMCG : It is a minimum speed at which directional control can be

maintained on ground using only aerodynamic controls with an engine failure & takeoff power on the remaining engine/s based on OAT & pressure altitude

VMCA : It is a minimum speed at which straight flight can be maintained

with zero yaw and a maximum bank angle of 5˚ when full thrust is set on the remaining engine/s

23A- What is the definitions of Hydroplaning? The Hydroplaning occurs then the frictions between the tire and the runway is reduced by some form of fluid therefore the hydroplaning falls in three classifications as the following: -Dynamic hydroplaning -Viscous hydroplaning -Reverted hydroplaning

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1- Dynamic Hydroplaning: Dynamic hydroplaning occurs gradually as a wedge of water builds up pressure between the tires and pavement. Under conditions of total dynamic hydroplaning, the tires lose contact with the runway. During landing, a stationary tire may not spin up at touchdown, or a rolling (un-braked) tire on the runway may slow in rotation and actually come to a stop. Under these conditions the coefficient of friction is reduced to zero, making wheel braking, tire cornering, and steering totally ineffective. Once total dynamic hydroplaning begins, it may continue after the tire speed decreases. 2- Viscous Hydroplaning: Viscous hydroplaning occurs at lower speeds than dynamic hydroplaning on runways with smooth surface texture or made smooth by rubber deposits or runway marking paint. This type of hydroplaning may perpetuate itself at low speeds if the thin water layer is not broken by an irregular surface. Dew can produce viscous hydroplaning conditions on very smooth pavement resulting in a viscous film that acts as a lubricant. 3-Reverted Rubber Hydroplaning: Reverted rubber hydroplaning is caused by a skid which boils water on the runway, causing heated rubber to revert to its natural latex state sealing tire grooves which prevents water dispersal. This type of hydroplaning results near zero braking coefficients and has been known to continue almost to the point of zero ground speed. Runway Surface Factors: The risk of hydroplaning decreases if the runway surface is crowned, grooved and textured. Rubber and contaminants embedded in the runway touchdown zone, in combination with moisture, increase the probability of viscous hydroplaning. When slush is present on a crowned runway, drainage is reduced, increasing the likelihood of dynamic hydroplaning. Runway surface texture has little effect on the alleviation of reverted rubber hydroplaning. 24- When the MTTL chart (Modula Tailor Takeoff & Landing) is required? 1- Take off chart is not available in the P & P manual 2- Current charts runway data has been changed since the chart was printed 3- Runway has been shortened 4- Required by MEL/CDL 25- Which items must be checked in the MTTL chart? 1- Date REVISED of MTTL (Modula Tailor Takeoff & Landing) 2- Name of an airport 3- Aircraft type 4- Engines rating 5- Aircraft configuration

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26- Under what conditions the QRT data sheet is based on?

1- DER1 thrust rating 2- Flaps 05 & 15 3- Packs ON 4- Dry runway 5- Runway length is 10,000 ft or grater 6- Temperature of +55A˚C / +50˚C / 45˚C / +40˚C 7- Weight corrected for altimeter setting above 1000 HPA 8- The most limiting runway at the specified airport

27- When the QRT data sheet is not allowed to be used for takeoff?

1- Tailwind 2- Temporary runway shortened 3- Runway less than 10,000 ft 4- One or two brakes deactivated 5- Operation under MEL/CDL with takeoff penalty 6- 30 day 90B thrust requirement 7- Wet or contaminated 8- Altimeter setting below 1000 HPA 9- Deicing / Anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft 10- Beirut runway 18 due to obstacle limitations 11- No credit is given or allowed for a headwind or clearway

28- When the DER1 tailored chart cannot be used for takeoff?

1- One or two brakes deactivated by capped OFF only 2- 30 day rated thrust requirement 3- Gear down operation ( 2nd segments requirements )

29- What is (IC) Improved climb?

- When the maximum brake release weight is limited by climb or obstacles, it can be increased by the use of IC technique. - The increase of takeoff weight is obtained by accelerating to higher takeoff speeds - There by achieving higher climb gradient capability where excess runway is available.

- Based on: -Flaps 05 -Thrust 90-B actual or assumed temperature for 10 minutes with one engine inoperative at one second prior VR

-Packs off takeoff Note: The improved climb weight and speeds columns show for each

runway based on the limiting of: - Runway length & Obstacle clearance & Brake energy & Tire speed Or Climb limited weights and the corresponding V-speeds.

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30- When the (IC) improved climb is not allowed? 1-Tailwind conditions 2-Contaminated runway 3-1 or 2 brakes deactivated by capped off or removed Note: FBE can provide IC takeoff chart for:

Wet runway & 1 or 2 brake/s deactivated by special tools only 31-What are weights corrections required in the IC chart? In the following conditions: -Wet runway -1 or 2 brake/s deactivation by special tool only -Low QNH setting (based on 1013) this is difference than the normal 32- What are the procedures for operation under MEL 32-45-1 for one or two brakes deactivated with special tool? Why? -Deactivation assembly (special tool) can be accomplished provided:

1- Zero wind limit weight only must be reduced as required 2- The runway limit weight V1 must be reduced as required 3- DER-1 or 90B thrust rated must be use (no reduce thrust)

-Because the brakes capability reduces, which reflect and affect the rejected takeoff stopping distance 33- What is the difference between brakes deactivation by capped off & special tool?

Deactivation assembly (special tool) allows: 1- For reduced braking capability 2- Some residual pressure to the brakes, to facilitate wheel spin-down prior to gear retraction

The capped off or removed: 1- Landing gear remain extended after takeoff for 2 minutes to reduce the wheel spin-up 2- Required gear down dispatch (MTTL) for takeoff segments 3- No reduction required to zero wind weight (for 1 or 2 brakes)

as will as the MTTL chart (climb & zero wind limit weight) are reduced due to gear down requirements

4- The runway limit weight V1 must be reduced as required 5- 90B thrust rated must be used (no reduce thrust)

. C A U T I O N .

For all MEL/CDL’s with performance penalties apply the penalty to the zero wind limit weight and climb limit weight except for MEL 32-45-1 one or two brakes deactivated by special tools apply the performance penalty to the zero wind limit weight only (P&P 12.01.04 as well MEL/CDL manual)

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34-What are the Limit V1 if 1 &/or 2 brakes deactivated by special tools? It is a V1 limit speed: 1-Corrected for brake/s deactivation 2-It should not exceed the calculated FMC/CDU V1 3-It must be less than VMCG speed otherwise increase V1 to equal VMCG provided the runway length is 6500 ft or greater 35- What if the calculated FMC/CDU V1 is higher than the corrected charted V1? The corrected charted V1 is used as V1 36- When does the runway considered as contaminated? When more than 25 % of the available RWY length is covered by one or more of the following with depth of more than 3 mm and less than 13 mm .

1-Standing water 2-Ice 3-Compacted snow 4-Light snow ( DRY ) 5-Heavy snow ( WET ) 6-Slush

37- What are the takeoff restrictions for wet & contaminated runway? Take off is not allowed when:

1-Slush or standing water exceeds 13 mm of depth 2-One or two brakes deactivated (capped off or removed) 3-Tailwind 4-Contaminated runway with thrust reverser inoperative 5-Cross-wind exceeds 15 kts 6-Assumed temperature takeoff for DER-1 or 90-B

Note: Take off is allowed with one thrust reverser inoperative on wet runway provided NO REVERSE THRUST tables for weights and speeds are applied

38- What are the definitions of the following? 1- Wet runway:

- Runway surface shine - water depth less than 3 mm

2- Standing water: - It’s the standing water covered the RWY. - It’s an accumulation of water depth is 3 mm or more - With OAT is greater than 5˚C 3- Slippery runway definition:

- When the runway is not dry but does not have a measurable depth of contamination - In some cases when runway have sanded

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4- Ice: - Runway surface shine - It’s a thin layer or precipitations which have formed into ice . - With OAT is normally around ( 0˚C)

5- Slush: - It’s a mix. of snow & water . - When the depth of snow is exceeds 3 mm - With OAT is between 0˚C – 5˚ C 6- Light snow (dry snow) - It is much looser than heavy snow - Cannot be easily compacted by hand - Does not affect performance as much as heavy snow 7- Heavy snow (wet snow) - Heavy snow can be easily compacted by hand

- With higher density which will effect performance as much as light snow

8- Compacted snow:

- It’s the snow which has been compressed to a solid mass & its hold together or break into lumps if picked up

39-When the FMC will enter the approach mode? Based on type of approach:

-VFR approach: -Passing any of the approach way-point -25 nm from the intercept fix

-IMC approach: -Passing any of the approach way-point -12 nm from the intercept fix

40-What is the off path descent? It shows the clear & drag descent ranges on ND display based on:

-Selected waypoint -Altitude Constraints

Note: This function to determine if the altitude constraint can be met in

direct descent to the waypoint & the circles on the ND can be displayed or removed

41-What are the sources of fuel to the FMC calculations? -Fuel quantity system -Manual entries of fuel Note: The FMC uses calculated fuel for all performance calculations based

on positive FF signals from the engine start BUT it is independent of fuel quantity system & decreases with fuel flow rate

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42-When the calculated fuel equal to fuel quantity system? -During the fuel jettison operation then will refer to independent system -Fuel flow data is invalid 43-When the fuel quantity on PERF INT page shows (SENSED)? If the calculated fuel becomes invalid (will be displayed as the tantalizer on the PRG 2/3) 44-When will the S/C step-climb altitude displayed? -Flight plan is active -More than 200 to T/D -More than 500 to destination -FMC is not on E/O drift down phase 45-What are the operating limitations for gear down dispatch? -Type of operation Ferry flight -Maximum operating altitude 36.000 ft -Vmo & Mmo are limited to 270 KIAS / M 0.73 -Mach-Airspeed warning switch (E&E) Reprogrammed for Vmo/Mmo

-Extended over water operation Limited to 50 miles -RVSM operation Prohibited -Takeoff thrust 90-B flaps 05 only -VNAV * Must not be used

-Emergency descent speed Limited to 270 KIAS -Flaps retraction speed 05 to 01 Vref + 40 -Flaps retraction speed 01 to up ** Vref + 60 -Climb speed 250 / 270 / 0.73

-Descent speed 0.73 / 270 / 250 -LRC diversion (1 ENG INOP) Page 13.04.04 -Holding speed flaps up / flaps 01 Vref 30 + 80 / Vref 30 + 60 -Drift down speed / level (1 ENG INOP) Page 13.04.06 *Because the FMC does not incorporate a gear down position input **Maintain takeoff thrust setting until flaps are completely retracted 46-What are the methods of obtaining the takeoff charts for gear down dispatch? There are two methods:

1-Gear down tailored takeoff charts from FOPE 2-Gear down quick reference takeoff data sheet

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47-What are the landing restrictions for gear down operation? The maximum missed approach weights with landing gear down must be obtained from the 90-B landing climb limit weight chart which provides the maximum weight as limited by approach climb or landing climb with gear down

* * *

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ETOPS & NAT OPS -General: ETOPS – Extended Range Tow-engine Operations GACA/FAA limited two-engine airplanes with passenger carrier operations to conduct a flight in an area beyond 60 minutes and less than 180 minutes from an adequate airport based on fixed speed in ISA conditions and still air

Based on In order to exceed from the rule required -One engine cruise speed from adequate airport -Diversion speed schedule -In still air -ISA conditions

-Airframe/engine is approved for such a flight -Operator has established acceptable operations -Maintenance programs is approved to conduct for such a flights

-Is it allowed to depart from an airport for ETOPS flight other than listed departure & arrival airport? Yes, the flight may depart from the unlisted departure airport provided technical service personal is available to carryout ETOPS checks. -What is the ETOPS area? It is an area of operations which has been determined by utilizing all the authorized adequate airports & applying the maximum diversion time from these adequate airports & approved by GACA/FAR -What does the ETOPS consist of? ETOPS area of operations ETOPS entry point ETOPS segments ETOPS exit point -What is the area of operations? When the aircraft is beyond 60 minutes from adequate airport with an approved diversion time -Can the flight exceed the authorized diversion time? Yes, as long as the flight is conducted within the authorized ETOPS area of operation and complies with GACA 121.633 -How does the size of the ETOPS area of operations can be determined? Based on the following: -Maximum diversion time -One engine out diversion speed -The number and location of selected adequate diversion airport -Still air -ISA or delta ISA conditions -One engine out performance & MCT on the remaining engine

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-When the size of ETOPS area of operation must be recalculated? Anytime if one or more of the adequate airports become unsuitable -What is the delta ISA condition? Where the temperature deviation from ISA is essentially constant through the year’s seasons -What is the ETOPS segment? The segments start at the entry point & ends at the exit point (might be more than one ETOPS segments) -What is the ETOPS entry & exit point?

ETOPS Entry point ETOPS Exit point It is a point on the outbound route which begins the ETOPS segments based on:

-One hour flying time from the last adequate airport -One engine inoperative -Diversion schedule speed -Still air -ISA conditions

It is a point on the route where the airplane has been flying the ETOPS segment & the remaining route becomes:

-One hour flying time from the last adequate airport -One engine inoperative -Diversion schedule speed -Still air -ISA conditions -It is the end of ETOPS segment

-What is the definition of adequate airport & suitable airport?

Adequate airport Suitable airport It is a certified airport which meets: -All safety requirements FAA CAT-A or ICAO CAT-4 -Rescue & Fire Fighting Services (RFFS):

-Must be available -If not available they must be able to meet the airplane within 30 minutes notice -Performance requirements at the intended landing weight

-It is an airport for dispatch purpose -This airport must be Adequate & meet the ETOPS weather minimums & within the validity period -The time from one hour before the earliest ETA to one hour after the latest ETA -Crosswind forecast must be acceptable during the period -Field conditions – ensure landing can be made with one-engine inoperative

-What are the performances data required for ETOPS flight?

Engine performance Performance penalty (if available) -One engine inoperative -All engines operating (unpressurized) -Fuel flow -10000 ft cruise -Holding fuel -Weather data

-Icing accumulations -RAT deployment -Thrust reverser deployment

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-What is the critical fuel scenario? It is a flight profile which used to determine the ETOPS diversionary fuel requirements from the most critical point along the route based on: 1-Cabin decompression and/or engine failure (at the same time) with an immediate descent to 10.000” whichever is most restrictive 2-Cruising at 10.000” to en-route alternate with speed of 320 KIAS 4-Increase this calculation by:

1-5% for errors in forecast wind and 2-5% for aircraft fuel mileage deterioration

3-Up on reaching the alternate airport:

1-Descent to 1500”above airport elevation 2-Holding for 15 minutes 3-One missed approach 4-Normal approach & landing

5-Increase this calculation for:

1-APU operation 2-MEL/CDL penalties (if available) 3-Use of anti-ice system 4-Ice accumulation on the unheated surfaces (drag)

-What is the Critical Point? It is a point on the ETOPS route which effected by the fuel requirements if diversion is required -What is the ETP? (Equal Time Point) It is a point of time located between two suitable diversion airports & should be indicated in the CFP

ETP on CFP ETP summery is based on -ETP (as waypoint) -Time & distance from departure to ETP -Wind velocity from ETP to both alternates -Fuel burn from ETP to both alternates -Distance from ETP to both alternates

-Continuing the flight at 10.000” -With fixed speed of 375 KTAS this speed is equal to 320 KIAS at ISA+10 -It shows all the requirements of critical fuel scenario as mentioned before

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-What is the maximum diversion distance & time?

Maximum Diversion Distance Maximum Diversion Time -It is 1250 Nautical Ground Mile within the area of operations based on:

-One engine inoperative -Still air -ISA conditions -Diversion schedule speed & at associated cruise speed including the drift-down altitude.

-It is 180 minutes for saudia airlines -This time is:

-Only used to determined the area of operation -Not an operational time limitation for conducting an actual diversion -Can be exceeded on actual condition but the 1250 NGM must not be exceeded

CAUTION

JEPPESEN CFP does not guarantee that the route will not exceed 1250 NGM from the alternate airports in route; therefore CFP must be checked to ensure distance is not exceeded

-What is the one engine inoperative diversion speed? -It is 0.84 / 320 & the PIC has the authority to deviate from this planed speed based on the actual emergency -This time is also used for establishing the following: -The area of operation -Critical fuel scenario -The net level-off altitude for obstacle clearance -What does the ETOPS row in the CFP indicates? An additional fuel requirement to divert from the ETP to the alternates -What are the en-routes position reports required? -Every 3 hours outside the dispatch area -Approximately 1 hour before entering the ETOPS -Approximately every 1 hour within the ETOPS -Any position report required by dispatcher -Deviating from original flight plan must be reported -If dispatcher did not acknowledge the reception of position report after 10minutes, Dispatcher shall be called

NOTE

If the dispatcher does not received position report 15 minutes after ETO dispatcher will contact the flight to obtain the information

-What are the required items to be checked before the ETOPS flight? -Check that the ETOPS segment less than 1250 NM -ETOPS charts is available or NAT plotting chart for US flight -OTS is available -MEL/CDL is not related to ETOPS

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-What is the en-route alternates weather minimums for ETOPS? It is based on approach facility configuration as:

Approach facility configuration

En-route alternate airport weather minimums

Ceiling Visibility Airport with at least ONE-

NAV-OPS facility and straight in approach for

precision CAT-I or non-precision or circling

from instrument approach

Add 400 ft to the

MDA(H) or DA(H)

Add 1sm or 1600m to the landing

minimums

Airport with at least TWO-NAV-OPS facility

Each providing a straight in approach to a different

suitable runways

Add 200 ft to the higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the

two approaches used

Add ½sm or 800m to the higher

authorized landing minimums of the two approaches

used

NOTE In case of diversion & the alternate airport become as destination, the published minimums are to be used

-What actions should be taken in case of en-route alternates weather minimums becomes low before the flight or before the entry or after the entry to ETOPS segment?

Before the flight Before the ETOPS entry After the

ETOPS entry -Check for another alternate - Change to a NON-ETOPS route -Delay the flight -Change equipment

-Check for another alternate -Change the ETOPS route if possible -Change to a NON-ETOPS route -Divert to adequate airport where the landing minimums at or above the published minimums

-Continue the flights -Monitor the weather for the en-route alternate

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

NORMAL

PROCEDURES

PREPARED BY F/O : HISHAM HALWANI

Mobile : +9665-0858-8580 E-mail : [email protected]

APPRECIATE YOUR NOTES AND CONCERNS

REGARDING THIS PRINT

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B-777 FCOM BULLETINS

2-What are the B-777 FCOM bulletins?

They are 15 bulletins:

-Nuisance EICAS advisory windshear system message

-Uncommanded movement of cargo containers during power

switching

-FMC VNAV anomaly during intermediate level off

-ECL line items not completing correctly

-ELMS ARINC communication faults

-777 FMC calculation of reduced thrust takeoff anomaly

-Installation of CDSS

-ELT activation

-Un-powered right transfer bus

-FMC performance predications anomaly

-GEN OFF light on after engine start without EICAS message

-Honeywell flight management computer anomaly

-B777-200 reconfiguration / retrofit

-Uncommanded auto throttle movement during cruise flight

-Aircraft deicing & anti-icing tables

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B-777 NORMAL PROCEDURES

2/01.01-Is it required to check the status messages after engine start? Why? It is not required to check the status messages. Because the messages require crew attentions will be displayed on the EICAS alert message as the primary means of alerting crew for non-normal conditions or improper configuration. 3/01.01-What are the procedures in case of EICAS non-normal conditions during engine start & prior to takeoff? Accomplish of proper non-normal procedure then the MEL should be consulted. 4/10.02-Auto flight information: -PF shall state his intention prior to engage or disengage the auto-pilot or auto-throttles -Do not allow the FMS to fly the aircraft without pilot monitoring the aircraft course, vertical path, speed. 5/01.04-When the FMC performance predictions are inaccurate? If the aircraft is operated in non-normal configuration (gear down, gear door open, flaps or spoilers extended) therefore, climb & descent path, VNAV PTH operation and FMC CRZ fuel prediction are not to be used. 6/01.05-The decisions to be taken regarding non-normal procedures are based on the EICAS and/or synoptic display? Why? Decisions to be taken based on EICAS messages and other flight deck indications not to be under synoptic display. Because under certain conditions system faults can result in missing synoptic information. 7/01.05-When the synoptic display can be selected during non-normal procedures? Any time after the accomplishment of recall items & necessary procedures 8/01.09-What is the purpose of closed loop items in the electronic checklist? Those items which required operating the airplane safely

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9/03.09-What are the required manuals for the flight? Two copy of QRH FCOM VOL-I/II P&P VOL-I/II FOPM ETOPS MEL/CDL Special Load Route manual (JEPPESEN) FRM 10/03.10-What are the required quick reference sheets for the flight? QRDS (Quick Reference Data Sheet) for takeoff DER-1 Flaps 05/15 CAT-II card checklist (NORMAL) ETOPS(If available) 11/03.13-What is the normal position for FCAC (Forward Cargo Air Conditioning)? Auto mid position 12/03.13-When it is required to adjust the FCAC? If animal to be carried in the forward cargo & it may be done later after the load sheet is arrived 13/03.13-What are the required procedures, when ground air conditioning cart is in used? Before connecting the ground air conditioning cart: Both packs to OFF & both recirculation fans to OFF After disconnecting the ground air conditioning cart: Both packs to AUTO & both recirculation fans to ON 14/03.13-Why it is required to select both packs & recirculation fans to OFF? Packs to OFF – to prevent pack operation if bleed air is supplied

to the aircraft Recirculation to OFF – to allow the cart to operate at maximum

efficiency 15/03.16-Which EICAS messages to be checked when CANC/RCL switch is pushed during cockpit preparation? To verify there are no engines exceedance is shown 16/03.16-Which items to be checked when STATUS switch is pushed during cockpit preparation? Hydraulic Quantity ( FR ) is not displayed Oxygen Pressure CREW OXYGEN LOW EICAS not displayed Status messages If applicable

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17/03.16-Which date should be checked on the ECL? The effected date should match the QRH 18/03.17-What is the crew action if the effected date of the ECL is not current? The use of ECL for non-normal checklist is not authorized (unless specified by bulletin or equipments NOTAMS), but the ECL may be used for normal checklist provided the ECL normal checklist is current. 19/03.17-Which items to be checked when secondary engine (ENG) switch is pushed during cockpit preparation? Check oil quantity ( LO ) indication extinguished 20/03.17-What is the indication of complete rest of data link system in the COMM – MANAGER page? All previous messages will be erased 21/03.17-What crew action required if DATA is not displayed in the VHF-C? Reselect data link system rest on the COMM – MANAGER page 22/03.17-When the (ACARS) flight nationalization page must be accomplished? Flight nationalization page must not be accomplished until 10 minutes after the last IN time; otherwise it will be erased from the page

23/03.17-What is the preflight for flight deck printer? Check LOW PAPER light is extinguished

24/03.18-Which frequencies should be selected in VHF-C? DATA & 121.50 25/03.20-How the forecasted wind data must be entered on the FMC/CDU?

From the computer flight plan, whenever the wind varies by more than 30

or 20 kts and ISA temp deviation 26/03.20-What is the reserved fuel to be entered on the FMC? Domestic flight - 4900 kgs + alternate International flight - alternate + holding

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27/03.21-What are the VNAV speed must be entered on the FMC? Flight less than 4 hours duration -310/M.84/310 Flight more than 4 hours duration -ECON Flight crossing the NAT OPS -Out of the kingdom to the NAT OPS = M.84 -Inbound to the kingdom M.84 until outside of NAT OPS then SCD to ECON 28/03.21/26-What are the preflight checks for the PFD & ND? PFD: -Flight instrument indications are correct

-no V SPD flag displayed until V speeds selected -no other fail flags displayed -Auto throttle mode is blank -Roll mode is TO/GA -Pitch mode is TO/GA -AFDS status is FLT DIR -HDG is displayed correct ND: -HDG is displayed correct -Route displayed correct -no fail flags displayed 29/10.01-what is the items must be covered during crew takeoff briefing? After the PIC designate the pilot flying, briefing shall be started by the phrase "Standard Takeoff Briefing" which reflect to all procedures in the FCOM as standard to be follow. Briefing should include but it is not limited to the following items: -Type of thrust (DER-1 or 90-B) assumed or actual temperature -Flaps setting -MEL/CDL considerations -Airport diagram & taxi chart & Weather & EAI & LVP & (De-icing/Holdover time) & NOTAMs restrictions -Runway for departure SID & noise abatement & Engine out & Terrain consideration & Wind-shear -The use of A/T & HDG SEL & LNAV & VNAV and altitude restriction -Cross check the FMC & NAV RAD & VHF setup -Cockpit codes for normal entry & hijack & emergency -Dangerous goods consideration 30/10.01-When the APU should be started before engine start? 20 minutes before engine start 31/10.03-Why it is required to pressurize the right hydraulic system first for engine start? This procedure to prevent fluid transfer between the systems

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32/10.04-What are the crew actions in case of difference between the FMC & load sheet stab trim setting or if EICAS message (STAB GREENBAND) displayed at the gate or during taxi? If the stab trim setting are different by more than 1.0 unit with: -No EICAS message (STAB GREENBAND) then the FMC figure will be used for takeoff -EICAS message (STAB GREENBAND) then verify the following:

-FMC takeoff thrust & flaps setting & gross weight & CG & stab trim is properly set.

-Check the stabgreen chart then: -If it fall within the nuisance region then takeoff may safely conducted -Otherwise or in doubt the alert considered valid & actual loading must be verified

33/15.01-When the engine start must be aborted for no oil pressure? And which checklist must be requested? After the EGT increase, ABORTED ENGINE START checklist 34/15.02-Why the center hydraulic system must be pressurized before pushback? This to prevent tire scrubbing during turns 35/15.02-When the second engine can be started during cross bleed star requirement? Second engine start must be delayed until completion of pushback 36/20.01-How the flight control check should be done? -A complete cycle of control wheel should be done slowly more than approximately 6 seconds -No combination of pitch & roll controls check -This to avoid nuisance FLIGHT CONTROLS faults 37/25.02-What is the maximum taxi speed? There is no specified maximum taxi speed, but speed greater than 30 kts should be avoided on long taxi routes. Otherwise, high taxi speed with high weights can result in tire sidewall overheating. Therefore, ND GS display should be closely monitored & straight ahead steering & large radius turns may be accomplished by rudder pedal steering

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38/25.03-What is the crew action if the nose wheel scrubbing during turning? Reduce steering angle and/or taxi speed 39/30.01-Why the rolling takeoff is recommended? -For setting takeoff thrust -Expedites takeoff -Reduces risk of foreign object damage -Cross wind exceeds 20 kts (30.05) 40/30.01-When the final thrust adjustments should be made during takeoff? By 80 kts, above 80 kts no change should be made except as required to maintain engine parameters 41/30.02-What is the optimum takeoff and initial climb performance? A continues smooth rotation at Vr toward 15° at pitch rate of 2.0 to 2.5 degrees/second 42/30.03-What is the flight director command speed after liftoff? I will be the liftoff speed + 15 kts limited to a maximum of V2+25 kts until pitch mode is engaged or selected. 43/30.03-If the LNAV is armed for takeoff when it will be engaged after takeoff? At an altitude above 50 feet & within 2.5 nm of the active leg 44/30.04-What is the minimum speed for turn after takeoff? V2+15 to V2+ 25 with takeoff flaps / 30° of bank is permitted at speed of V2+15 & takeoff flaps 45/30.04-If the VNAV is armed for takeoff when it will be engaged after takeoff? At an altitude of 400 feet above airport elevation, this is the minimum turning altitude 46/35.01-What is the definition of the following? Climb speed: Sea level to 10.000" 250 kts / Vref 30+80 Above 10.000" 310 kts / M0.84

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Maximum rate climb: This speed to provide both high rate climb & minimum time to cruise 300 kts/M0.84 FMC does not provide this speed Maximum angle climb: This speed to provide obstacle clearance & minimum crossing altitude It is the flaps up speed or M0.80 for all gross weights Maintain at least 15 kts above minimum maneuvering speed when climbing through FL200 to prevent EICAS "AIRSPEED LOW" 47/35.01-If the engine anti-ice is selected ON before takeoff, when it should be reselected to auto? After flap retraction is completed 48/40.01-What is the definition of the following attitudes: Optimum Altitude: Optimum cruise altitude is based on the flight plan distance & the selected cruise mode:

-Economy cruise mode: the optimum altitude is an altitude at which the cost is lowest at the economy mach number for that altitude -LRC & selected speed mode: fuel mileage is optimized, for a short range flight plans the optimum altitude accounts for optimum cruise time requirements

Maximum altitude:

Is defined as a highest altitude at which the airplane can climb without an effect of either planned climb speed or cruise climb speed & sufficient thrust is available to provide a specified rate of climb capability, or it is the highest certified altitude by the manufactures'.

49/40.02-What is the normal cruise speed? Below FL300 is fixed cruise speed 310 kts FL300 & above is one of the following: CFP speed / LRC speed / M0.84 50/40.02-What is the LRC speed? It is variable speed which provides fuel mileage one percent less than the maximum available {no wind correction are applied to LRC}

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51/40.03-How does the monthly APU high altitude start can be accomplished? -O the first flight sector of each month -Flight must be inbound to the kingdom -Flight duration is over 4 hours -Within ONE hour to T/D -First start attempt RPM must be between 99% to 100% for 5 minutes If the start is unsuccessful APU to OFF and wait 2 to 3 minutes for the second start attempt, If the second start is unsuccessful APU to OFF and attempt the third start during descent at approximately FL200 – Then APU should be shut down after completion of the procedures. -The TSV B777 APU IN –FLIGHT START RECORDS must be completed 52/45.02-what are the items must be covered during crew approach briefing? -Approach & STAR chart : Date / Number / Type -MEA / MSA -Airport elevation / TDZE -A point of altitude check: for precision is FAF/FAP or should be1000 feet AGL or higher for non-precision -RA & RVR or DA/DH & minimum visibility required or MDA/MDH & MAP & minimum visibility required -Missed approach procedures -MEL/CDL consideration -Airport diagram & taxi chart (parking) & Weather & EAI & LVP & runway light system -NOTAMs restrictions for destination & alternate -Navigation & communication setting -Verification of barometric & radio altimeter setting -Terrain / special airport / ATC restrictions -CAT II approach briefing & coordination 53/45.02-What is the normal descant speed? Above 10.000 ft ECON SPD or M0.84/310 kts Below 10.000 ft 250 kts 54/45.04-Descent plan & crosscheck & restrictions & holding: -For straight in approach plan to reach 12 nm final with Flap up & Flap up maneuvering speed & traffic pattern altitude or 8 nm out when making an abeam approach -To reach 30 nm at 10.000 ft AGL with speed 250 kts -Deceleration in level flight without speedbrakes: -It is required 60 second & 6 nm from 310 to 250 -It is required 50 second & 4 nm from 250 to flap up

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-If speedbrakes is required: -It reduces the time & distance by 50% -PF should keep his hand on speedbrakes lever -Avoid using speedbrakes with flaps greater than 5 -Speedbrakes should be retracted before reaching 1000 ft AGL -Flaps 5 should be selected: -Prior the FAX for overhead approach -Just before entering downwind for visual approach -Landing gear extinction: -Should be avoided to increase drag when speed above 200 kts for passenger comfort & increase gear door life -If EAI is required: -DESCENT FORECAST page should be updated to assist FMC calculation -Holding: -Reduces speed 3 minutes before reaching the holding FIX -It is recommended to hold with flaps up specially in icing &/or turbulence, but If unavoidable flaps 1 may be used this will increase fuel burn of 7% than flaps up -Above FL250 use VREF 30 + 100 as holding speed to provide adequate buffet margin 55/50.03-What is the stabilized approach? An approach considered stabilized when the airplane is stabilized at 1000 ft in IMC or 500 ft in VMC & the following criteria are met: -Airplane on correct path & landing configuration landing checklist is completed -Only small changes in HDG and/or PITCH to maintain flight path -Speed is not more than Vref+20 or not less than Vref -V/S is not more than 1000 fpm, If approach required more than 1000 fpm special briefing should be made 56/50.05- What is the recommended speed to fly the procedure turn in the approach? Flaps 5 speed 57/50.06-When the APP mode can be selected? -ILS is tuned & identified -Airplane is on inbound intercept heading -Both LOG & GS pointer are appear -Approach clearance is received

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58/50.06-When it is allowed to perform {DIRECT TO} or {INTERCEPT COURSE TO} if the displaying the arrival procedure is not desired? This can be done to simplify the ND provided: -Distance remaining to FAF or OM or appropriate fix is displayed. -A depiction of cross track error from the final approach course. -LNAV capability during the missed approach procedure. 59/50.06/14-What is the preferred descent phase & approach phase for NON-ILS? Descent phase by VNAV then FLCH Approach phase by VNAV then V/S or FPA 60/50.07-What is the max intercept angle for the LOC and GS?

LOC - is - 120 & GS - is - 80

61/50.09-When the ILS critical area must be cleared & restrict from all airplane & vehicle? -Whenever the weather reported is: -800" ceiling and/or visibility is less the 3200 m. OR

-200" ceiling or RVR is 600m or less & no airplane & vehicle shall cross the critical area when there is an aircraft with in the MM middle marker

62/50.10-What is the recommendation for the landing & strobe light configurations during final approach in low visibility conditions? Landing & strobe lights causes visual distraction, therefore it is recommended to be switched off 63/50.10-What are the "AFDS ROLLOUT" mode restrictions & precautions in auto-land with cross wind & contaminated runway? The ROLLOUT mode cannot be assured because the rollout mode has combinations of rudder control & nose wheel & main gear steering to maintain the center line, therefore the pilot must be prepared to disengage the auto-pilot & manually control the rollout directional control if become inadequate. 64/50.11-What are the required equipments for auto landing (CAT-II)? -LAND 3 or LAND 2 must be annunciated -The following EICAS messages must not be displayed: -SGL SOURCE DISPLAY -SGL SOURCE RAD ALT -SGL SOURCE ILS

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65/50.13-What are the FMS sensors for position updating? It is multiple sensors as follow: 1-GPS 2-DME-DME 3-VOR-DME 4-LOC-GPS 5-ADIRU 66/50.13-What is the primary means of navigation guidance in B-777? The FMS have been approved to fly GPS approaches provided an RNP of 0.3 or smaller are used. And manual FMC entry of 0.3 RNP is required if not automatically provided for VOR / NDB / LOC approach. 67/50.15/17-when it is required to monitor the ROW-DATA during the NON-ILS approaches? -It is NOT required in normal operation but: -The NAV AID should be checked for correct NAV but no later than final approach. -But the POS switch on the EFIS must be checked & displaying VOR and/or ADF pointer is required. -It required to be monitored throughout the approach if the approach is flown by the "overlay" method. 68/50.15-What is the requirement during single FMC or DME or GPS operation or GPS failure during the FMC approach? There must be: -A NON-FMC means of navigation available for missed approach as VOR / NDB raw data and/or radar -A NON FMC approach available 69/50.15-What is the requirement if both DME's fails? It is allowed to continue the approach if the GPS updating is being used 70/50.17-What are the requirements if the approach required RNP? -At least one GPS or one DME is operational -Any additional GPS or DME requirements specified by the selected type of approach -When operating with the following RNP value, or smaller: -NDB, NDB/DME is 0.6 nm -VOR, VOR/DME, RNAV is 0.5 nm -GPS is 0.3 nm -No NAV UNABLE RNP alert is displayed during the approach

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71/50.17/18-What are the methods of using LNAV? 1-Database selection -This method required for RNAV & GPS approach by FMC arrivals page. -No waypoint maybe added or deleted between FAF & MAP. -If the required approach is not available on the FMS, the overlay method maybe used. -LNAV cannot be used to track fix, waypoint and/or radial on the ND 2-Manual waypoint entry -Can not be used for RNAV & GPS approaches -VNAV cannot be used after FAF. -Procedure turn & DME arc cannot be manually entered unless they are defined by series of waypoint -LNAV cannot be used to track fix, waypoint and/or radial on the ND 72/50.19-When altitude modification can be made for FAF if VNAV is in use? In cold temperature corrections 73/50.19-What are the different between the approaches with GP or without GP? -With glide path: The final approach segments is compatible with VNAV and complies with final approach step down altitude -Without glide path: Approach end is defined as RWxx or MXxx or named waypoint normally those points are 50ft above the threshold & maybe used "as is" for VNAV. If the RWxx is not within the 50ft then can be modified to threshold plus 50ft 74/50.20-What are the VNAV restrictions? -VNAV should not be used after FAF if manual waypoint entry is made. -VNAV should not be used if the approach is containing no waypoint of RWxx or MXxx. -VNAV should not be used for circling approach. -VNAV should be used with speed intervention on final approach. 75/50.22/23-What is the normal GP angle on final approach?

It is approximately 3.00 but can vary between 2.75 to 3.77 based on

(altitude & distance), GP angle is steeper than normal in temperature warmer than ISA standard & shallower than normal in temperature colder than ISA standard.

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76/50.27-When it is required to switch OFF the F/D on final approach? When leaving the MDA while using V/S or FPA only, both F/D must be switched OFF then the PM's F/D back to ON this to monitor the pitch & roll mode changes in case of go-around. 77/50.27-What is the VDP? It is the Visual Descent Point & used for NON-ILS approaches. It is a point where descent from MDA to the runway touchdown point. VDP is the difference between the MDA & TDZE divided by 3 equal is miles. 78/50.32-How long is the engine cool-down recommendation after landing? It is recommended to run an engine foe 3 minutes before shutdown. 79/45.01 & 50.37 & 50.40-what are the auto-brakes selections requirements for landing? A minimum of auto-brakes 2 must be selected for all normal operations. Especially with cross wind exceed 15 kts and/or wet/slippery runway. Auto-brakes 2 or greater result in continues braking & increase carbon brake life Auto-brakes 2 & 3 is the optimized brake wear & passenger comfort & stopping performance Auto-brakes 3 or 4 : wet/slippery runway and/or landing distance is a

factor Auto-brakes 2 : for all routine operations Auto-brakes 1 : not recommended due to brake modulation with

reverse thrust 80/50.41-What is the procedure to minimize brake temperature build-up? If the ground time plus the present flight is less than 90 minutes extend the landing gear realer than schedule based on the following: -Without brake temperature monitoring system : 5 to 7 minutes realer

than normal -With brake temperature monitoring system : one minute realer for

each unite of brake temperature above normal

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81/50.44-Over weight landing guide lines: -Longest runway available

-Runway slop / braking actions -Wind directions

-Wet / slippery runway -Thrust reverser operation

-Auto breaks operation -Flaps setting selection

-Auto land is not recommended

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Non-normal checklist





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1-What are the un-annunciated checklists?

Aborted Engine Start L/R Airspeed Unreliable Automatic Unlock

Bomb Threat/on Board

Ditching Dual Engine Fail/Stall

Engine In-flight Start L/R Engine Limit/Surge/Stall L/R Engine Sever Damage/Separation L/R Evacuation

Fire Engine Tailpipe L/R Fuel Jettison Fuel Leak

Gear Lever Locked Down

Lock Fail

Overweight Landing

Smoke or Fumes Removal Smoke Fire or Fumes

TAT Probe Icing

Volcanic Ash

Window Damage L/R

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2-What are the checklists includes a recall items?

Checklist Recall items

Cabin Altitude

-Don oxygen masks -Establish crew comm. -Cabin altitude is uncontrollable then PASS OXYGEN push/hold 1 sec -Descent MSA or 10.000’ whichever is higher

Aborted Engine Start L/R Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF

Dual Engine Fail/Stall -Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF then RUN -Ram Switch push/hold 1 sec

Engine Autostart L/R Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF

Engine Limit/Surge/Stall -A/T ARM switch to OFF -Thrust lever to retard until display remain within limit or at idle

Engine Sever Damage/Separation

-A/T ARM switch to OFF -Thrust lever to idle -Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF -Engine fire switch PULL

Fire Engine L/R

-A/T ARM switch to OFF -Thrust lever to idle -Fuel Control Switch to CUTOFF -Engine fire switch PULL -If the message remain displayed ROTATE to stop & hold 1 sec

Stabilizer -STAB cutout switches (both) CUTOUT -Do not exceed the current airspeed

Airspeed Unreliable -Check pitch attitude for the phase of flight -If not normal A/P & A/T & F/D to OFF -Adjust thrust as required

3- Does the electronic checklist system required for dispatching the airplane? No and paper checklist must be available in the cockpit. 4- What are the types of electronic checklists? - NORMAL - NON-NORMAL: associated with EICAS (annunciated) - NON-NORMAL: NOT associated with EICAS (unannunciated) 5- What is the difference between the closed loop and opened loop checklist line items? - Closed loop: Airplane system state sensed. - Open loop: Airplane system state NOT sensed

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6- What are the DEFERRED line items? Items of a non-normal checklist, but must be accomplished later in the flight (During descent and approach). Those items will automatically attach to the appropriate normal checklist.

Note If the normal checklist is completed it will not

attach to the checklist therefore the checklist has to be rest

7- When does the timer displayed with the checklist? Timers help crew to keep track of a time delay as part of the checklist. All times are countdown timers and associated with open or close loop or conditional line items. 8- When the checklist line items inhibits? If a system failure result in the display of multiple EICAS alert messages (a primary message and one or more consequential messages), INHIBIT checklist line items allow unnecessary non-normal checklists to be inhibits from display in the checklist queue. The inhabitation has the following effects on consequential checklist:

- Checklist icon is removed from corresponding EICAS message. - Checklist is removed from checklist queue. - Notes are not collected on operational notes page. - Deferred items are not collected in normal checklist.

9- What is the checklist call-up priority order on ground / flight? - On ground:

With both fuel control switches in the CUTOFF position and both engine start selector in NORM:

- Checklist associated with any EICAS warning MSG. - NORMAL checklist (incomplete or not yet displayed). - Checklist associated with any EICAS caution MSG. - Checklist associated with any EICAS advisory MSG. - Unannunciated (no EICAS MSG) checklist. - On ground:

with either fuel control switches in the RUN position or either engine start selector not in NORM or In flight:

- Checklist associated with any EICAS warning MSG. - Checklist associated with any EICAS caution MSG. - Checklist associated with any EICAS advisory MSG. - Unannunciated checklist. - NORMAL checklist.

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10- What is the indication of normal checklist completion? - CHECKLIST COMPLETED (white text on green background). - CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN (white text on cyan background). 11- What is the indication of non-normal checklist completion? - CHECKLIST COMPLETED (white text on green background). - CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN (white text on cyan background). - CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS (white text on green background). 12- What is the purpose of checklist rests? Resting the system and allows the checklist to be accomplished again. 13- What are the conditions for auto resting the normal checklist? - GO-AROUND: - Airplane in the air. - Landing gear is not up. - TO/GA is selected. - All normal checklist beginning with AFTER TAKEOFF. - TOUCH-AND-GO: - Airplane transition from air to ground. - Power T/O thrust with - Ground speed greater than 80 KIAS. - Thrust reverser not deployed. - All normal checklist beginning with AFTER TAKEOFF. - NORMAL MENU CHOICE:

If a previously completed checklist selected from the menu it will auto resets when it is display.

14- When the normal checklist manual rest is required? - RESET NORMAL: Rest all normal checklists so the flight sequence begins again - INDIVIDUAL CHECKLIST REST: Resting the display checklist so the checklist is ready to re-accomplished again.

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15- What are the non-normal checklist manual rests? - RESET NON-NORMAL: Resting non-normal checklists so the checklists are ready to re-accomplish all annunciated non-normal checklist which previously completed.

Note The use of REST NON-NORMAL function in flight is not recommended.

- INDIVIDUAL CHECKLIST REST: Resting the display checklist so the checklist is ready to re-accomplished again. 16- What is the function of manual rest all? REST ALL:

Resting all normal and non-normal checklists so the checklists are ready to re-accomplish all annunciated non-normal checklist which

Previously completed.

Note The use of REST NON-NORMAL function in flight is not recommended.

17- What are the types of overrides functions? - Items Override:

An items in the checklist will not be accomplished OR an items has been accomplished but the close-loop sensing is not functioning correctly.

Note

Overriding an item when required allows the checklist to be completed.

- Checklist Override:

When a checklist in the non-normal queue will not be accomplished OR after the crew browses a checklist but does not intend to complete it AND for non-normal checklist all associated operational notes are removed & deferred line items are removed from target normal checklist.

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18- When the conditional line items can be override? Conditional line items for both close & open loop con not be overridden BUT the individual steps associated with conditional line items can be overridden. 19- What is the indication if electronic checklist system inoperative? CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE on MFD & checklist icons are not displayed on the EICAS foe any MSG. 20- What is the indication if electronic checklist system deactivated by maintenance? CHECKLIST DISABLED on MFD & checklist icons are not displayed on the EICAS foe any MSG.

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Aircraft general





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1-What is the wing span for B777? 200 ft / 61 meters 2-What is the minimums runway/taxiway width for 180º? 156 ft / 47.5 meters 3-What is the minimums wing tip radius for 180º? 145 ft / 44.2 meters 4- What are the features of the AUTO position for SEAT BELT / NO SMOKING selectors? SEAT BELT / NO SMOKING sign will illuminate automatically whenever: - SEAT BELT:

- Landing gear is not up and locked - Flap leaver is not in up position

- Airplane altitude is below 10,300' - Cabin altitude is above 10,000'

- Passenger oxygen is ON - NO SMOKING: - Landing gear is not up and locked

- Cabin altitude is above 10,000' - Passenger oxygen is ON 5- What would happen if the SEAT BELT / NO SMOKING selectors are in the OFF position and passenger oxygen been deployed? The SEAT BELT / NO SMOKING sign will illuminate automatically BUT the lavatory RETURN TO SEAT will not illuminate with this feature. 6-What is the power source for emergency light? -It is powered by remote battery -The battery is recharged by the airplane electrical system -It provides at least 15 minutes of operation when fully charged 7-How the emergency power can be activated? Manually:

By selecting the ON position either in the overhead panel or in the 2L door

Automatically: If the switch is in the arm position auto activation is provided: If DC power fails or turned OFF then internal emergency light turns ON or if one of the entry doors are opened the exterior fuselage emergency lights will illuminates

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8-How the passengers & flight attendant station & LCRC oxygen can be activated? Manually : by selecting PASS OXYGEN to ON Auto : whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13.500 ft 9-Which flight attendant station can activate the evacuation alarm? Only the 1L door station 10-What is the duration for portable oxygen bottle? It is based on which outlet been used as follow:

HI 4-23 : -Is the high pressure outlet: -For normal use -Within a green band -Deliver 4 liters per minute -Duration is 1 hour LO 2-23 : Is the low pressure outlet: -For infants & small children -Within a yellow band -Deliver 2 liters per minute -Duration is 2 hours Using both outlets:

-Both outlets can be used in the same times -Within a red ban 11-What is the duration of PBE? 15 minutes 12-How many ELTs are installed in the aircraft? What are the durations? There are 4 ELTs installed using 121.5 & 243 MHZ:

-2 portable ELTs 406 type located by the 1L & 4L doors with duration of 48 hrs & 24 hrs on 406 MHZ. -2 fixed ELTs on the slide/raft of door 1L & 4R

13-What is the minimum age for treatments by AED? Above 8 years 14-What is the distance required to use BCF? What is the duration? Distance is between 0 to 13 ft (optimum distance is 6 ft) The maximum duration is between 8 to 10 seconds

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15-What are the limitations of LCRC? Lower Crew Rest should not be occupied if:

- Air plane altitude below 25.000 ft (WHY*) - If the amber AIR FLOW OFF light is illuminate. - If the EVAC light is illuminated. * Conditioned air is supply to the LCRC whenever the airplane altitude is above 25.000 ft

16- What does the AIR FLOW OFF amber light indicates in the LCR? The supplying air is commanded close, the shutoff valve will close if:

- Airplane altitude is less than 25,000' - Main compartment hatch is closed. - Smoke is detected in the LCR. - LCR fire extinguisher system is armed. - AFT cargo fire extinguisher system armed. - If airplane on ground and left pack is ON.

17-What would happen by pushing the ARM EXTING switch in the LCRC? -Close the air supply valve -Arms the fire extinguishing system -Chime will sound 5 times 18- What is the function of IND LTS TEST? Illuminate all annunciations lights to full brightness for 10 seconds. 19- When the nose gear taxi & landing lights will illuminates? When the nose landing gear is down and locked. 20- What does the LOCK FAIL / AUTO UNLK amber lights indicates in the FLT DECK DOOR panel? - LOCK FAIL: door lock selector in AUTO & door lock has failed or access

system switch is OFF. - AUTO UNLK: correct EMRG access code entered in the keypad. AUTO

UNLK light flashes and continues chime sounds before timer expires and door unlocks.

21- What are the purposes of UNLKD & AUTO & DENY positions in FLT DECK DOOR panel? UNLKD : door unlocked while selector in UNLKD.

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AUTO : when the door is locked, allows door to unlock after entering EMRG access code & expiration of time or unless crew takes action.

DENY : reject keypad entry request & prevents further EMRG access code

entry for a time period. 22-What are the limitations for the airplane doors/windows?

-Do not operate the entry or cargo door with winds at the door more than 40 kts -Do not keep doors open when wind/gust more than 60 kts

23-When the entry door will auto-lucked during takeoff? When airspeed is greater than 80 kts

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Air

system





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1- What does the air conditioning system consists of? - Two packs - Trim air system - Two upper & two lower recirculation fan - One gasper fan 2- When the pack output is increased automatically? - High pack demand (compensating for a failed pack or recirculation fan) - Landing gear retraction Note: One pack operation causes higher flight line noise levels 3- What are the pack switch positions? The switch positions controls the pack flow control valve - AUTO : Operations is automatics - Closed during engine start - Closed during pack malfunctions: - Pack or compressor outlet temp high - Flow control valve failed close - No pneumatic air - OFF : Manually close the valve (no auto temp displays) 4- How the pack will operates in standby mode? For certain internal malfunctions the pack automatically uses the standby cooling mode as backup for normal mode 5- How the system operates if one pack operates in standby mode while the other pack operating normal? The pack on standby mode cooling mode will shut down: - At lower altitude - Higher outside air temp - Ambient Conditions do not permit standby mode cooling Note : Pack will restart automatically when altitude & outside air temp or

suitable for standby cooling mode 6- How the system operates if both packs operate in standby mode or one INOP? - The pack/s will continue to operates continuously to maintain pressurization regardless of altitude or outside air temp Note : Standby mode pack cooling capacity maybe less than normal mode

& warmer flight deck & cabin is expected at lower altitude

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7- How the recirculation fan operates? - Upper recirculation fan : Air from the main passenger

compartments through filters & reintroduce to the zone duct

- Lower recirculation fan : Air from under flour through filters & reintroduce to conditioned air manifold

8- What is the purpose of the four recirculation fan? - To improve cabin temp - Reduce pack air flow setting in CRZ - Fuel consumption by 0.7 for each switch Note : if selected off the pack operates at full flow & cabin air exchanger

rate is decreases 9- How the flight deck receives air conditioning? - 100 % fresh conditioned air from the left pack only & maintained with higher pressure than he cabin to prevent smoking entering the cockpit 10- How is the temperature controlled in each zone? - By modulating the zone valve temp (trim air) mix hot air with conditioned air 11- What are the positions of flight deck & cabin temp selector? - Auto range 18˚c to 29˚c & the 12 o'clock position 24˚c is provided - Manual operation command the trim air modulating zone valve temp - Movement toward C – close the vale for cooler air - Movement toward W – opens the vale for warmer air 12- How the cabin temp controller operates? +/- 6˚ from the flight deck selected temp within range of 18˚c to 29˚c 13- What are the trim air switch positions? The switch positions controls the trim air valve: - ON (auto) : Operations is automatics

- To control the temp of each zone by modulating the valve - FAULT : Valve failed close - Duct overheat commanded valve to closed - Manually switched to off

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14- How the temp controls operates if the trim air is lost? If both R/L trim air is lost the system attempt to maintain all zone average target temp & flight deck temp is maintained between 18˚c to 29˚c 15- What would cause loss cabin temp controllers? - Causes by:

- Both cabin temp controllers fail - Both engines & APU electrical power fail

16- How the system operates incase of loss cabin temp controllers? The packs flow control valves are controlled by the air supply & cabin pressurization controller & the pack outlet temp between 5˚c to 43˚c & all flight deck controllers are disable except the pack switches 17- What does the AUTO / OFF positions control in the AIR CLEANER panel? - AUTO : Opens two air cleaner shutoff valves & allows

contaminates to be drawn from the air cleaners to ram air exhausts when below 7000 feet & applicable pack is operates

- OFF : Disable the shutoff valves but the air cleaners continue to operates

18- What are the OFF & LOW/HIGH positions provides in the AFT CARGO TEMP control? - OFF : Controls the heat shutoff valve - LOW/HIGH : Control temp valve Modulate to maintain the

selected temp - LOW : Maintain temp 4˚c - 10˚c - HIGH : Maintain temp 18˚c - 24˚c 19- When the bulk ventilation fan operates? If HIGH is selected in the bulk the bulk ventilation fan operates to provide animal carriage in the compartment 20- When the aft cargo & bulk heating system will auto shutdown? If overheat is detected & the system & system restored only on ground 21- How the aft cargo & bulk heating system operates? - Lavatory & galley are vented by two fans to the aft cargo & bulk compartment - Aft Cargo & bulk heating system is limited to those two fan, if they fail the system become inoperative

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22- Why the FWD CARGO compartment is separated from the aft cargo heating system? - System operation one supply source - The FWD CARGO has heater and conditioned air system for transferring of temp sensitive cargo 23- What is the AUTO / OFF positions provide to the FWD CARGO compartment? Auto position is the air conditioning position while the off is the heater position

- AUTO : Air from the cabin through a fan and smoke/low flow sensors to flight deck panel & displayed & fwd E & E compartment to the mixed bay to provide conditioned air to the fwd cargo with temp range of 4˚c - 27˚c ( 12 o'clock position = 12˚c) if airplane on ground air will exhausted over-bored

Note : Auto temperature control for the FWD cargo compartment will

disable the heating system to the compartments - OFF : (Shutoff the A/C system) Hot air passing the flight

deck panel & displayed & fwd E & E compartment to the fwd cargo compartment and exhausted over-bored (in flight only)

Note : If the flight deck controllers are failed the pack will maintain the

last selected target temp 24- What is the purpose of smoke detector & low flow detector sensors in the E&E cooling system? - To check for any smoke in the duct - To detect any fan failure by the lack of air flow 25- How the E&E cooling system operates? With the switch in auto system operation is automatic & cooling air is provided through two internal fans (primary & secondary)

- FWD E&E : Air from the cabin then exhausted either to fwd cargo or over-bored

- AFT E&E : Ventilated air from the lavatories &

galleys then to aft outflow valve

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26- What is the purpose of E&E cooling override? Supply air for cooling during all phases of flight especially during decent the airflow & cabin differential pressure decrease 27- When the E&E cooling system reconfigure to auto override mode? - Equipment cooling switch is OFF - In flight, both supply fan (P&B) are failed - In flight, low airflow is detected - Smoke is detected in the fwd equipment cooling system or ventilation system - FWD CARGO FIRE ARM is armed 28- What are the system configurations in override mode? - Vent valve : Opened - Both supply fan : Inoperative - Fwd cargo heat : Valve is closed But if the FWD CARGO FIRE ARM is armed, the ventilation valve is closed 29- What feature is available by selecting E&E cooling to override in flight? Assist smoke evacuation from flight deck Note : On ground with system failure the EICAS associated with

maintenance call horn sound in the wheel well area 30- When the EICAS “PACK” is displayed? - If pack is switch is OFF - Pack failure - Bleed air is shutoff to the pack - Pack overheat 31- When the EICAS “EQUIP COOLING” is displayed? - Low air flow - High air temperature On ground only both activates the ground maintenance call 32- When the EICAS “EQUIP COOLING OVRD” is displayed? Switch is may be on override position Avoid low altitude

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1- What are the pressurization system components? - Two ASCPC (Air Supply Cabin Pressure Controllers) - One Remote Sensor - Two positive pressure relief valves - Four negative pressure relive valves - FWD outflow valve - AFT outflow valve 2- What would happen at airplane power up? - ASCPC : Auto self test system - Outflow : Valve will fully open - System : Pressurization to ground mode 3- How the system of pressurization is controlled? By regulating the discharge of conditioned cabin air through the outflow valve 4- Which outflow valve is the most ventilate valve? WHY? - The aft outflow valve controls 80% of ventilation - This to improve ventilations & smoke removal - If the AFT outflow valve fails or degraded then the FWD will be controlling Note : Either valve can maintain cabin ventilation & pressurization 5- What is the purpose of positive pressure relief valves? - To protect the fuselage against excessive pressure differential - By preventing over pressure conditions (shows on EICAS) - Valve opens and closes automatically 6- What is the purpose of negative pressure relief vents? - To prevent negative pressure conditions - During high descent rate faster than the cabin pressure controller - Valve opens and closes automatically without EICAS 7- How the pressurization system is controlled? - Auto mode - Manual mode : by selecting manual & MAN is displayed on the

switch & (M) is displayed on the valve indication - Outflow valve to manual by passing the auto controller of the valve & cabin altitude limiter - Manually hold the outflow valve to open or close

8- What would happen by pulling the LND ALT selector? - Manually set the landing altitude - Landing altitude followed by MAN in EICAS - First detent : Altitude change in 100 foot - Second detent : Altitude change in 500 foot

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9- How the ASCPC calculate the pressurization system schedule? Based on FMC/CDU inputs: - CRZ altitude (Enter CRZ mode when time to climb reach zero) - Time to descent - Top of descent - Time to descent - Landing elevation - Ambient pressure 10- When the airplane start to pressurized on

- Takeoff? On takeoff roll: - Positive pressure is provided prior to rotate - Outflow valve start closing - After rotation enters flight mode

- Takeoff from 8000 feet elevation?

After takeoff pressurization system start to decent to target altitude at rate of 300 f/m unless deferentional pressure is a factor

- Landing above 8000 feet elevation?

After takeoff pressurization system climb to 8000 feet & continue to climb when appropriate to the system

11- When the pressurization systems enter the CRZ mode in unplanned step CRZ climb or descent? Either: - Reach the new level off altitude - Level off for one minute without VNAV 12- How long is the outflow valve full travel period? 30 second to fully opened or closed 13- How the landing altitude is provided to the system? - By FMC - Manually set using the landing altitude selector with a maximum of: 2000 feet below sea level 14000 feet above sea level 14- What would happen when sudden loss of cabin pressure? - Outflow valve close immediately - During decent when altitude of airplane & cabin are approximately equal valve will open to protect the airplane from negative pressure differential Note : Crew must not attempt to manually close the outflow valve during

decent

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15- What if the CRZ altitude is not available in the FMC? The cabin altitude controller assumed that the CRZ altitude is 39,000 feet 16- If the final CRZ level is 38,000 feet and the airplane level of at 36,000 feet as climb segment, the cabin altitude controller climb to which altitude? Will continue climb to CRZ of 38,000 feet providing maximum differential pressure is unreachable by reducing the cabin rate of climb in order not to exceed differential pressure Note : Max cabin altitude is 8,000 feet 17- When the cabin altitude controllers start to decent? Entering decent mode at T/D, at initial decent of approximately 1000 feet from CRZ altitude 18- Why the cabin altitude decent slightly below FMC landing elevation? To ensure airplane is pressurized at landing Note : landing altitude barometric pressure corrective comes from the

captains altimeter setting 19- What is the function of AIR COND RESET button? - Rest faulty portion (controller failure, valve failure) - Rest failed recirculation fan - Rest pack flow valve, trim air valve 20- When the duct pressure and pressurization system displayed on EICAS? - Landing altitude is set MAN - Cabin altitude is above normal - AMBER - Cabin differential pressure is above normal - AMBER - Cabin differential pressure is excessive - RED - Duct pressure is below normal with respective engine running - AMBER - Associated with EICAS message: - CABIN ALTITUDE

- CABIN ALTITUDE AUTO - LANDING ALTITUDE - OUTFLOW VALVE AFT - OUTFLOW VALVE FWD

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21- If a holding is required after takeoff, which altitude the cabin will climb? - With VNAV:

After takeoff system will continue to climb as schedule - Without VNAV:

After takeoff system will level off until: - VNAV engagement - Initiate a climb

22- When the pressurization information displayed on EICAS in expanded format? 1- If the cabin altitude climb above 8500’ 2- If the T/O & L/D altitude nope is pulled 3- If outflow FWD / AFT valves auto controller fails 4- If either outflow FWD / AFT valves is switched to MAN 23- When the EICAS “CABIN ALTITUDE“ is displayed? If the cabin altitude climbs above 10.000’ 24- When the EICAS “CABIN ALTITUDE AUTO“ is displayed? 1- Auto valves controller fails 2- Both ASCPC fails 3- Both valves are in MAN 25- When the EICAS “LANDING ALTITUDE“ is displayed? Either: - FMC landing altitude is not available

- Landing altitude is on MAN

* * *

1- What are the components required bleed air to operates? - Air conditioning system - Pressurization - Wing & engine anti-ice - APU & engine start - TAT probe aspiration - Air driven hydraulic pumps - Hydraulic reservoir pressurization - Potable water tank pressurization - Aft cargo heating

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2- How the engine bleed air system is controlled? By Air Supply and Cabin Pressure Controller (ASCPC) controls: - HP valve : High Pressure Valve - PRSOV : Pressure Regulating and Shutoff Valve - Bleed air temp : The ducting temperature by modulating the PRSOV - Bleed air ISN : Controls the bleed air isolation valves 3- How engine & APU bleed air valve operates? Engines bleed air valves:

- Auto operation provided the engine bleed is selected ON - Pressure actuated valve, remain closed until sufficient engine bleed air pressure is available

APU bleed air valve: - Auto operation provided the APU bleed is selected ON - After starting one engine the APU bleed valve closes then will opens when the other engine start switch is selected & the center & starting side isolation valve will opens & the opposite side closes

Note : When APU is operated on ground & supplying bleed all isolation valves will opens auto

4- When the engine bleed air valve close automatically? - During start - Bleed air source loss (engine not running) - Bleed air over-temperature - Bleed air over-pressure - Bleed air duct leak - Engine fire switch is pulled - Ground cart supplying air 5- What will happen in the bleed configuration when the engine start selector moved to start (APU START)? - Start valve opens in the respective engine - Both packs will be off - The opposite isolation valve closes (L/R) - The center isolation valve opened during both engine starts & single bleed source 6- What controls the ISOLATION valves in auto operations? The ASCPC 7- When the R/C/L isolation valves open automatically? - APU ground operation - Ground air is connected - Engine failure in flight

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8- When the R/C/L isolation valves close automatically? Leak or bleed loss condition 9- When the APU bleed air valves close automatically? - Duct leak - APU fire handle is pulled - Valve failed in close position 8- What would happen by selecting APU bleed while APU is running? - APU bleed off light extinguish - APU bleed air valve open - Bleed air isolation valves open R/C/L 9- What does the APU bleed air valve & ground bleed air valve provide? It’s a check valve prevent bleed air from reversed pressure

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Anti-ice &

rain system





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1- What are the areas covered by the anti-ice & rain systems protections? - Engine Cowl - Wings MID-WING slats - Flight deck windows - Windshield wipers - Probe heat 2- When the automatic icing detection system is provided? Only in flight & inhibited on ground 3- How does the automatic operation for engine & wing anti-ice is provided? By icing cycles:

- If ice building is sensed by either of the two icing detectors probes, both probes are heated until fully de-iced (with no cockpit control) - EAI will operates soon after ice is detected - WAI will operates after greater number of icing cycles has occurred

4- How the EAI system is monitored for leakage? Each engine has anti-ice system duct leak detection system close the EAI valve if duct leak is detected 5- Which wings areas are provided with WAI system? The three mid-wing leading edge slats on each wing 6- When the WAI is inhibited? - On ground - For 5 minutes after takeoff when TAT at or above 10˚C - In AUTO position with any takeoff thrust mode until 10 minutes after takeoff and/or transition to climb thrust mode 7- When the isolation valve will open automatically to maintain anti-ice to both wings? If bleed source is not available and bleed duct isolation has not occurred 8- How the EAI system is monitored for leakage & overheats? Each wing has anti-ice system duct leak detection & overheats system

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9- What is the purpose of hydrophobic coating? Inhibits the surface wetting & cause water droplets to roll off with wind as airspeed increased 10- How the flight deck windows are heated? - All flight deck windows are electrically heated - The FWD windows have:

- Exterior surface anti-icing & hydrophobic coating (as rain prepellent system) - Interior surface antifogging - Backup antifogging system operates automatically if the primary system fails

- The side windows have interior surface antifogging only 11- EAI & WAI Operations:

Switches Positions

IGN* Messages Inhibited

on ground OFF AUTO ON

EAI

Command the valve to

close

Auto logic operation in flight

only

Manual operation on GND /

FLT

Continuous auto/on

mode

ICING ENG

WAI

Manual operation

on FLT only

N / A ICING WING

* Approach idle is selected by the EEC 12- How and when the probes are heated? - Three pitot probes and two angles of attack are electrically heated when either engine is running - The TAT probe is electrically heated on flight only 13- What is the wiper operation restriction? Do not operate the wiper on dry windshields to prevent scratching of hydrophobic coating 14- When the EICAS “ANTI-ICE LEAK ENG L/R” displayed? When an engine fan case overheat occurs from an engine anti-ice duct leak 15- When the EICAS “ANTI-ICE LOSS ENG L/R” displayed? Engine anti-ice no longer is available

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16- What is the precaution if the EICAS “HEAT PITOT L/R/C” displayed? - If the Center failed the STBY airspeed indications are incorrect in icing conditions - If the Right failed the right PFD airspeed indications are incorrect in icing conditions - If the Left failed the left PFD airspeed indications are incorrect in icing conditions 17- What if the EAI & WAI selectors are on the auto position and EICAS message displayed “ANTI-ICE ENG L/R” and/or “ANTI-ICE WING”? Move the selector/s to OFF then to ON:

- If the system operates normal continue with manual control because the auto controller has failed - If the system does not operates move the selector/s to OFF and do not operates EAI, WAI and avoid icing conditions

Note: If the WAI valve failed on close position in one side, system logic will

close the other side 14- When the following messages displayed: ANTI-ICE ON: When all selectors are in the ON position and icing

is not detected and TAT above 10˚C ICE DETECTORS: Auto ice detection / alerting failed and

system operates on manual only WINDOW HEAT R/L FWD: Rest all switches and if the

message remain displayed so the backup heat is provided automatically for antifogging

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Electrical

system





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1- What does the electrical system consist of? - Main AC power. - Backup power. - DC power. - Standby power. - Flight controls power. 2- What are the features of the system operations? - System operation is automatic. - Electrical faults are automatically detected and isolated. 4- What does the ELMS provides? Why? The Electrical Load Management System has three channels each channel equipped with dual channels for:

1- Load management 2- System protection

To ensure power is available to critical and essential equipments when only one source of power is available either external or airplane power. 5- How the ELMS operate? If the electrical load exceed the power available from the airplane or external power the ELMS automatically sheds AC loads by priority until the loads are within capacity or availability of the airplane or external power source. 6/CPT- What are the ELMS priorities for power shedding? 1- Galleys power. 2- Utility busses. 3- On ground some airplanes (C2 hydraulic primary pumps) - 4- Right center fuel pump - 5- Individual equipment items. Note: ELMS restores power to shed system in the reverse order. 7- What are the indications of automatic power sheds? 1- LOAD SHED message will be displayed ELECT synoptic. 2- Recall the EICAS messages if fault or failure is detected 8- What are the main AC power sources? 1- L & R engine integrated drive generators (IDGs). 2- APU generators. 3- Primary or secondary external power.

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9- What would happen during power source transfer on ground? Operating sources are momentarily paralleled to prevent power interruption. 10- What will happen in the following conditions? - LOW IDG OIL PRESSUR Bushing the drive switch will disconnect

the GEN drive (Rest by maintenance only) - HIGH IDG TEMP Drive will auto disconnect Notes: - Resting of IDG in flight is permitted only once - Indication of disconnected IDG is:

- ELECT GEN OFF L/R - ELECT GEN DRIVE L/R

- Manual or Auto disconnect of IDG cannot be restored by flight crew - APU GEN is identical to the IDG

INFORMATION

11- What are the APU priority connections to main AC busses? - No power source is available & APU becomes available: APU auto connects to both main AC busses. - Primary external powering both main AC busses & APU becomes available: APU will power the Left main AC bus. Primary external will continue to power the Right main AC bus.

- Primary external powers the Right main AC bus and Secondary external powers the Left main AC bus & APU becomes available: APU will power the Left main AC bus. Primary external will continue to power the Right main AC bus. - Secondary external is powering both main AC busses & APU becomes available: APU will power both main AC busses. 12- What does the OFF light indicate in APU GEN electrical panel? APU is running but either: - Not connected to circuits (in OFF position). - Generator breaker is open because of fault. - Secondary power is connected after the APU Note: When APU GEN switch is ON and fault is detected, APU GEN cannot

connect to the busses.

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13- What does the AVAIL & ON light indicates in the PRIMARY & SECONDARY EXT PWR? AVAIL : Voltage & frequency for external power are within limit. ON : It is connected to the main AC busses. Note: External power is not auto connected therefore hard select is

required. 14- Under what conditions the PRIMARY & SECONDARY external power source can be applied? - Airplane BATTERY switch must be ON. - AVAIL light must illuminate.

INFORMATION

15- What would happen by selecting the PRIMARY EXT PWR to ON in the following conditions: - While a single IDG powering both busses? The PRIMARY EXT PWR will connect to both busses.

- While both IDG's are powering their respective busses and APU is not running and secondary external is not available? PRIMARY EXT PWR will connect to both main AC busses. - While both IDG's are powering their respective busses and secondary external is available? PRIMARY EXT PWR will connect to the right main AC bus & leaving the left IDG to power the left main AC bus.

- While APU is running? PRIMARY EXT PWR will connect to the right main AC buss & leaving the APU to power the left main AC bus & the right BUS TIE will open. - While the SECONDARY EXT PWR is powering both busses? PRIMARY EXT PWR will connect to the right main AC buss & leaving the SECONDARY EXT PWR to power the left main AC bus & the right BUS TIE will open.

- While PRIMARY EXT PWR is ON? PRIMARY EXT PWR will disconnect from the AC busses & leaving the previously connected power to reconnect.

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16- What would happen by selecting the SECONDARY EXT PWR to ON in the following conditions: - While single IDG's are powering their respective busses and PRIMARY EXT PWR available? SECONDARY EXT PWR will connect to BOTH AC busses. - While both IDG's are powering their respective busses? SECONDARY EXT PWR will connect to LEFT MAIN AC buss. Note: When the right engine is shutdown there is a no-break

transfer of power of secondary external power to the right main bus.

- While both IDG's are powering their respective busses and PRIMARY EXT PWR is available? SECONDARY EXT PWR will connect to LEFT MAIN AC buss & the right IDG will power the RIGHT MAIN AC bus. - While SECONDARY EXT PWR is ON? SECONDARY EXT PWR will disconnect from the AC busses & leaving the previously connected power to reconnect. Note: Normally, the Primary external powers the right main AC bus while the secondary external powers the left main AC bus 17- What are the purposes of BUS TIE switches? It's to control the BUS TIE relay by isolate or parallel the right and left main busses. Note: Power transfers are made without interruption on ground

except switching between primary & secondary external power.

18- What are the source orders for powering the left and right main busses in flight? 1- Respective IDG 2- APU GEN 3- Opposite IDG 19- What are the equipments powered by MAIN BUSSES? - Cooling vent fan. - Recirculation fans. - Lavatory / Galley fans. - Electrical hydraulic pumps. - IFE

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20- What are the BUSSES powered by MAIN AC BUSSES powers? - Transfer Bus:

- DC system TR - AC standby bus

- Utility Bus: - FWD galley heater - Chiller boost fan - Gasper fan - Captain & F/O foot and shoulder heaters - Door area heaters - Lavatories water heaters - Shavers - Passenger entertainment loads

- Galley Busses. - Ground Service Bus (Right main bus) 21- What are the power supplies to the ground service bus on ground? - APU GEN. - Primary external power. 22- What are the Items powered by the ground service bus? 1- Main battery charger. 2- APU battery charger. 3- Miscellaneous cabin & system loads 23- If the APU or primary external power is available but they are not connected to the busses, how the ground service bus can be powered? By selecting the ground service switch on the L-1 door panel to ON 24- What are primary & secondary power source to ground handling bus? - Primary external power. - APU GEN. Note: The secondary external power cannot supply power to the GND

HNDL BUS 25- What are the items powered by the ground handling bus? When? -The main battery charger -The APU battery charger -Miscellaneous cabin & system loads On ground only.

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26- What are the items powered by ground handling bus? - Fueling & Defueling operations - Left FWD fuel pump. - Cargo handling: (Door, Compartment lights & maintenance access lights) - Other equipments required for ground handling operations. 27- Where are three autopilots, during the autoland the busses are isolated to provide independent sources to power each autopilot, what are the three sources? Why? - The left IDG powers : The left AC transfer bus, the left main DC

bus and the captain's flight instrument BUS

- The right IDG powers : The battery bus and AC standby BUS through the main battery charger.

- The right backup Generator system powers : The right AC transfer BUS, the right DC

BUS and the first officer's flight instrument BUS.

This to ensure that 3 independent sources of power to supply the 3 auto-pilots 28- What are the powers sources to the autopilot during autoland?(CBT) -Right autopilot- powered by -Right IDG -Left autopilot- powered by -Left IDG -Center autopilot powered by -Right backup generator VIA

right transfer bus 29- When the power source to the auto pilot system will auto reset? System auto rest:

- G/A is initiated - A/P is disengaged

30- Which BUSSES powered by the backup electrical system? It powers one or both transfer busses & system operation is auto. 31- Under what cases the backup power actives? 1- Only one main generator including APU is available. 2- Power to one or both of the main AC busses is lost. 3- Approach (APP) mode is selected for autoland. 4- Backup system self-tests automatically after engine start. Note: System transfer power without interruption.

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32- How many backup generators are installed in the airplane? There are two backup generators, one mounted on each engine. 33- How the backup generators provide power to the electrical system? - Backup power is provided by one generator at time. - The generator output frequency varies with an engine power. - The generator output frequency become constant of 400HZ through the converter. 34- Why the backup generators have a converter? The system has only one converter, therefore only one backup generator can power the converter at a time. 35- How does the backup generator supply power to flight controls? Each backup generator contains two permanent magnet generators PMGs which supply power to the flight control DC electrical system. 36- With both IDGs and APU becomes inoperative and the backup generator is powering the essential airplane equipments, what are the systems becomes inoperative with auto power load shed? 1- TCAS 2- SATCOM 3- Right HF radio 4- Center tank override/jettison pumps - Center tank fuel is unusable

- Un-jettisoned) 5- Position and exterior lights

- Except nose gear landing light 6- All non-essential cabin equipments

- Galleys, entertainments etc. 7- Passenger cabin lighting

- Except night, galley - Cross-aisle lights

8- Cabin temp control

- Operational in degraded mode 37-What are the essential equipments powered by the backup generator? 1- Instruments panel lighting 2- Captain & F/O radios 3- Center autopilot & engine probe heat

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38- How does the DC power is provided to the airplane? By four transformer-rectifier units (4 units of TRU's) powered by the AC transfer busses. 39- What are the primary equipments powered by DC power? 1- PFD 2- ND 3- GPS 4- AIDRU 40- What is the main DC power distribution system? There are four TRUs:

- Left TRU: - Powers the Left main DC bus and provide backup for:

- Powers the Left flight control power supply assembly (PSA) - Right main DC bus

- Right TRU: - Powers the Right main DC bus and provide backup for:

- Powers the Right Flight control power supply assembly (PSA) - Left main DC bus

- C1 TRU: - Backup power to the battery bus via Capt flight instrument bus

- Powers the Capt flight instrument bus: - Provide power the center flight control power supply assembly (PSA) - Backup power to F/O flight instrument bus

- C2 TRU: - Powers the F/O flight instrument bus

- Backup power to the Capt flight instrument bus 41- What are the battery connections? The main battery: - Is connected to the hot battery bus AND - Provide standby power to other busses. - Main battery charger powers the hot battery bus AND - Maintain battery fully charge. 42- What are the APU battery connections? The APU:

- Battery is connected to the APU battery bus & provides power to the APU electric starter when bleed air pressure is not available for the APU air turbine starter. - Battery charger powers the APU battery bus and maintains APU battery fully charged.

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43- Is it permits to tow the airplane without AC power? Yes. 44- What will happen by selecting TOWING POWER switch to BAT? The main battery power is available through the hot battery bus to systems required for towing. 45- What will happen if AC power is available and TOWING POWER switch is selected to BAT? The main battery provide backup power if AC power is lost while towing the aircraft. 46- What is the dedicated power supply to the flight control DC electrical system? It powers the primary flight control system. 47- What is the primary & secondary power source to the flight control DC system?

Power Supply Assembly (PSA)

Primary source

Secondary source

Additional source

LEFT L/R

PMG Left main DC bus through L-TRU Hot BATT BUS

through BATT BUS to the Left & Center

PSA only

RIGHT L/R

PMG Right main DC

bus through R-TRU

CENTER L/R

PMG Capt FLT INST BUS through C1-TRU

- Note : Primary power is PMG's installed in each backup generator

& it's an AC power used by individual power supply assemblies PSA's to provide DC power to the three flight control DC busses.

48- How the flight control DC bus is prevented from power interruptions? Each PSA uses a dedicated one-minute battery & the batteries have limited capacity (supply power for brief periods) during power source transfer without power interruptions. 49- What are the components of the standby electrical system?

1- Main battery. 2- Standby inverter. 3- C1 & C2 TRU’s 4- The RAT generator & its associated generator control unit.

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50- What are the items powered by the standby system (as critical AC & DC equipments) in case of loss all generators including backup generator? - Critical AC equipments are:

1- Center ILS & radio altimeter 2- Left Marker beacon 3-Left VOR 4- Both engine ignitions 5- Left transponder

- Critical DC equipments are:

1- Capt. PFD 2- ND & Standby instrument 3- FMS-L

51- What are the busses powered by the main battery as standby power?

1- Hot battery bus 2- Battery bus 3- Standby inverter 4- Capt flight instrument bus 5- Left and center flight control PSAs.

52- What is the standby converter? It converts the DC power to AC power. 53- Which busses will be powered by the standby inverter? The standby inverter powers the AC standby bus if the left transfer bus lost its power. 54- What is the RAT? Ram Air Turbine generator provides standby power to the C1 & C2 TRUs. 55- What are the RAT limitations? - No time limit operations - No altitude limit operations - No airspeed limit operations 56- What does the RAT supplies? The RAT supplies electrical & hydraulic power.

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57- When the RAT can be deployed automatically or manually? - Auto deployments:

1- If both AC transfer busses lose power in flight 2- All three hydraulic systems pressures are low 3- Dual engine failure & center hydraulic pressure is low

- Manual deployments:

By pushing the RAM AIR TURBINE switch on the overhead panel. 58- What are the PRESS & UNLKD lights indicates in the RAT switch? - PRESS : Indicate the RAT is producing hydraulic pressure - UNLKD : Indicate the RAT is deployed & unlocked 59- What will happen if the RAT could not maintain RPM? (CBT) The RAT generator electrical load is shed until RPM is becomes with in limit or if the hydraulic power is insufficient (Priority to hydraulic) 60- How does the RAT power is provided to the electrical system? Power for the standby electrical load is provided by the main battery during deployment of the RAT & when RAT generator loads are shed. 61- What are the indications if the RAT or the battery is powering the busses? - If the RAT is powering the following equipments will be powered:

1- Capt & F/O PFD 2- Capt & F/O ND 3- Standby Instruments 4- EICAS 5- FMC/CDU # 1

- If the battery is un-powering the following equipments:

1- FMC/CDU # 2 2- Lower MFD 3- F/O FPD & ND

62- What will happen by selecting the IFE/PASS SEATS switch to OFF position? Removes power from: - IFE (all components)

- Passenger seats (including seat motor power, personal computer power outlet and telephone)

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63- What will happen by selecting the CABIN/UTILITY switch to OFF position? - Remove power from cabin and utility system:

- Ground service bus except APU BATT chargers & left fuel FWD pump

- Utility busses - Galleys - Gasper fan - Fluorescent cabin lighting - Beacon, logo and wing lights.

- The following Cain lights will turn ON after switching the CABIN/UTILITY to OFF:

- Night and supplemental night lights - Reading lights - Attendant work lights - Some galley/crew rest lights.

64- After starting engines, what are the indications of right/left IDG connections to the busses? - R/L IDG switches: off light extinguished - R/L drive switches: DRIVE light extinguished - R/L backup Gen switches: off light extinguished 65- What does the battery ON & OFF light indicates? ON position: - If the airplane unpowered on ground: - A few switches annunciation lights illuminate - Allows the APU to be started - No displays are powered

- In addition: Battery bus / APU controller & fuel valve & inlet door / DC fuel pump & Miner annunciated lights BUT none of the DU is powered

- If the airplane in flight or on ground with AC power is removed or lost the following will by powered: - Standby busses & emergency lights

- The Left inboard &outboard & upper center displays - The Left CDU

OFF position:

- Turns the battery power off & in flight “ELECT BATTERY OFF” EICAS is displayed - With AIDRU switch ON will be powered if the battery selected OFF & ground horn will sound

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66- What does the ON BAT light in the towing power switch indicates? Main aircraft battery is powering the towing bus via hot battery bus & the following will by powered: - Position light - Flight interphone - Captains instrument panel flood lights - Brake accumulator pressure indicator - Brake source light 67- What does the BAT & AUTO position provides in the standby power switch? - AUTO (guarded position) : Standby busses transfer to battery power

when normal AC power is lost - BAT (momentary): - The standby busses are powered from the battery if AC power is not available - Initiates a DC/standby self-test if AC power is available

* * *

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Engine &

apu





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Introductions: - Each engine rated for 90.000 (type is GE 90-90B) - Each engine has two rotors mechanically independent:

- N1 rotor:

- Fan - Low pressure compressor (LPC) - Low pressure Turbine (LPT)

- N2 rotor: - High pressure compressor (HPC) - High pressure Turbine (HPT)

- N2 rotor drive the engine accessory gearbox which connected through the engine bleed start rotor

_______________________________________________________________ 1- What is the primary & secondary engine instrument? - Primary on EICAS is N1 & EGT - Secondary on MFD is

N2 & FF & Oil pressure / temperature / QTY & VIB 2- When the secondary engine indications displayed automatically in MFD or EICAS? - In MFD: 1- When the display initially receives electrical power 2- Fuel control is moved to CUTOFF 3- Engine fire handle is pulled in flight 4- N2 RPM is below idle in flight

5- If the secondary engine parameters is exceeded or below minimum

Note: If the secondary engine page parameters displayed automatically in

the lower MFD due to any of the mentioned reasons, it cannot be cleared until the conditions is no longer present

- In EICAS (auto/manually selected) in compacted format when the secondary engine parameters are exceeded or below minimum:

1- If the MFD is failed 2- If the MFD is un-powered 3- If the MFD is occupied by displaying other system malfunctions

3- How the engine thrust is controlled? 1- Pilot input in FMS/CDU (information to) AIMS thrust management 2- AIMS which control the auto-throttles 3- The (auto/manual) control of throttles inputs to EEC which control the engine fuel metering unit until the N1 is reach to the commanded N1 target Note : Engines are controlled & monitored by dual channels EEC

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4- What are the EEC idle modes?

Minimum idle Approach idle On ground 1- Lower idle thrust 2- Most phases of flight 3- Ground operation

1- Higher idle thrust 2- When flaps are 25˚ or grater 3- When anti-ice is selected 4- When one hydraulic air-driven demand pump is inoperative with flaps not in the up position 5- When the opposite engine bleed air valve is closed

5- What is the purpose of approach idle? To decrease the acceleration time for G/A & it will be maintained until touchdown & system refer to MIN idle 6- Why it is recommended to hard select both engines to alternate incase of one engine operates in soft mode? This provides an equal thrust setting / asymmetric thrust may observed by two different mode Note : The alternate schedule N1 provides equal or greater thrust than

normal mode for the same thrust lever position 7- What is the difference between the EEC hard & alternate mode?

SOFT ALTERNATE HARD ALTERNATE When the system automatically refer to alternate mode while the switch still in the normal mode position

When the system manually selected to alternate mode

No thrust change (fixed lever position)

Thrust may changed to set the commanded N1, therefore thrust should be reduced to avoid engine exceedance specially in climb

No thrust limit protection (available in manual operation of throttle) Auto-throttle is Available & remain engaged Thrust schedule different than normal either equal or greater than the normal mode for the same thrust lever position N1 RPM as parameter ** In the normal & alternate (soft/hard) the N1 RPM is always commanded by the FMC. The EEC continuously computes the maximum N1. Note: (N1 & N2 red line protections still available) Maximum rated thrust is always available during any phase of the flight by moving the throttle forward.

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8- When one engine refereed to a soft alternate mode, why it is required to select the hard alternate mode on both engines? This to eliminates thrust lever stagger at equal thrust setting or asymmetric thrust when the thrust levers are operated together 9A-What does the EEC controls? Or 9B- When the both IGN will operate automatically?

IGN’s Engine Reverser 1-2nd ground start attempt & sub-start 2-In flight Start 3-Flaps are not in up position in flight or in ground with N1 greater than 60% 4-Anti-ice is selected 5-Flame out is detected 6-Manually selected

1-N1 / N2 Over speed 2-Fuel valves (Engine/Spar)

1-Hydraulic isolation valve for engine thrust reverser 2-Reverse thrust limit 3-Prevent reverser deployment in flight

10-What does the EEC monitors?

Engine Reverser N1 / N2 / EGT / FF / Duct pressure during start

Thrust reverser fault Engine for flam out & auto relight 11-What are the EEC auto-relight capabilities? The EEC operates both IGN if:

Flameout is detected by either: -When rabid decrease in N2 -When N2 is less than idle RPM Sub-stall recovery: -The fuel is shutoff for one second in an attempt to clear the stall

12-When the maximum start red-line is displayed/removed on the EGT? Displayed when fuel control switch is moved to cutoff or engine N2 RPM is below idle and will removed from view when engine started and stabilized at idle 13-How the maximum continuous limit is displayed on the EGT? By the amber band but does not applies during T/O & G/A for 5 minutes as inhibited period and this will be extended for 10 minutes in case of single engine operation

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14-How does the N1 & N2 over-speed protection provided? The EEC will commands reduce fuel flow only in normal EEC mode, while in alternate mode over-boost will occurs 15-How does the red color of the N2 box returned to white if the N2 red-line is exceeded? If the exceedance has returned to normal & pushing the display select panel cancel/recall switch 16- What are the differences between on ground & in flight engine auto start? The EEC controls the engine start by fuel & IGN:

ON GROUND IN FLIGHT Use one IGN (alternating for each start) for the first attempt then both IGN for subsequences

Use both IGN

The auto start will move the start selector to normal & closes the start valve after the 3rd attempt to provide time limit for another start

Continues start attempts until the fuel control is moved to cutoff & start switch to normal

Note : Auto start in flight takes corrective action if some start problems are detected but does not abort the start

17-What are the difference between replacing the fuel control switch to RUN in auto-start mode & manual-start mode? -In auto-start mode the EEC:

-Monitor the engine (starting protection) by opening fuel spar valve only. Then open the engine fuel valve when maximum monitoring is achieved. Close & re-open the valve for aborted start & sub-start sequencing.

In manual start: -EEC is not monitoring the engine start & when moving the fuel control switch to RUN opens both spar & engine fuel valve

18-Where is the location of the spar & engine fuel valves? Spar valve : In the main tanks Engine valve : In the engine (also controlled by engine fire switch) 19-What are the engine auto or manual start sequences? 1-Positioning the start switch to START:

-Opens the start valve & run the start motor by bleed air & drives the N2 rotor -The start motor remain engaged until start reach cutout speed

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2-Positioning the fuel control to RUN: -Opens the spar valve only

-When maximum monitoring is reached the EEC opens the engine fuel valve & operates the continues IGN

Note: -In manual start at 22% N2 as max monitoring opens both valves

-In auto start the EEC controls the engine fuel valve 3-At cutout speed when the idle N2 is reached (62% N2)

-Start valve closed -Start motor disengages -Engine start switch moves to normal (IGN to off)

20-When the IGN operates in manual start? When the fuel control switch is moved to RUN 21- What is the normal & alternate power source to the IGN? Normally : Main AC BUS Alternate : STBY AC BUS 22- When the start envelope information displayed on the EICAS? - Engine is not running in flight (N2 is blow idle) - Engine shutdown in flight & the fire handle is not pulled 23- In flight, when the cross bleed start indication is displayed next to N2 Indication? If airspeed is below the recommended speed for wind milling start 24- In which conditions the EEC provides auto abort features? There are 8 cases the EEC will provides auto-abort as follows:

EEC provides another start attempt EEC TERMINATES the starts 1- Hot start 2- Hang start 3- No EGT rise (20 sec) initial FF 4- Compressor stall

1- No N1 rotation 2- Starter shaft failure 3- Starter exceeds duty cycle time 4- Insufficient bleed air pressure

25- In which cases the EEC does not provide auto abort features? - Oil pressure (must be indicated with in initial EGT rise) - Oil temperature

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26- What are the EEC auto abort sequences? - If N2 is less than starter cutout speed the EEC will: - Turns off the fuel - Turns off the IGN

- Motorizes the engine for 6 to 30 second depending on the detected conditions to clear residual fuel before attempting another start

- Start valve closes - If N2 is greater than starter cutout speed the EEC will: - Turns off the fuel - Turns off the IGN

- Motorizes the engine to clear residual fuel - Closes the starter air valve

- Allow the engine to spool down below approximately 10 % N2 - Reopens the start air valve

- Motorizes the engine before attempting another start 27- Under what condition the auto start is discontinued in flight temporary? - EGT between start & takeoff EGT is reduced - Hung start is detected Note :X-BLD indication next to N2 indicates that the cross bleed start is

required for in flight start when wind milling is not sufficient or speed below 270 kts

28-What is the purpose of the first & second stage of the engine fuel flow? This to provide additional fuel pressure for fuel flow 29-What is the purpose of the fuel metering unit? 1-To measure the fuel flow 2-To adjust the fuel flow as required by the throttle position 30- When the EICAS “ENG FUEL VALVE” is displayed? When the spare valve or engine valve is not on the commanded position 31- When the EICAS “ENG START VALVE CUTOUT L/R” is displayed? Either - Start valve failed to close - Engine start switch remains on the start 32- When the EICAS “ENG AUTO START L/R” is displayed? 1- Auto starts ON and engine fails to start 2- Auto starts ON and EGT limit exceeded 3- Manually started and fuel control is selected to RUN too early

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33- How the EEC controls the thrust reverser? 1- When the thrust reverser throttles are positioned to open 2- Disengages auto-throttles 3- Deploy speed brake if it’s not ARM 4- The EEC then:

- Commands the hydraulic isolation valve to open the thrust reverser - And monitor & control the thrust limit

34- How the EEC inhibits the thrust reverser? The EEC inhibits reverser isolation valve actuation operation of thrust reverser unless:

1- Airplane on ground 2- Engine is running 3- Throttle in idle position *The inter lock is releases

35- What is the indication of reverser fully deployed? 1-The REV changed to green 2-A/T disconnect 3-Auto-speed brakes deployed if not perversely armed 36- Which indications are removed from EICAS when reverser is activated? 1- Max N1 line 2- Commanded N1 3- Reference / target N1 indication replaced by REV Note : The EEC continually computes the max N1 this is available at any

phases of flight 37-When does the reference target N1 become green or magenta? -Green : Reference N1 limit -Magenta: Target FMC commanded N1 when VNAV is engaged and either: -A/T is in THR or THR REF mode -A/T is not engaged 38- When the EEC can detect reverser fault conditions? - In reverser control system on ground with EICAS - During deployments then the lever will be locked on the idle position

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39- How the engines are monitored for vibrations? - Airborne vibration monitoring system is monitoring the N1 or N2 as respond to thrust lever adjustments & display the source of higher vibrations either N1 or N2 rotor vibrations - The BB indicates the Broad Band vibration when the source is unknown and average vibration detection is displayed for the effected engine Note: There is no certified vibration limit but when high vibration level is

reached the secondary engine page will auto displayed 40-What are the engine vibrations recoveries? By descending to lower level and reduce airspeed, if vibration level is unacceptable farther descent may be required. In some cases can be result of ice accumulations on the engine at low level during descent this may be required adding power to remove ice accumulations, while during climb at low level may be required reducing power back to idle or shutdown in sever vibrations conditions 41- What are the fuel movement’s stages from the tanks to the engines? - Fuel is pumped by the FWD & AFT pump in each tank to the spar valve - Passing the spar valve through heat exchanger to the fuel filter for contamination & there is no fuel bypass the filters - Then to the fuel metering units which:

-Monitored by EEC -Controlled by the throttles

- Then through the engine fuel valve which: -Controlled by fuel control switch -Engines fire handles

- Then to the engine through a sensor to provides engine fuel flow indications 42- How the engine oil is pressurized? By the engine driven oil pump 43- What are the oil limitations? - Only the minimum oil pressure is required by checklist - There is no oil limit as QTY as well as no crew procedures

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44- What are the engine oil movement’s stages? - Oil is pressured from the reservoir to - Engine oil filter or bypass the filter to - Oil heat exchanger then to - Backup generator oil/oil heat exchanger then to - Main engine bearing through a sensor to provide oil pressure & temperature indication then to

- Either to Scavenge pump then back to reservoir or - Accessory drives then a return line to the system 45- EICAS “ENG LIMIT PROT L/R” If the thrust lever position command N1 greater than the max rated thrust 46- EICAS “ENG RPM LIMITED” When N1 & N2 reach limited speed, If the throttles moves more the engines will not exceed more than the indicated this protection is controlled by the EEC, Which limiting the FF to the engine to prevent engine exceedance 47- EICAS “ENG THRUST” When airspeed above V1 & engine is not producing the commanded thrust 48- EICAS “ENG FAIL” When the engine is below idle speed & message remain until fuel control moves to CUTOFF or on takeoff below V1 and either engine not producing the commanded thrust 49- EICAS “ENG IDLE DISAGREE” If one engine is using approach mode while the other engine is using MIN idle 50- EICAS “ENG CONTROL” When on ground only & fault is detected in the engine 51- EICAS “ENG ANTI-ICE AIR” When engine anti-ice capability is degraded 52- EICAS “ENG FUEL VALVE” When either spar or engine fuel valve are in un-commanded position of closed/opened

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53- When the ENG FAIL message displays on PFD? When engine failure is detected with speed between 65 kts to 6 kts before V1 54- EICAS “ENG REV LIMIT” - Cannot by deployed when commanded - Can be deployed but limited to idle 55- EICAS “ENG REVERSER” On ground indicate thrust reverser fault 56- What is the max altitude to start & operate the APU? As the APU is a self-contain gas turbine engine it can be started and operated up to the airplane max certified altitude. 57- What is the APU output restrictions electrical & bleed air in flight?

1- The electrical power has the priority over bleed air 2- Electrical power is available throughout the airplane operating envelope 3- Bleed air is available at or below 22,000 feet.

58- Why the airplane battery must be ON to start the APU?

1- To operate the APU inlet door 2- Control fuel valve 3- Power the fire protection system 4- DC fuel pump

59- How does the APU start? The starter selection is automatic by either: - An electrical start motor:

- The APU battery powers the APU start shaft - The main airplane battery powers: - The inlet door - Fuel valve - Fire detection system.

- The air turbine starter (ATS): Uses engine bleed air or ground cart air to start the APU. 60- Which types of start has the priority over the other type? The starter selection is automatic whenever the APU selector is rotated to start & the air turbine starter has priority over the electrical start motor when there is sufficient bleed air duct pressure.

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61- How does the fuel supplies to APU & what are the conditions? From the left fuel manifold by the AC fuel pump, when AC power is available & APU selector in the ON position the LEFT FWD fuel pump will operate automatically. 62- If no AC power is available, how does the fuel supplies to APU? The DC fuel pump in the left main tank provides fuel to APU if no AC power in available or no AC pump pressurized the left fuel manifold. 63- On ground, can you start the APU without fuel pump? Yes APU can be started with no pumps operating. 64- When the APU will auto start? And with this feature can you shutdown APU? In flight if both AC transfer busses lose power (Failure of both main GEN & Backup GEN) regardless of APU selector position, APU can shut-down by the APU selector rotation to ON then OFF. 65- What will happen by rotating the APU selector to OFF / ON / START? OFF: - Close the APU bleed air isolation valve.

- Initiate normal shutdown. - EICAS advisory APU COOLDOWN, APU enters the cool-down period (105 sec).

- Rests the auto shutdown fault logic - Inlet door open (APU FAULT) illuminate momentarily - APU fuel valve closes

ON: - Begins the auto start sequence.

- Opens inlet door (APU FAULT) illuminate momentarily - Activates:

-Left FWD or DC fuel pump energized automatically. -Powers the APU starter - When APU inlet door reach fully opened starter engages. - If sufficient bleed is available the APU bleed air opens allowing operations of ATS, otherwise battery start will be provided

- After reaching proper speed Ignition & fuel are provided. - At approximately 50% starter disengaged & ignition will turn off. - Advisory on EICAS:

-APU RUNNING indicates operating normal -APU SHUTDOWN indicates auto-shutdown

START: - Momentary position initiates auto start sequence. - Switch is spring loaded to ON position

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66- What are the APU operation modes? - Attended Mode Operation:

When either engine is running or starting or airplane is in flight. - Unattended Mode Operation:

At all other times on the ground. 67- What are the differences between the APU operation modes?

- In the attended mode: ●Any of the following faults – causes immediate shutdown of the APU without a cool-down period & EICAS – APU SHUTDOWN displayed: -APU fire / inlet over-temperature -Over-speed / loss of over-speed protection -APU controller failure -Speed droop ●Any of the following faults – APU will continue to operate with EICAS – APU LIMIT, there is no cool-down period when the APU is shutdown after this message if: -High EGT -High oil temp -High oil pressure

68- Where the APU parameters displays? On the status page

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Fire

protection





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1- What are the areas covered by the fire detection & extinguishing system?

* Manually activate the fire extinguisher system & there is no cockpit indication for fire extinguisher system

2- When the ENG & APU fire detection system (dual loop) are tested & monitored? - Auto test at airplane power up - Continuously monitored for faults - Manually tested is provided 3- How many detectors (LOOPS) are in each engine? - There are two detector loops in each engine nacelle - Each detector loop provides both fire & overheats detection Note: Both loops or single loop operation can detect a fire or overheat

condition to generate a warning / caution 4-What would happen if fault is detected in one engine loop? System will automatically switch to a single loop operation 5-What would happen if faults are detected in both engine loops? -No fire & overheat detection is provided -EICAS “ DET FIRE ENG L/R “

Compartments Detection Extinguisher

system Smoke Overheat Fire APU -- -- X X Cargo X -- -- X Engines -- X X X Lavatories X -- X X Flight deck rest X -- -- -- Lower crew rest X -- -- X* Main gear wheel wells -- -- X -- Nose wheel well -- -- -- -- Purser station X -- -- --

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6- What are the engine fire warning indications? - Fire bell sound - Master WARNING light - EICAS warning message display FIRE ENG L/R - Engine fire switch L/R fire warning light - Engine fire switch unlocks (electrically unlocked when fire is detected) - engine FUEL CONTROL L/R switch fire warning light 7- What are the engine overheat caution indications? - Caution beeper sounds - Master CAUTION light - EICAS caution message displayed OVERHEAT ENG L/R 8- When the ENG BTL 1/2 DISCH or APU BTL DISCH light illuminates & EICAS advisory message displayed BOTTLE 1/2 DISCH ENG or BOTTLE DISCH APU? - If the extinguisher bottle is discharged or has low pressure 9- How is the APU detecting fire? The APU compartment has dual fire detector loops. Note: Both loops or single loop operation can detect a fire condition to

generate a warning & APU will automatically shutdown 10-What would happen if fault is detected in one APU loop? System will automatically switch to a single loop operation 11-What would happen if faults are detected in both APU loops? -No fire & overheat detection is provided -EICAS “ DET FIRE APU “ 12- What are the indications of APU fire? - Fire bell sounds - Master WARNING lights - EICAS warning message displayed FIRE APU - APU fire switch fire warning light - APU fire switch unlocks 13- What will happen if APU fire signal activated on ground with both engines off? APU will auto shutdown & auto discharge the extinguisher bottle

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14- How is the main wheel well detecting fire? The wheel well compartment has dual fire detector loops. 15- What are the indications of APU fire? - Fire bell sounds - Master WARNING lights - EICAS warning message displayed FIRE WHEEL WELL 16- Which cargo compartments have smoke detectors? The FWD & AFT cargo compartments have smoke detector & each compartment is divided into three zones & any zone can generate the fire warning 17- When the EICAS – DET FIRE CARGO FWD/AFT messages displayed? When the CARGO smoke detectors system are inoperative 18- What are the indications of cargo fire? - Fire bell sounds - Master WARNING lights - EICAS warning message displayed FIRE CARGO FWD/AFT - The CARGO FIRE FWD/AFT fire warning light 19- How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the cargo compartment? Five bottles 20- What will happen by selecting the ARM FWD/AFT cargo fire switches? The ARMED switches will illuminates indicates:

- Arm all cargo fire extinguisher bottles - Arm the selected compartment extinguisher valve - Turn off both lower recirculation fans - Shuts down cargo heat - Command the pack to provides minimum airflow required for pressurization - Shuts down the lavatory & galley vent fan - For AFT cargo fire : - the bulk cargo compartment

ventilation will be shuts down : - activate the LCR evacuation system

- For FWD cargo fire : the equipments cooling system switch to override mode

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21- What will happen by selecting the CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch in flight & on ground? - In flight :

- Immediate total discharge of two extinguishers into the selected compartment - After a time delay the remaining three extinguisher bottles discharger at a reduced flow rate into the selected compartment - If airplane land before the entire bottle discharged, one of the remaining bottle discharges at reduced rate on touchdown

- On ground :

- Immediate total discharge of two extinguishers into the selected compartment - After a time delay one of the remaining extinguisher bottles discharger at a reduced flow rate into the selected compartment

22- What are the indications when cargo extinguisher bottle discharged? - CARGO FIRE DISCHARGE switch light illuminates when the first two extinguisher bottles begin to discharge - EICAS advisory message displayed BOTTLE DISCH CARGO when the first two extinguisher bottles completely discharged 23- Why does the SMOKE CREW REST LWR message following an AFT CARGO FIRE message may displayed during descent? Because of pressure differences between the aft cargo compartment and lower crew rest compartment can cause a smoke to enter the compartment Note: - SMOKE CREW REST F/D & SMOKE CREW REST LWR

messages may be displayed whenever smoke is detected in the compartments.

- There is no fire extinguisher system for the flight deck rest compartment but the LCR compartment required a manually activation of the fire extinguisher system which has no cockpit indication.

24- What will happen by pulling the engine or APU fire handle? - Pulling the engine fire handle:

- ENG & Pare Fuel valve - close if not previously closed by the fuel switch - Bleed air valve - closed - Hydraulic engine-driven pump – depressurized & shut off the respective fluid - Engine generator breakers - trips off - Arm fire extinguisher

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- Pulling APU fire handle:

- APU shutdown if not previously shutdown - Fuel valve - close - Bleed air valve - close - Generator breakers - trips off - Inlet door - closed - Arm fire extinguisher

Note: Both engines & APU fire handle are electrically locked and the

respective fire handle will be released in case of fire 25- When the wheel well fire activate? When the wheel well compartment detects a fire condition (it’s not the brake temp.) Note: - It’s not the brake temperature

- Landing gear must be extended for at least 20 minutes after the message is removed

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

flight controls

system





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Introduction 1/9.20.1- What is the FLY-BY-WIRE means? It’s an electrical system to operates the flight controls rather than mechanical operation but always the pilot input override the flight controls computer 2/9.20.1 - Explanations: ACE : Actuator Control Electronic

It converts analog signals to digital signals then digital signal to analog signals, each ACE is assigned for different actuator. No ACE controls more than one actuator & some ACE are not assigned for flight control surfaces.

PFC : Primary Flight Computer

Continuously monitor the airplane responded to pilot command & positioning the flight control surfaces & calculate the flight control position commanded by pilot or autopilot commands. PFC receives: -The pilot inputs via ACE’s or auto-pilot input bypassing the ACE’s -Airplane system information -Verify the signals & computes the required control surfaces commands -Sends the commands to the ACE’s

NOTE : Auto-pilot commands also moves the control columns to provides indications of what the auto-pilot is doing

PCU : Primary Control Units Operates & positioning primary flight controls system ______________________________________________________________

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3/9.20.1-Why the purpose of ACE is to converts the signals? Because:

- The PFC can read only the digital signals - The PCU can read only the analog signals

4/9.20.1-What is the JAM override mechanism? If the jam occurs in a wheel or column, the pilot can maintain control by applying force to the other column or wheel to overcome the jam 5/9.20.1-What is the difference between the CAPT. & F/O control wheel? The F/O control wheel can be rotated approximately 8º beyond the initial stop if sufficient force is applied during the ground checks 6/9.20.2- When the EICAS “FLT CONTROLS” is displayed? Multiple ACE’s and/or hydraulic system failure causes lost of a significant number of control surfaces or other flight controls faults is detected 7/9.20.5- What are the primary flight control modes?

1- Normal mode 2- Secondary mode 3- Direct mode

8/9.20.5- When does the PFC performs self-test? About 2 minutes after hydraulic system shutdown & EICAS HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R is displayed, indicated by the following: -Various EICAS messages -Trim indicator information blinks - Various flight controls system failures in synoptic page 9/9.20.5- What are the flight envelope protections? This to reduce the possibility of exceeds the airplane flight envelope by alerting the crew & does not reduce the pilot control authority in case of:

1-Stall 2-Over-speed 3-Bank angle protections

Note : Available during manual flying and with auto-pilot engagement

and can be overridden by the pilot input

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10/CPT- What are the sources of information to updates the PFC?

1- Airspeed 2- Inertial data 3- Radio altimeter 4- Engine thrust 5- Angel of attack 6- Flap/slat position

11/CPT- Why it is required to do flight control check after engine start? To check for:

1- freedom movements 2- It returns back to center

WARNING Takeoff is allowed ONLY in NORMAL FLIGHT CONTROL mode

12/9.20.7- How the change can be accomplished between the flight control modes? - Normal mode to Secondary mode:

Will auto changed to Secondary mode: 1-If loss of required information from the aircraft system (airspeed) 2-Or an internal fault (internal data information to the PFC). 3-Indicated by auto-pilot disengagement & EICAS message “FLIGHT CONTROL MODE”

Note : There is no manual switching from normal to secondary mode. - Secondary mode to Direct mode:

Will auto changed to Direct mode: 1-If loss of all information from aircraft system including (AOA) to the PFC or 2-Faluires of all three PFC’s or 3-Loss of communications with the PFC’s

Will disconnect the PFC from the ACE’s allowing direct pilot input to the flight controls through the ACE & bypassing PFC Note : The direct mode can be selected manually by the primary flight

computer disconnect switch.

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13/9.20.8- What would happen in case of a complete electrical system shut-down? A connected cable from the flight deck to the stabilizer and spoilers # 4 & 11, they are mechanically controlled through cable from control wheel operational with left hydraulic system inanition ACE’s (as backup) 14/9.20.8- How & when does the airplane pitch responses automatically? The pitch control responses automatically minimized by PFC control surfaces commands (stabilizer motion) during the following conditions: (Normal mode) -Thrust changes -Turbulence -Gear configuration changes -Flaps & speed-brake configurations changes -Turn up to 30º of bank but more than 30º required column back pressure. 15/9.20.9- When the pitch control input is required during flight? During airspeed changes (normal mode) 16/9.20.9- When the primary pitch trim control is inhibited? During the auto-pilot engagement & does not move the control column 17/9.20.9- What is the stabilizer motion? It is an auto movement of the stabilizer to streamline the stabilizer & elevator for thrust & configuration changes 18/9.20.9/12- How does the primary & alternate pitch trim operates in the all modes? In normal mode: The pitch trim switches moves:

-On ground: The stabilizer directly -In flight: Input to the PFCs change the trim reference speed, which moves the elevators only then it will be stream line with the stabilizer

In secondary & direct mode: -Primary & alternate trim moves the stabilizer directly -No trim reference speed is available

19/9.20.9- What is the trim reference speed? It is a speed where the airplane stabilized without control column input; this is only in normal mode

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20/9.20.10- What is the purpose of the alternate pitch trim? -Normal mode: Moves the trim reference speed. -All other modes: Moves the stabilizer 21/9.20.10- How does the alternate pitch trim connected to the stabilizer? Alternate pitch trim lever are mechanically cable connected to the stabilizer via STCM stabilizer trim control modules. 22/9.20.10- Which pitches trim has the priority? The alternate pitch trim has the priority in all modes 23/9.20.10- What would happen if the alternate pitch trim is moved during the following conditions? -With auto-pilot engaged:

Does not move the stabilizer & does not disengage the autopilot -Stall or over-speed: Does not move control column forces Caution :Alternate pitch trim should not be used during autopilot

engage & stall & over-speed conditions 24/9.20.10- How does the system prevent stall? It limit the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed supported by A/T Speed : approximately the minimum maneuvering speed Trim : limit the trim reference speed so the trim is inhibited in nose up

direction (the primary & alternate trim) A/T : if the auto throttle is armed will activate if not previously activated

/ provided the A/T in SPD or THR REF mode when approaching near stick shaker

EICAS : AIRSPEED LOW is displayed Note: Continues farther pitch is required with full back pressure forces to

enter the stall (control column force is equivalent to OUT-OF-TRIM conditions

25/9.20.11-Under what conditions the auto-throttle will not be activated for stall conditions? -Pitch mode is FLCH or TOGA or -Airplane below 400” above airport on takeoff or -Below 100” radio-altimeter on approach or -VNAV speed during descent in HOLD mode or - System not operating in normal mode

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26/CPT- Which speed the A/T will maintain when stall condition exist? Either : Minimum maneuvering speed OR Selected speed in the window

whichever is greater 27/CPT- When the stick shaker activates? Stick shaker activation at (RED) minimum speed displayed on PFD airspeed tapes, if speed is lower than minimum maneuvering speed

- EICAS caution display AIRSPEED LOW Note :(NO ORAL WARNING) - If auto throttle is ARM then will auto engage prior to stick shaker to prevent speed reducing the stick shaker

28/9.20.11- How the over-speed protection system is provided? By limit the speed to which the airplane can be trimmed Speed : at VMO/MMO Trim : limit the trim reference speed by inhibiting the nose down direction

& alternate trim does not reduce the forces 29/CPT- When the over-speed protection system activates? Over-speed activation – When speed is over Vmo/Mmo -EICAS warning display OVERSPEED -Oral warning activates -If the control columns is released the system will reduces speed below Vmo/Mmo* Note : To reach the over-speed conditions required full forward pressure

on the control columns. *Vmo is Max operating speed *Mmo is Max operating mach

30/9.20.11- How the elevators feel FORCES operates in all modes? - Normal mode: PFC’s calculate the feel command

Variables based on airspeed, control columns forces increases with speed increases

- Secondary & Direct Mode:

Based on two fixed level of force (flaps movements) Flaps down - less force (for approach & landing controllability) Flaps up - Grater force (to prevent over control)

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31/9.20.12- How the stabilizers are powered & operate & controlled? - Powered by : The C & R hydraulic system - Each system is controlled & positioned by STCM - Operates by : Primary trim switch OR Alternate trim lever - Controlled by : ACE's or the stab cutoff switches STCM is Stab Trim Control Modula (one on each stabilizer) 32/9.20.12-What is the purpose of the STCM? It controls the hydraulic power to the stabilizer Note: One stab module can operate the stabilizer 33/9.20.12-What is the difference between the EICAS “STABILIZER-R” & “STABILIZER-C” or “STABILIZER”? “STABILIZER C/R” indicates which STCM is inoperative while the stabilizer is operational by the other STCM “STABILIZER” indicates that both STCM are shut-down or fail to stop the un-commanded motion 34/9.20.12-What is the purpose of the C/R stabilizer cut-out switches? It removes the hydraulics from the respective STCM 35/CPT- What is the difference between ELEVATOR & STABILIZER? ELEVATOR : Control the pitch command STABILIZER : Assist the elevators in controlling pitch command 36/CPT- What are the effects if the LEFT and/or the RIGHT hydraulic system pressure low condition? Auto-pilot will not conduct auto-land 37/9.20.12-What would happen if the stabilizer is manually shut-down or failed (normal flight control mode)? 1-Pitch trim still available 2-Trim input changes the PFC’s trim reference speed 3-PFC’s will reposition the elevator to trim the airplane 38/9.20.12- How does the un-commanded trim changes can be interrupted with a inoperative pitch trim switches? By displacing the control column to opposing direction

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39/9.20.13- What are the three green-band statements for takeoff? -The mid-band -The nose down-band (include the mid-band) -the nose up-band (include the mid-band) 40/9.20.13- How does the green-band is calculated? By the FMC inputs of CG, gross weight, takeoff thrust and flaps setting 41/9.20.13- What is the purpose og nose gear oleo switch? To provide an automatic cross check of the CG to ensure the correct green-band is selected 42/9.20.13- When the EICAS STAB GREENBAND is displayed? When the pressure switch and a green-band is disagree 43/9.20.13- When the green-band & pointer are not displayed? When the stabilizer signal is not present or invalid 44/CPT- How the elevators are powered & controlled?

Elevators Powered by Controlled by ACE

LEFT LEFT & CENTER Hydraulic System

LEFT-1 CENTER

RIGHT LEFT & RIGHT Hydraulic System

LEFT-2 RIGHT

45/9.20.13-What is the back-up for stabilizer position indication? FCTL synoptic page 46/CPT- When the hydraulic power is removed from the stabilizer? If un-commanded stabilizer is sensed hydraulic power will auto shutoff by closing STCM BUT The stabilizer remain operative by the remaining trim control module AND If both become inoperative trim still available PITCH TRIM INPUT --------- changes ---------- PFC trim reference speed reposition the elevator to trim the aircraft

47/9.20.13- Which surfaces provides roll? 1- Ailerons 2- Flaperons 3- Spoilers

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48/9.20.14- What is the purpose of bank angle protection? This to prevent the airplane of exceeding 35˚ & system is disabled by moving the auto-pilot bar to OFF Note: - Turn compensation : Back pressure not required

For bank of 30˚ or less - Conditions : In normal mode only & autopilot

bar is ON 49/CPT- When the ailerons & ailerons trim operate? The ailerons: - By the control column & it is locked at neutral during high speed flight - It moves with flaps 5˚ & 15˚ & 20˚ to improve takeoff performance & to increase left The ailerons trim: -By moving both ailerons trim switches -It is inhibited during autopilot engagement 50/9.20.13/17- How does the spoilers operate? -All three hydraulic system supply all the spoilers -Each hydraulic system supply a set of spoiler pairs to prevent symmetric

Spoilers 4 & 11 -Are mechanically controlled through cable from control wheel -They are available foe roll control unless speed brake lever is moved near up position then they function as speed brake -Secondary & direct mode 4 & 11 are luck out

Spoilers 5 & 10 -Luck-out during cruise based on altitude & speed -Operate only in ground as ground spoilers in all modes -Secondary & direct mode 5 & 10 are luck out

51/9.20.17- In which mode the automatic operation of speed brake is provided? Only in the normal mode 52/9.20.17- What is the automatic operation of speed brake? 1- When throttles are advanced for takeoff with speed brake lever extended, auto retraction of the lever will be provided 2- When takeoff is rejected speed brake will extend when the thrust reverser is opened 3- On landing: - Speed brakes are ARM and

- Landing gear is fully on ground and - Landing gear is not tilted and - Throttles are idle

- If it not ARM, it will extend by mechanical link when thrust reverser is raised

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53/CPT- What is the purpose of the Flaperons?

1- To increase left, it moves down with the flaps grater then 1º (NO INDICATIONS)

2- Assist the roll at High & Low speed flight (moves only upward) 54/CPT- In which mode the Flaperons operates? Only in normal mode 55/CPT- When the EICAS “SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED” displayed? When speed brakes are extended with the following conditions exists together:

1- Below 800” RA 2- Landing flaps is selected 3- Throttles are not in idle

56/CPT- What is the BACK DRIVE ACTUATOR? -It is an actuator attached to the control wheel and connected to the auto-pilot disengaged bare and Provides: - Turn protections during manual flying - Moves the control wheel during auto-pilot engage for references & feelings 57/CPT- When the stab trim switch and the alternate trim are inhibited? Stab trim switch : Is inhibited when auto-pilot is engaged Alternate pitch trim : When the stab trim cutout switches are in cutout 58/CPT- What are the high lift control system components? This to increase lift at low speed for T/O & L/D:

1- Two Outboard & Two inboard trailing edge flaps 2- Krueger flaps 3- Slats (7 on each wing)

59/CPT- When the rudder becomes aerodynamically effective in takeoff? At speed of 60 kts 60/9.20.15- Which components provide yaw controls? - Rudder pedals - Rudder trim - Rudder ratio - Yaw damper Note : Yaw damper is providing a turning coordination and to prevent

Dutch roll & available as long as the inertial data is available to PFC

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61/9.20.14/16- What is the purpose of rudder ratio unit? It is automatically reduces the rudder deflection for a given pedal input as the airspeed increases to protect the vertical tail structure from stresses while sufficient rudder is available during takeoff engine out and/or landing and/or cross wind condition based on the mode of operation as follow:

- In the normal mode: Rudder movements based on airspeed changes: - High speed or acceleration: Small rudder deflection is allowed - Low speed or deceleration: Full rudder deflection is allowed - In the secondary & direct mode: Rudder movements based on flap changes (very sensitive): - Flaps up : Less rudder restriction - Flaps down : More rudder restriction

62/9.20.16- In which mode the rudder trim operates? In all modes of operations 63/9.20.16- What is the purpose of rudder trim cancel button? Rest the rudder trim to zero at high rate 64/9.20.16- In which mode the rudder trim cancel operates? In normal & secondary mode only (has no effect on TAC operation) 65/CPT- How the yaw control system operates? 1- Inputs from: Rudder trim & rudder ratio & yaw damper to the PFC 2- Inputs from PFC & rudder pedals to ACE’s then to the PCU to rudder 66/9.20.16- In which mode the gust suppression transducer operates? Only in the normal mode (located inside the vertical stabilizer) 67/9.20.16- What is the purpose of gust suppression? This to reduce the effects of lateral gust & improves lateral ride quality through a combination of yaw & roll without any indications 68/9.20.15- What is the purpose of the TAC? To control & reduces the un-commanded flight path changes associated with engine out.

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69/9.20.15- When the TAC (Thrust Asymmetry Compensation) operates? 1-The system is armed above 70 kts 2-The system continuously monitors the engine data to determine the thrust level from each engine 3-The system operates automatically with or without auto-pilot engagement by adding rudder to minimize the yaw if:

- Engine data for asymmetric thrust or - The throttles are splits more than 10 %

NOTE : operation does not result in either rudder pedal or control wheel movement

70/9.20.15- When the TAC (Thrust Asymmetry Compensation) does not operate? The system does not operate:

- During thrust reverser operation - Manual selection of TAC switch to OFF -TAC system fault or failure - Engine thrust data lost / damaged / surge - Airspeed is below 70 kts on ground - Secondary and direct mode

71/CPT-Why the TAC operates above 70 kts? Because the rudder become aerodynamically at 60 kts 72/9.20.15-Why the TAC does not operate if engine thrust data lost, damaged, surge? Because there is no accurate information of the engine thrust to the TAC system 73/9.20.15- What are the indications of TAC operation? Indications by: - Auto rudder input in low altitude only - Auto rudder trim indicated on the rudder trim indication Note: 1-TAC can be overridden by manually adding rudder

3-Rudder trim cancelation switch has no effect on the TAC operation 74/9.20.15- What is the wheel-to-rudder cross tie feature? It is a function where the initial engine out on takeoff can be controlled by the control wheel input only by: - When the wheel inputs deflect the rudder up to 8˚ - Airspeed below 210 kts - TAC is operational (CPT) - Normal mode only

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SUMMARY During auto-land with single engine the TAC will maintain the directional control of rudder on final & landing until the reverse is in use then the auto-pilot will take over by rollout mode to maintain the localizer centerline by rudder and steering until manual disengage of auto-pilot 75/9.20.18- When the flap/slat handle movement is inhibited? - Above FL-200 - Speed above 265 kts Note: Load relief will be displayed if the flap handle is moved while the

flaps movements are inhibited 76/9.20.18- How the slats movements controlled by the flap handle in primary mode? - Selecting flaps to 1˚: Moves the slates to (sealed position) MID range only & flaps stay at up - Selecting flaps more than 20˚: Moves the slats to (gapped position) fully extend & flaps as commanded Note : The slates extend first & retract last 77/9.20.17- What is the purpose of Krueger flap? To provides seal between outboard & inboard slats & engine nacelles 78/9.20.17- How the Krueger flaps operates? It has two position (extend/retract) by selecting flaps to 1˚ 79/9.20.18- What are the modes of operation for the flaps? 1- Primary mode: Uses Center hydraulic motor in the flap/slat drives through two FCEU 2- Secondary mode: Uses electrical motor in the flap/slat drives through two FSEU 3- Alternate mode: Uses electrical motor in the flap/slat drives bypassing two FSEU 80/9.20.18- Is it possible that the flaps & slats operations independently? Yes, the flaps & slats operations can be independently except in the alternate mode of operation

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81/9.20.18- How the flaps/slats operate in all modes? Flap & slats movements by signal from flap handle to FSEU then it moves the flaps & slats by the flap/slats drives based on the mode of operation: Primary mode: Powered by the center hydraulic system & operated by hydraulic motor Secondary & alternate modes: Powered by the left & right AC busses & operated by electrical motor 82/9.20.19- When the system will switch to secondary mode? If the primary mode fails to move the flaps and/or slats to the selected position 83/9.20.19- When the system will return to the primary mode of operation? Until the effected system surface is fully retracted or the center hydraulic system is restored. 84/9.20.19- What would happen if the flaps primary mode is failed? 1- Auto switching to secondary mode 2- Expanded flaps/slats position indicator for each wing 3- Speed of travel is slower than normal (electrical ops) 85/9.20.19- Explain the flaps & slats movements in the secondary mode? -Flaps & slats movements are electrically -Slats will be fully extended at all flaps position except if speed higher than 239 kts 86/9.20.19- Why does the slat extend to fully extend position with all flaps position whiles the system in secondary mode? This feature, to improve stall handling characteristics. 87/9.20.20- How the slats load relief operates? 87/9.20.19- What would happen if the speed exceeds 239 kts while the slats are fully extend in the secondary mode? Slats will be retracted to the mid range position & will not extend beyond the mid range position (slats load relief) 88/9.20.19- What would happen to the slats if it in the mid range with flaps between 1 to 20 and the system switch to the secondary mode? It will stay in the mid position until the flaps either extended beyond 20 or fully retracted

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89/9.20.19- When the secondary electrical mode is inhibited on ground for extending or retracting flaps? - Ground speed less than 40 kts and - Center hydraulic pressure is low and - Two of the following: - Left engine N2 % is less than 50 % - Right engine N2 % is less than 50 % - Primary external power is available 90/9.20.19- How does the system can refer to alternate mode? Manual selection of alternate mode is required 91/9.20.19- What would happen by selecting ALT FLAPS switch to ARM? 1- Allow direct control of manual operation for flap & slat electrically 2- Disable the normal control 3- Arming the alternate mode 4- Engaging the secondary electrical drive motor 5- Flap lever is no longer control the flap & slat 6- Display the expanded format for flaps & slats indication 92/9.20.19- Explain the flaps & slats movements in the alternate mode? -Flaps & slats movements are electrically -Flaps & slats extend simultaneously -Slats will not retracted until the flaps are fully retracted -Slats movements is limited to mid position only -Flaps movements is limited to 20 position only -Asymmetry protection & un-commanded motion protection & auto-slat & flaps/slats load relief are not available SUMMARY 1- Auto switching to secondary mode 2- Expanded flaps/slats position indicator for each wing 3- Speed of travel is slower than normal 4- Selecting flaps to 1˚:

- The slats moves to fully extend & speed is less than 239 kts - Secondary mode engaged until flaps are retracted or hydraulic control is restored

5- Slats load relief operates, If the speed exceed 239 kts slats retract to MID and will not extend beyond MID range or flaps retracted or extended beyond 20˚

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93/CPT-Explanation of selection: 1- Arming the ALT FLAPS by passing the FSEU to the flap/slat drives (secondary electrical motor) 2- Expanded flaps/slats position indicator for each wing with flaps 5˚ & 20˚ & it is limited to 20˚ position 3- Slats is limited to MID position are only available & will not retract until flaps are up 94/67- How the flaps load relief operates? With flap extended between 15˚ to 30˚ and airspeed is exceeded the flap’s placarded speed, auto retraction of flaps is provided (without flap handle movement) until airspeed is reduced then auto extended to the commanded position BUT retraction of flaps is limited to flaps 5˚ only & LOAD RELIEF will be displayed. 95/9.20.20- In which mode the flaps load relief operates? Only in the primary mode 96/9.20.20- In which mode the slats load relief operates? Why? - Only in the secondary mode - Because the slate extend to fully extend position with flap movement to 1˚ 97/9.20.20- What is the auto slats protection? -Auto slats system is armed at flap position of 1, 5, 15, and 20 (primary mode), This to enhances the airplane stall characteristics -By auto extend of the slats from the mid position to fully extended position when receiving stall signals & auto retract few second when stall signal is removed 98/CPT- What is the purpose of FSEU (Flap Slat Electronics Units)? Control & monitor flap/slats operation in primary & secondary mode 99/9.20.20- When the flap/slat uncommented motion accurse? 1- Flaps/slats moves away from the commanded position 2- Continue to moves after reading a commanded position OR 3- Move in a direction opposite to the commanded position 100/9.20.20- What would happen if un-commanded motion is detected? While operating in the primary flaps mode and system detect an un-commanded flaps motion, system will shut-down and transfer to the secondary flaps mode or while operating in the primary slats mode and system detect an un-commanded slats motion, system will shut-down and transfer to the secondary slats mode

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101/9.20.20- When the EICAS “FLAP DRIVE” displayed? 1- Flaps asymmetry is detected 2- Hydraulic & electrical drive motor failed 3- Uncommented motion 102/9.20.20- When the EICAS “SLAT DRIVE” displayed? 1- Slats asymmetry is detected 2- Hydraulic & electrical drive motor failed 3- Uncommented motion 103/CPT- When the EICAS “FLAP/SLAT CONTROL” displayed? If the primary & secondary modes are failed Note: To perform an alternate operation mode, manual selection of ALT

mode is required 104/9.20.21- What would happen if the flaps/slats position sensor is failed? The flap’s tape and lever position is no longer displayed 105/CPT- When the EICAS warning “FLAP CONFIG” displayed? If the flaps or slats are not set for takeoff SUMMARY The difference between the expanded format in the secondary & alternate mode while both mode using different electrical motor to extend and retract the flaps but, In alternate mode the expanded format is display of flap 5 & 20 position and it is limited to flap 20 only

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NON-NORMAL 106- What would happen if one control columns or wheel is jams? Applying forces to other control columns or wheel will override the jams 107- What would happen if the Center OR Right stab cutout / or fail? Pitch trim through pitch trim switch or alternate pitch trim levers but in reduced rate 108- What would happen if the Center AND Right stab cutout / or fail? Pitch trim is available in the normal mode through the PFC by positioning the elevator to trim the airplane

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109- When the EICAS display for: “CONFIG STABILIZER” : If stabilizer is not set to the green band

for T/O “CONFIG RUDDER” : If rudder is not centered by 2 or more

unites for T/O 110- When the EICAS “FLIGHT CONTROL” displayed? Either: Failures of ACE and/or hydraulic loss of some control surfaces OR - Other flight control system faults 111- Why the EICAS “HYD PRESS SYS L+C+R” displayed after normal shutdown? PFC (self test) during the test the system evaluate the status

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

FUEL

system





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1-12.20.1- What does the fuel system consist of? - Center tank - Main tanks - Surge tanks - Quantity sensor - Temperature sensor - Fuel pumps - Jettison pumps - Fuel crossfeed valve 2-12.20.1-How the fuel quantity is calculated & displayed? FQIS : Fuel quantity indicating system uses fuel height & density

- To calculate fuel in kilograms then total fuel it will be displayed in EICAS & expanded format will be displayed in non-normal. - Sensing the fuel temperature & displayed on EICAS

3-12.20.1- What are the colures for the fuel temperate indications? - White : Normal display in EICAS - Amber : When approaching the fuel freeze temperature entered on CDU 4-12.20.1- When the fuel temperature indication will be removed from EICAS? During jettison the TO REMAIN quantity replaces the fuel temperature. 5-12.20.1/2-What are the difference between the main & center fuel pumps? The main tanks:

-Each tank has two AC powered fuel pumps -If the pump/s is switched of PRESS lights illuminate & EICAS advisory message displayed - Left FWD pump will operates automatically regardless of switch position to supply fuel to the APU on ground, amber pressure light extinguished -The left main tank has a DC pump with automatic operation:

-To provide fuel to the APU when AC power is not available & APU selector is ON and & DC pump will turned off whenever AC power is available (page20.6) - Quick relight in flight for the left engine with loss of both engines and all AC power (page20.6) - (no control of the pump / indication is only available in fuel synaptic page when APU running)

The center tank: -Has two AC fuel pumps called Override/Jettison pumps.

-Both pumps operates on ground only if two electrical powers are available, with only one power source is available the PRESS light of the unpowered side will illuminate & EICAS message is inhibited.

-The pumps functions are:-

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-It Override:

-The main tanks. -Higher output pressure than the main tanks pumps. -In order to use the center before the main tanks.

-It Jettison:

-The center tank fuel when the system is activated Note: - Each tank pump can supply sufficient fuel to operate one engine

under all conditions. - On ground one or both Center fuel pumps may be a load shed this will be indicated only be amber pressure light on the switch and EICAS message is inhibited

6-12.20.2- What is the purpose of surge tanks? Surge tanks are provided in each outboard main tank, to drain the remaining fuel in the refueling manifold to the main tanks 7-20.2- What is the difference between the following EICAS messages FUEL IN CENTER & FUEL LOW CENTER & FUEL PUMP CENTER? EICAS - FUEL IN CENTER

If fuel in the center is available and the center fuel pumps are OFF EICAS - FUEL LOW CENTER One or both pump switches are ON & center tank quantity is low EICAS - FUEL PUMP CENTER L/R One or both pump output pressure is low 8-12.20.2- What are the conditions required to operates the scavenge pump system? System will operates automatically to transfer remaining fuel from the center to the main tanks without controls and indications but required:

- Main tank pumps are ON - Center tank quantity is less than 15,900 Kgs - Either main tank quantity is less than 13,100 Kgs

9-12.20.2- If the fuel system is downgraded to suction feed, how the system will operates? Each engine can effectively draw fuel from its respective main tank through section feed lines bypassing the pumps once the dissolved air is depleted.

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10-20.2- What's the dissolved air? As the airplane climb and air pressure is decrease dissolved air releases, as the section feed system operates this air may be collected resulting of engine flameout during high altitude therefore system design to deplete the dissolved air after reaching cruise. The depletion time based on altitude, fuel temperature and type of fuel, Otherwise will restrict the section feed 11-12.10.4/20.3- What are the indications fuel imbalances? 1- EICAS message FUEL IMBALANCE if imbalanced reached approximately 900 Kg (CPT) 2- Expanded fuel quantity indications with a solid amber pointer 3- Solid amber replace white pointer:

- Main tank differences more then 500 Kgs - Main tank differences more then 100 Kgs & crossfeed is opened

Caution - Pointer will flashing indicate fuel balanced in wrong direction - When balance within 100 Kgs FUEL QTY replaced by FUEL BALANCED in the expanded fuel quantity and flashing for 5 second

12-12.20.3- What are the fuel balanced procedures? - Opening either crossfeed valve - Turn off the fuel pumps in the lower quantity tank 13-12.20.4- What are the fuel tanks capacities? - Center : 79,300 Kgs - Main : 29,100 Kgs - Based on density of 0.8029 Kg/L 14-12.20.6- Where is the fuel jettison nozzle outlet location? Located on each wing trailing edge side inboard of each aileron 15-12.20.6- What will happen by selecting fuel jettison ARM switch to armed? 1-ARMED light illuminate 2-EICAS fuel temperature replaced by FUEL TO REMAIN based on MLW 3-Jettison portion will be indicated in fuel synoptic page with FUEL TO REMAIN

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16-12.20.6- What is the minimum fuel guaranteed to remain in the tanks? - Main tanks : 5,200 Kgs - Center tank : All fuel can be jettison 17-CPT- Which fuel tank is feeding the engines while in jettison operation for all tanks? - The main tanks will be feeding the engines - While the center pumps are operating as a jettison pumps only 18-CPT- When the EICAS “FUEL QTY LOW” displayed? When any main tanks reach 2.0 19-CPT- What is the indications completions of fuel jettison? 1- Fuel to remain : Flashes 2- Jettison pumps : Auto deactivated 3- Jettison isolation : Valves automatically closed Note: - Manual selection to close the R/L NOZZLE is required

- The system will not automatically closes the nozzles valves to ensure no fuel is remaining in the jettison manifold

20-12.20.6- With auto operation of jettison fuel and airplane is heavy with near the forward CG, how the fuel jettison system will operates? - Fuel will be jettison from the center keeping CG with in limit - Main tank jettison will be delayed 21-CPT- Which valves will be closed if the engine fire handle is pulled? Both engine fuel vale and spar valve will close 22-12.10.2- What will happen by selecting the L and/or R NOZZLE valve? - Valves open in FLT ONLY inhibit on ground regardless of switch position - Turn on both main tank jettison pump - If the center tank fuel pumps are on it will operate as jettison pump - Open both center tank jettison isolation valve - Jettison time will be displayed on the synoptic page 23-12.10.3- What are the functions for FUEL TO REMAIN selector? - In detent: Auto operation of the system, fuel to remain based on MLW

and MLW will be indicated in white - Pull on: Manual operation of the system, fuel to remain can be set in

the EICAS, indicated by amber MAN (If the selector bushed in will return to auto operation)

- DECR/INCR:Increase or decrease fuel to remain quantity, selector has fast & slow detent

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24-12.10.4- When expanded fuel quantity indications displayed in EICAS? 1- One or both crossfeed valves are open 2- One or more fuel tank quantity indications are inoperative 3- EICAS – FUEL IN CENTER - with center quantity is amber 4- EICAS – FUEL QTY LOW - low main tank quantity is amber 5- EICAS – FUEL IMBALANCE 25-How many fuel pumps are installed in for the fuel system? A total of 13 pumps are installed in the tanks as: On the center tank (4 pumps):

-Two AC override/jettison pumps (with two functions) -Two scavenge pumps automatically transfer any residual center tank fuel into the main tanks

On the main tanks (7 pumps): -Two AC pumps on each tank -One jettison pump on each tank -One DC pump on the left tank only The engine pumps (2 pumps):

-One engine fuel pump are installed on each engine & controlled by the respective fire handle

26- How many valves are in the fuel system? Total of 15 valves:

1- Two crossfeed valves 2- Two center jettison isolation valves 3- Two NOZZLE valves 4- Two engine fuel valves 5- Two spar valves 6- Four scavenge valves 7- One APU fuel valve

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

HYDRAULICS system





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1/13.20.1- How many hydraulic systems powering the airplane? They are three systems: - Left - Right - Center 2/13.20.1- Which hydraulic system powering the flight controls? All flight control system components are distributed to be powered by any hydraulic system to provide adequate controllability & any one system can power the flight control for a safe flights 3/13.20.1- How the hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized? It's pressurized by the bleed air system. 4/13.20.1- What are the items powered by the left & right hydraulic system? - The left hydraulic system powered

- Flight controls - The left engine thrust reverser

- The right hydraulic system powered: - Flight controls - The right engine thrust reverser - Normal brakes

5/13.20.1- How many hydraulic pumps installed in the left & right hydraulic system? Each hydraulic system (left & right) have the one primary & one demand pumps. 6/13.20.1- What is the difference between the L/R Primary & Demand hydraulic pumps? - Primary pumps: The left & right are engine-driven by its respective engine. - Demand pumps: The left & right are electrical motor-driven. 7/13.20.1- What is the purpose of the left & right demand pumps? The demand pumps provide: - Supplementary hydraulic power in high demand conditions (T/O & L/D) - Backup hydraulic power source for the engine-driven primary pumps. 8/13.20.1/2- What are the AUTO & ON positions provide, in the DEMAND L/R selector? AUTO position : L/R demand pumps operate for takeoff, landing

(as additional system output is required) -When the system or primary pressure is low. - Right demand pump operate continuously on ground.

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ON position : L/R demand pumps operate continuously &

override the auto logic 9/13.20.2- (In AUTO position) why does the right demand pump operate continuously on ground? Because the right hydraulic system powering the normal brakes & pump will auto shutdown after takeoff 10/13.20.2- What are the items powered by the center hydraulic system? - Flight controls - Leading edge slats - Trailing edge flaps - Landing gear actuation - Alternate brakes - Reserve brakes - Nose gear steering - Main gear steering 11/13.20.2- How the RAT is powered & what does it supply? - Powered by air stream - Supply hydraulic power to the center hydraulic system (Primary flight control components only) 12/13.20.2- What are the centre hydraulic system primary pumps? There are two electrical motor-driven primary pumps (C1 & C2) 13/13.20.2- Under what conditions the C2 primary hydraulic pump will not operate? - On ground the ELMS software will load shed C2 pump if single ground power source including APU only but will not be load shed if one engine generator is operating - C2 will not operate if the C1 primary pump is selected ON 14/13.20.2- Under what conditions the C2 primary hydraulic pump will not be load shed on ground? Under one of the following conditions

- One engine generator is operating OR - Primary & secondary external power are available OR - APU generator & primary external power are available

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15/13.20.2- Under what conditions the C2 primary hydraulic pump will be load shed in flight? Load shed by ELMS when the following condition are exist:

- All other electrical pumps are running - When operating under single electrical power source - When generator capacity is exceeded

Note: The C2 primary pump will auto start when the load shed conditions are no longer exists.

16/13.20.3- How many centers hydraulic system demand pumps are installed and how they are powered? There are two air-driven demand pumps (C1 & C2) powered by bleed air 17/13.20.3- What is the purpose of the center hydraulic demand pumps? The center demand pumps provide

- Supplementary hydraulic power in high demand conditions - Backup hydraulic power source for the center hydraulic electrical motor-driven primary pumps.

18/13.20.3- What are the AUTO & ON positions provide, in the DEMAND C1 & C2 selector? AUTO position: Operates when the system and/or primary pumps pressure

is low OR when the system logic anticipates higher demand

-Both pumps will operates during takeoff roll anticipating for landing gear retraction then pumps will auto shutdown

- One pump operates required to extend the landing gear (either pump operates alternately): - By flying sectors, will operate to extend the landing gear. - By flaps handle selection for retractions or extensions on flight

ON position: The demand pumps operate continually & override the auto

logic 19/13.20.3- What will happen by selecting both DEMAND C1 & C2 to ON? Only C1 will operate, Selection of both pumps to ON inhibit the operation of C2 pump in the same times (as system logic). 20/13.20.3- When the reserve brakes, nose gear actuation and steering, and leading edge slats are isolated from center hydraulic system? If the center hydraulic system is sensed low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots

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21/13.20.3- What will happen if the center hydraulic system sensed low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots? - Reserve brakes are isolated from the center system and remain operational, - Nose gear actuation and steering are isolated - Leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary mode (hydraulic) Note: The C1 pump and reserve fluid are dedicated to operating

reserve brakes and nose gear steering 22/13.20.3- When the leading edge slats are reconnected to the center hydraulic system and allowed to operate in the primary mode? When the following conditions exist:

- Center hydraulic fluid quantity recovers to normal for 5 seconds AND - The system determines that both engines have been running for

more than 30 seconds 23/13.20.3- When the nose gear actuation and steering are reconnected to the center hydraulic? When the following conditions exist: 1- Airspeed decreased below 60 knots OR 2- Hydraulic pressure to the center system flight controls goes low OR 3- The landing gear is selected down AND

- Both engines are normal AND - Both engine-driven pumps are providing pressure

24/CPT- Why it is required to start with the right demand pump before starting the engine whiles it is the last pump to be turned off after shutdown? This procedure to prevent hydraulic fluid transfer 25/13.20.4- When the RAT will deploy automatically and manually? -Automatically if one of the following exists:

- Both engines are failed and center system pressure is low - Both AC transfer busses are unpowered

- All three hydraulic system pressures are low -Manually by: Pushing the RAT switch 26/13.20.4- What does the RAT provides? Hydraulic power only to the primary flight control components connected to the center hydraulic system. 27/13.20.4- What are the conditions to perform RAT operation? - The hot battery or APU battery bus must be powered - The center hydraulic system is not required to be powered

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28/13.20.4- How the RAT deployment operates? The RAT is deployed by a compressed spring 29/13.20.4- How the RAT can be re-stowed? Once the RAT is deployed cannot be stowed in flight 30/13.20.4- Which items become inoperative if:

- Left primary pump become inoperative? Left thrust reverse may be inoperative - Left hydraulic system become inoperative? Left thrust reverse & autoland - Right primary pump become inoperative? Right thrust reverse may be inoperative - Right hydraulic system become inoperative? Right thrust reverse & normal brakes & auto brakes & autoland

31/13.20.4- Why the autoland cannot be conducted if the left or right hydraulic systems become inoperative? Because the elevators are powered by the left and right system

NOTE Limit cross wind to 20 kts incase of dual hydraulic system failure is anticipated

CONTROLS & INDICATIONS

32/13.10.1- What is the (PRESS) green light indicates in the RAT switch? - The RAT is deployed - The center system primary flight control hydraulic pressure is greater than 1500 psi 33/13.10.1- What is the (UNLKD) amber light indicates in the RAT switch? The RAT is not in the stowed position

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34/13.10.2- What is the ON light indicates in the L/R primary pumps switches? The engine-driven pump pressurizes the L/R hydraulic system when the engine rotates 35/13.10.2- How the deactivation (OFF position) is indicated in the L/R & C1/C2 primary pumps switches? When the ON light is not visible indicates and -L/R primary pumps – The engine driven pumps is turned off & depress -C1/C2 primary pumps – The elect-driven pumps is selected off 36/13.10.2- What is the ON light indicates in the C1 & C2 primary pumps switches? 1- The electric motor-driven pump operates 2- Pressurized the center hydraulic system 37/13.10.2- What is the (FAULT) amber light indicates in the L/R & C1/C2 primary & demand hydraulic system? - Low pump pressure - Excessive primary pump fluid temp - Pump is selected OFF 38/13.10.3- What are the LO-(amber) & OF-(white) & RF-(white) indicate in the hydraulic display system and STATUS display? - LO-(amber) : When the reservoir quantity is low - OF-(white) : When the reservoir is over-refilling (inhibited in flight) - RF-(white) : when the reservoir required refilling (inhibited in flight) 39/13.10.3- What is the normal service level indicated in the hydraulic system display? Reservoir quantity as a percentage & normal service level is 1.00 40/13.10.3- What is the crew actions required in the flight control hydraulic power switches? NO CREW ACTION in normal or non-normal procedures to operate with those switches therefore operation of those switches is ground maintenance use only 41/13.10.5- What will happen if the L or R engine fire switch is pulled? - Close the engine-driven pump supply shutoff valve - Depressurized the engine-driven pump

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42/13.10.5- What would happen by replacing the center system flight control shutoff valve to SHUTOFF during flight? Valve is isolated from electrical power and cannot be closed

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Landing

gear





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1- What is the power supply to the following components?

Normal & alternate landing gear extinction & retraction

Normal brake

Center hydraulic system Right hydraulic system

Alternate/reserve brake Anti-skid protection Center hydraulic system R & C hydraulic system

2- Where is the air/ground sensors located? Sensors are installed on each main landing gear beam 3- How the landing gears are held up? The landing gear hydraulic system depressurized after all doors are closed and held up by the up-locks 4-What are the normal landing gear indications? D O W N : Landing gear is down & locked /////////// : Landing gear is on transit UP : Landing gear is up & locked & indication for 10 second : Blanc indicates landing gear is in the up locked position 5-What are the landing gear door indications? /////////// : Landing gear door is on transit

: Blanc indicates landing gear door position is inoperative G R E E N : Landing gear door is down & locked W H I T E : Landing gear door is up & locked 6- What are the normal landing gear extinction sequences? - Landing gear handle : Down - Landing gear doors : Opened - Landing gear : Unlocks - L/D gear movements : Free-fall (without hydraulic to down & luck

position) - Landing gear doors : closed - Landing gear trucks : Hydraulically tilt to flight position

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SUMMARY - Center hydraulic system: . - Opens & closes all landing gear doors . - Retract the nose & main gear . - Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear

when it’s up & locked & all doors are closed . - Hydraulic pressure force the landing gear to mechanical

locks during retraction & unlock the landing gear for extension

7- How the ALTERNATE GEAR extinction operates? The system use dedicated DC powers by alternate extend electric hydraulic pump and center hydraulic system fluid to extend the landing gear:

- Selecting down position releases all doors & gear up-locks - Landing gear free-fall to down & locked position Note : Landing gear lever has no effect on Landing gear alternate

extinction - Landing gear will not tilt - Landing gear doors will not closed

- Following alternate gear extension landing gear can be retracted & extended be the normal system if operational

8- What is the power source to the nose wheel steering? By center/reserve hydraulic system 9- What is the power source to the main gear aft axel steering? By the center hydraulic system 10- What are the nose wheel steering limits? - Steering by tiller is limited to : 70˚ R/L - Steering by rudder is limited to : 7˚ R/L Note : Tiller inputs override rudder pedal inputs if used on the same times 11- When the main gear aft axel steering operates? - Automatically when only the nose wheel steering exceed 13˚ R/L to reduce tire scrubbing Note : The main gear aft axel steering turns opposite direction of the nose

wheel steering

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12- What is the difference between the EICAS messages? - CONFIG GEAR STEERING Takeoff power is set and the main gear aft axles are not centered and locked - MAIN GEAR STEERING When main gear steering actuators are not in the centered position when commanded to center position

13- How the alternate/reserve brake system is activated? Auto activation of the system is provided whenever the right hydraulic system pressure is low 14- When the BRAKE SOURCE light & EICAS displayed? When the right hydraulic failed and center/reserve hydraulic system is lost or fail Note : Pressure stored on the brake accumulator is used for - Setting parking brake & - Limited brake applications after landing 15- How the brake is provided if the right and center/reserve hydraulic system is lost? An accumulator can provides several braking applications or barking brake application 16- Which braking system is protected by anti-skid system? All braking system is protected by anti-skid system (Normal, Auto brake, Alternate/Reserve, Brake accumulator) 17- How the anti-skid is provided to the brakes & wheels? - Normal brakes : Provided to each main gear wheel individual –

When the associated anti-skid valve opened it reduces brake pressure until skidding stops

- Alternate brakes : Provided to Both FWD & MID wheels together &

the aft axle wheel remain individual controlled as the following:

L-FWD R-FWD L-MID R-MID L-AFT R-AFT

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18- When the ANTISKID – EICAS message displayed? - One or more Anti-skid fault affecting the brake hydraulic system on same track - Barking valve is not fully opened with barking brake is released - Anti-skid system inoperative 19- When the auto brake system operates for takeoff & landing? - Takeoff :

- RTO is selected - Throttles are idle - Speed above 85-knots

Note : RTO is the maximum braking obtained

- If rejecting below speed of 85 system will not operates - RTO can be selected only on ground - Landing : Auto brake is selected

- Throttles are idle - Wheels have spun up

20- What are the differences between numbers in auto brakes selector? - 1 & 2 : Auto brake application delays slightly after touchdown - 3 & 4 : Auto brake application slightly after touchdown - MAX : Auto brake is limited to level-4 until pitch angle is less than 1˚ Note : Auto brake level can be changed without disarming the system

- Auto brake reduces pressure to decelerate until complete stop or system disengagement

21- How the anti-skid extends service life and reduces brake sensitivity during taxi? During taxi with speed below 45 knots: (this provided with normal brakes only) Antiskid system releases the brakes of one axle pair of each main landing gear; therefore the system sequences the axle pairs at each brake application 22- When the auto brake is disarmed manually or automatically? - Manually: 1- Moving selector to DISARM or OFF

2- Advancing throttles after rejecting or landing 3- Retracting speed brake lever 4- Applying brakes

Note : 2, 3 & 4 EICAS AUTOBRAKES displayed & system will be deactivated

but the switch will not move to OFF

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- Automatically: - Auto brake fault

- Anti-skid system fault - Loss data from ADIRU - Loss of normal braking after auto brake applications

Note : Auto brake selector automatically move to DISARM after landing

when system is disarmed - Auto brake disarmed during takeoff the selector remain RTO but selector automatically move to OFF after takeoff OR if under MEL may required manual selection to OFF

23- Which system provides parking brake application? The normal & alternate & accumulator 24- Which system provides pressure to the accumulator? By the right hydraulic system only 25- Why it is required to depress both brake pedals to set the parking brakes? The system mechanically latches the pedals in the depressed position & command the parking brakes valve to close by pulling the parking brake lever 26- What are the brake temperature ranges? - 0 to 2.9 : Are normal (blank) - 3.0 to 4.9 : The brake symbol for the hottest brake becomes solid white - 5.0 to 9.9 : Are amber associated with EICAS – BRAKE TEMP 27- What are the tire pressure ranges? Individual tire pressure is displayed 0 – 400 PSI 28- When EICAS – TIRE PRESS displayed? Whenever : Tire pressure is above or below normal range

- Excessive pressure difference between two tires on the same axle

29- When the expanded gear indication displayed? 1- Non-normal gear position 2- Gear doors are not closed

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. BOEING 777-200 .

( F C O M )

Warning system





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1- Master Warning Lights & Fire Bell (Inhibits): FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1

V1 or rotation whichever first but the message will be displayed on EICAS as detected conditions

Either : 400’ feet RA 25 second after rotation V1

2- Takeoff Configuration Warning (Inhibits): FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 System inhibits & disarmed when groundspeed is exceeding V1

Approximately 10 second after V1

2 Note : If activated prior V1 the system warning light will be deactivated at V1 & EICAS message remain displayed

3- Master Caution Lights & beeper / Advisory alerts (Inhibits): FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 Engine start switch engagement

The first engine reach idle or start is aborted

2

80 Kts groundspeed but the caution messages will be displayed on EICAS as detected conditions

Either : 400’ feet RA 20 second after rotation

3 Caution : Inhabitations is canceled once groundspeed is reduced to 75 Kts

4 Caution : On ground when fuel control switch moved to CUTOFF

5 Advisory : Inhabitations is canceled if both engines is below T/O thrust

6 200’ feet on landing 75 Kts ground speed

7 Note : Caution messages will be displayed on EICAS as detected conditions on landing expect Auto-pilot, No Auto-land, Speed brake extended, Auto throttles

4- Status Messages Inhibits On Takeoff & Landing: FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 Engine start 30 Minutes after rotation

2 Rejecting takeoff : Inhabitations is canceled when thrust on both engines is below takeoff thrust

3 800’ feet on landing 75 Kts ground speed 4 The cabin alert is exempted from this inhibits on landing

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5- Communication Alerts & oral chime (Inhibits): FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 1 or both engines are set for takeoff thrust

Either : 400’ feet RA 20 second after rotation

2 Inhabitations is canceled when thrust on both engines is reduced below takeoff thrust

3 The cabin alert is exempted from this inhibits 6- Passenger memo messages (entry door): FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 Removes from EICAS when 1 or both engines at takeoff thrust

Approximately 60 second after landing

7- ENG FAIL red message on PFD: FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 Engine start 65 Kts airspeed 8- PWS message: FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 PWS caution messages - 80 Kts 400’ feet RA 2 PWS warning messages -100 Kts 50’ feet RA 3 All PWS alerts – 2300’ feet RA 1200’ feet RA

4 All PWS messages are inhibited on landing – 1200’ feet RA

Approach

9- CONFIG GEAR for Landing warning inhibits on takeoff: FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 Gear unlock for retraction

Either : 825’ feet RA 150 second after landing gear retraction

10- TCAS: FROM Until ( Then it will activate )

1 TA voice – on ground 500’ feet RA 2 RAs – on ground Approximately 1000’ feet RA 3 RA – DESCEND on ground Approximately 1100’ feet RA

4 INCREASE DESCEND- 1500’ feet RA

G/A approximately 1500’ feet RA

5 DESCEND - approximately 1100’ feet RA

G/A approximately 1100’ feet RA

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11- Configuration Warning System Advisory: A: Before takeoff under the following conditions:

- Airplane on ground - Fuel control in RUN position - Either engine thrust in takeoff range - Thrust reverser is not unlocked or deployed - Airspeed below V1

The messages are: - CONFIG DOOR - CONFIG STEERING - CONFIG PARKING BRAKE - CONFIG FLAPS - CONFIG RUDDER - CONFIG SPOILERS - CONFIG STABILIZER - One /Both master warning lights or warning speakers are inoperative

B: Before landing under the following conditions: -Airplane is in flight and -Any landing gear is not down & locked and -Any of the following configurations exist:

-Either thrust lever closed & radio altitude less than 800’ or

-FLAP lever in landing position The messages are:

- CONFIG GEAR - CONFIG SPEED BRAKE EXTENDED - One /Both master warning lights or warning speakers are inoperative

12- On Landing, Altitude Alerting (Inhibits): During descent with either of the following:

- G/S capture - Flaps set for landing - Landing gear is down

13-What are the color & altitude of the terrain display?

Dotted Solid

Green Terrain from 500’ or (250’ with gear down)

to 2000’ below the airplane altitude N/A

Amber Terrain from 500’ or (250’ with gear down) below to 2000’ above the airplane altitude

Look-ahead terrain Caution

Red Terrain is more than 2000’ above the

airplane altitude

Look-ahead terrain

Warning Magent

a No terrain data available N/A

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14-When the terrain display is not available? When terrain is more than 2000’ below the airplane altitude or within 400’ of the nearest airport runway elevation. 15-When the terrain display will be removed from view automatically if previously selected? In case of PWS occurrences 16-What is the purpose of EICAS EVENT RCD? It record up to five EICAS events into the memory 17-What are the differences between the following alerts? -Time critical warning:

-It alerts the crew of any non-normal operational condition -Which requiring immediate crew awareness & corrective action -To maintain safe flight -Master warning light, Voice alerts, Stick shakers.

-Warning:

-It alerts the crew of any non-normal operational condition or system -Which requiring immediate crew awareness

-Caution:

-It alerts the crew of any non-normal operational condition or system -Which requiring immediate crew awareness -And corrective action may be required

-Advisory:

-It alerts the crew of any non-normal operational condition or system -Which requiring routine crew awareness -And corrective action may be required

18-Under what conditions the GPWS will be activated? -Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around -excessive & severe descent rate -excessive terrain closing rate -excessive deviation below ILS glide slope -Unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration -Windshear

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19-What are the inputs to the GPWS? -Radio altitude -Barometric altitude -ADIRS -Glide slope deviation -Airplane configuration 20-When the GPWS look-ahead terrain alerts activates? TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL-UP:

20 to 30 seconds from projected impact with terrain CAUTION TERRAIN:

40 to 60 seconds from projected impact with terrain 21-What is the difference between GPWS windshear & PWS?

Description Voice alerts Display

GPWS windshear

To provides an immediate

windshear alert when an excessive

downdraft or tailwind is occurring

-Windshear ahead -Go around

windshear ahead

WINDSHEAR displayed on both PFD &

ND

PWS

To provides windshear alerts when excessive

windshear condition is detected ahead of

the airplane

-Windshear -Windshear ahead

-Go around windshear ahead -Monitor radar

display

WINDSHEAR and

windshear red & black

pointer on the ND

22-When the PWS start scanning for windshear before takeoff? On ground:

When the WXR switch is selected on the EFIS Either engine is on takeoff thrust range

In flight: When the WXR switch is either selected or not selected on the EFIS Airplane altitude between 2300’ and 1200’

23-What is the PWS scan alert areas? On ground:

-From 0.5 nm ahead of the airplane to 3 nm -25º on each side for caution & warning range.

In flight: -From 0.5 nm ahead of the airplane to 3 nm for caution range -From 0.5 nm ahead of the airplane to 1.5 nm for warning range -25º on each side for caution & warning range.

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PILOT NOTES

b777 p&p Handout 2011

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