Q. 401: Which module enables you to define graphs and reports?A. Test PlanB. Test ResourcesC. DashboardD. Requirements>

size=2 face=Arial> Q. 402: What does the term severity refer to?

A. Importance level of the defectB. Impact of the defect on the release goalsC. Impact of the defect on the test setD. Impact of the defect on system operation

>

Q. 403: What should you use to gather and display the information in Quality Center? (Select three.)A. External reports and graphsB. Predefined reports and graphsC. Document generatorD. User-defined reports and graphsE. Custom reports and graphsF.Custom document generator>

Q. 404: You want to view the child requirements data related to the tests that the requirements cover. Which graph type should you use to accomplish this?A. Progress graphB. Trend graphC. Requirements coverage graphD. Summary graph

>

Q. 405: Which graph provides a visual overview of all the tests within a folder in the Test Plan Tree?A. Visual analysis graphB. Live analysis graphC. Trend analysis graphD. Summary graph>

Q. 406: Your project manager wants to see a list of test instances and the results. Which type of report should you create to accomplish this?A. Cross Test SetB. ExecutionC. Test PlanD. Execution Status>

Q. 407: You need to generate a report to monitor requirements and test coverage. Which report type should you use to accomplish this? (Select two.)A. StandardB. PredefinedC. Non-standardD. Non-customizedE. Custom>

Q. 408: What is a release?A.A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles

B.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and performance

C.A group of test cycles that has been completed within a specific time period and in which all the high priority defects have been closedD.A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to customers at the same time

>

Q. 409: What is a cycle?

A.A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cyclesB.A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and performance

C.A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline

D.A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to customers at the same time>

Q. 410: Which requirement type needs to be defined as a custom type?A. BusinessB. GroupC. FunctionalD. TestingE. Security

Question No.Correct Answer

Q. 401C

Q. 402D

Q. 403B,C,E

Q. 404D

Q. 405B

Q. 406B

Q. 407B,E

Q. 408D

Q. 409C

Q. 410E

Q. 411: What is the term for a series of steps that check whether a requirement is met?A. An instanceB. A cycleC. A test setD. A test

>

color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> Q. 412: When naming a requirement, which names are valid? (Select three.)

A. FlightTicketB. Flight^TicketC. Flight_TicketD. Flight*TicketE. FlightTicketF. Flight.Ticket

>

Q. 413: What is the relationship between requirements, releases, and cycles?A. Requirements, releases, and cycles can be assigned to libraries.

B. Libraries can be assigned to requirements, releases, and cycles.

C. Releases and cycles are used for version control of requirements.D. Requirements can be assigned to releases and cycles.

>

Q. 414: Which view provides a non-hierarchical view of requirements data?

A. Requirements Grid viewB. Requirements Non-hierarchical viewC. Requirements viewD. Requirements Coverage view>

Q. 415: What are the testing levels in risk-based testing?A. Full, Partial, Basic, and CompletedB. Assigned, Full, Partial, and BasicC. Full, Partial, Basic, and NoneD. Full, Partial, Basic, and Advanced>

Q. 416: Which tabs can be found under the Requirements Traceability tab?

A. Relationships and Impact AnalysisB. Relationships and Functional ComplexityC. Relationship Link and Impact AnalysisD. Relationship Advancement and Impact Analysis>

Q. 417: What is the function of an Impact Analysis?A. To graph the impact of requirement changesB. To analyze the impact of requirement changesC. To graph the impact of requirement complexityD. To analyze the impact of the requirement list>

Q. 418: What does business criticality determine?A. How redundant a requirement is for a businessB. How critical a requirement is for a businessC. How critical a requirement is for a projectD. How critical a requirement is for the software life cycle>

Q. 419: What is the relationship between requirements and tests? (Select two.)

A. A test can cover more than one requirement.B. A requirement can be covered by more than one test.C. A test can cover only one requirement.D. A requirement can be covered by only one test.E. A maximum of ten tests can cover a requirement.>

Q. 420: Which steps are considered part of the risk-based testing process? (Select two.)

A. Establish Business Criticality, Assess Functional ComplexityB. Establish Failure Probability, Perform Risk Assessment

C. View Analysis Results, Assess Impact AnalysisD. Establish Failure Probability, Perform Risk AnalysisE. Assess Risk, Calculate Failure Probability

Question No.Correct Answer

Q. 411D

Q. 412C,E,F

Q. 413D

Q. 414A

Q. 415C

Q. 416A

Q. 417B

Q. 418B

Q. 419A,B

Q. 420A,D

Q. 421: Which factors are used to calculate the testing level in risk-based testing?A. Testing time and failure probabilityB. Business criticality and functional complexityC. Failure probability and risk analysisD. Business criticality and failure probability>

face=Arial> Q. 422: Which default format does Quality Center use when you send an email about a requirement to the author of a test set?A. XMLB. Plain textC. HTMLD. DHTMLQ. 423: What are the functions of the Test Plan Tree? (Select three.)A. Organizes tests according to the functional units or subjects of an application

B. Organizes instances according to the functional units or subjects of an application

C. Provides a clear picture of the testing building blocks and assists in the development of actual tests

D. Provides a broader picture of the testing building blocks and assists in the development of actual tests

E. Shows the hierarchical relationships and dependencies between tests

F. Shows the graphical relationships and dependencies between tests>

Q. 424: In addition to being accurate and economical, what are the key characteristics of a test in Quality Center?A. Concrete, accessible, and functionalB. Consistent, appropriate, and traceableC. Accessible, appropriate, and reusableD. Unique, appropriate, and compatible>

Q. 425: Which benefit does a good test plan provide?A. The ability to assess the quality of your application at any stage in the testing process

B. A clear and concise plan to successfully develop an application

C. The ability to assess the impact of defects at any stage in the testing process

D. The ability to assess the efficiency of the test runs at any stage in the testing process>

Q. 426: Which Quality Center module enables you to convert a requirement to a test?A. Test Lab moduleB. Requirements moduleC. Test Resources moduleD. Test Plan module>

Q. 427: Which button enables you to create an automated test from a manual test?A. Generate Automated TestB. Generate TestC. Generate ScriptD. Convert into Automated Script>

Q. 428: What does Call to Test enable you to do?A. Modularize and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests

B. Establish and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests

C. Arrange and reuse a standard sequence of instances across multiple tests

D. Analyze and reuse a standard sequence of steps across multiple tests>

Q. 429: Which fields can be edited to enter the parameter values? (Select two.)A. Standard and DefaultB. Actual and DescriptionC. Actual and ExpectedD. Standard and ActualE. Actual and Parameter>

Q. 430: In which folder should you create a new Test Set folder?A. SubjectB. RootC. Test SetD. New Test

Question No.Correct Answer

Q. 421D

Q. 422C

Q. 423A,C,E

Q. 424A

Q. 425A

Q. 426B

Q. 427C

Q. 428A

Q. 429A,C

Q. 430B

Q. 431: How can you determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects?A. By assigning tests to releasesB. By assigning tests to cyclesC. By assigning tests to requirementsD. By assigning tests to test coverage>

color=#000080 size=2 face=Arial> Q. 432: Which feature enables you to determine the sequence in which tests are executed?

A. Execution GridB. Run ManuallyC. Execution FlowD. Sequential Execution Wizard>

Q. 433: Which execution status is used to set the rule to execute the dependent test after the controlling test finishes its execution?A.PASSEDB.FAILEDC.FINISHEDD.COMPLETED>

Q. 434: In Quality Center, you can send a status alert email to the author of the test set when it completes execution. How is the notification sent?A. AtomaticallyB. Using an automatic Alert WizardC. Using a dynamic alertD. Manually>

Q. 435: Which options enable you to record the results of a manual test run? (Select two.)A.ACTUAL fieldB.KEEP ON TOP buttonC.MANUAL TEST RUN WizardD.STATUS columnE.RESULT view>

Q. 436: Where can you define hosts for remotely executing tests?A. Remote AgentB. Remote ManagerC. Host ManagerD. Remote Wizard>

Q. 437: To track the progress of tests, what can you associate with the test set?A. BaselineB. CycleC. LibraryD. Defects>

Q. 438: Which feature enables you to graphically view the dependencies between successive tests?A. Execution GridB. Execution WizardC. Execution FlowD. Graphical View>

Q. 439: Your project manager wants you to run automated tests concurrently on remote hosts. Which steps should you take to meet this requirement? (Select two.)A. Add multiple instances of the test to the test set.B. Add multiple concurrent users to the test set.C. Select a different host for each test instance.D. Select a different user for each test instance.E. Select a different alias for each test instance.>

Q. 440: What enables you to view the results of a test run for an automated test?A. Execution GridB. Test run resultC. History Results buttonD. Launch Report button

Question No.Correct Answer

Q. 431B

Q. 432C

Q. 433C

Q. 434A

Q. 435A,D

Q. 436C

Q. 437B

Q. 438C

Q. 439A,C

Q. 440D

Q. 441: Which elements are considered part of the Defects module? (Select three.)A. Defects gridB. Test gridC. Link defectD. Grid filtersE. Defects toolbarF. Rich textbox>

face=Arial> Q. 442: In accordance with best practice, what should you do before logging a new defect?

A. Assign a defect ID.B. Search for an existing defect.C. Copy from an existing defect.D. Link the defect with a requirement.>

Q. 443: What can be directly associated with defects? (Select three.)A. RequirementsB. Test resourcesC. Test setsD. Test componentsE. Test instancesF. Baselines>

Q. 444: Which Quality Center modules enable you to perform version control? (Select two.)A. Test Plan, Test ResourcesB. Test Plan, Test LabC. Test Resources, DefectsD. Requirements, Business Components>Q. 445: In a version controlled project, which command enables you to create a new version for an entity?A.CHECK OUTB.CHECK INC.KEEP CHECKED OUTD.ASSIGN>

Q. 446: Your project manager wants you to open an existing test case and make some changes. When you check out the test case for update, your manager finds that the changes are not required and asks you to retain the test case in its original state. What should you do to retain the test case?A. Delete the changed portion.B. Undo checkout.C. Undo check-in.D. Redo checkout.>

Q. 447: In a version controlled project, which icon indicates that you have an entity checked-out?A. Red lock iconB. Blue lock iconC. Green lock iconD. Yellow lock icon>

Q. 448: Your project manager wants you to use an existing set of requirements and tests across five projects in your organization. Which function should you use to accomplish this?A. BaselineB. TemplateC. ComponentD. Version>

Q. 449: What does baseline enable a user to do? (Select two.)A.Establish a snapshot of the library at a specific point in time

B.Establish a screenshot of the Library Tree at every point in time

C.Keep track of changes made to a project over time

D.Keep track of modifications made to the Quality Center software over time

E.Keep track of changes made to a project plan over time>

Q. 450: What happens when you synchronize two libraries?A.Both libraries are updated with any changes.

B.Both libraries remain the same.

C.The synchronizing library is updated with changes made in the other library.

D.Changes from the synchronizing library are made in the other library.

Question No.

Correct AnswerQ. 441

A,D,EQ. 442

BQ. 443

A,C,EQ. 444

A,DQ. 445

BQ. 446

BQ. 447

CQ. 448

AQ. 449

A,CQ. 450

C

Q. 451: What are the reasons to assign test set folders to a cycle? (Select three,)

A. To review the progress of testsB. To view the status of testsC. T determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects D. To calculate the number of defects that are pendingE. To enhance the reporting granularityF. To enhance the quality of the reports and graphs

Q. 458: How can you verify that the Excel add-in is successfully installed? A. Quality Center-> Tools -> Export to Quality CenterB. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Export to Quality Center C. Quality Center -> Tools -> Import to Duality CenterD. Excel Spreadsheet -> Tools -> Import to Quality Center >

Q. 459: What does the term priority refer to? A. How soon the defect needs to be fixed B. How quickly you can assign the defect to the developer C. How soon you can close the defectD. Which action to take to close the defect >

Q. 460: Using Dashboard, what is the maximum number of graphs per page that you can create by default? A. 3B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Question No.

Correct AnswerQ. 451

A,C,EQ. 452

CQ. 453

BQ. 454

CQ. 455

A,C,D,GQ. 456

BQ. 457

A,B,DQ. 458

BQ. 459

AQ. 460

B

Q. 461: When creating an Excel report, what is used to extract the data? A. Data Definition WizardB. Structured Data Wizard C. Data Definition Language D. Structured Query Language >

Q. 462: What is a cycle?

A. A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles

B. A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and performanceC. A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timelineD. A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to customers at the same time>

Q. 463: What are the advantages of a well-defined requirement? (Select four.)

A. Aids development and testingB. Establishes guidelines for the Center of Excellence C. Helps prevent scope creepD. Sets clear expectations between teams E. Facilitates reuse of test casesF. Saves time and money G. Helps define libraries >

Q. 464: What should you consider while gathering requirements? (Select two.) A. Customer's expectationsB. Testing processesC. Business processes D. Life cycle modelE. Developers expectations >

Q. 465: Which function enables you to associate a requirement with other requirements? A. Impact AnalysisB. Requirements Traceability C. Requirements Analysis D. Functional Complexity >

Q. 466: Which entities can be associated with a requirement? A. Tests, defects, and non-hierarchical requirementsB. Tests, defects, and linked requirementsC. Cycles, releases, tests, defects, and requirementsD. Releases, business components, tests, defects, and requirements >

Q. 467: What is the purpose of risk-based testing?A. To calculate the level at which each requirement must be tested

B. To analyze the level at which each requirement must be tested

C. To define the level at which each requirement must be tested

D. To calculate the level at which each instance must be tested >

Q. 468: In which tab can you define traceability links? A. Impact AnalysisB. Test Coverage C. RelationshipsD. Risk>

Q. 469: What does failure probability determine?A. The predictability of failure of a test associated with a requirement

B. The complexity of failure of a test associated with a requirement C. The likelihood of failure of a test associated with a requirement D. The locality of failure of a test associated with a requirement >

Q. 470: Which Quality Center feature enables you to calculate risks? A. Risk-based managementB. Analysis requirement management C. Risk computation managementD. Functional complexity management

Question No.

Correct AnswerQ. 461

DQ. 462

CQ. 463

A,C,D,FQ. 464

A,CQ. 465

BQ. 466

CQ. 467

AQ. 468

CQ. 469

CQ. 470

A

Q. 471: Which risk-based factor enables you to determine whether a requirement should be fully or partially tested?

A. Testing costB. Defect probabilityC. Functional relevance D. Testing time

>

Q. 472: Which parameter can be used to send an email message in plain text?

A. MAIL SERMESB. MAIL FORMATC. MAIL-MESSAGE-FORMAT D. MAIL FORMATS

>

Q. 473: Which button should you use to link a test from the Test Plan Tree to a requirement?

A. Add to RequirementsB. Add to Coverage C. Add to Link Tests D. Add to Req Coverage

>

Q. 474: In the automatic conversion of requirements to tests, a requirement can be converted into what?

A. Folders, scripts, or design stepsB. Files, folders, or testsC. Folders, tests, or design steps D. Folders, subfolders, or tests

>

Q. 475: Which command enables you to reuse and modularize test steps across multiple tests?

A. Adjust testsB. Call to test C. Call to steps D. Call to instance

>

Q. 476: Which grammatical voice should you use to write the test steps?

A. PassiveB. Active C. Middle D. Present

>

Q. 477: The Test Set Tree can contain as many top-level Test Set folders as you need, and each sublevel can have its own sublevels, What is the maximum number of Test Set subfolders allowed?

A. 254 B. 675 C. 676 D. 999

>

Q. 478: How does Quality Center define the type of tests in a test set?

A. White box and black boxB. Manual and integrated C. Manual and automated D. Automated and unit

>

Q. 479: What does the Execution Grid enable a user to do? (Select two,)

A. Declare the tests that make up each test setB. View the tests in a diagram for adding or deleting tests C. Display test data in a gridD. Display test data in a diagram E. Display email notification rules

>

Q. 480: Your test set includes two automated tests: Open Order and Update Order. How can you configure the Execution Flow to ensure the Update Order test will only run after the Open Order test completes successfully?

A. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Finish before Update Order starts,

B. Define Update Order as a dependent test to Open Order.

C. Define an Execution Condition where Open Order must Pass before Update Order starts.

D. Define an Execution Condition where Update Order must Pass before Open Order starts,

uestion No.

Correct Answer

Q. 471

D

Q. 472

B

Q. 473

B

Q. 474

C

Q. 475

B

Q. 476

B

Q. 477

C

Q. 478

C

Q. 479

A,C

Q. 480

C

Q. 481: What is the best practice for running an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts?

A. Adding multiple instances of the test, selecting a host for each instanceB. Running a test separately on each of the multiple remote hosts

C. Running a test set sequentially on each of the multiple remote hosts

D. Using the Host Manager Wizard to configure hosts and run tests and test sets >Q. 482: Which factors affect time dependency when running the tests? A. Schedule and timeB. Date and flow C. Time and date D. Schedule and flow >

Q. 483: Your project manager requests that you send the execution status of a test set of 10 tests by tomorrow morning. There is a chance that the fifth test might fail. What should you do to ensure that the subsequent tests run?A. Schedule the test run based on the Execution Condition.

B. Schedule the test run independently.

C. Schedule the test run by selecting the execution status Never Stop.

D. Schedule the test run based on the parameter,>

Q. 484: Your project manager wants you to run an automated test on a remote host, You are not able to view this host , What should you do to solve this problem?

A. Set up the host In Host Manager.B. Add the host using the Add Hosts Wizard. C. Use the Host Wizard to find the host.D. Set up the host in the Host Manager Wizard, >

Q. 485: Which feature provides an audit trail of changes made to each dpfact2 A. Defects gridB. Grid filter C. Audit trail D. History tab

>

Q. 486: You find a defect in an application and send it to the developer to fix. The developer cannot interpret the problem and requests a snapshot of the application with the defect. What enables you to take a snapshot? A. History tabB. Attachments tab C. Description tab D. Details tab >

Q. 487: How do you associate defects with tests? (Select three,)

A. Associate tests from the Test Plan module with defects.B. Associate test sets from the Test Lab module with defects. C. Associate defects with tests run during a manual test run, D. Associate test instances with defects during a manual test run. E. Associate tests with multiple defects.F. Associate requirements with multiple defects, >

Q. 488: The project manager requests that the test engineer make changes in a test case. Which version control feature should the test engineer use to modify the test case?A. UNDOB. CHECK IN C. CHECK OUT D. COMPARE >

Q. 489: Where do you view prior versions of an entity? A. HistoryB. VersionsC. Dependencies D. Management >

Q. 490: Which Quality Center feature allows you to view the complete chronology of an entity, including previous versions, authors of the versions, and its date of creation?A. Version history B. Entity historyC. Chronology history D. Complete history

Question No.

Correct AnswerQ. 481

AQ. 482

CQ. 483

BQ. 484

AQ. 485

DQ. 486

BQ. 487

A,C,EQ. 488

CQ. 489

AQ. 490

A

Q. 491: What is the function of a library?

A. To create and manage a set of entities in a project and the relationship between them B. To create and manage a set of instances

in a project and the relationship between them C. To define a Hierarchical Instance Tree to create and manage your resourcesD. To define and manage a set of baseline projects and the relationship between them >

Q. 492: What enables you to associate the test set with the tests stored in a baseline? A. BaseliningB. PinningC. Skimming D. Popping >

Q. 493: What enables you to move library folders and libraries?

A. Copy and PasteB. Cut and Paste C. Library Wizard D. Select and Paste >

New Set of Questions begin from HereQ. 494: What is the implication of having a direct link between a defect and a test?A. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Run.B. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Requirement. C. The defect is indirectly linked to the related Test Set.D. The defect is directly linked to the related Test Instance.>

Q. 495: What are the potential subsequent states of a "Fixed" defect? (Select two.)A. ClosedB. ReopenedC. Complete D. NewE. Reviewed

>Q. 496: By default, what does HP Application Lifecycle Management assign when a new defect is created? (Select two.)A. A unique defect IDB. The status Created C. A version number D. The status NewE. A unique test set

>Q. 497: Which options can be used to submit defects from HP Sprinter to HP Application Lifecycle Management? (Select two.)A. Smart Identification B. Defect CheckingC. Smart DefectsD. Smart Defects Identification E. Defect Reminder>

Q. 498: Which annotation tools can be used to detect a defect during an HP Sprinter test run? (Select two.)A. Ruler tool B. Step tool C. Click tool D. Guides tool E. Align tool>

Q. 499: Which tool can be used to store information about a defect in HP Sprinter without disrupting test flow?A. Defect Highlighter tool B. Test Defect toolC. Smart Defect toolD. Defect Reminder tool>

Q. 500: Which entities can be linked to a defect? (Select two.)A. Cycles B. Releases C. Reports D. Defects E. Tests

Question No.

Correct AnswerQ. 491

AQ. 492

BQ. 493

BQ. 494

BQ. 495

A,BQ. 496

A,DQ. 497

C,EQ. 498

A,DQ. 499

DQ. 500

D,E