All Tests

ASQ CQE(Certified Quality Engineer)

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CQE Sample Test #1

1. What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large ? Ⅰ. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group. Ⅱ. Difficulty in arriving at consensus. Ⅲ. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities. Ⅳ. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.

A. Ⅰ only B. l and ll only C. l, ll and lll only D. l, ll , lll and lV

2. Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost ? A. Writing operating procedures. B. Training. C. Data acquisition and analysis. D. Calibrating test equipment.

3. An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when : A. Appraisal and failure costs drop. B. Prevention costs increase. C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales. D. Management objectives are met.

4. During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly describes team activities ? Ⅰ. The team leader is usually directive. Ⅱ. The team leader often delegates tasks. Ⅲ. Team members prioritize and perform duties. Ⅳ. Team members are uncertain of their duties.

A. ll and lll only B. l, ll and lll only C. l and lV only D. ll, lll and lV only

Sample Test #1

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5. Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT: A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies. B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured or judged. C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to another's performance. D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.

6. Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on the gaps in performance ? A. Secure a workshop trainer. B. Review a record of activities. C. Set up a one shot case study. D. Allocate employees for training.

7. In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally : A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques. B. Provide feedback to the group. C. Function as the group leader. D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.

8. The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following ? A. Increased cost-of-quality results. B. Improved working methods and morale. C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction. D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.

9. Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following actions is effective in countering this problem ? Ⅰ. Stop killing the messenger. Ⅱ. Establishing an open door policy. Ⅲ. Practice management by walking around.

A. l only B. l and ll only C. l and lll only D. l, ll and lll


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10. Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses ? He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance. A. Dr. Juran B. Dr. Deming C. Dr. Taguchi D. Dr. Feigenbaum

11. In order to implement a continuous improvement strategy, a company may institute a steering committee or improvement council. Which of the following would generally NOT be a task performed by this council ? A. The development of a quality vision for the company. B. The combined development and implementation of the company improvement strategy. C. The definition of certain quality objectives for sections of the company. D. The development of quality education and communication modules for the organization.

12. A company is planning to completely change its employee performance, appraisal and reward system. Which of the following is NOT viable for consideration in the new system ? A. Integrating subordinate, peer, customer, and self-evaluations with supervisory ratings. B. Using continuous improvement, quality and customer satisfaction as key criteria. C. Requiring work team or group evaluations that are equal in emphasis to individual evaluations. D. Requiring less frequent performance reviews, but utilizing many rating categories.

13. Any group, designing a quality information system (QIS) to collect product data, must consider which of the following items ? Ⅰ. How the results will be used. Ⅱ. The frequency that results must be reported. Ⅲ. The allowable data error variation.

A. ll only B. l and ll only C. ll and lll only D. l, ll and lll

Sample Test #1

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14. Which of the following are likely to be positive actions in obtaining a supplier's commitment to quality improvement ? Ⅰ. Involving the supplier early in the product development stage. Ⅱ. Partially reimbursing the supplier, when the product is rejected. Ⅲ. Establishing a firm schedule of required product quantities and dates. Ⅳ. Providing meaningful and timely quality performance feedback.

A. l and lV only B. l, ll and lV only C. l, lll and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

15. A pre-award evaluation of a supplier's quality system capability should NOT include consideration of A. The supplier's product-quality history. B. The supplier's geographical location. C. The supplier's implementation of quality manual procedures. D. The supplier's skills in quality control techniques.

16. For TQM success, what structure sequence should be followed ? Ⅰ. Develop a quality policy. Ⅱ. Establish a quality council. Ⅲ. Establish strategic quality goals. Ⅳ. Train for internal audits.

A. ll, lll, l, lV B. ll, l, lll, lV C. lll, ll, l, lV D. l, ll, lll, lV

17. What is the highest form of partnering with employees ? A. Employee involvement. B. Task teams. C. Cost reduction projects. D. Stock option plans.


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18. A product failure in the customer's hands is bad for the company. Why do only 4% of the customers normally file a complaint ? A. The product guarantee takes care of the product. B. A warranty is in place on the product. C. It is a minor inconvenience. D. They don't think it will do any good.

19. The Malcolm Baldrige award is open for competition among which of the following ? Ⅰ. Large manufacturing businesses. Ⅱ. Large and small manufacturing businesses. Ⅲ. Service organizations. Ⅳ. Large service companies.

A. l only B. l and lll only C. ll and lll only D. ll and lV only

20. Which of the following is NOT a method for customer service data collection ? A. Customer surveys. B. Internal surveys. C. Customer visits. D. Complaint analysis.

21. What is the key ranking difference between the Deming philosophy and the Malcolm Baldrige award criteria ? A. Deming prescribes "all or nothing" propositions but MBNQA ranks categories with different weights. B. The MBNQA ranks "business results" and "customer focus", but Deming does not consider these items. C. The MBNQA has seven categories compared to Deming's 14 points. D. There is no recognized rating system for the MBNQA.

Sample Test #1

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22. A vendor may be audited both before and during the execution of a contract. During such a vendor audit, the focus may be directed at the management and resource management of the company. Which of the following areas would be EXCLUDED during such an audit ? A. Use and planning of time, manpower and training. B. Defined quality responsibilities. C. Company philosophy and organizational charts. D. Design and process capabilities.

23. In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the following activities ? A. Use employee involvement and teamwork. B. Encourage team competition. C. Encourage sacrificing for the team. D. Coordinate efforts of the departments.

24. Normally, complaint data for both a product or service organization should provide A. An indication of the organizational areas creating the most problems. B. The degree or extent of customers dissatisfaction. C. The appropriate corrective action to take. D. The total quality costs for the organization.

25. The existence of a quality control manual at your key supplier means A. That a quality system has been developed. B. That a quality system has been implemented. C. That the firm is quality conscious. D. That the firm is a certified supplier.

26. A quality control program is considered to be A. A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines. B. A step by step listing of all quality control check points. C. A summary of company quality control policies. D. A system of activities to provide quality of products and service.


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27. An audit will be viewed as a constructive service to the function which is audited when it A. Is conducted by nontechnical auditors. B. Proposes corrective action for each item uncovered. C. Furnishes enough detailed facts so the necessary action can be determined. D. Is general enough to permit managerial intervention.

28. The term "quality audit" can refer to the appraisal of the quality system of Ⅰ. An entire plant or company. Ⅱ. One product. Ⅲ. One major quality activity.

A. l only B. l, ll and lll C. ll and lll only D. l and lll only

29. Which of the following items is the MOST important consideration when selecting an audit team member ? A. Being familiar with the organization that will be audited. B. Being competent in auditing techniques. C. Being competent in many quality control techniques. D. Having technical knowledge of the area being audited.

30. You are requested by top management to establish an audit program of the quality systems in each branch plant of your firm. Which of the following schemes would you use in selecting the audit team to optimize continuity, direction, availability, and technology transfer ? A. A full time audit staff. B. All volunteer audit staff. C. Hybrid audit staff (a proportion of answers a and b above). D. An outside consulting firm.

Sample Test #1

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31. Which of the following would be considered the WEAKEST reason to initiate an audit ? A. To compare actual practice to a defined standard. B. Follow-up on corrective action. C. Identify the root cause of a recent problem. D. Verify that a quality system continues to meet requirements.

32. Findings and observations are audit terms. The best relationship between these terms is which of the following ? A. Observations are broader in scope than findings. B. Observations are seen; findings are discovered. C. Observations generally support findings. D. Findings are reported in writing, observations are reported verbally.

33. Quality audits do NOT provide A. Answers to quality system deficiencies. B. Highlighting of faulty company operations. C. An index of quality needs. D. An anticipated indication of customer acceptance of the product.

34. The sample size for a product quality audit should be A. Based on ANSI/ASQ Z1.4. B. Based on the lot size. C. A stated percentage of production. D. A very small quantity of product.

35. Which of the following parties, traditionally initiates an audit ? A. The client. B. The plant manager. C. The lead auditor. D. The auditee.


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36. During the performance of an audit, which of the following are key considerations ? Ⅰ. What sampling plans may be necessary ? Ⅱ. Is the audit schedule progressing as planned ? Ⅲ. Is there a need for a technical specialist ? Ⅳ. Is the level of compliance satisfactory ?

A. l, ll and lll only B. ll and lV only C. l and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

37. When asked to make recommendations on how to correct any deficiencies noted in the exit report, the auditor(s) should A. Make the best recommendation possible. B. Confer with the client first. C. Avoid a recommendation in writing but help the auditee of possible. D. Offer no specific advice and few suggestions.

38. The example of a supplier's quality management effort to meet your existing contractual requirements is MOST like Ⅰ. A product audit. Ⅱ. A process audit. Ⅲ. A system audit.

A. ll only B. lll only C. l and ll only D. l, ll and lll

39. The audit team normally advises the auditee immediately upon the discovery of a finding during an audit. Which of the following items is (are) valid reasons for taking this action ? Ⅰ. If corrected immediately, the findings may be eliminated from the audit report. Ⅱ. If corrected immediately, it shows genuine auditee interest in the objectives of the audit. Ⅲ. If corrected immediately, it demonstrates the strength of an ongoing audit program.

A. l only B. lll only C. ll and lll only D. l, ll and lll

Sample Test #1

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40. A purchase order for subassemblies classified as critical must include a review by Ⅰ. Quality engineering. Ⅱ. The procurement department. Ⅲ. Design engineering.

A. lll only B. l and lll only C. ll and lll only D. l, ll and lll

41. Which of the following are the MOST logical reasons for providing source inspection ? Ⅰ. The supplier has consistently shown poor out-going quality. Ⅱ. The key inspection points are hidden after assembly at the suppliers' plant. Ⅲ. The supplier requests the inspection to save them potential shipping expenses. Ⅳ. The criticality of the product warrants it.

A. l, ll and lV only B. ll and lV only C. ll, lll and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

42. Inspection operations typically A. Help in assuring satisfactory quality. B. Reduce the usability of the product or service involved. C. Require precise equipment in most instances. D. Occur between all manufacturing operators.

43. Consider the following statement"A defect which might affect the appearance or general function of essential parts"

This definition describes a seriousness classification described as A. Incidental. B. Critical. C. Minor. D. Major.

44. Which of the following quality system provisions is of the greatest concern when preparing an audit checklist for a vendor qualification system audit ? A. Drawing and print control. B. Makeup of the MRB C. Training level of inspectors. D. Calibration of test equipment.


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45. In the planning of a new major manufacturing program, the greatest quality effort should be put logically in A. Inspection of product. B. Nondestructive testing equipment. C. Nonconformance to specifications. D. Prevention of occurrence of substandard quality.

46. The first and most important step, in establishing a good corporate quality plan is A. Determining customer requirements. B. Determining manufacturing process capabilities. C. Evaluation vendor quality systems. D. Ensuring quality participation in design review.

47. When planning quality control functions, which one of the following is MOST directly related to production of a quality product ? A. Process control and process capability. B. Suitable blueprints. C. Dimensional tolerancing. D. Product audits.

48. Which of the following would be the MOST important considerations when establishing inspection points within a production operation ? Ⅰ. Inspection to prevent defects from entering the system. Ⅱ. Inspection after all operations (both manual and automated). Ⅲ. Inspection prior to a painting or masking operation.

A. l only B. l and ll only C. l and lll only D. l, ll and lll

49. The primary reason that nonconforming material should be identified and segregated is A. So that the cause of nonconformity can be determined. B. So it cannot be used in production without proper authorization. C. To obtain samples of poor workmanship for use in the company's training program. D. So that responsibility can be determined and disciplinary action taken.

Sample Test #1

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50. Of the services listed below, which one performed by design engineering is of particular interest to QA personnel ? A. Audit reports. B. Cost reports. C. Change action. D. Rework criteria.

51. Four ingredients are blended to make a final product. Using the data below, what is the expected weight and variation of the final product ? Ingredient A 70 ± 3.00 grams Ingredient B 20 ± 1.73 grams Ingredient C 15 ± 1.73 grams Ingredient D 10 ±- 1.00 grams

A. 115 ± 7.46 grams b. 115 ± 5.73 grams c. 115 ± 4.00 grams d. 115 ± 3.61 grams

52. Corrective action requests are primarily A. Issued to correct supplier deficiencies. B. Generated to correct auditing deficiencies. C. Formal requests for corrective and preventive action. D. A result of nonconformances detected in the internal inspection process.

53. Reliability prediction is Ⅰ. The process of performance estimation. Ⅱ. The process of estimating the probability that a product will perform its intended function for a stated time. Ⅲ. The process of telling "how you can get there from here".

A. l only B. ll only C. ll and lll only D. l, ll and lll


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54. Maintainability is A. The probability of a system being restored to functional operation within a given period of time. B. Performing adequate maintenance on a system. C. Probability of survival of a system for a given period of time. D. Maintaining a machine in satisfactory working condition.

55. Analysis of data on all product returns is important because Ⅰ. Failure rates change with length of product usage. Ⅱ. Changes in design and in customer use are often well reflected. Ⅲ. Immediate feedback and analysis of product performance becomes available.

A. l only B. l and lll only C. ll and lll only D. l, ll and lll

56. When requesting "worst case" design analysis, you expect the reliability group to A. Analyze the worst rejects. B. Analyze only those products failing to meet specification requirements. C. Determine whether product requirements can be met with subassemblies assumed at their worst combination of tolerances. D. Assume all subassembly tolerances at their maximum limit.

57. In the failure rate model shown below, which one of the sections represents the period when catastrophic failures are likely to occur ?

A. A B. B C. C D. All sections can experience catastrophic failure.

Sample Test #1

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58. Failure mode, effect, and criticality analysis, (FMECA) is primarily for the purpose of A. Learning as much about the item as possible after qualification test. B. Determining the way an item will most likely fail to help obtain design and procedural safeguards against such failures. C. Determining, by extensive analysis, the reliability of an item. D. Determining the cause of a failure, by dissecting the item, to help obtain corrective action.

59. A system was designed with 3 capacitors. When the system is first activated all capacitors are operating. The system continues to operate as long as at least 1 capacitor is operating. This is an example of A. Redundancy. B. A series system. C. An active parallel system. D. A standby parallel system.

60. The failure rate model above is used to show a typical relationship of many parts between their failure rate and the time in service. The reliability function for period "B" is BEST represented by

A. R ( t)= λt B. R( t)= λ C. R( t) = λe - λ t D. R(t) = e - λ t

61. What is the probability of an item failing in less than 5 hours if it has a constant failure rate of 1/ hour ? A. 0.00674 B. 0.99127 C. 0.99326 D. 0.99642

62. The design function which assigns probability of failures between components or subsystems is called A. Apportionment. B. Significance C. Confidence. D. Qualification.


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63. The probability of an accident for the head event "H" given below is:

A. 0.0700 B. 0.1125 C. 0.0689 D. 0.1100

64. Which of the following quantitative methods does NOT apply to the assessment of actual system/component reliability ? A. Statistical analysis of field test and failure data. B. Statistical allocation of reliability goals. C. Evaluation of laboratory test data. D. Analysis of results of reliability demonstration tests.

65. When trying to find all possible causes of a problem, which of the following tools would be useful ? Ⅰ. Systematic troubleshooting and brainstorming. Ⅱ. Fishbone diagrams and histograms. Ⅲ. Checklists and scatter diagrams. Ⅳ. Control charts and graphs.

A. l and lV only B. l, ll and lV only C. ll, lll and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

66. Typically Pareto diagrams are used for which of the following reasons ? Ⅰ. To display the significant few categories. Ⅱ. To compliment attribute data charting. Ⅲ. To eliminate insignificant categories. Ⅳ. To focus attention in priority order.

A. l and lll only B. l, ll and lll only C. ll, lll and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

Sample Test #1

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67. As a commonly used problem solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application of a Pareto chart ? Ⅰ. To determine when to make proactive adjustments to a process. Ⅱ. To differentiate between major and minor problem areas. Ⅲ. To gather data and to design experimental controlled changes. Ⅳ. To evaluate the results of other problem solving techniques upon the product or service.

A. l and ll only B. ll and lll only C. ll and lV only d. l, ll, lll and lV

68. A comprehensive corrective action program is initiated at a large company. Input for CARs are received from customers, internal and external audits, material review reports and other sources. Which two of the following groups would usually administer and control the CAR process ? Ⅰ. Management review team. Ⅱ. Quality department. Ⅲ. Corrective Action Board. Ⅳ. Material Review Board.

A. l and ll only B. l and lll only C. ll and lll only d. lll and lV only

69. Which of the following statements BEST describes a bimodal distribution ? A. This distribution shows stratified data and two distinct peaks. B. This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution. C. This distribution is truncated. D. This distribution has several distribution peaks.

70. Two advantages of process mapping are the ability to Ⅰ. Visualize the process being described. Ⅱ. Discover manufacturing problems only. Ⅲ. Discover quality problems only. Ⅳ. Check current processes for duplication or redundancy.

A. l and lV only B. ll and lll only C. l and lll only D. ll and lV only


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71. Writing and establishing process control procedures is A. Disposition. B. Notification. C. Preventive action. D. Corrective action.

72. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process ? A. Pareto chart. B. Control chart. C. Histogram. D. Cause and effect diagram.

73. A cause and effect diagram is also called which of the following ? A. Pareto diagram. B. Fishbone diagram. C. Boxplot. D. Histogram.

74. A graph of a data set, composed of a series of rectangles, each proportional in width to the range of values in a class and proportional in height to the number of items or fraction of items falling in these classes, is called which of the following ? A. Histogram. B. Raw data. C. Ogive. D. Venn diagram.

75. Which of the following statements describes discrete data ? A. It takes 3 hours 48 minutes to fly from LA to New York. B. Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights. C. The flight arrived at 9:08 PM. D. There were 5,923 gallons of fuel consumed on the flight.

76. Which of the following tools can provide a ranking of things to be done ? A. Measles charts. B. Cause & effect diagram. C. Scatter diagram. D. Checklist.

77. Which of the following is NOT a statistical level of measurement ? A. Ordinal. B. Nominal. C. Numerical. D. Ratio.

Sample Test #1

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78. What does a corrective action do to prevent an existing noncomformity, defect or undesirable situation from recurring ? A. Minimizes it. B. Takes repercussions against those responsible. C. Takes action against it. D. Eliminates it.

79. The Shewhart or Deming cycle is often referred to as A. The cause and effect diagram. B. The affinity diagram. C. Plan-do-check-act. D. Problem solving flow chart.

80. A normal (Gaussian) distribution curve is A. Bell shaped. B. Dome shaped. C. Pear shaped. D. Positively skewed.

81. Which of the following actions or techniques is MOST useful in determining the original fundamental cause of a product or process nonconformance ? A. Continuous improvement. B. Pareto analysis. C. Root cause analysis. D. Preventive action.

82. What order do the following corrective action steps normally take for nonconforming product ? Ⅰ. Analyze the problem. Ⅱ. Assign responsibility. Ⅲ. Take preventive action. Ⅳ. Evaluate potential importance. Ⅴ. Investigate possible causes.

A. l, ll, V, lV, lll B. ll, lV, V, l, lll C. V, ll, lV, l, lll D. ll, l, lV, V, lll


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83. Of the problem solving categories below, what is the usual sequence ? 1. Select a problem needing improvement. 2. Collect data. 3. Implement the solution. 4. Determine if project is appropriate. 5. Study current procedures. 6. Determine candidates for data collection. 7. Analyze data. 8. Solve the problem.

A. 1, 4, 5, 6, 3, 8, 2, 7 B. 1, 5, 4, 6, 2, 7, 8, 3 C. 1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 8, 7, 3 D. 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 7, 8, 3

84. The descriptive name for a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is which of the following ? A. Flow charts. B. Cause and effect diagrams. C. Pareto diagram. D. Scatter diagram.

85. What is the standard deviation of the values below ?4.5, 5.1, 6.2, 2.1, 3.9

A. 1.136 B. 2.087 C. 1.362 D. 1.522

86. Regardless of the distribution of the individuals, the distribution of the average of n samples will follow which distribution as n becomes large ? A. Normal B. Poisson. C. Exponential. D. Lognormal.

87. A box contains 27 black and 3 red balls. A random sample of 5 balls is drawn without replacement. What is the probability that the sample contains one red ball ? A. 0.108 B. 0.270 C. 0.369 D. 0.500

Sample Test #1

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88. Which of the following distributions have the set of all real numbers as their domain ? A. Lognormal B. Exponential C. Weibull D. None of the above.

89. Determine the coefficient of variation for the last 500 pilot plant test runs of high temperature film having a mean of 900 Kelvin with a standard deviation of 54. A. 6% B. 16.7% C. 6% D. 31%

90. According to Tchebysheff's theorem what % of measurements must lie within 2.5 standard deviations of the mean ? A. 3/4 B. 8/9 C. 0.840 D. 0.625

91. The hypergeometric distribution should be used instead of the binomial distribution when A. There are more than 2 outcomes on a single trial. B. Each trial in independent. C. Sampling does not involve replacement. D. There is a fixed number of trials.

92. The distribution of a characteristic is negatively skewed. The sampling distribution of the mean for large samples is: A. Negatively skewed. B. Approximately normal. C. Positively skewed. D. Lognormal.

93. If a distribution is skewed to the right A. The mode is between the median and the mean. B. The mean is between the mode and the median. C. The mode is greater than the median. D. None of the above.


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94. If the probability of a success on a single trial is 0.2 and 3 trials are performed, what is the probability of at least one success ? A. 0.008 B. 0.384 C. 0.488 D. 0.600

95. A process is turning out end items that have defects of type A or type B or both. If the probability of type A defect is 0.1 and of a type B is 0.2, the probability that an end item will have no defect is A. 0.7 B. 0.30 C. 0.72 D. 0.68

96. What is the standard deviation of the following data ?3.2, 3.1, 3.3, 3.3, 3.1

A. 3.2 B. 0.0894 C. 0.1 D. 0.0498

97. Periodically, a sample of 20 items are randomly selected from a population that is normally distributed, the average is computed, and plotted. Which of the following statements is correct ? Ⅰ. The average of the logarithms of the values is lognormally distributed. Ⅱ. The standard deviation of the averages is equal to the standard deviation of the individuals divided by the square root of 20. Ⅲ. The variance of the averages is equal to the variance of the individuals divided by the square root of 20.

A. l only B. ll only C. l and ll only D. l and lll only

98. If a distribution is skewed to the left, the median will always be A. Less than the mean. B. Between the mean and the mode. C. Greater than the mode. D. An average of the mean and the mode.

Sample Test #1

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99. The expression below is which of the following ?

P(x)= nCr pxq n-x

A. General term for the Poisson distribution. B. General term for the Pascal distribution. C. General term for the binomial distribution. D. General term for the hypergeometric distribution.

100. Which of the following distributions models events that have 2 possibilities on each trial ? A. Normal. B. Poisson. C. Binomial D. gamma.

101. The equation below represents the:

f(x) = 1x 2π

exp [- 12 ( lnx-μ

σ )2

]

A. Lognormal probability density function. B. Normal probability density function. C. Exponential probability density function. D. None of the above.

102. The weight of paint cans is considered A. Discrete data. B. Continuous data. C. Random data. D. Probability data.


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103. A bin contains 40 pills with a weight of 3.1 gm. each, 30 pills weighing 3.2 gms each and 10 pills weighing 3.3 gms each. The weight of an average pill is found from

3 .1 3 .2 3 .3A . 3

+ +

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )3 .1 4 0 3 .2 3 0 3 .3 1 0B .

3+ +

( ) ( )3 .1 3 .2 3 .3 1 0 3 0 4 0C .

8 0+ + + +

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )3 .1 4 0 3 .2 3 0 3 .3 1 0

D . 8 0

+ +

104. The following measurements for a sample with dimension X are representative of a process known to be in statistical control

42, 52, 64, 45, 53, 56, 70, 57, 49, 62

Which of the following values BEST approximates the upper and lower control limits of the process capability. A. 81 and 29 B. 59 and 51 C. 64 and 46 D. 70 and 42

105. An X-bar and R chart with n=5 has been plotted for some time and has demonstrated random variation. Upon review of the last 30 plot points, the expected number of runs around the centerline on the X-bar chart is expected to be approximately which of the following ? A. 4 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16

106. What is the lower control limit for proportion defective if the average daily production is 5000 units and the average fraction defective is 0.02 ? A. 0.016 B. 0.014 C. 0 D. 0.010

107. A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of five and a rejection number of six If the quality of the submitted lots 10 percent defective. then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately. A. 6% B. 10% C. 20% D. 30%

Sample Test #1

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108. You have been asked to sample a lot of 500 units from vendor whose past quality has been about 2% defective. A sample of 40 pieces is drawn from the lot and you have been told to reject the lot if you find two or more parts defective. What is the probability of finding two or more parts defective ? A. 0.953 B. 0.809 C. 0.191 D. 0.047

109. When using a control chart, a point plotting within the limits on the chart is A. The equivalent of type I error. B. The equivalent of type II error. C. The equivalent of accepting the hypothesis that the process is in control. D. The equivalent of not rejecting the hypothesis that the process is in control.

110. An X-bar and R chart was prepared for an operation using twenty samples with five pieces in each sample; X-bar was found to be 33.6 and R-bar was 6.20. During production, a sample of five was taken and the pieces measured 36, 43, 37, 25, and 38. At the time, this sample was taken: A. Both the average and range were within control limits. B. Neither the average nor range were within control limits. C. Only the average was outside control limits. D. Only the range was outside control limits.

111. Select the incorrect statement from among the following. The IDs of a certain piece of tubing are normally distributed with mean 1.00". The proportion of tubing with IDs less than 0.90 is A. Less than the proportion of Ids greater than 0.90 B. Less than 50 percent. C. Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 1.10 D. Less than the proportion with IDs greater than 1.00

112. Compute the upper control limit for an s chart, based on a sample size of 10, if the process is in control with a mean of 40 and a sample standard deviation of 7. A. 11.7 B. 13.3 C. 15.7 D. 21


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113. A "p" chart A. Can be used for only one type of defect per chart. B. Plots the number of defects in a sample. C. Plots either the fraction or percent defective in order of time. D. Plots variations in dimensions.

114. What percentage of the area under the standard normal curve is included within (+/-) 1.5 standard deviations from 0 ? A. 0.8664 B. 0.7500 C. 0.6680 D. 0.9332

115. Which of the following control charts are more efficient than an X-bar chart at detecting small shifts in the mean ? Ⅰ. CUSUM. Ⅱ. EWQR. Ⅲ. EWMA.

A. l only B. ll only C. lll only D. l and lll only

116. A process has been experiencing problems lately. The operators charting the process have identified the cause to be due to a change in incoming materials. This problem is A. Attributed to purchasing. B. A special cause. C. A common cause. D. A normal event.

117. A process is normally distributed with a mean of 200 and a variance of 25. One item is randomly selected, what is the probability of this item having a value greater than 210 ? A. 0.3446 B. 0.0228 C. 0.0012 D. 0.0375

Sample Test #1

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118. When used together for variables data, which of the following pair is the MOST useful in preparing control charts ? A. AQL, p-bar B. p, n C. X-bar and R D. R, sigma

119. An X-bar chart has shown control for a long time. You see that points for the last 50 samples are all very near the center line on the chart. In fact, they are all within one sigma of the center line. This probably indicates that A. It is a desirable situation. B. It is an undesirable situation. C. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the last 50 samples were taken. D. The control charts are incorrectly computed.

120. An electronics firm was experiencing high rejections in their multiple connector manufacturing departments. "p" charts were introduced as part of a program to reduce defectives. Control limits were based on prior history, using the formula:

( )P 100 - P P 3

N′ ′

′ ±

P' is the historical value of percent defective and n is the number of pieces inspected each week. After six weeks, the following record was accumulated

dept. P w1 w2 w3 w4 w5 w6104 9 8 11 6 13 12 10105 16 13 19 20 12 15 17106 15 18 19 16 11 13 16

1,000 pieces were inspected each week in each department. Which department(s) exhibited a point or points out of control during this period (round off calculations to nearest tenth of a percentage point) ?

A. Department 104. B. Department 105. C. Department 106. D. All of the department.


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121. A typical use for the optical comparator would be to measure A. Surface finish. B. Contours. C. Depth of holes. D. Diameters of internal grooves.

122. The Dodge-Romig tables are designed to minimize which of the following parameters ? A. AOQL A. AQL C. ATI D. AOQ

123. The MOST essential value of a surface plate in precision measurement application is which of the following ? A. It provides a flat working surface. B. It provides a surface free of minor vibration. C. It provides an accurate reference surface. D. It provides a chemically resistant work surface.

124. Which of the following are TRUE statements regarding the use of visual inspection ? Ⅰ. Reference standards can be used. Ⅱ. It provides consistency between inspectors. Ⅲ. It is relatively expensive. Ⅳ. It can be quickly performed.

A. l and lV only B. l, ll and lV only C. ll and lV only D. l, ll, lll and lV

125. Which of the following is the BEST statement to make regarding the relationship between product precision and product production ? A. With too little precision, production costs increase. B. With too much precision, production costs increase. C. Precision costs and performance are related. D. With little precision, performance will improve.

Sample Test #1

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126. The maximum allowable percent defective for the process average is the A. AOQL B. LPTD C. AQL D. RQL

127. Applications for surface plate includes which of the following ? Ⅰ. Referencing plane for length measurements. Ⅱ. Referencing plane for parallelism measurements. Ⅲ. Establishing a datum plane for dimensional layout. Ⅳ. Waiting place for delicate parts. Ⅴ. Keeping extra gages when not in use.

A. l and ll only B. l and lV only C. l, ll and lll only D. lll and V only

128. A process is in control with a defect rate of 0.2%. A sampling plans calls for 30 items to be selected at random, and for the process to be shut down and corrected if any defects are found. How often will the process be shut down without a change in the defect rate ? A. 1.22% of the time B. 5.83% of the time C. 3.91% of the time D. None of the above

129. Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used to evaluate sub-surface discontinuities in aluminum bar stock ? Ⅰ. Microwave. Ⅱ. Magnetic particle. Ⅲ. Pulse echo. Ⅳ. Eddy current.

A. l, ll and lV only B. l and lll only C. lll and lV only D. l and lV only

130. The use of 100% inspection normally means A. That the final customers will not experience defective product. B. That selected characteristics have been evaluated against specified standards. C. That there will be an opportunity to rework any product deemed to be outside of specifications. D. That the lowest over-all quality costs have been considered.


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131. The probability of accepting a lot of unacceptable quality is known as A. Alpha risk. B. 1-beta. C. Producer's risk. d. Beta risk.

132. Which of the following list of basic NDT techniques are X ray types ? A. Electromagnetic / Thermal. B. Radiation / Image generation. C. Ultrasonic / Optical. D. Thermal / Radiation.

133. The steeper the OC-curve, the A. Less protection for both producer and consumer. B. More protection for both producer and consumer. C. The lower the AQL. D. The smaller the sample size.

134. The AQL for a given sampling plan is 1% this means that A. The producer takes a small risk of rejecting product which is 1% defective or better. B. All accepted lots are 1% defective or better. C. All lots are 1% defective or better. D. The average quality level of the plan is 1%.

135. What distribution is used to determine the OC curve for an attributes sampling plan ? A. Normal. B. Binomial. C. Exponential. D. The binomial or the hypergeometric distribution.

136. Measurement gaging is preferable to go, no-go gaging of a quality characteristic because A. It is more scientific. B. It provides the most information per piece inspected. C. It requires greater skills. D. It requires a larger sample than go, no-go gaging does.

Sample Test #1

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137. The basic elements of an ultrasonic test systems do NOT include which of the following ? A. A transducer. B. A test object. C. A laser beam. D. An electronic system.

138. A lot is known to be 1.2% defective. Five units are randomly selected from the lot, and the lot is accepted if 1 or fewer defects are found. What is the probability of the lot being rejected ? A. 0.9985 B. 0.01 C. 0.00173 D. 0.00223

139. Given the following probabilities 1 or more defects = .70 2 or more defects = .35 3 or more defects = .15 4 or more defects = .03

What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects ? A. 0.20 B. 0.35 C. 0.65 D. 0.85

140. An operation requires shipments from your vendor of small lots of fixed size. The attribute sampling plan used for receiving inspection should have its OC curve developed using A. The binomial distribution. B. The Gaussian (normal) distribution. C. The Poisson distribution. D. The hypergeometric distribution.

141. As the scatter of points about a regression line becomes less, r 2 will A. Be unaffected. B. Become smaller. C. Become larger. D. Approach a value of 1.


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142. The critical value of the t-distribution is A. Always greater than the critical value of the normal distribution. B. Always less than the critical value of the normal distribution. C. Not related to the critical value of the normal distribution. D. Approaches the critical value of the normal distribution as the degrees of freedom increase.

143. To be effective, a corrective and preventive action system must have A. A material review board. B. Approved of the QC department. C. Top management support. D. A method for identifying nonconformities.

144. The power of efficiency in designed experiments lies in the A. Random order of performance. B. The sequential and cyclical procedure of conjecture to design to analysis and back to conjecture. C. Hidden replication. D. The large number of possible combinations of factors.

145. Which table should be used to determine a confidence interval on the mean when standard deviation is NOT known and the sample size is 10 ? A. z B. t C. F D. Chi-Square

146. Given that the population standard deviation is 6.8, what sample size is required to be 90% confident that the estimated mean has an error less than 0.02 ? A. 312,761 B. 189,859 C. 175,987 D. 152,083

Sample Test #1

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147. Given the data below is normally distributed, and the population standard deviation is 3.1, what is the 90% confidence interval for the mean ?

22, 23, 19, 17, 29, 25

A. 20.88 - 24.12 B. 20.42 - 24.59 C. 21.65 - 23.35 D. 17.4 - 27.6

148. If a sample size of 16 yields an average of 12 and standard deviation of 3, estimate the 95% confidence interval for the population (assume a normal distribution).

A. 10.40 13.60B. 10.45 13.55C. 10.53 13.47D. 10.77 13.23

≤ µ ≤≤ µ ≤≤ µ ≤≤ µ ≤

149. Which of the following statements is CORRECT ? A. The higher the correlation, the better the regression estimate. B. Regression estimates are better made with positive correlation than with negative correlation. C. The lower the correlation, the greater the likelihood that homoscedasticity exists with respect to the predicted variable. D. The better the regression estimate, the greater the likelihood that homoscedasticity exists with the respect to the predicted variable.

150. How many outcomes are possible when performing a single trial of a binomial experiment ? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

151. Which of the following is a valid null hypothesis ? A. p > 1/8

B. μ < 98 C. The mean of population A is not equal to the mean of population B D. mu = 110


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152. A two-way analysis of variance has r levels for one variable and c levels for the second variable with 2 observations per cell. The degree of freedom for interaction is A. 2(r)(c) B. (r-1)(c-1) C. rc-1 D. 2(r-1)(c-1)

153. One-way analysis of variance is MOST similar in its objectives to A. A test of a population mean. B. A test for equality of two sample proportions. C. A test for equality of two population means. D. A chi-square test for independence.

154. The difference between setting alpha equal to 0.05 and alpha equal to 0.01 in hypothesis testing is A. With alpha equal to 0.05, we are more willing to risk a type I error. B. With alpha equal to 0.05, we are more willing to risk a type II error. C. Alpha equal to 0.05 is a more "conservative" test of the null hypothesis. D. With alpha equal to 0.05, we are less willing to risk a type I error.

155. In nonparametric statistics: Ⅰ. No assumptions are made concerning the distribution from which the samples are taken. Ⅱ. The parameters of the distribution do not relate to the parameters of the sample. Ⅲ. The sample and the distribution must have no parameters in common.

A. l only B. ll only C. lll only D. ll and lll only

156. The value for t, when making a two-tailed paired t test, with samples of 13 and alpha =0.05, is A. 1.782 B. 2.179 C. 2.064 D. 1.711

157. The "least squares method" is used in

A. The central limit theorem B. Calculating σ2

C. Calculating σ 2 and s 2 D. Calculating a best fit regression line.

Sample Test #1

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158. The primary advantage of the Latin square design, compared to the factorial design, is that A. In most circumstances, it requires less data. B. It eliminates the need for interaction analysis. C. It allows higher significance levels. D. It does not require homogeneity of variance.

159. An experiment with two factors, in which all levels of one variable are run at each level of the second variable, is called a A. One-way experiment. B. Latin square experiment. C. Factorial experiment. D. Fractional factorial experiment.

160. Given the data below, what is the 90% confidence interval for the variance ?22, 23, 19, 17, 29, 25

A. 4.21 - 99.07 B. 15.32 - 28.66 C. 8.27 - 79.88 D. 16.87 - 56.52


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Solution #1

1 B 16 B 31 C 46 A 61 C 76 D 91 C 106 B 121 B 136 B 151 D2 D 17 A 32 C 47 A 62 A 77 C 92 B 107 C 122 C 137 C 152 B3 D 18 D 33 A 48 C 63 C 78 D 93 D 108 C 123 C 138 C 153 C4 C 19 C 34 D 49 B 64 B 79 C 94 C 109 D 124 A 139 D 154 A5 C 20 B 35 A 50 C 65 D 80 A 95 C 110 D 125 C 140 D 155 A6 B 21 A 36 B 51 C 66 D 81 C 96 B 111 C 126 C 141 D 156 B7 C 22 D 37 D 52 C 67 C 82 B 97 B 112 A 127 C 142 D 157 D8 A 23 B 38 B 53 B 68 B 83 B 98 B 113 C 128 B 143 D 158 A9 D 24 B 39 C 54 A 69 A 84 B 99 C 114 A 129 C 144 C 159 C

10 B 25 A 40 D 55 D 70 A 85 C 100 C 115 D 130 B 145 B 160 C11 A 26 D 41 B 56 C 71 C 86 A 101 D 116 B 131 D 146 A12 D 27 C 42 A 57 D 72 C 87 C 102 B 117 B 132 B 147 B13 D 28 B 43 D 58 B 73 B 88 D 103 D 118 C 133 B 148 A14 C 29 B 44 D 59 C 74 A 89 A 104 A 119 C 134 A 149 A15 B 30 C 45 D 60 D 75 B 90 C 105 D 120 D 135 D 150 B


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CQE Sample Test #2

1. The elements of project management are : Ⅰ. Objectives. Ⅱ. Planning. Ⅲ. Scheduling. Ⅳ. Controlling.

A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. II, III and IV only

2. Organizational roadblocks to project management implementation are a result of : Ⅰ. Competition for the same resources Ⅱ. Resistance to project team type organizational structure Ⅲ. Support by upper management Ⅳ. Changes in objectives

A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. II, III and IV only

3. Work breakdown structure means : A. Project management can only be applied to tearing down buildings, not construction of new structures. B. The workers have organized and have delayed the project until their demands are met. C. The project plan has failed due to lack of support by upper management. D. The statement of work is divided into the detailed listing of activities required to complete the project.

Sample Test #2

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4. Consider the following network, with events marked within the circles and durations in weeks :The critical path is :

A. 1-3-6-8-10 B. 1-3-6-9-10 C. 1-4-6-8-10 D. 1-4-6-9-10

5. What would occur if the quality goals were not a part of the strategic plan ? A. There would be no strategic goals. B. There would not be as much emphasis on quality. C. The total quality effort would not suffer. D. The quality department would still maintain the quality goals.

6. Strategic quality goals must be subdivided. Thus, they are : A. Delegated. B. Distributed. C. Accountable. D. Deployed.

7. Your top management staff has asked you, the acting quality manager, to help them install TQM. In what general order would you recommend that they proceed with the following ? Ⅰ. As a group, study the gurus. Ⅱ. Have the CEO study the beliefs of the gurus. Ⅲ. Go to any identified workshops. Ⅳ. Decide on a philosophy.

A. II, I, III, IV B. IV, I, II, III C. III, I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV


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8. One of Dr. Deming's 14 points for Management states release dependence upon inspection as a way to achieve quality. The underlying tenet of this statement is which of the following ? A. Many American companies employ too many inspectors; perhaps 5 - 10% of the work force. B. Quality should be built into the product not inspected in. C. In most cases, the workers should perform his/her own inspection and not rely on someone else. D. Most manual inspection will miss 10 -20% of defects under typical working conditions.

9. The MOST important step in vendor certification is to : A. Obtain copies of the vendor's quality manual. B. Familiarize the vendor with quality requirements. C. Analyze the vendor's first shipment. D. Visit the vendor's plant.

10. A vendor quality assurance function has been adopted; which of the following provisions would you advise top management to be the LEAST effective ? A. Product audits. B. Source inspection. C. Certificate of analysis. D. Certificate of compliance.

11. The MOST desirable method of evaluating a supplier is : A. A history evaluation. B. A survey evaluation. C. A questionnaire. D. Discussion with the quality manager on the phone.

12. Which of the following is the BEST definition of configuration management ? A. The collection of all product information and activities. B. A documentation system. C. A change order, record keeping system. D. A product production management plan.

Sample Test #2

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13. You are the supplier quality engineer in charge of procured parts for manned flight space vehicles. A small manufacturing enterprise has placed a call to your office, seeking to become a supplier. You request which of the following key information from them ? Ⅰ. ISO 9000 certification number and registrar. Ⅱ. Process capability indices on key processes. Ⅲ. MIL-STD-45208A requirements. Ⅳ. A copy of their Quality Manual.

A. I only B. II & III only C. I, II, & IV only D. I, II, III, & IV

14. Training records are needed because ? Ⅰ. They can satisfy an ISO 9000 requirement. Ⅱ. They can satisfy a Malcolm Baldrige requirement. Ⅲ. They can satisfy an OSHA requirement. Ⅳ. They can satisfy an audit requirement.

A. I and IV only B. II and IV only C. I, II and III only D. I, II, III and IV

15. What is the MOST important consideration for customers who stay with a company ? A. Product quality. B. Service quality. C. Prompt service. D. Courteous technicians.

16. Customer expectations follow what sequence in the hierarchy of needs ? Ⅰ. Expected. Ⅱ. Basic. Ⅲ. Unanticipated. Ⅳ. Desired.

A. II, I, IV, III B. III, I, II, IV C. IV, II, I, III D. I, II, III, IV


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17. A key characteristic of a business partnership is : A. Sharing of critical business information. B. Limited access to human resources. C. Special company audits are performed. D. Only plant managers agree on agendas.

18. As you work through a conflict situation with a customer : A. There is no conflict, the customer is always right. B. The process should not embarrass either party. C. The company should maintain its position. D. All steps and procedures are strictly followed.

19. The matrix diagram is used to show the relationship between 2 variables. Matrices can be developed in several ways. Which of the following matrix types illustrates relationships in three planes ? A. L-type. B. T-type. C. C-type. D. Y-type.

20. In developing a chart to plot a course of action, with many of the events or milestones unknown, which new quality tool would be used ? A. Process decision program(PDPC) chart. B. Activity network diagram. C. Matrix diagram. D. Affinity diagram.

21. An Ishikawa diagram is also known as a : Ⅰ. Cause and effect diagram. Ⅱ. Process flow diagram. Ⅲ. Scatter diagram. Ⅳ. Fishbone diagram.

A. I only B. I, III and IV only C. I and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

Sample Test #2

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22. Tally sheets used for organizing and collecting facts and data include which two of the following ? Ⅰ. Measles chart. Ⅱ. Checksheets. Ⅲ. PERT charts. Ⅳ. Gantt charts.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. I and V only

23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a bimodal distribution ? A. This distribution shows stratified data and two distinct peaks. B. This distribution shows a single mode and bell shaped distribution. C. This distribution is truncated. D. This distribution has several distribution peaks.

24. Which problem solving tool uses a cumulative line such that the defect class constituting 60% of all defects can be easily determined ? A. Scatter diagram. B. Pareto diagram. C. Histogram D. Cause and effect diagram.

25. When constructing a Pareto diagram where should the other category be placed ? A. At the beginning as the first category. B. Directly in the center of the chart. C. At the end as the last category. D. Where it falls according to indicated frequency.

26. The probability of event A occurring and event B occurring is equal to the probability of event A occurring multiplied by the probability of event B occurring if : Ⅰ. Events A and B are mutually exclusive. Ⅱ. Events A and B are independent. Ⅲ. The covariance of events A and B is zero.

A. I only B. I and III only C. II only D. II and III only


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27. A statistic is : A. The solution to a problem. B. A population value. C. A positive number between 0 and 1 inclusive. D. A sample value.

28. A lot of 50 pieces contains 5 defectives. A sample of two is drawn without replacement. The probability that both will be defective is approximately : A. 0.0100 B. 0.0010 C. 0.0082 D. 0.0093

29. A process is producing material which is 20% defective. Five pieces are selected at random for inspection. What is the probability of exactly three good pieces being found in the sample ? A. 0.184 B. 0.061 C. 0.205 D. 0.051

30. The "y" axis of a cumulative probability function shows : A. The incremental probability of events. B. The probability of an event for a given "x". C. The relative frequency of events. D. The probability of events equal to or less than a given "x".

31. The mean of either a discrete or a continuous distribution can always be visualized as : Ⅰ. The point where 50% of the values are to the left side and 50% are to the right side. Ⅱ. Its center of gravity. Ⅲ. The point where most values in the distribution occur.

A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

32. A sampling scoop samples about a hundred units per trial. What must be the approximate defect average for there to be a 95% chance that at least one defect will be found in the sample ? A. 5.4 B. 4.75 C. 3.0 D. 1.8

Sample Test #2

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33. The diameter of a population of ball bearings is normally distributed with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 8. What is the probability of the average diameter of 10 randomly selected ball bearings being greater than 77 ? A. 0.3751 B. 0.4013 C. 0.2146 D. 0.0210

34. Which of the following indicate an out of control condition ? Ⅰ. A trend of 9 points in an upward direction. Ⅱ. 10 consecutive points above or below the center. Ⅲ. 2 of 3 consecutive points outside the 2-sigma warning limits.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

35. A control chart is used to : A. Determine if defective parts are being produced. B. Measure process capability. C. Determine causes of process variation. D. Detect non-random variation in processes.

36. The main purpose for using a control chart is to : A. Detect non-conforming material. B. Determine when the process is not within specification limits. C. Detect assignable causes of variation. D. Determine the process capability.

37. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A. The width of a confidence interval decreases as the sample size increases. B. The width of a confidence interval increases as the population size increases. C. A 90% confidence interval is wider than a 95% confidence interval. D. The width of a confidence interval increases as the population size decreases.


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38. Which of the following is NOT correct in reference to regression ? A. The independent variable is plotted on the x-axis. B. The coefficient of determination is a measure of the amount of variability explained by the regression model. C. The residuals are assumed to be normally distributed. D. There is one independent variable and one or more dependent variables.

39. Given a coefficient of determination of 0.9, what is the correlation coefficient ? A. 0.9 or -0.9 B. 0.81 or -0.81 C. 0.9487 or -0.9487 D. 0.9487

40. Given a one-way ANOVA, and given the sum of squares for error is 28, the sum of squares between treatments is 86, the mean square error is 7, and the mean square between treatments is 21.5, compute the F-statistic. A. 0.45 B. 3.07 C. 8.22 D. 1.302

41. For a Latin Square design : A. The number of trials must be 8. B. All interactions are measured. C. The number of rows must equal the number of columns. D. The square of the result is analyzed.

42. Which of the following CANNOT be a null hypothesis ? A. The population means are equal. B. P' = 0.5 C. The sample means are equal. D. The difference in the population means is 3.85

43. A process calls for the mean value of a dimension to be 2.02". Which of the following should be used as the null hypothesis to test whether or not the process is achieving this mean ? A. The mean of the population is 2.02" B. The mean of the sample is 2.02" C. The mean of the population is not 2.02" D. The mean of the sample is not 2.02"

Sample Test #2

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44. If, in a designed experiment, you obtained an F-ratio of 0.68 with 2 and 20 degrees of freedom, you would conclude that : A. There were no significant differences among the means. B. You had made an error. C. The variances were equal. D. The null hypothesis was rejected.

45. A correlation problem : A. Is solved by estimating the value of the dependent variable for various values of the independent ' variable. B. Considers the joint variation of two measurements, neither of which is restricted by the experimenter. C. Is the one case where the underlying distributions must be geometric. D. Is solved by assuming that the variables are normally and independently distributed with mean = 0 and variance = s2

46. Which table should be used to determine a confidence interval on the mean when s is NOT known and the sample size is 10 ? A. z B. t C. F D. Chi-Square

47. In every experiment there is experimental error. Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A. This error is due to lack of uniformity of the material used in the experiment and to inherent variability in the experimental technique. B. This error can be changed statistically by increasing the degrees of freedom. C. The error can be reduced only by improving the material. D. In a well-designed experiment there is no interaction effect.

48. When constructing a factorial experiment, which of the following is TRUE ? A. Factorial experiments may not contain any number of levels per factor. They must be the same for each factor B. Confounding takes place in factorials when we run a fractional part of the complete experiment. C. Contrasts and treatment combinations are the same. D. In factorials, the factors must be quantitative.


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49. The Risk Priority Number is used when : A. Auditing safety hazards. B. Predicting reliability. C. Constructing a fault tree. D. Completing an FMEA.

50. Which of the following is best suited for modelling the reliability of a complex piece of equipment ? A. Fault-tree. B. FMEA. C. MIL-STD-217. D. Vector Space Analysis.


52. A reference dimension on a drawing A. Describes a feature from which tolerances are established. B. Describes the location of a large number of similarly shaped features. C. Describes a normal datum dimension. D. Describes an information dimension, which is not to be inspected.

53. The drawing dimensions were specified in terms of a normal value +/-3 standard deviations. This is an indication that A. Approximately 99.73% of the typical process output would be approved. B. A meaningless variation specification has been indicated. C. Specification tolerances are established after the production tolerances. D. The natural manufacturing process spread will be acceptable.

Sample Test #2

- 12 -

54. Four ingredients are blended to make a final product. Using the data below, what is the expected weight and variation of the final product ? Ingredient A 70 +/ - 3.00 grams. Ingredient B 20 +/ - 1.73 grams. Ingredient C 15 +/ - 1.73 grams. Ingredient D 10 +/ - 1.00 grams.

A. 115 +/- 7.46 grams. B. 115 +/- 5.73 grams. C. 115 +/- 4.00 grams. D. 115 +/- 3.61 grams.

55. During the pre-award survey at a potential key supplier, you discover the existence of a quality control manual; this means A. That a quality system has been developed. B. That a quality system has been implemented. C. That the firm is quality conscious. D. That the firm has a quality manager.

56. Which of the following statements is FALSE ? A. A quality audit should be done on a surprise basis. B. A quality audit should be structured. C. A quality audit should include recommendations. D. A quality audit should avoid determining blame.

57. The final audit report should contain Ⅰ. The audit team membership. Ⅱ. The same tone and content as the audit. Ⅲ. A description of any key observations or findings. Ⅳ. The scope and objectives of the audit.

A. II, III and IV only B. III and IV only C. II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV


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58. The primary purpose of an process audit is A. Detect and reject defective products missed by normal inspection. B. Provide data to direct operator and / or inspector training. C. Measure the effectiveness of the current quality system. D. Provide data in case operator disciplinary action is required.

59. If the specification limits are wider than the control limits, then A. The process is capable. B. The process capability index is greater than 1.0. C. The specification limits replace the control limits on the chart. D. None of the above.

60. Given an average of 1.93 nonconformities per 5 units, what is the upper limit of the control chart used in this situation ? A. 6.10 B. 2.45 C. 7.13 D. 3.79

61. What is the ARL for an X bar control chart(n = 5) assuming the process remains in control ? A. 3 B. 8 C. 283 D. 370

62. If two-sigma limits are substituted for conventional three-sigma limits on a control chart, which of the following occurs ? A. Decrease in alpha risk. B. Increase in beta risk. C. Increase in alpha risk. D. Increase in sample size.

63. What is the upper control limit for a p chart (proportion defective) when the average daily production is 2500 units with an established fraction defective of 0.05 ? A. 0.054 B. 0.058 C. 0.063 D. 0.066

Sample Test #2

- 14 -

64. An X-bar and R chart with n = 5 has been plotted for some time and has demonstrated random variation. Upon review of the last 30 plot points, the expected number of runs around the centerline on the X-bar chart is expected to be approximately which of the following ? A. 4 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16

65. Which of the following are the most logical reasons for providing source inspection ? Ⅰ. The supplier has consistently shown poor out-going quality. Ⅱ. The key inspection points are hidden after assembly at the suppliers' plant. Ⅲ. The supplier requests the inspection to save them potential shipping expenses. Ⅳ. The criticality of the product warrants it.

A. I, II and IV only B. II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

66. Consider the following statement "A defect which might affect the appearance or general function of essential parts"

This definition describes a seriousness classification described as: A. Incidental. B. Critical. C. Minor. D. Major.

67. Which of the following would NOT be considered as part of detailed inspection instructions ? A. Whether the product or service conforms to specifications. B. What records must be kept. C. What must be done with non-acceptable parts. D. What are the applicable standards.

68. A lot is known to be 1.2% defective. Five units are randomly selected from the lot, and the lot is accepted if 1 or fewer defects are found. What is the probability of the lot being rejected ? A. 0.9985 B. 0.01 C. 0.00141 D. 0.00223


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69. For special inspection level 3, and a lot size of 300, what is the sample size code letter for ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 ? A. A B. C C. D D. F

70. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Dodge-Romig sampling plans ? A. Single and Double sampling plans are available. B. They were developed in the 1960s. C. Plans exist for LTPD protection and to provide a specified AOQL. D. They apply only when rejected lots are 100% inspected.

71. What is the inspection level code letter for inspection level II and a lot size of 500 when using ANSI/ASQ Z1.9 ? A. C B. E C. G D. I

72. The use of Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) requires A. The critical path to be known in advance. B. Slack times to be added to the critical path. C. Time estimates for each activity in the network. D. Less data than a Gantt chart.

73. The first and most important project planning step is A. Securing resources. B. Defining the objective. C. Defining the specifications. D. Creating the Gantt chart.

Sample Test #2

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74. The project planning sequence is Ⅰ. Budgets. Ⅱ. Statement of work. Ⅲ. Project objective. Ⅳ. Work breakdown structure.

A. I, III, II, IV B. II, III, I, IV C. III, IV, II, I D. lII, II, IV, I

75. A thorough review of the works of the major quality gurus would indicate which of the following to be the most effective way to create quality ? A. Effective problem solving. B. Benchmarking the best competitive practices. C. Continuous process improvement. D. Modern statistical control techniques.

76. Consider the following list of quality concepts and then identify the appropriate quality management luminary that is NOT identified with any of them Ⅰ. Company wide quality control. Ⅱ. The quality trilogy. Ⅲ. The quality explosion. Ⅳ. Signal to noise ratio. Ⅴ. Zero defects. Ⅵ. Total quality control.

A. Dr. Armand V. Feigenbaum. B. Dr. W. Edward Deming. C. Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa. D. Dr. Stephen Covey.

77. For employee involvement efforts to succeed, what may be needed ? A. Increased employee incentives. B. Increased basic training company wide. C. Employee understanding of how they can make a difference. D. The initiation of pilot projects.


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78. What other problem solving tool is customarily used to compliment the fishbone diagram ? A. Scatter diagrams. B. Pareto diagrams. C. Brainstorming. D. Force field analysis

79. Scatter diagrams are useful in problem solving because they A. Display the significant few. B. Eliminate the trivial many. C. Show relationships between variables. D. Highlight assignable causes.

80. The most widely used technique for distinguishing between chronic and insignificant problems is A. A Pareto diagram. B. A control chart. C. A cause and effect diagram. D. A scatter diagram.

81. Process flow improvement steps normally do NOT include Ⅰ. Asking why we do it this way. Ⅱ. Asking what would make it "perfect". Ⅲ. Analyzing each step in detail. Ⅳ. The use of Pareto diagrams. Ⅴ. A comparison with processes different than your own.

A. I and V only B. II and IV only C. III only D. IV only

82. Historically, the number of flaws in the finish of surface has an average of 0.45. What is the probability of a randomly selected item having more than 1 defect in the surface finish ? A. 0.0755 B. 0.2869 C. 0.6376 D. 0.3624

83. If Events A and B are independent, then A. P(B/A)=P(A) B. P(A/B)=P(B) C. P(B/A)=P(B) D. A and B above

Sample Test #2

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84. On average, a company hires 4 people per month. In a given month, what is the probability that exactly 7 people will be hired ? A. 0 B. 0.0595 C. 0.4487 D. 0.0087

85. If a distribution is skewed to the left A. The mode is between the median and the mean. B. The mean is between the mode and the median. C. The mode is greater than the median. D. A and B above.

86. The term poka-yoke refers to A. The mistake - proofing of a process. B. As close to zero defects as possible. C. The institution of just-in-time procedures. D. The control of product flow via colored markings.

87. Consider the linear relationship between two variables in the figure below. Which of the following are true statements regarding the regression line shown ?

Ⅰ. The regression line should always go through the origin and this one doesn't. Ⅱ. Both the x and y intercepts will show positive values. Ⅲ. There is fairly strong correlation between the two variables. Ⅳ. The relationship between the two variables reflects a "negative" slope.

A. I, II and III only B. III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV


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88. Which of these quality tools would NOT be expected to be used during the results confirmation stage of a problem solution ? A. Flow chart. B. Pareto diagram. C. Histogram. D. Control chart.

89. Reengineering is BEST described as A. Studying a business that is a leader in their field and using some of their activities. B. Rethinking and radically redesigning the business. C. Installing state of the art equipment and processes. D. Improving the design of products.

90. The descriptive name for a fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is which of the following ? A. Flow charts. B. Cause and effect diagrams. C. Pareto diagram. D. Scatter diagram.

91. Which of the quality tools below is BEST suited for directing attention to problems in a systematic manner ? A. Pareto. B. Cause and Effect. C. Scatter. D. Control chart.

92. Which of the following terms apply to control charts ? Ⅰ. Process median. Ⅱ. Process average. Ⅲ. Upper control limit. Ⅳ. Process standard deviation. Ⅴ. Variable correlation.

A. I, II, III, IV and V B. II, III and IV only C. II and V only D. I, III and IV only

Sample Test #2

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93. For the normal probability distribution, the relationships among the median, mean and mode are that A. They are all equal to the same value. B. The mean and mode have the same value but the median is different. C. Each has a value different from the other two. D. The mean and median are the same but the mode is different.

94. A successful quality team program should produce all of the following benefits EXCEPT A. Improved worker morale. B. Decreased need for management efforts to maintain quality. C. Improved communication between managers and quality team members. D. Cost savings from participative problem solving.

95. The primary reason for evaluating and maintaining surveillance over a supplier's quality program is to A. Perform product inspection at the source. B. Eliminate incoming inspection costs. C. Motivate suppliers to improve quality. D. Make sure the supplier's quality program is functioning effectively.

96. Technical service to suppliers is A. A great public relations gesture when personnel are available. B. A greater benefit to the company than it is to the supplier. C. A support feature for which suppliers are normally charged. D. An optional luxury which is not a company responsibility.

97. The audit team normally advises the auditee immediately upon the discovery of a finding during an audit. Which of the following items is (are) valid reasons for taking this action ? Ⅰ. If corrected immediately, the findings may be eliminated from the audit report. Ⅱ. If corrected immediately, it shows genuine auditee interest in the objectives of the audit. Ⅲ. If corrected immediately, it demonstrates the strength of an ongoing audit program.

A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III


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98. A quality systems audit is generally MOST effective if Ⅰ. It is initiated because of a recent customer complaint. Ⅱ. It has defined management objectives. Ⅲ. It checks system elements on a scheduled ongoing basis. Ⅳ. It is the result of a widely recognized internal product quality issue.

A. II and IV only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and IV only

99. Which of the following parties, traditionally initiates an audit ? A. The client. B. The plant manager. C. The lead auditor. D. The auditee.

100. During the performance of an audit, which of the following are key considerations ? Ⅰ. What sampling plans may be necessary ? Ⅱ. Is the audit schedule progressing as planned ? Ⅲ. Is there a need for a technical specialist ? Ⅳ. Is the level of compliance satisfactory ?

A. I, II and III only B. II and IV only C. I and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

101. Which of the following statements CANNOT be made regarding a process audit ? Ⅰ. They can be helpful in improving the process in question. Ⅱ. They are more formal than a system audit. Ⅲ. They require less planning than a systems audit. Ⅳ. They may be performed internally or externally.

A. II only B. II and III only C. I, II and IV only D. II and IV only

Sample Test #2

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102. What is the meaning of the G D & T symbol below ?

A. Maximum material condition. B. Regardless of feature size. C. Least material condition. D. Projected tolerance zone.

103. The best argument(s) to avoid unnecessary accuracy in dimension measurement is(are) which of the following? Ⅰ. The measuring instrument may be more expensive. Ⅱ. The total measurement process may be more expensive. Ⅲ. More measurement time may be required.

A. II only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

104. When non-conforming product is encountered, a materials control plan must have procedures to control which of the following events ? Ⅰ. Identification. Ⅱ. Segregation. Ⅲ. Disposition.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

105. Which of the following would be the most important considerations when establishing inspection points within a production operation ? Ⅰ. Inspection to prevent defects from entering the system. Ⅱ. Inspection after all operations (both manual and automated). Ⅲ. Inspection prior to a painting or masking operation.

A. I only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I, II and III


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107. The duties of a materials review board (MRB) do NOT include A. Development of corrective action plans to correct non-conformities. B. A review of non-conforming product. C. Disposition of any set-aside non conforming products. D. Monitoring the effectiveness of the quality system.

108. Which of the following is an advantage of automated inspection over conventional inspection ? A. Greater mobility. B. Greater flexibility. C. Lower initial costs. D. Shorter inspection times

109. Compared to traditional inspection, which of the following would be considered advantages of automated inspection systems ? Ⅰ. Greater accuracy. Ⅱ. Faster report generation. Ⅲ. Lower operating costs. Ⅳ. Shorter inspection times.

A. II and III only B. I and III only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

Sample Test #2

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110. The use of standards traceable to NIST provides assurance that the measuring equipment is Ⅰ. Valid. Ⅱ. Precise. Ⅲ. Accurate. Ⅳ. Sensitive.

A. II only B. III only C. I, II and III only D. I, II, III and IV

111. Most of the base units of the SI measurement system can be produced via laboratory experimentation. An exception to this rule is the category for A. Length. B. Temperature. C. Mass. D. Substance.

112. The most essential value of a surface plate in precision measurement application is which of the following ? A. It provides a flat working surface. B. It provides a surface free of minor vibration. C. It provides an accurate reference surface. D. It provides a chemically resistant work surface.

113. The use of a magnifying lens on an optical comparator helps ensure Ⅰ. Greater sensitivity and reproducibility in the measurement. Ⅱ. An expanded display of surface roughness and surface defects. Ⅲ. More illumination of the edge of the test object.

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III


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114. The typical responsibilities of a calibration department would include which of the following ? Ⅰ. Ensuring traceability of all calibrations to a standard laboratory. Ⅱ. Maintaining an adequate record system. Ⅲ. Suspending measuring equipment from use when conditions warrant. Ⅳ. Identify equipment with a label indicating calibration status.

A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

115. Which of the following are true statements regarding the use of visual inspection ? Ⅰ. Reference standards can be used. Ⅱ. It provides consistency between inspectors. Ⅲ. It is relatively expensive. Ⅳ. It can be quickly performed.

A. I and IV only B. I, II and IV only C. II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

116. Consider the following incomplete list of liquid penetrant steps 1. A liquid penetrant is applied. 2. Excess penetrant is washed off the test piece. 3. The test piece surface is cleaned. 4. An accept/reject decision is made. 5. The acceptable parts are post-cleaned. 6. The developer is applied to the part.

A. 3, 1, 2, 6, 4, 5 B. 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4 D. 1, 3, 6, 2, 4, 5

117. Which of the following is the BEST statement to make regarding the relationship between product precision and product production ? A. With too little precision, production costs increase. B. With too much precision, production costs increase. C. Precision costs and performance are related. D. With little precision, performance will improve.

Sample Test #2

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118. Calibration intervals of "Measuring & Test Equipment" must be based upon (per MIL-STD-45662): A. Intervals assigned by the Department of Defense. B. Corporate rules and procedures. C. Equipment stability, purpose, and degree of usage. D. Predetermined intervals.

119. Measurement gaging is preferable to go, no-go gaging of a quality characteristic because A. It is more scientific. B. It provides the most information per piece inspected. C. It requires greater skills. D. It requires a larger sample than go, no-go gaging does.

120. The Dodge-Romig sampling tables for AOQL protection A. Require sorting of rejected lots. B. Are the same in principle as the table. C. Do not depend upon the process average. D. Require larger samples than ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 for equivalent quality assurances.

121. A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of 5 and a rejection number of 6. If the quality of the submitted lots is ten percent defective, then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately A. 6% B. 10% C. 20% D. 30%

122. Two quantities which uniquely determine a single sampling attributes plan are A. AQL and LTPD. B. Sample size and rejection number. C. AQL and producer's risk. D. LTPD and consumer's risk.


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124. The Shewhart or Deming cycle is often referred to as A. The cause and effect diagram. B. The affinity diagram. C. Plan-do-check-act. D. Problem solving flow chart.

125. Variables control charts are designed with which of the following objectives ? A. To reduce sample size. B. To fix the risk of accepting poor product. C. To decide when to investigate causes of variation. D. To establish an acceptable quality level.

126. What is the corrective action sequence for the options below ? Ⅰ. Assign an investigator to the problem. Ⅱ. Assess the importance of the problem. Ⅲ. Analyze the problem. Ⅳ. Install necessary controls.

A. II, III, I, IV B. II, I, III, IV C. I, III, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV

127. The quality tool widely used to analyze the relationship between two variables is A. Scatter diagram. B. Pareto diagram. C. Run charts. D. Cause and effect diagram.

128. A number derived from sample data, which describes the data in some useful way, is called a A. Constant. B. Statistic. C. Parameter. D. Critical value.

Sample Test #2

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129. Estimate the variance of the population from which the following sample data came22, 18, 17, 20, 21

A. 4.3 B. 2.1 C. 1.9 D. 5.0

130. Given 6 books, how many sets can be arranged in lots of 3 but always in a different order ? A. 18 sets. B. 54 sets. C. 108 sets. D. 120 sets.

131. In statistical quality control, a parameter is A. A random variable. B. A sample value. C. A population value. D. The solution to a statistical problem.

132. Which of the following measures of variability is NOT dependent on the exact value of every measurement ? A. Mean deviation. B. Variance. C. Range. D. Standard deviation.

133. A box contains 27 black and 3 red balls. A random sample of 5 balls is drawn without replacement. What is the probability that the sample contains one red ball ? A. 0.108 B. 0.270 C. 0.369 D. 0.500

134. Which one of the following is a true statement of probability ? A. P(E and F) = P(E) + P(F) B. P(E or F) = P(E) + P(E|F) C. P(E or F) = P(E) + P(F) - P(E and F) D. P(E and F) = P(E) + P(F) - P(E and F)


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135. A p-chart has exhibited statistical control over a period of time. However, the average fraction defective is too high to be satisfactory. Improvement can be obtained by Ⅰ. A change in the basic design of the product. Ⅱ. Instituting 100% inspection. Ⅲ. A change in the production process through substitution of new tooling or machinery.

A. I only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

136. Basic assumptions underlying the analysis of variance include Ⅰ. Observations are from normally distributed populations. Ⅱ. Observations are from populations with equal variances. Ⅲ. Observations are from populations with equal means.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

137. You have just conducted a designed experiment at three levels A, B, and C yielding the following "coded " data:

A B C6 5 33 9 45 1 2

2

As a major step in your analysis, you calculate the degree of freedom for the "error" sum of squares to be A. 7 B. 9 C. 6 D. 3

138. Which of the following statements concerning the coefficient of simple linear correlation, r, is NOT true ? A. r = 0.00 represents the absence of a relationship. B. The relationship between the two variables must be nonlinear. C. r = 0.76 has the same predictive power as r = -0.76. D. r = 1.00 represents a perfect relationship.

Sample Test #2

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139. Formation of a quality council is a logical first step when an organization launches a quality improvement program Ⅰ. Because improvement is a strategic goal. Ⅱ. Because improvement needs to be monitored. Ⅲ. Because improvement teams need to be well prepared and equipped.

A. Ⅰ only. B. Ⅰ, Ⅲ only. C. Ⅱ, Ⅲ only. D. All of the above.

140. An organization quality council is usually composed of Ⅰ. The workforces. Ⅱ. The upper managers. Ⅲ. The middle managers.

A. Ⅰ only. B. Ⅱ only. C. Ⅱ, Ⅲ only. D. All of the above.

141. Project improvement team members normally have A. Narrow skills and experiences. B. Diverse skills and narrow experiences. C. Diverse experiences and narrow skills. D. Diverse skills and experiences.

142. The facilitator should have special training in improvement techniques in order to Ⅰ. Keep the process on track. Ⅱ. Assist with complex data analysis. Ⅲ. Train team members in the improvement process.

A. Ⅰ only. B. Ⅰ, Ⅱ only. C. Ⅰ, Ⅲ only. D. All of the above.

143. A self-directed team is appropriate for which of the following activities ? A. Implementing a new company-wide phone system. B. Defining purchase order requirements. C. Resolving labor union issues. D. Solving a departmental procedural problem.


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144. Rate the following actions or activities from short terms to long term Ⅰ. Containment actions. Ⅱ. Temporary actions. Ⅲ. Continuous improvement. Ⅳ. Preventive actions.

A. Ⅱ, Ⅰ , Ⅳ, Ⅲ B. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅳ, Ⅲ C. Ⅳ, Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ, Ⅳ

145. The major reason for using a control chart is to A. Discover inherent variation in the process. B. Discover the root cause of nonconforming quality characteristics. C. Find nonconformities. D. Detect nonrandom variation.

146. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the process ? A. Pareto chart. B. Control chart. C. Histogram. D. Fish bone chart.

147. Correlation coefficients are generated from which of the following graphs ? A. Measles charts. B. Scatter diagrams. C. Pareto diagrams. D. Control Charts.

148. The quality audit could be used to judge all of the following EXCEPT A. A prospective vendor's capability for meeting quality standards. B. The adequacy of a current vendor's system for controlling quality. C. The application of a specification to a unique situation. D. The adequacy of a company's own system for controlling quality.

Sample Test #2

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149. Review of purchase orders for quality requirements falls into which one of the following quality cost segments ? A. Prevention. B. Appraisal. C. Internal failures. D. External Failures.

150. Communication with vendors on quality problems A. Should be initiated by the vendor's quality control department. B. Should be initiated by the vendee's purchasing department. C. Should be initiated by the vendee's engineering department. D. Can be resolved only through personal visits between vendor and vendee.

151. What does "the voice of the customer" refer to ? A. Customer call ins. B. Analysis of complaint cards. C. Listening to the customer. D. Internal option polls.

152. It is generally easier to find a benchmarking partner in which of the following area ? A. Process. B. Project. C. Strategic. D. Product.

153. If qualitative data were being considered, what quality improvement tools could be utilized ? Ⅰ. Control charts. Ⅱ. Affinity diagrams. Ⅲ. Pareto diagrams. Ⅳ. Flowcharts.

A. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ B. Ⅱ, Ⅲ C. Ⅱ, Ⅳ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ, Ⅳ


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154. The advantages of a quality cost system would NOT include which of the following ? A. Aligns quality and company goals. B. Provides a prioritization system for the allocation of resources. C. Insures the resolution of specific quality problems. D. Provides a manageable overview of quality.

155. Your company produces one, two, or three automated assembly systems per order. Each system is custom built for the customer's application. The system are very complex and include computer controls, mechanical components, and pneumatic actions. Each system can have multiple problems which are found at final inspection. The most appropriate control chart for this process is which of the following ? A. c chart. B. np chart. C. u chart. D. MX bar - MR chart.

156. An X bar-R chart has been established based on 30 sets of 5 samples taken at 15 minute intervals. The next 20 sets of samples all had averages within the control limits, with no apparent trends or patterns. The range values have been within control limits as well, with no apparent trends or patterns. Which of the following statements may NOT be true ? A. 100% of the parts meet specifications. B. The process is in control. C. The sample average are normally distributed. D. The process has shown no assignable causes.

157. Which statement is (are) TRUE regarding the correlation coefficient ? Ⅰ. It varies from 0 through 1. Ⅱ. A negative relationship is indicated if X increases and Y decreases. Ⅲ. It is always a positive number. A. Ⅰ B. Ⅲ C. Ⅱ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ

158. Which of the following quality tools would be LEAST important in the problem definition phase ? A. Fishbone diagrams. B. Control Charts. C. Process flow diagrams. D. Pareto diagrams.

Sample Test #2

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159. An X bar and R chart can be helpful in controlling a process when Ⅰ. The machine capability is wider than the specification. Ⅱ. It is necessary to know when to investigate a process for cause of variation. Ⅲ. The machine capability is smaller than the specification. Ⅳ. A reduced sample size is needed. Ⅴ. An acceptable quality level must be established.

A. Ⅰ, Ⅱ B. Ⅱ, Ⅲ C. Ⅲ, Ⅳ D. Ⅲ, Ⅴ

160. An "empowered" team is able to A. Terminate employment of nonproductive employees. B. Request information from all organizational levels. C. Represent the organization in legal affairs. D. Purchase up to $100,000 of incidents.


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Solution #2

1 D 16 A 31 B 46 B 61 D 76 D 91 A 106 A 121 C 136 A 151 C2 B 17 A 32 C 47 A 62 C 77 C 92 B 107 A 122 B 137 A 152 B3 D 18 B 33 C 48 B 63 C 78 C 93 A 108 D 123 C 138 B 153 C4 C 19 D 34 D 49 D 64 D 79 C 94 B 109 D 124 C 139 D 154 C5 B 20 A 35 D 50 A 65 B 80 A 95 D 110 B 125 C 140 B 155 C6 D 21 C 36 C 51 C 66 D 81 D 96 B 111 C 126 D 141 D 156 A7 A 22 A 37 A 52 A 67 A 82 A 97 C 112 C 127 A 142 C 157 C8 B 23 A 38 D 53 B 68 C 83 C 98 C 113 A 128 B 143 D 158 B9 B 24 B 39 C 54 C 69 C 84 B 99 A 114 D 129 A 144 B 159 B10 D 25 C 40 B 55 A 70 B 85 C 100 B 115 A 130 D 145 D 160 B11 A 26 D 41 C 56 A 71 D 86 A 101 A 116 A 131 C 146 C12 A 27 D 42 C 57 D 72 C 87 C 102 B 117 C 132 C 147 B13 C 28 C 43 A 58 C 73 B 88 A 103 D 118 C 133 C 148 C14 D 29 C 44 A 59 D 74 D 89 B 104 D 119 B 134 C 149 A15 B 30 D 45 B 60 D 75 C 90 B 105 C 120 A 135 B 150 B

Sample Test #2

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CQE Sample Test #2 : Solutions.

1. DThe elements of project management are: Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling. This can be stated as 1) deciding what to do, 2) deciding when to do it, and 3) assuring that desired results are obtained. Setting the objectives is an important step in the project process. However, the elements of the project management process are II, III and IV. Answer D is correct.

2. BThe wording of this question is somewhat tricky. One might argue that organizational roadblocks are due to all four factors listed above. Upper management approves the project and thereby supports the project. At the same time, upper management may create organizational roadblocks to the project by making changes in the project objective, after the project has started. They may also start too many projects at the same time, creating competition for the same resources. Finally, project team members may not accept reporting to a project manager whose hierarchical position is lower than theirs. Answer B is correct.

3. DThe work breakdown structure (WBS) is a detailed plan which expands the statement of work into the detailed listing of activities required to complete the project. The project manager is responsible for completion of the work breakdown structure, including assignment of responsibility for each task to an individual or organizational group. Answer D is correct. References: CQE Primer, Section II and Kerzner, H., Project Management A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling and Controlling, 3rd ed., pp. 597-607.

4. CThe critical path is the task sequence which requires the greatest expected time.

5. BStrategic goals could exist without a quality element. Therefore, answer A is not correct. Answer B, lack of emphasis, can occur. The total quality effort would possibly suffer if it is not part of the strategic plan. The quality effort needs commitment from top management. Therefore, answer C is not a correct statement. Quality department goals (answer D) would not be strategic in nature. The best choice is B. Answer B is correct.


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6. DDelegated means to be assigned goals (answer A). Distributed means to be given goals (answer B). Accountable means to be responsible for the goals (answer C). Deployed means to have the goals spread out into attainable portions. Answer D is the best choice. Answer D is correct.

7. ALogic indicates that the CEO should study the gurus first (item II), this action should be followed by the total management team (item I). The decision on a plant philosophy should be undertaken only after a thorough management understanding. Item IV should be last, which makes answer A the best choice. Answer A is correct.

8. BAnswers A, C and D are true statements in many circumstances. They explain or expand some of the weaknesses or facts present during product inspection. However, answer B explains the question best. If quality is built into the product then it doesn't matter if inspection misses a defect. The defect isn't there. Inspection to improve quality is too late, ineffective and costly.

9. BOne of the fundamental steps in dealing with a vendor is to familiarize them with the basic requirements. If the requirements are not understood, then quality manuals, plant visits and incoming inspection will be futile.

10. DProduct audits (Answer A) and source inspection (Answer B) can be effective tools. A certification of analysis (Answer C) can indicate the composition of a product. This analysis is straight forward. If laboratory instrumentation has been calibrated properly, the results should be valid. A certificate of compliance (Answer D) can be shaky. If the vendor does not conduct effective internal audits then the certificate of compliance can become routine and worthless. Answer D is the correct, incorrect, choice.

11. AA. An evaluation of a supplier's quality history is the best answer. It reflects a supplier's performance over a longer period of time in a number of areas (quality reliability, responsiveness, etc.).B. A survey evaluation is a valid answer. However, it is a snapshot of the supplier at one point in time.C/D. These two answers are very weak. A supplier will present themselves in the best possible light in a questionnaire or over the phone.

Sample Test #2

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12. AConfiguration management requires documentation, but it is more than documentation. Changes are a part of the system, but other information is also needed. Answer D is also an incomplete answer. Configuration management will manage the evolution of a product from development to final product retirement. Answer A is correct.

13. CGiven that an aerospace company is indicated, all fabricated parts for the customer must be considered critical. The basic need is for the company to be ISO 9000 registered which includes having a Quality Manual. Process capability indices on key processes, that will fabricate the part, are a definite necessity. MIL-STD-45208A is inferior to the ISO 9000 standards and would not be necessary. Therefore, items I, II, & IV are required. Answer C is correct.

14. DTraining records would be needed to meet ISO 9000 requirements (item I) and possibly an audit requirement (item IV). OSHA and Malcolm Baldrige audits may also require training documentation. Thus, answer D is the best choice. Answer D is correct.

15. BAnswers C and D contain elements of good quality service, but they are incomplete answers. Answer A, product quality, brings the customer to you. Answer B, service quality, encourages the customer to stay. Answer B is correct.

16. AThe hierarchy of customer expectations follow the stages of basic (II), expected (I), desired (IV) and unanticipated (III). Only answer A starts with II, and continues with the correct sequence. Answer A is correct.

17. AFor a partnership to work, there is joint cooperation and sharing of much information. Answers B, C and D are restrictive in their wording. Answer A indicates a sharing of critical information, which is needed for successful partnerships. Thus, answer A is the best choice. Answer A is correct.


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18. BThere are companies that maintain that the customer is always right (answer A). This is a good principle and it works for some companies. The process should not embarrass either party, (answer B), is an even better principle. Answer C maintaining the company position and answer D, strict steps, are both poorer choices. The best selection is B. Answer B is correct.

19. DAnswers A and B can be eliminated. These two types of charts contain elements on two planes (X and Y axis). The Y-type matrix is in three planes and is the proper choice here. The C-type matrix is a more complicated set of Y-type matrices projected into three dimensional space. This latter choice would seem to stretch the intent of the question. Answer D is correct.

20. C.

21. CThe scatter diagram and process flow diagram are totally different problem solving tools. Answer C which includes both the cause and effect diagram and the fishbone diagram is the correct answer. Answer C is correct.

22. BPert charts (III) and Gantt charts (IV) are project time management tools, they are not tally sheets. Both checksheets (II) and measles charts (I) are, or can be, used as tally sheets. Answer A is correct.

23. AAnswer B best describes a normal distribution. Answer C describes any distribution that has had a portion of readings removed; such as by inspection. Answer D is incorrect because it is multi modal. A bimodal distribution has two modes or peaks. Answer A is correct.

24. BAnswer A is incorrect because a scatter diagram shows whether there is the possibility of a relationship between one or more variables. Answer C is incorrect because it shows a static picture of the process. Answer D shows how various causes can possibly interact. Cumulative lines can be used with the Pareto diagram. Answer B is correct.

Sample Test #2

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25. CThe others category is an accumulation of the trivial many and therefore is placed at the end of the diagram as the last category. Answer C is correct.

26. DIf two events are mutually exclusive, the sum of their probabilities is 1. For example, on 1 flip of a coin, obtaining a head and obtaining a tail are mutually exclusive. It is impossible to have a head and a tail on 1 flip of a coin, but it is certain that either a head or a tail will be obtained. If two events are independent, the outcome of one event has no effect on the other event. An example of this is tossing a coin twice. The result of the first toss does not impact the second toss. If two events are independent, their covariance is zero. Answer D is correct.

27. DA statistic is a sample value. A parameter is a population value. Answer D is correct.

28. CThe author knows several ways to solve this problem (or at least approximate the right answer). Perhaps the most straight forward is by use of the multiplicative law of probability.

29. C.This is a binomial probability problem.

30. DWithout the word cumulative in the question, a good case could be made for answers A, B and C. The best of these answers would be B. When cumulative is included, then D becomes the correct choice. Answer D is correct.

31. BItem I describes the median of a distribution. Item III describes the mode of a distribution. Answer B is correct.


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32. CThis question requires the backward use of the Poisson table. Note the phrase "at least one defect will be found".For the sample to contain one or more defects with a 95% probability, the table must be used to determine a 5% probability of zero. Np = 3.0There must be three defects in the scoop of 100. Note that, if the scoop contained twenty units, there still must be three defects in it. Answer C is correct.

33. CThe standard deviation of the average of a sample of 10 is equal to the standard deviation of the individuals divided by the square root of the sample size. In this case, the standard deviation of the average with a sample of 10 is 2.53. Using the equation below, this can be transformed to standard normal (mean = 0 and standard deviation = 1).The standard normal deviate is z = (77-75)/2.53 = 0.7906. The area under the standard normal curve to the right of 0.7906 is 0.2146.

34. D

35. DWhen a process is in control, there will be random variation. If the process is out of control, some "assignable cause" is adding more variability to the process. A control chart is used to distinguish between random variation, and variation due to an out of control condition. If the process is out of control, the process should be stopped, and the "assignable cause" fixed. The correct response is to detect non-random variation in processes. Answer D is correct.

36. CThe primary purpose of a control chart is to detect changes in the process that are assignable. Answer C is correct.

37. AThe expression for computing a confidence interval for the mean, given the population is normal and the standard deviation is known is Sigma is the population standard deviation, n is the sample size, and z is the standard normal deviate. A 90% confidence interval means that given the sample data, there is a 90% chance that the true population mean is contained in the interval. Thus, the wider the interval, the greater the confidence. Confidence is also increased by increasing the sample size. The size of the population does not enter into this equation.

Sample Test #2

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38. B

39. C.

40. A

41. A

42. C.

43. B

44. D

45. B

46. D

47. A

48. B

49. DThe Risk Priority Number is part of a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA). It is the product of the measures of occurrence, severity, and detection. Answer D is correct.


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50. AA fault-tree is a graphical method for modelling the reliability of complex systems. FMEA (failure modes and effects analysis) is used to identify failure modes, not predict reliability. MIL-STD-217 is a standard for prediction of reliability for ELECTRONIC equipment. Vector space analysis does not apply to reliability. Fault-tree is the correct response. Answer A is correct.

51. CAudits, ideally, are not conducted to find root causes of problems. The audit team may not be sufficiently knowledgeable to accomplish this objective. This action would also compromise the independence of the audit function. Answer C is the correct, incorrect, choice.

52. AAnswer A is the correct description of a reference dimension. The other answers are filler. Answer A is correct.

53. BThis is a non - standard and meaningless tolerance. If followed, various individuals might conclude that conditions like answers A, C and D apply. Answer B is correct.

54. CThe average weight is 115 grams. The variation of the final product is determined by the equation below Answer C is correct.

55. AThe existence of a quality control manual simply implies that at some point a quality system has been developed. There is insufficient information in the question to assume that the quality system has been implemented. The firm may or may not be quality conscious. They may have fired the quality manager for developing a quality manual that interfered with production. Answer A is correct.

Sample Test #2

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56. AA quality audit should be done on a scheduled basis. This allows a schedule to be developed to correct deficiencies. Answer A is the correct, incorrect, choice.

57. DAll of the choices I, IV should be included in the final audit report. Answer D is correct.

58. CAnswer choices A and D are very weak selections. Answer B may have some validity, but the best selection is answer C. Answer C is correct.

59. DIf the specification limits are wider than the control limits, no conclusions can be drawn unless the sample size is known. For example, if the plotted points are based on a sample of 100, then the standard deviation of the process is 10 times as great as the standard deviation of the sampling distribution being plotted on the control chart. Remember that the standard deviation of the sampling distribution is inversely proportional to the square root of the sample size. This is shown in the equation used to compute control charts limits below. Answer D is correct.

60. C

61. B


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62. B

63. D

64. A

65. BItems I and III are poor choices for source inspection. They are, however, very good reasons to select another supplier. Items II and IV could be valid reasons for source inspection. Answer B is correct.

66. DThe description fits that of a major seriousness characteristic. Answer D is correct.

67. AAnswer A is the objective of inspection. The other answers (B, C and D) are all part of the detailed inspection instructions. Answer A is the correct, incorrect, choice.

68. CSince no lot size is given, it is assumed that the population size is sufficiently large as to mimic sampling with replacement. Thus, the binomial distribution can be used. The probability of obtaining exactly x successes in a sample of n items from a population with a fraction defective of p is given by the equation below.

Sample Test #2

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69. CFrom ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 (Sample Size Code Letters), code letter D is the proper choice. The table is shown in the figure below.

70. BThe Dodge-Romig plans were developed in the 1920s. Answer B is the correct, incorrect, choice.

71. DThe Sample Size Code Letter table for ANSI/ASQ Z1.9 is shown in the figure below The intersection of inspection level II and lot size 500 gives letter I. Answer D is correct.

72. CThe PERT chart requires time estimates for each activity in the network. The critical path is the sequence of tasks which require the greatest expected time, and events on the critical path have a slack time of zero. The Gantt chart can be constructed with minimal data. The critical path is calculated after analysis of the network, not before, so answer A is incorrect. Slack times are for events not on the critical path, so answer B is also incorrect. The Gantt chart can be constructed with less data than is required for the PERT chart, so answer D is incorrect. Time estimates are required for each activity in the PERT network. Answer C is correct. Answer C is correct.

73. BThe first and most important project planning phase is the definition of the project objective. For some projects, the objective is determined by upper management, while on other projects, the project objective is defined by a champion of the desired outcome for the project A logical sequence for the project steps listed as possible answers would be B-C-A-D. Step D could be done before step A. All of the project activities are intended to achieve the project objective. If the objective is poorly defined, the project may or may not have the desired outcome. Answer B is correct.


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74. DProject planning is completed as a series of phases, each defining the project with greater detail. The phases of project planning are: objective, statement of work, work breakdown structure, and project budgets. Following the sequence for project planning phases, the correct order is III, II, IV, I. Each phase may only be completed after the information is available from the previous phase. Answer D is correct.

75. CThis question requires a general familiarity with the teachings of major quality gurus and an answer review. Dr. Juran refers to quality improvement as part of his quality trilogy. Dr. Deming's point 5 discusses the need for constant improvement to the process of planning, production and service. Philip Crosby's 14 step approach lists quality improvement teams. Answers A, B and D could be viewed as subsets of answer C, which is the best choice. Answer C is correct.

76. DThe appropriate concept and corresponding guru match is shown below : I. Ishikawa, II. Juran, III. Deming, IV. Taguchi, V. Crosby, VI. Feigenbaum. The concepts of Dr. Covey are not identified. Answer D is the correct, incorrect, choice.

77. CIncreasing employee incentives indicates that one believes that incentives are a way to guarantee success (answer A). It is a very specific solution and may not be correct. Increase training is a good choice (answer B), but not the best choice. Answer C, having employees understand how they can make a difference, is a basic step toward success. Answer D, is another specific and somewhat restrictive solution. The best answer is C. Answer C is correct.

Sample Test #2

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78. CScatter diagrams, Pareto diagrams and force field analysis are analytical tools which may be useful in the problem solving cycle. However, brainstorming is required to compliment the 4-M or fishbone diagram. Potential causes are brainstormed into the fishbone without the scrutiny of initial criticism. Answer C is correct.

79. CAnswers A and B describe the Pareto diagram. Answer D is one advantage of control charts (perhaps histograms as well). A scatter diagram depicts the relationship between variables. Specifically, an input variable may have an effect on an output variable. Answer C is correct.

80. AAnswers C and D do not apply. If the question stated common cause versus assignable causes, then B would be correct. However, the terms significant few (chronic) and the trivial many (less significant) refer to the Pareto diagram. Answer A is correct.


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81. DAnswer choices I, II and III are all clearly parts of a process flow review. Answer choice IV, the use of Pareto diagrams, is not used as part of this technique and is the correct wrong answer. Answer V may be used in some cases. Answer D is the correct, incorrect, choice.

82. AThe Poisson distribution is used to model rates. The probability of exactly x events occurring can be computed using the Poisson distribution shown below Entering this equation with x = 0 and m = 0.45 gives the probability of exactly zero defects, 0.6376. Entering this equation with x = 1 and m = 0.45 gives the probability of exactly 1 defect, 0.2869. Thus, the probability of less than 2 defects is 0.6376 + 0.2869 = 0.9245. Thus, the probability of more than 1 defect is 1-0.9245 = 0.0755. Answer A is correct.

83. CIf two events are independent, gaining information about one provides no information about the probability of the other event occurring. Thus, the probability of Event B occurring given Event A has occurred P(B/A), is equal to the probability of Event B occurring, P(B). Answer C is correct.

84. BThis is an application of the Poisson distribution. The probability of exactly x defects is Entering this equation with x = 7 and m = 4 gives the probability of 7 people will be hired, 0.05954. This answer can also be determined quickly from a Poisson Table. In this case, np=4. The probability of 7 or less (.949) minus the probability that 6 or less (.889) yields the answer 0.06.

85. CIf a distribution is skewed to the left, the median is between the mode and the mean, and the mode is greater than the median.

86. APoka-yoke consists of applying simple mechanical and electrical devices to minimize human error in a process. Answer A is correct.

Sample Test #2

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87. BItem I is clearly an incorrect statement. Item IV is clearly a correct statement. Item II is probably false because the chart is not scaled or identified. The intercepts may both be negative values (although by convention they are both headed in more positive directions). There is a fairly strong "apparent" correlation between the two values. The writers would tend to count item III as a true statement, although more information would be desirable to confirm the relationship. Answer B is considered correct.

88. A

89. BStudying the leader's business and copying some of their activities is benchmarking. Answer A is incorrect. Installing state of the art equipment and processes and improving the design of products are some actions that might be taken in reengineering, but not necessarily. Neither C nor D are the best choices. Answer B is correct.

90. BFlow charts visually present a process showing the main steps, branches, and outcomes of that process. A Pareto diagram is used to show all categories by rank, seperating the vital few from the trivial many. A scatter diagram visually displays correlation between two or more variables. Answers A, C and D are incorrect. Fishbone diagrams, sometimes called Ishikawa diagrams, are also referred to as cause and effect diagrams. Answer B is correct.


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91. AThe Pareto diagram is best suited to direct attention to problems in a systematic manner, especially when limited resources are available. The cause and effect diagram helps categorize ideas. The scatter diagram shows relationships between variables. The control chart is used to analyze process variation. The correct answer is A.

92. BControl charts can use process average, an upper control limit, and process standard deviation. The correct answer is B.

93. AThis question requires a review of the definitions of the terms of central tendency (mean, mode and median) and a comparison with the answers.

94. BWith quality teams there should be improved worker morale, increased communications between team members and management, and problem solving cost savings. Management must still maintain their quality efforts. Answer B is the correct, incorrect, choice.

95. DA. False. There may or may not be a need for source inspection B. False. The principal reason for a supplier audit is not to replace inspection C. False. Audit surveillance is not a threat to motivate suppliers D. True. A vendor audit is conducted to ensure that the supplier‘s quality program is functioning properly. Answer D is correct.

96. BAlthough technical service is a good public relations gesture, (A), and a nice support feature for suppliers,

Sample Test #2

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they are not the main reasons for providing this service. Smart companies should not see technical service as an optional luxury, (D), but as a valuable resource to help insure the quality of incoming products. Answer (B), greater benefit to the company than it is to the supplier, is the best choice. Answer B is correct.

97. CAnswer choice I is not valid, the finding must be included in the audit report. Answer C is the proper selection.

98. CAnswer choices I and IV are poor reasons for initiating quality systems audits. There may be a need for corrective action and follow up in these cases. However, II is the best answer choice and III is also valid. Answer C is correct.

99. AThe proper answer to this question is A. Under some conditions, the plant manager may be the client. However, other parties may be the client; making answer B a subset of answer A. The lead auditor and auditee are participants in the audit but do not initiate it. Answer A is correct.

100. BAnswer choices I and III are considerations that should have been resolved during the planning and preparation phase of the audit. Answer B (which includes choices II and IV) represents principal concerns during the execution of the audit. Answer B is correct.


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101. AStatements I, III and IV are generally true descriptions of the process audit. Answer A is the correct, incorrect choice.

102. C

103. DAnswer II may be the very best choice. However, answers I and III are also valid. Answer D is the best choice.

104. DAll of the items I - III are important factors in the effective control of non-conforming product. Answer D is correct.

105. CItem II is incorrect. It is not necessary to inspect after all operations. Answer C is the correct choice.

106. AAnswers B, C and D are only partially correct. Answer A is the best choice.

107. AThe MRB can recognize and suggest the need for corrective action but will not necessarily develop the corrective action plan. Answer A is the correct, incorrect, choice.

Sample Test #2

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108. D

109. DWhen properly set-up and maintained all of items I - IV are automated inspection advantages. Answer D is correct.

110. BThe use of appropriate standards only ensures accuracy. Answer B is correct.

111. CThis question is looking for an incorrect choice. The standard unit of mass is a cylinder of platinum iridium alloy kept by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Sevres, France. The kilogram is the only base unit still defined by an artifact. Answer C is correct.

112. CThe key phrase in this question is "MOST ESSENTIAL". Answer C is correct. The other answers are of varying lesser importance. Answer C is correct.


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113. AItem I is correct, a magnifying lens will affect all characteristics of accuracy and precision. Items II and III are filler. Answer A is correct.

114. DAll of the listed items I - IV are calibration department responsibilities. Answer D is correct.

115. AItems I and IV are correct statements. Items II and III are false statements. Answer A is the proper choice.

116. AA review of the listed items indicates that number 3 should be first and number 5 should be last. Additionally, item 2 should precede item 6.Answer A is the correct choice and it checks with reality.

117. CBased on the circumstances, precision may positively or negatively affect cost and performance. The proper answer is C.

118. CThe interval of calibration of measuring equipment should be based on stability, purpose and degree of usage. Answer C is correct.

Sample Test #2

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119. BGo, no-go gages are easier to use and require less skill than the measurement gages, making answer C incorrect. Measurement gaging provides more information per piece inspected than does go, no-go gages. Measurement (variable) gaging generally requires a smaller sample size than attribute gaging . Answer A is filler. Answer B is correct.

120. AAnswers B and C: ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 assumes no process average information. Dodge Romig tables do utilize process average information. Answer D: Dodge Romig tables require smaller samples than ANSI/ASQ Z1.4. 100% inspection is required for lots rejected by Dodge Romig sampling. Answer A is correct.

121. Cnp for use with the Poisson table is (80)(.1) = 8. The probability of 5 or less is .191 or 19.1%Please note that this is only an approximation of the binomial. Answer C is correct.

122. BThree quantities describe an attribute sampling plan. Lot size, sample size and either accept or rejection number. The lot size is used to determine the sample size. The two crucial factors are sample size and Ac or Re. Answers A, C, and D are useful characteristics of various attribute plans but they do not exclusively describe any single attribute plan. Answer B is correct.

123. CThis is an example of an active parallel system. If the 2nd and 3rd capacitors were not operating until required, the system would be a passive parallel system. Answer C is correct.


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124. CThe Shewart cycle is another name for Plan-Do-Check-Act. Answer C is correct.

125. A

126. DThere are some other basic steps left off the list of items. The best correct sequence is contained in answer D. One elimination technique would be to place both items I and II ahead of item III. Answer D is correct.

127. AThe wording of the question indicates a classic application of the scatter diagram. Answer A is correct.

128. BA constant is a fixed value , e, A2, etc. . . A parameter is a number derived from population data. A critical value is a table value with which a test statistic is compared to derive a population inference. A statistic is derived from sample data. Answer B is correct.

129. AThe quickest way to solve this problem is to determine sample standard deviation and square it to give the variance. Note that this problem does make an inference about the population. Thus, n-1 must be used. Equations: Where S = sample standard deviation V = variance. By use of a statistical calculator: S = 2.0736, V = 4.3. Answer A is correct.

Sample Test #2

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130. DThis question requires a permutation calculation and comparison to the answers. Equation: Where n=number of distinct objects r = number of objects taken per time. Solution: this problem does not imply distinct combinations therefore, a permutation calculation, not a combination calculation, is required. If the question asked for distinct combinations the answer would be: One example of the difference between the permutation and combination answers. Combination Permutation(ABC) (ABC) + (ACB) + (BAC) + (BCA) + (CAB) + (CBA). Answer D is correct.

131. CA statistic is a sample value. A parameter is a population value. Consider this definition from Statistics For Management and Economics Mendenhall, Reinmuth & Beaver: "Numerical descriptive measurements computed from population measurements are called parameters those computed from sample measurements are called statistics." Answer C is correct.

132. CVariance, mean deviation and standard deviation require the exact value for every measurement. The range requires exact values for the highest and lowest measurements. Answer C is the correct, incorrect, choice.

133. C

134. CThis question requires a comparison of the answers with the additive and multiplicative laws of probability. Answer A would be correct.

135. A

136. B


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137. B

138. A

139. D The quality council consist of members of upper management because of the strategic nature of the improvement process. Among other duties, the council monitors progress and provides resources to the improvement teams.

140. BNormally the organization's quality council consist of members of upper management.

141. D. Project teams may have a composite membership of technicians, engineers, supervisors, mechanics, operators, etc. These individuals would normally have diverse skills and experiences.

142. CFacilitator should not be into complex data analysis. A facilitator does keep team progress on track. In some cases, the facilitator will provide training. Item Ⅰ and Ⅲ are the best choices.

143. DSelf-directed teams traditionally work on inter-departmental issues. Answer A, B and C are interdepartment issues that could be best addressed by project or cross functional teams.

Sample Test #2

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144. BThis question requires knowledge of various corrective action and preventive action techniques and a review of the answers. Normally, immediate of containment actions are considered the first short term correction. Continuous improvement is a long term activity. Answer B begins with item Ⅰ and ends with item Ⅲ. The other two items are also in the proper order, item Ⅱ followed by item Ⅳ.

145. D

146. CThis question requires basic quality tool knowledge. Pareto charts are used to prioritize problems. A control chart shows an ongoing dynamic picture of the process. The fish bone chart shows how various causes could possibly interest. The histogram displays a static picture of the process.

147. BMeasles charts indicate where. Pareto diagrams show the "vital few" and the "trivial many." Control charts are used to statistically control a process. They don't have anything to do with correlation. Scatter diagrams can have a calculated correlation coefficient which measures goodness of fit.

148. CThe key question word is "EXCEPT." Answers A, B and D are valid reasons for the conduct of a quality audit. Answer C is the poorest choice. It's also not clear if an audit or a tolerance review is called for with this answer.

149. AThis is basic definition question. The review of purchase orders for quality requirements is a preplanning preventative activity which may avert many appraisal and failure costs later.

150. BAlthough companies have different structures and responsibilities, the most common method of formally


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communicating a vendor quality problem is through the purchasing department that place the order.

CQE Sample Test #3

1. If prevention costs are increased to pay for engineering work in quality control, and this results in a

reduction in the number of product defects, this yields a reduction in

A. Appraisal costs. B. Operation costs. C. Quality costs. D. Failure costs.

2. A method of improving the performance in any function area of your company including product or

service quality would be

A. Utilizing FMEA or FMECA techniques.

B. Applying the benchmarking process.

C. Instituting an improved design review procedure.

D. Reading the Malcolm Baldrige application guidelines.

3. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough

benchmarking ?

A. Researching the competitive and non-competitive intelligence.

B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarks source.

C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient.

D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

4. An essential technique in making training programs effective is to

A. Have training classes which teach skills and knowledge required.

B. Feedback to the employee meaningful measures of his performance.

C. Post results of performance before and after the training program.

D. Set individual goals instead of group goals.

5. One of the requirements for post-process control of quality information equipment is the testing of

completed large-scale products. Such engineering tests must

. Be comprehensive and accurate.

. Meet customer requirements.

. Meet reliability and safety standards.

. Be performed within a cost effective time frame.

A. I and IV only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

6. When giving instructions to those who will perform a task, the communication process is completed

A. When the worker goes to his work station to do the task.

B. When the person giving the instruction has finished talking.

C. When the worker acknowledges these instructions by describing how he will perform the task.

D. When the worker says that he understands the instructions.

7. Acceptable corporate quality goals are normally derived from

. The quality department.

. Identified customer needs.

. Top management objectives.

. The quality council.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and IV only D. II and IV only

8. When considering human motivation in solving quality problems, it is MOST important to recognize that

A. Individuals have wants and needs.

B. Individuals have different levels of needs.

C. Individual motivation is of little concern in quality problem solving.

D. All individuals have basic needs.

9. Consider the following information system planning steps

1. Determine the processing / analysis requirements.

2. Identify data inputs.

3. Define the QIS scope and objectives.

4. Define outputs and their uses.

5. Flow chart the system.

Arrange the above steps into a logical development sequence.

A. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4 B. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

10. Which of the following quality leaders is associated with the definition of quality as "fitness for use" ?

A. Joseph M. Juran. B. Philip B. Criosby.

C. W.Edwared Deming. D. Armand V. Feigenbaum.

11. Which one of the following usually represents the greatest problem in quality team operations ?

A. Facilitator/leader conflicts. B. Lack of ideas of team members.

C. Interruptions in meetings. D. Lack of time by team members.

12. Often costs of quality reports reflect 4-5% of sales when the true amount is 15-20%. Which of the

following cost categories is generally neglected ?

A. Direct quality department expenses. B. Indirect internal and external failure costs.

C. Preventative quality costs. D. Combined appraisal and preventative expenses.

13. A fundamental step in the establishment of Strategic Quality Management is

A. Making sure that the quality organization reports to the Chief Executive.

B. Surveying customers to determine their level of satisfaction.

C. The formation of teams to implement continuous improvement.

D. The creation of a quality council (committee, advisory board, etc.).

14. The cause(s) for declining productivity rates in the United States is (are)

. Management's refusal to invest more in research and development.

. Lack of quality in marketed products.

. Poor communication channels.

A. II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and Ill

15. Which of the following action steps is MOST recommended to change a satisfied product customer

into a delighted customer ? (A delighted customer won't buy anything but your product.)

A. Exceed the customer's reliability requirements.

B. Have an exceptionally quick warranty claim system.

C. Provide an initial cost substantially below your competition.

D. Consistently exceed the quoted delivery schedule.

16. What is the principal function of the quality department ?

A. A service department for all other departments. B. To coordinate the quality effort.

C. Inspection and process control. D. Organizational focus.

17. In preparing a quality policy concerning a product line for your company you should NOT

A. Specify the means by which quality performance is measured.

B. Develop criteria for identifying risk situations, and specify whose approval is required when there are

known risks.

C. Include procedural matters or ordinary functional responsibilities.

D. Identify responsibilities for dispositioning defective hardware.

18. What association does the expression "house of quality" normally make ?

A. Our entire organization is quality minded.

B. Full quality functional deployment.

C. The organization listens to the voice of the customer.

D. Prompt service and product quality.

19. Which of the following would be considered key elements in determining the ability of a vendor to

supply a satisfactory product ?

. The capability of the supplier's process.

. The extent of the supplier's internal and external product inspection.

. The supplier's corrective action system.

A. I and II only B. I only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

20. Identify the ISO 9000/Q9000 Standard(s) which contain(s) elements for quality assurance in design

and development

. ANSI/ASQ Q9000.

. ISO 9001.

. ANSI/ASQ Q9002 and ISO 9003.

. ANSI/ASQ Q9001.

A. I and III only B. II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

21. A work instruction does NOT give information about which one of the following ?

A. The steps necessary to perform certain work. B. Which specifications are applicable.

C. The identity of the person who does the work. D. Normal set-up information.

22. Consider the following action steps

1. Train employees in customer satisfaction techniques.

2. Gather pertinent customer data.

3. Measure customer satisfaction.

4. Develop strategies to fulfill customer satisfaction.

What is the BEST sequence for developing a customer driven company ?

A. 3, 2, 1, 4 B. 2, 4, 1, 3 C. 4, 2, 1, 3 D. 1, 2, 3, 4

23. In consumer products, the complaint rate is MOST directly a measure of

A. Product quality. B. Customer satisfaction.

C. Market value. D. Rejection rate and specification conformance.

24. A quality control program is considered to be

A. A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines.

B. A step by step listing of all quality control check points.

C. A summary of company quality control policies.

D. A system of activities to provide quality of products and service.

25. On surveys from customers, what do high customer satisfaction numbers NOT indicate ?

A. Customer satisfaction. B. Customer service.

C. Customer loyalty. D. Product quality satisfaction.

26. Which of the following functions are normally considered work elements of quality control engineering ?

. Preproduction planning.

. Process capability studies.

. Classification of characteristics.

. Quality cost analysis.

A. I and III only B. II and III only C. I, II and III only D. I, II, III and IV

27. Upon completion of a branch plant or division quality systems audit, an "exit briefing" of concerned

personnel should be conducted by the audit team. Which of the following is usually a violation of quality

audit integrity ?

A. Identifying major quality system deficiencies found during the last audit.

B. Comparing audit results with the branch, plant or division last audited.

C. Obtaining corrective action commitments.

D. Highlighting key areas of improvement since the last audit.

28. An auditor's responsibilities include

. Taking action on important audit findings.

. Complying with audit standards and procedures.

. Clarifying the audit objectives.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

29. If a minor observation is suitably corrected by the auditee during the course of an audit, it is

customarily

A. Omitted from the exit review.

B. Included in the exit review but not the written report.

C. Omitted from both the exit review and written report.

D. Included in the written report only.

30. The audit findings would typically NOT include

. The audit team qualifications.

. The deficiencies found during the audit.

. The working papers used during the audit.

. The extent of the auditee's compliance

A. II only B. I and III only C. I and IV only D. I, II and IV only

31. An auditor's responsibilities would typically include which of the following ?

. Documenting and reporting the results of the audit.

. Taking action on important audit findings.

. Maintaining the confidentiality of the audit.

. Determining the scope, purpose and structure of the auditing organization.

A. I and IV only B. I and III only C. I and II only D. II and III only

32. The physical survey of a potential supplier is NOT performed to assess which one of the following ?

A. Condition of equipment. B. Nature of the product lines.

C. Level of training of employees. D. The inspection system.

33. What item(s) should be included by management when establishing a quality audit function within their

organization ?

. Proper positioning of the audit function within the quality organization.

. A planned audit approach, efficient and timely audit reporting and a method for obtaining effective

corrective action.

. Selection of capable audit personnel.

. Management objectivity toward the quality program audit concept.

A. II only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

34. For optimum results, the audit function should be an independent organization reporting to

A. Top management. B. Production control. C. Manufacturing. D. Quality control.

35. What is the purpose of a quality audit program ?

A. Catch defects missed by inspection.

B. Insure that people follow procedures.

C. Provide a super system for continuous improvement.

D. Measure and report the effectiveness of the control functions.

36. An audit will be viewed as a constructive service to the function which is audited when it

A. Is conducted by nontechnical auditors.

B. Proposes corrective action for each item uncovered.

C. Furnishes enough detailed facts so the necessary action can be determined .

D. Is general enough to permit managerial intervention.

37. One of the MOST important reasons for a checklist in an "in-process" audit is to

A. Assure that the auditor is qualified.

B. Obtain relatively uniform audits.

C. Minimize the time required to complete the audit.

D. Notify the audited function prior to the audit.

38. An annual supplier audit schedule should list which of the following ?

. The scope of the audit.

. The proposed audit date(s).

. The type of audit to be performed.

. The anticipated audit team size.

A. I only B. I, II and IV only C. I and III only D. I, II, III and IV

39. Audit inspectors should report to someone who is independent from

A. Middle management. B. Sales and marketing.

C. Inspection supervision. D. Production staff functions.

40. On blueprints, the extreme measurements permitted by the maximum and minimum size of the feature

of an object are called

A. Limit tolerances. B. Nominal dimensions.

C. Single limit tolerances. D. Unilateral tolerances.

41. Which of the following terms represents permission in writing to accept for use, a completed but

nonconforming item, either as is or upon completion of rework for a given number of units or specified

period of time ?

A. Deviation permit. B. Waiver. C. Reworkable acceptance. D. Equivalent item.

42. Final disposition by quality control of nonconforming material can include

. Completing missed operations.

. Rework.

. Using as is.

. Scrapping.

A. II and III only B. II and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

43. Which of the following approaches will MOST likely lead to a decrease in internal and external

corrective action requests ?

A. Ensuring participation of the quality department in design review.

B. Using automated processed wherever possible.

C. Soliciting suppliers that have secured ISO 9000 certification.

D. Hiring and training competent people with quality attitudes.

44. A technique whereby various product features are graded as to relative importance is called

A. Classification of defects. B. Quality engineering.

C. Classification of characteristics. D. Feature grading.

45. Which of the following is the responsibility of the MRB Board ?

A. Identifying potential suppliers. B. Disposition of nonconforming material.

C. Appraising suppliers. D. None of the above.

46. Which of the following would be considered to be feature(s) of form in G D & T terminology ?

. Angularity.

. Perpendicularity.

. Circularity.

. Straightness.

A. II and IV only B. I, III and IV only C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

47. A surface of revolution (a cylinder, cone or sphere) is considered which of the following when all

points on the surface intersected by a plane are equidistant from the axis ?

A. Round. B. Symmetrical. C. Concentric. D. Cylindrical.

48. Which of the following is typically created during product design ?

. Safety features.

. Manufacturing specifications.

. Product reliability.

. Product identification.

A. I and III only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

49. Usually three-view orthographic drawings are used to fully dimension objects. Which of the design

forms need only two views to achieve full dimensioning ?

A. Symmetrical. B. Cylindrical. C. Perpendicular. D. Chamfered.

50. Automated inspection operations have been successfully applied to which of the following applications ?

. Visual inspection.

. Mechanical gaging.

. Color determination.

. Chemical analysis.

A. II and IV only B. I, II and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

51. Which of the following activities may be the MOST important action of the MRB ?

A. Deciding what to do with scrap material.

B. Deciding what to do with non-conforming material.

C. Deciding when to call the customer regarding border-line material.

D. Deciding when corrective action is necessary.

52. Problems are often not fully solved because :

A. The problem is poorly defined.

B. The production department hates change.

C. Top management does not provide support.

D. The quality department is understaffed.

53. The principal use of V-blocks is to hold which of the following items in fixed relation to the surface

plate ?

A. Stacked parts. B. Measuring tools. C. Angular pieces. D. Cylindrical pieces.

54. When considering whether to use radiographic or ultrasonic inspection to examine critical welds in

thick materials, which of the following criteria is the BEST reason for this selection ?

A. Ultrasonic, since greater thicknesses can be penetrated.

B. Radiography, since ultrasonic is less sensitive to porosity and inclusions.

C. Both, since the methods complement rather than supplant one another.

D. Both since each is equally effective, the chance of missing a serious flaw is reduced.

55. Several types of good instruments are usually equipped with a mirror behind the dial-pointer to reduce

which of the following measurement errors ?

A. Interpolation rounding. B. Parallax.

C. Nonlinearity in lower scale regions. D. Meniscus.

56. In comparison with attributes sampling plans, variables sampling plans

A. Have the advantage of greater simplicity.

B. Usually require a larger sample size for comparable assurance as to the correctness of Decisions in

judging a single quality characteristic.

C. Have the advantage of being applicable to either single or multiple quality characteristics.

D. Provide greater assurance, for the same sample size, as to the correctness of decisions in judging a

single quality characteristic.

57. Using ANSI/ASQ Z1.4, determine the sample size for a lot size of 100, AQL = 6.5, Level II, normal

inspection, single sampling.

A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 50

58. When measuring part angles to great accuracy, the BEST instrument to select would be which of the

following ?

A. A sine bar. B. An optical flat. C. A bevel protractor. D. An optical comparator.

59. True testing variability can be obtained in a destructive testing situation under which of the following

conditions ?

A. Enough samples have been tested. B. It cannot be obtained.

C. All samples are taken closely together. D. The same person and instrument are used.

60. Which of the following are TRUE statement(s) regarding liquid penetrant testing ?

. Subsurface defects cannot be detected.

. It is faster than eddy current methods.

. Will not work on porous materials.

. Will not work on ferromagnetic parts.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I, II and IV only D. I, III and IV only

61. What distribution is used to determine the OC curve for an attributes sampling plan ?

A. Normal. B. Binomial.

C. Exponential. D. The binomial or the hypergeometric distribution.

62. Given the following probabilities

1 or more defects = .70




What is the probability of 2 or fewer defects ?

A. 0.20 B. 0.35 C. 0.65 D. 0.85

63. Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding the use of pneumatic gages ?

. A high level of skill is required for use.

. The equipment is both fast and accurate.

. The equipment is versatile and can make a variety of measurements.

. Only variable measurements can be made.

A. II, IV only B. III only C. I and IV only D. I, III and IV only

64. The easiest method of generating random numbers for a sampling plan is to

A. Use random number tables. B. Use the mid-range technique.

C. Flip a coin. D. Use computer generated numbers.

65. The use of 100% inspection normally means

A. That the final customers will not experience defective product.

B. That selected characteristics have been evaluated against specified standards.

C. That there will be an opportunity to rework any product deemed to be outside of specifications.

D. That the lowest over-all quality costs have been considered.

66. Measuring and test equipment are normally calibrated to

A. Comply with federal regulations. B. Determine and/or assure their precision.

C. Determine and/or assure their accuracy. D. Check the validity of reference standards.

67. Which of the following is the BEST description of accuracy ?

A. A true value. B. A repeatable value.

C. A reliable value. D. A consistent value.

68. Which of the following need NOT appear on the calibration label on a unit of measuring and test

equipment ?

A. The date the unit is due for calibration.

B. The procedure by which the unit was calibrated.

C. The identification of the person who performed the calibration.

D. Any instrument error found during calibration.

69. A typical use for the optical comparator would be to measure

A. Surface finish. B. Contours.

C. Depth of holes. D. Diameters of internal grooves.

70. You are to construct an OC curve. Which of the following cannot be used as an abscissa value ?

A. AOQL B. ASN C. AQL D. LTPD

71. Consider the following information gathered from an R & R study

sigma1 = the repeatability standard deviation

sigma2 = the reproducability standard deviation

The total measurement variation may be determined by which of the expressions shown below:

A. σ σ B. σ σ C. σ σ

D. σ σ

72. When specifying the "10:1 calibration principle", we are referring to

A. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the secondary standard to that of the primary standard.

B. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the instrument to that of the primary standard.

C. The ratio of the main scale to vernier scale calibration.

D. The ratio of calibration standard accuracy to calibrated instrument accuracy.

73. Having designed a test fixture to performance requirements, the design should be carefully evaluated

by the quality engineer to insure that it has included

A. Low cost components. B. Computer input and printout capability.

C. Human motor coordination factors. D. Mass production methods.

74. The mechanical separation of undersize parts from conforming parts is :

A. Corrective action.

B. Preventive action.

C. Both corrective action and preventive action.

D. Neither corrective nor preventive action.

75. A reliability statement for a given product would be incomplete unless it included

. A numerical probability value.

. Operating time requirements.

. Successful product performance requirements.

. Operating environmental requirements.

A. I and II only B. I, III and IV only C. I, II and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

76. Human factors are important considerations when designing for reliability because

. Habits are sometimes difficult to change.

. Conditions such as lighting and heating influence performance.

. Weak parts must be easily replaceable.

. Age and skill can limit one's ability to use equipment correctly.

A. I and III only B. II and III only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

77. An electronic control module has a constant failure rate. The probability of this controller surviving for

10,000 hours is 0.8. Given the controller has survived for 5,000 hours, what is the probability of the unit

failing before 15,000 hours ?

A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8

78. A reliability test conducted during the pre-production stage is called

A. Failure analysis. B. Acceptance test.

C. Qualification test. D. Significance test.

79. Products should be subjected to tests which are designed to

A. Demonstrate the basic function at a minimum testing cost.

B. Approximate the conditions to be experienced in customer's application.

C. Assure that specifications are met under laboratory conditions.

D. Assure performance under severe environmental conditions.

80. The concept of accelerated cycling (or a burn-in program) for all devices for six months under normal

operating conditions would

A. Reduce premature failures in use. B. Improve constant failure rate probability.

C. Be of little use. D. Assure an acceptable quality to the customer.

81. Find the predicted system reliability for the three parts shown if the individual part reliability is 90

percent each for the specified mission time and mission conditions

A. 72.9%

B. 70.0%

C. 89.1%

D. 90.0%

82. A transistor is rated for use at 220 volts. Using this transistor in a device that delivers 180 volts is an

example of

A. Applying a safety factor. B. Allowing for part variability.

C. Following the 1.2 electrical ratio rule. D. Derating.

83. Reliability testing of parts is performed to yield which of the following type(s) of information ?

. Application suitability.

. Environmental capability.

. Measurement of life characteristics.

A. II only B. III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

84. Basic sources of reliability data are

. In-plant testing.

. Field testing.

. Operation by user.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III only

85. The MTBF for an automotive component is 6,000 hrs. What is the probability of failure for that part

after 7,000 hrs. of operation ?

A. 19% B. 31% C. 69% D. 42%

86. What is the reliability of the system below if R1 = 0.6585, R2 = 0.92 and R3 = 0.92 ?

A. 0.9941 B. 0.6543

C. 0.6814 D. 0.7121

87. Component 1 has an exponential failure rate of 3 x 10-4 failures per hour. Component 2 is normally

distributed with a mean of 600 hours and standard deviation of 200 hours. Assuming independence,

calculate the reliability of the system after 200 hours.

A. 0.878 B. 0.920

C. 0.940 D. 0.977

88. The first phase in the operation life history of a population of product units is typically called the

A. De-bugging phase. B. Wear out phase.

C. Transition phase. D. Chance failure phase.

89. Given a mean time to fail of 90 hours and a constant failure rate, what is the probability of a product

surviving until 90 hours ?

A. 0.5 B. 0.3679 C. 0 D. 0.3333

90. What is the probability of an item failing in less than 5 hours if it has a constant failure rate of 1/

hour ?

A. 0.00674 B. 0.99127 C. 0.99326 D. 0.99642

91. Which one of the following will NOT increase reliability in design ?

A. Derating techniques. B. Design redundancy.

C. Designing for maintainability. D. Acceptance testing.

92. In some reliability models redundancy may take the form of standby elements. What is the major

disadvantage of such a model as regards to reliability ?

A. More costly. B. Reliability may be reduced by failure of sensing devices.

C. Failure rates are generally high. D. The system is too complex.

93. Name the continuous improvement loop normally used by teams whereby they decide what they want

to accomplish, carry out the decision, observe the effects, study the results and then repeat the steps

A. PCL. B. PDCA. C. PDM. D. PDPC.

94. The Kaizen principle is normally associated with

A. Revolutionary progress. B. Evolutionary progress.

C. Breakthrough achievement. D. Attaining the target aim.

95. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between typical and breakthrough

benchmarking ?

A. Researching the competitive and noncompetive intelligence.

B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarked source.

C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient.

D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

96. Why are Pareto diagrams used ?

A. To show the process capability. B. To prioritize problems.

C. To show the flow of information or material. D. To facilitate a brainstorming session.

97. The sequence for the Deming Improvement cycle is

A. Design, manufacture, inspect, ship. B. Plan, document, implement, audit.

C. Plan, do, check, act. D. Vision, creation, evaluation, optimization.

98. The weights of cans of paint are considered to be which of the following ?

A. Discrete data. B. Continuous data. C. Random data. D. Attribute data.

99. Which of the following sources is most likely to NOT provide input for necessary corrective action ?

A. Calibration techniques. B. Customer returns.

C. Inspection results. D. Audit reports.

100. The arrow diagram has been converted and expanded in use as a quality management tool. It is

referred to as

A. Systematic diagram. B. Activity network diagram.

C. Interrelationship diagram. D. PDPC

101. Which of the following data are data that can be quantified ?

A. Variable data. B. Attribute data. C. Coded data. D. Locational data.

102. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a stable histogram ?

A. It describes a normal curve.

B. It has a scattered concentration of points.

C. Most of the data points accumulate near the center.

D. A few data points fall outside a normal curve.

103. Which of the following elements is LEAST necessary to a good corrective action feedback report ?

A. What caused the failure. B. Who caused the failure.

C. What correction has been made. D. When the correction is effective.

104. What is the name for the graph of a data set made of a series of rectangles each proportional in

width to the range of values in a class and proportional in height to the number in the class ?

A. Histogram. B. Bar chart.

C. Normal distribution. D. Normal curve.

105. Which of the following problem-solving tools is a column graph which displays a static picture of the

process ?

A. Pareto Chart. B. Control chart.

C. Histogram. D. Cause and effect diagram.

106. As a problem-solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application for an Ishikawa

diagram ?

A. Problem identification and corrective action.

B. To support the Plan, Do, Check, Act cycle.

C. Determination of potential root problem causes.

D. Determination of short-term corrective action.

107. Tabular arrays of data and graphs on the same page are especially useful in quality control work

because :

. Both are there for those who don't like graphs only.

. Graphs help spot data transposition or errors.

. Control limits can be easily applied.

A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

108. Which of the following distributions has a domain of x is greater than or equal to zero ?

A. Lognormal B. Weibull C. Exponential D. All of the above.

109. If the probability of a car starting on a cold morning is 0.6, and we have two such cars, what is the

probability of at least one of the cars starting on a cold morning ?

A. 0.84 B. 0.81 C. 0.60 D. 0.36

110. The expected value of a distribution is

. Estimated by the geometric average.

. Estimated by the arithmetic average.

. Equal to the integral of xf(x) over all x.

A. , B. , C. , D. , ,

111. For a certain make of car, the brake linings have a mean lifetime of 40,000 miles with a 5,000 mile

standard deviation. A sample of 100 cars has been selected for testing. Assuming that the population

correction may be ignored, the standard deviation of X bar is

A. 50 miles. B. 500 miles. C. 400 miles. D. 4000 miles.

112. An inspection plan is set up to randomly sample 3 ft.2 of a 1,000 ft.2 carpet and to accept the

carpet only if no flaws are found in the 3 ft.2 sample. What is the probability that a roll of carpet with an

average of one (1) flaw per square foot will be rejected by the plan ?

A. 0.05 B. 0.72 C. 0.90 D. 0.95

113. Distributions A and B have the same mean. The standard deviation of distribution A is 15, that of

B is 5. We may conclude that

A. The observations in distribution A are grouped closer to the mean than are those in B.

B. The observations in distribution B are grouped closer to the mean than are those in A.

C. There are three times as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B.

D. There are one-third as many values from -1s to +1s in A as in B.

114. Most production processes follow which of the following distributions ?

A. Normal. B. Poisson. C. Exponential. D. None of the above.

115. A box contains 5 red marbles and 2 blue marbles. Given a red marble has been drawn, what is

the probability of drawing at least 2 red marbles in the next 3 draws ?

A. 0.07564 B. 0.6864 C. 0.6911 D. 0.8000

116. Estimate the standard deviation of the process that produced the following sample

22.8, 22.1, 21.9, 22.4, 22.7, 23.0, 22.2

A. 0.0587 B. 0.0029 C. 0.4036 D. 1.35

117. The average number of flaws in large plate glass is .25 per pane. The standard deviation of this

Poisson distribution is

A. 0.25 B. 0.05 C. 0.75 D. 0.50

118. The equation below represents:

A. The distribution variance. B. The distribution range.

C. The distribution mean. D. The distribution kurtosis.

119. The equation below represents

A. The probability of Events A and B occurring.

B. The probability of either Event A or B occurring.

C. The probability of Event A occurring before Event B.

D. The probability of Event B occurring given Event A has occurred.

120. Statistical quality control techniques are an application of

A. Permutation concepts. B. Probability theory.

C. Pareto's law. D. Logarithmic interpolation.

121. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?

A. Cpk is always less than or equal to Cp.

B. Cp is the ratio of specification width to 6 standard deviations of the process.

C. The Cpk value can be improved if the process can be centered.

D. A Cp of 1 is better than a Cp of 1.2.

122. You look at a process and note that the chart for averages has been in control. If the range

suddenly and significantly increases, the mean will

A. Usually increase. B. Stay the same.

C. Always decrease. D. Occasionally show out of control of either limit.

123. Recognizing the nature of process variability, the process capability target is usually

A. Looser than product specifications. B. The same as product specifications.

C. Tighter than product specifications. D. Not related to product specifications.

124. A run chart has recorded the following values

10, 8, 6, 14, 16, 14, 18, 20, 8, 10, 10, 10.

Which of the following are true statements based on a runs analysis of this data (assume a 95%

confidence level)?

. The actual number of runs is 3.

. The expected number of runs is 4.

. The centerline plotted value is 12.

. The above data would pass a runs analysis test.

A. I and III only B. I, II and III only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV

125. A control chart for defects per unit uses probability limits corresponding to probabilities of 0.975 and

0.025. The central line on the control chart is at 2.0. The limits vary with the value of n. Determine the

correct position of these upper and lower control limits when n = 5

A. 3.24, 0.76 B. 2.32, 0.96 C. 4.23, 0.67 D. 3.73, 0.49

126. Compute the upper control limit for an S chart, based on a sample size of 10, if the process is in

control with a mean of 40 and a sample standard deviation of 7.

A. 11.7 B. 13.3 C. 15.7 D. 21

127. Using the range method, calculate the machine capability standard deviation to nearest 0.0001 of the

following

8 A. M 9 A.M. 10 A.M. 11 A.M.

0.001 0.003 0.001 0.005

-0.001 0.004 -0.002 0.006 0.003 0 .003 -0.003 0.005

0.002 0.004 0.002 0.005

0.001 0.002 0.000 0.006

A. 0.0024 B. 0.0470 C. 0.0013 D. 0.0030

128. You have just returned from a two-week vacation and are going over with your QC manager, the

control charts which have been maintained during your absence. He calls your attention to the fact that

one of the - charts shows the last 50 points to be very near the center line. In fact, they all seem to

be within about one sigma of the center line. What explanation would you offer him ?

A. Somebody "goofed" in the original calculation of the control limits.

B. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the last 50 samples were taken and

nobody thought to recompute the control limits.

C. This is a terrible situation. I'll get on it right away and see what the trouble is. I hope we haven't

produced too much scrap.

D. This is fine, the closer the points are to the center line the better our control.

129. The sensitivity of a p-chart to changes in quality is

A. Equal to that of a range chart. B. Equal to that of a chart for averages

C. Less than that of a c chart. D. Greater than that of a u chart.

130. What is the lower control limit for proportion defective if the average daily production is 5000 units

and the average fraction defective is 0.02 ?

A. 0.016 B. 0.014 C. 0 D. 0.010

131. Given that resistors are produced in lots of 1000, and that the average number of defective resistors

per lot is 12.7, what are the upper and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process ?

A. LCL = 2.0, UCL = 23.4 B. LCL = 3.8, UCL = 20.2

C. LCL = 0.031, UCL 0.131 D. LCL = 1.5, UCL = 26.7

132. A process is in control at X-bar = 100, R-bar = 7.3 with n = 4. If the process level shifts to 101.5,

with the same R, what is the probability that the next X-bar point will fall outside the old control limits:

A. 0.016 B. 0.029 C. 0.122 D. 0.360

133. If a process is out of control, the theoretical probability that a single point on the X-bar chart will fall

between plus one sigma and the upper control limit is

A. 0.2240 B. 0.1587 C. Unknown D. 0.3413

134. You determine that it is sometimes economical to permit X to go out of control when ?

A. The individual R's exceed .

B. The cost of inspection is high.

C. σ is appreciably less than the difference between specifications.

D. The control limits are inside the drawing tolerance limits.

135. You are plotting a control chart and the last two of three points are greater than 2 sigma , four out

of the last five points are beyond 1 sigma and eight successive points are on one side of the center line;

you should

A. Stop the process immediately. B. Take more readings and continue to plot.

C. Write a discrepancy notice to the supervisor. D. Investigate to determine what has changed.

136. A process is in control with . The three-sigma limits of the process are

approximately

A. 48.1 and 51.9 B. 45.3 and 54.7 C. 47.2 and 52.8 D. 47.0 and 53.0

137. A process is normally distributed with a mean of 200 and a variance of 25. One item is randomly

selected, what is the probability of this item having a value greater than 210 ?

A. 0.3446 B. 0.0228 C. 0.0012 D. 0.0375

138. When small samples are used to estimate the standard deviation through use of the range statistic,

sample subgroup sizes larger than 20 should not be used because

A. The number 20 causes calculation difficulties.

B. The efficiency of the range as an estimator of the standard deviation falls to 70%.

C. The distribution for n = 20 is skewed.

D. n = 20 adversely affects the location of the mean.

139. A process measurement has a mean of 758 and a standard deviation of 19.4. If the specification

limits are 700 and 800, what percent of product can be expected to be out of limits assuming a normal

distribution ?

A. 1.7% B. 7.1% C. 3.4% D. 2.9%

140. The equation below represents

σ

A. The limits for an X Bar control chart. B. The limits for a Range chart.

C. The process capability adjusted for centering. D. The probability of meeting specification.

141. An interval that contains a specific proportion of the individuals from a population with a given

confidence is a

A. Confidence internal. B. Tolerance internal.

C. Percentage bound. D. Jacobian interval.

142. Which of the following purposes are served by replicating an experiment ?

. Provide a means for estimating the experimental error.

. Increase the number of treatment effects.

. Improve the precision of estimates of treatments effects.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

143. The variance of what distribution is equal to twice its degrees of freedom ?

A. Chi-square. B. t distribution. C. F distribution. D. Exponential.

144. Ratios of two variances drawn from the same normal population are described by which one of the

following distributions ?

A. F distribution. B. Student's t C. Chi-square test. D. Normal.

145. Duplicate readings, using two separate instruments, were obtained on ten samples. What is the

tabular value of the statistic used to determine the significance of the mean difference at the .05 level of

probability ?

A. 2.26 B. 2.23 C. 2.11 D. 2.09

146. Given the following results obtained from a fixed factor randomized block designed experiment in

which the production outputs of three machines A, B, C, are compared :

A 4 8 5 7 6

B 2 0 1 -2 4

C -3 1 -2 -1 0

How many degrees of freedom are used to compute the error variance ?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 12 D. 14

147. If the plating time of a tube increases as the inside diameter decreases, then the correlation

coefficient for the inside diameter versus plating time would be

A. Between 0 and +1 B. Between 0 and -1 C. Greater than 1 D. Equal to 1

148. In a single analysis of variance, the assumption of homogeneity of variances applies to

A. The variances within the treatment groups.

B. The variances of the treatment groups.

C. The total variance.

D. All of the above.

149. The fundamental equation of analysis of variance may express the idea that

A. The total sum of squares of deviations from the grand mean is equal to the sum of squares of

deviations between treatment means and the grand mean plus the sum of squares of deviation

within treatments.

B. The total standard deviation is equal to the sum of the standard deviation for the treatment effect

plus the standard deviation of the random error.

C. The degrees of freedom are not additive.

D. A basic population model can be constructed to represent the behavior of the experimentation.

150. Given the data below, compute SST.

Component A Component B Component C

12 14 16

13 12 15

11 12

A. 12.667 B. 4.104 C. 8.208 D. 2.533

151. When constructing a power of test curve one would NOT be surprised to discover that as alpha

( α ) increases:

( )

( )

( )

I. The value of mu becomes greater

II. Beta decreases

III. 1-Beta increases

IV. The sample size beomes larger

m

b

b

A. I, II and III only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I and IV only

152. An experiment has 3 factors with 2 levels and 1 factor with 3 levels. What is the minimum number

of trials necessary if all interactions are ignored ?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

153. In a random sample of 900 vehicles, 80% had anti-lock brakes. What is the 95% confidence

interval for the percent of vehicles with anti-lock brakes ?

A. 0.778 - 0.821 B. 0.771 - 0.829 C. 0.639 - 0.954 D. 0.774 - 0.826

154. A correlation of +0.95 for two variables, x and y, means that

. There is a strong linear relationship between x and y.

. y may be predicted from x using the equation y = 0.95x.

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

155. A Latin square design is an experimental design which

A. Cannot be used when estimation of the interaction effect is desired.

B. Affords a good estimate of interaction effects.

C. May not permit all treatments in every block.

D. May require the need to estimate the parameters during the experimentation.

156. When finding a confidence interval for mean μ based on a sample size of n

A. Increasing n increases the interval.

B. Having to use instead of n decreases the interval.

C. The larger the interval, the better the estimate of μ .

D. Increasing n decreases the interval.

157. A study was conducted on the relationship between the speed of different cars and their gasoline

mileage. The correlation coefficient was found to be 0.35. Later, it was discovered that there was a

defect in the speedometers and they had all been set 5 miles per hour too fast. The correlation

coefficient was computed using the corrected scores. Its new value will be

A. 0.30 B. 0.35 C. 0.40 D. 0.035

158. Determine whether the following two types of rockets have significantly different variances at the 5%

level.

Rocket A Rocket B

61 readings 31 readings

1,347 miles2 2,237 miles2

A. Significant difference because Fcal < Ftable. B. No significant difference because Fcal < Ftable..

C. Significant difference because Fcal > Ftable.. D. No significant difference because Fcal > Ftable..

159. A null hypothesis assumes that a process is producing no more than a maximum allowable rate of

defective items. The type II error is to conclude that the process:

A. Is producing too many defectives when it actually isn't.

B. Is not producing too many defectives when it actually is.

C. Is not producing too many defectives when it is not.

D. Is producing too many defectives when it is.

160. Which of the following statements is not correct in regards to regression analysis ?

A. The coefficient of determination ranges from 0 to 1.

B. The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1.

C. The higher the coefficient of determination, the better the fit.

D. Least squares is required to determine the best-fit straight line.

Solution #3

1 D 16 B 31 B 46 C 61 D 76 D 91 D 106 C 121 D 136 B 151 B

2 B 17 C 32 B 47 A 62 D 77 A 92 B 107 D 122 D 137 B 152 C

3 B 18 B 33 D 48 D 63 C 78 C 93 B 108 D 123 C 138 B 153 D

4 B 19 C 34 A 49 B 64 D 79 B 94 B 109 A 124 A 139 A 154 A

5 A 20 B 35 D 50 D 65 B 80 A 95 B 110 B 125 A 140 C 155 A

6 C 21 C 36 C 51 D 66 C 81 C 96 B 111 B 126 A 141 B 156 D

7 B 22 B 37 B 52 A 67 A 82 D 97 C 112 D 127 C 142 B 157 B

8 B 23 B 38 D 53 D 68 B 83 D 98 B 113 B 128 B 143 A 158 B

9 C 24 D 39 C 54 C 69 B 84 D 99 A 114 D 129 D 144 A 159 B

10 A 25 C 40 A 55 B 70 B 85 C 100 B 115 D 130 B 145 A 160 D

11 A 26 D 41 B 56 D 71 A 86 B 101 A 116 C 131 A 146 C

12 B 27 B 42 D 57 C 72 D 87 B 102 B 117 D 132 A 147 B

13 D 28 B 43 D 58 A 73 C 88 A 103 B 118 C 133 C 148 A

14 D 29 C 44 C 59 B 74 A 89 B 104 A 119 D 134 C 149 A

15 A 30 B 45 B 60 B 75 D 90 C 105 C 120 B 135 D 150 C


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CQE Sample Test #4

1. Inspection operations typically A. Help in assuring satisfactory quality. B. Reduce the usability of the product or service involved. C. Require precise equipment in most instances. D. Occur between all manufacturing operations.

2. A process calls for the mean value of a dimension to be 2.02". Which of the following should be used as the null hypothesis to test whether or not the process is achieving this mean ? A. The mean of the population is 2.02" B. The mean of the sample is 2.02" C. The mean of the population is not 2.02" D. The mean of the sample is not 2.02"

3. When evaluation data for goodness of fit to suspected distributions, which of the following statements are true ? Ⅰ. Most distributions have the same degrees of freedom.

Ⅱ. The χ 2 test can be used for hypothesis testing. Ⅲ. In all cases, the data is divided into cells.

A. I and Ⅱ only. B. I and Ⅲ only. C. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only. D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ.

4. The equation below represents the

f(x)=1

x 2πexp

[- 12 ( lnx-μ

σ ) 2]

A. Lognormal probability density function. B. Normal probability density function. C. Exponential probability density function. D. None of the above.

Sample Test #4

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5. If Events A and B are independent, then Ⅰ. P(B/A)=P(A) Ⅱ. P(A/B)=P(B) Ⅲ. P(B/A)=P(B)

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅱ only C. Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only

6. If we drew a large number of samples from a controlled process, we would not be surprised to discover Ⅰ. Some differences among the values of the sample means Ⅱ. A distribution of sample means around some central value Ⅲ. That many sample means differ from the process average

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ

7. The recently introduced quality term "kaizen" refers to which of the following ? A. The application of reengineering to process improvement. B. Small, gradual but continual improvement steps. C. The natural spread of SPC applications to administrative areas. D. The numerous Japanese adaptations of the work of W. Edwards Deming.

8. The follow-up on the need for corrective action, identified in an audit report, is MOST clearly the responsibility of which of the following ? A. The client's upper management. B. The auditee's upper management. C. The lead auditor. D. The operating area in which finding was made.

9. When items are removed from service or testing without failure, they are said to be A. Censored. B. Missing. C. Invalid. D. Inconsistent.


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10. No one likes complaints, but they are good for us. Why ? A. There is no good in it. B. A second chance to improve. C. They did the inspection for us. D. Ignore the complaint.

11. Which of the following will BEST assure quality in most organizations ? A. Have competent people with quality attitudes. B. Automate the process where possible. C. Use only high quality suppliers. D. Hire an energetic quality assurance manager.

12. The advantages of an effective quality cost measurement system EXCLUDE which of the following ? Ⅰ. An alignment of company and quality goals. Ⅱ. The solving of many quality problems. Ⅲ. The elimination of most management corrective actions. Ⅳ. An effective vehicle for resource allocation.

A. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only

13. Which of the following statements can be safely made about Pareto diagrams ? A. They have little application outside of the quality area. B. They reflect an observation of fact. C. They are bound by a universal set of laws. D. They have no validity for discrete data.

Sample Test #4

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14. Which of the following quality improvement tools utilize the accumulation of ideas or data into categories ? Ⅰ. Control charts. Ⅱ. Plan/do/check/act. Ⅲ. Pareto diagrams. Ⅳ. Fishbone diagrams. Ⅴ. Flow charts.

A. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅲ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅳ and Ⅴonly

15. During the problem definition phase of continuous improvement, which of the following tools would be considered particularly effective ? Ⅰ. PDCA. Ⅱ. Pareto diagrams. Ⅲ. Fishbone diagrams. Ⅳ. Process capability.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

16. Quality control has been labeled as the science and art of identifying and controlling variability. One measure of variability as used in this context is A. The arithmetic mean. B. The variance. C. The mode. D. The geometric mean.

17. When comparing an assessment audit with an appraisal audit, one would conclude that A. The appraisal audit measures system effectiveness. B. The appraisal audit is generally an internal audit. C. The assessment audit is usually external. D. The assessment audit is larger in scope.


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18. ISO/TS 16949(2002) requirements for corrective and preventive action include which of the following ? Ⅰ. Corrective action procedures to investigate and eliminate the cause of the nonconformity. Ⅱ. The use of a disciplined problem solving methodology to address the resolution of any nonconformance. Ⅲ. The use of mistake proofing methodology as part of their corrective and preventive action. A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ

19. As a problem solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application for an lshikawa diagram ? A. Problem identification and corrective action. B. To support the Plan, Do, Check, Act cycle. C. Determination of potential root problem causes. D. Determination of short-term corrective action.

20. The sequence for the Deming Improvement cycle is A. Design, manufacture, inspect, ship. B. Plan, document, implement, audit. C. Plan, do, study, act. D. Vision, creation, evaluation, optimization.

21. What is a checksheet that is used to collectlocational data commonly called ? A. A measles chart. B. A recording checksheet. C. A location checksheet. D. A position chart.

22. The difference between setting alpha equal to 0.05 and alpha equal to 0.01 in hypothesis testing is A. With alpha equal to 0.05, one is more willing to risk a typeⅠ error. B. With alpha equal to 0.05, one is more willing to risk a typeⅡ error. C. Alpha equal to 0.05 is a more "conservative" test of the null hypothesis(Ho). D. With alpha equal to 0.05, one is less willing to risk a typeⅠ error.

Sample Test #4

- 6 -

23. A random variable Ⅰ. May be either discrete or continuous. Ⅱ. Is called "random" because it depends on the normal distribution. Ⅲ. Is called "variable" because it refers to the variance.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only

24. Which of the following are good sources of information on customer satisfaction ? Ⅰ. Internal customers. Ⅱ. Suppliers. Ⅲ. Upper management. Ⅳ. Customers.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

25. Which of the modern quality management tools could use 3"×5" cards or post-it-notes as part of the brainstorming or idea generation stage ? Ⅰ. Tree diagrams. Ⅱ. Affinity diagrams. Ⅲ. Matrix diagrams. Ⅳ. Interrelationship diagrams. Ⅴ. Activity network diagrams.

A. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅴ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅱ,Ⅳ and Ⅴ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅳ and Ⅴ only

26. Records of old blank audit checklists are handy for A. Recording comments that wouldn't fit on the audit checklist. B. Reference when compiling a new checklist. C. The auditee to preview potential audit areas. D. Including in a company's quality manual.


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27. There are numerous approaches to problem solving. Arrange the following steps into the most logical sequence from start to finish. 1. Analyze the problem. 2. Confirm the results. 3. Define the problem. 4. Identify the problem. 5. Investigate the problem. 6. Solve the problem.

A. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2, 6 B. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2, 6 C. 4, 3, 1, 5, 6, 2 D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 6, 2

28. The quality tool widely used to analyze the relationship between two variables is A. Scatter diagram. B. Pareto diagram. C. Run charts. D. Cause and effect diagram.

29. Rivets from several different forging presses are dumped into a large central total bin. Once each hour an inspector goes to the bin and selects five rivets at random and plots an X bar - R chart. Which of the following statements would one suspect to be true of the resulting X bar - R chart ? Ⅰ. The R bar on the chart will be relatively high. Ⅱ. There are very few special or assignable causes noted on the X bar chart. Ⅲ. Only subtle shifts in the over all process average will be observed. Ⅳ. The average chart will become a better indicator of process performance than range chart.

A. Ⅳ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

30. The word of material control is laden with three letter acronyms. Arrange the following acronyms in proper time sequence (from first to last) as they would occur in the case of a nonconformity. Ⅰ. MRR Ⅱ. MRB Ⅲ. CAR Ⅳ. CAB

A. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ, Ⅳ B. Ⅰ, Ⅳ, Ⅲ, Ⅱ C. Ⅱ, Ⅲ, Ⅰ, Ⅳ D. Ⅱ, Ⅰ, Ⅲ, Ⅳ

Sample Test #4

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31. In order to obtain the most verifiable objective evidence during an audit, which of the following auditor requests is the best approach ? A. How often do you receive or transmit product information ? B. To what extent is product information important to your job duties ? C. Please show me examples of product information and describe how they affect your job duties. D. Is product information important in the performance of your quality related job duties ?

32. Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regards to regression analysis ? A. The coefficient of determination ranges from 0 to 1 B. The correlation coefficient ranges from -1 to 1 C. The higher the coefficient of determination, the better the fit. D. Least squares is required to determine the best fit straight line.

33. The BEST reason for instituting a quality cost system is A. To satisfy ISO 9001 system requirements. B. To achieve a proper balance of prevention, appraisal and failure costs. C. To identity opportunities for improvement. D. To benchmark your competitors.

34. A negative report about a potential supplier can result from which one of the following ? Ⅰ. Poor past performance. Ⅱ. No quality control plan. Ⅲ. Lack of suitable equipment. Ⅳ. No evidence of equipment calibration.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

35. Duplicate readings, using two separate instruments, were obtained on ten samples. What is the tabular value of the statistic used to determine the significance of the mean difference at the 0.05 level of probability ? A. 2.26 B. 2.23 C. 2.11 D. 2.09


- 9 -

36. Which two of the following would be positive steps for an organization intent on continuous improvement? Ⅰ. Determining the total organizational impact of changes. Ⅱ. Decreasing skill based training expenditure. Ⅲ. Discontinuing detailed record keeping of improvement projects. Ⅳ. Calculating the costs of proposed improvement projects.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅲ and Ⅳ only

37. Normally, complaint data for both a product or service organization should provide A. An indication of the organizational areas creating the most problems. B. The degree or extent of customers dissatisfaction. C. The appropriate corrective action to take. D. The total quality costs for the organization.

38. Given the incomplete ANOVA table below, compute the F statistic.

A. 0.87 B. 3.22 C. 1.62 D. 1.14

Sample Test #4

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39. The figure below is referred to as

A. An acceptance curve. B. A percent defective curve. C. A conformance curve. D. An OC curve.

40. Which of the following CANNOT be a null hypothesis ? A. The population means are equal. B. P'=0.5. C. The sample means are equal. D. The difference in the population means is 3.85.

41. Of the seven major MBNQA critique areas, which of the following receive the heaviest weighting ? A. Business results. B. Human resource management. C. Strategic planning. D. Process management.

42. Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding the use of pneumatic gages ? Ⅰ. A high level of skill is required for use. Ⅱ. The equipment is both fast and accurate. Ⅲ. The equipment is versatile and can make a variety of measurements. Ⅳ. Only variable measurements can be made.

A. Ⅱ, Ⅳ only B. Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only


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43. What is the principal function of the quality department ? A. A service department for all other departments. B. To coordinate the quality effort. C. Inspection and process control. D. Organizational focus.

44. Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on the gaps in performance ? A. Secure a workshop trainer. B. Review a record of activities. C. Set up a one shot case study. D. Allocate employees for training.

45. A lot of 50 pieces contains 5 defectives. A sample of two is drawn without replacement. The probability that both will be defective is approximately

A. 0.0100. B. 0.0010. C. 0.0082. D. 0.0093.

46. All of the following are a possible cause for corrective action EXCEPT A. A customer complaint. B. An internal quality audit. C. A competitive pricing structure. D. A management review.

47. Which of the following individuals or groups is (are) NOT involved in a preliminary review of nonconforming incoming purchased material ? A. Members of MRB. B. Quality assurance supervisor. C. Purchasing department representative. D. Inspection personnel.

48. Which of the following would NOT be considered a valid microwave testing application ? A. Measurement of the moisture content of a variety of materials. B. Monitoring of the chemical composition of certain liquids. C. Defect detection in metallic parts with relatively simple shapes. D. Thickness gaging of numerous non-metallic materials.

Sample Test #4

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49. Which of the following is a preventive action ? A. Expanding or rewriting a procedure after it has been found to be ineffective. B. Correcting tolerances after they were found to be wrong. C. Retraining workers on how to do a task after mistakes were found. D. Writing an inspection procedure for a new product.

50. Which of te following items would be LEAST likely to be included in a company's quality manual ? A. A nonconforming product element. B. The results of customer surveys - good or bad. C. An internal quality audit policy. D. A description of statistical techniques employed.

51. The term collinear refers to A. Two linear variables. B. A linear interaction. C. Variables being a linear combination of one another. D. Linear correlation.

52. A particular structure is to be used in a critical application. Based on the expected load profile, the structure is required to have a mean strength of 10,000 psi. To ensure reliability against fracture, rupture, or collapse, the structure was designed with a mean strength of 15,000 psi. Based on the design information, the margin of safety is A. 0.67. B. 0.50. C. 0.33. D. 1.50.

53. In product liability, the proper legal term(s) for statements regarding the reliability of a product are known as A. Advertisements. B. Warranties. C. Contracts or obligations. D. Representations.


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54. Which of the seven new quality management tools can be useful in organizing facts about an unfamiliar subject ? Ⅰ. The affinity diagram. Ⅱ. The process decision program chart(PDPC). Ⅲ. The matrix diagram. Ⅳ. The prioritization matrix.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

55. Given that resistors are produced in lots 1000, and that the average number of defective resistors per lot is 12.7, what are the upper and lower limits for the control chart appropriate for this process ? A. LCL=2.0 UCL=23.4 B. LCL=3.8 UCL=20.2 C. LCL=0.031 UCL=0.131 D. LCL=1.5 UCL=26.7

56. The major purposes of an internal quality audit program includes which of the following ? Ⅰ. Help prevent unfit products from being manufactured. Ⅱ. Determine if established procedures are being followed. Ⅲ. Provide objective feedback to management. Ⅳ. Identity problems needing attention.

A. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

57. Which of the following would be considered essential elements of a total improvement plan ? Ⅰ. Providing the necessary training and education for company employees. Ⅱ. Providing bonuses for major departmental heads based upon their performance. Ⅲ. Encouraging a culture transformation within the organization. Ⅳ. Providing a regular quality cost report to major departments.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ and Ⅳ

Sample Test #4

- 14 -

58. The diameter of a population of ball bearings is normally distributed with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 8. What is probability of the average diameter of 10 randomly selected ball bearings being greater that 77 ? A. 0.3751 B. 0.4013 C. 0.2146 D. 0.0210

59. A good quality information system should Ⅰ. Allow top management to easily view important information. Ⅱ. Collect as much data as possible electronically rather than manually. Ⅲ. Be accessible to all members of the organization.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ

60. The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following ? A. Increased cost-of-quality results. B. Improved working methods and morale. C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction. D. Reduced defects and employee turnover.

61. A system was designed with 3 capacitors. When the system is first activated all capacitors are operating. The system continues to operated as long as at least 1 capacitor is operating. This is an example of A. Redundancy. B. A series system. C. An active parallel system D. A standby parallel system.

62. Which of the following is the MOST reliable source of audit evidence ? A. Physical observation of activities by at least two independent sources. B. Physical examination of documentation and observation of corresponding activities. C. A combination of written and oral responses from auditee personnel to checklist questions. D. Examination of the key documents that are identified in the standard or contract being audited.


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63. Which of the following is the underlying subgrouping scheme for control charting ? A. Selected to include a heterogeneous cross section of product produced. B. Selected to coincide with customer orders and invoices. C. Selected to consist of products produced in tight time sequence. D. Selected to match final inspection lots.


65. The distinguishing feature of the optical comparator is that adjustments for measurement are observed on A. A dial indicator. B. A reticle coordinator. C. A screen. D. A rotating stage.

66. Which of the following quality tools would be LEAST important in the problem definition phase ? A. Fishbone diagrams. B. Control charts. C. Process flow diagrams. D. Pareto diagrams.

67. Given a coefficient of determination of 0.85, which of the following is TRUE ? Ⅰ. There is positive correlation in the data. Ⅱ. 85% of the variability is explained by the regression model. Ⅲ. The sum of squares of X is greater than the sum of squares of Y.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅱ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only

Sample Test #4

- 16 -

68. The working documents that facilitate the execution of an audit often include which of the following ? Ⅰ. The credentials of the audit team. Ⅱ. Checklists and reporting forms. Ⅲ. Standard requirements for corrective action. Ⅳ. Quality system procedures and work instructions.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱonly B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅱ and Ⅳ only

69. In a full factorial experimental design, factors A and B are both tested at 4 levels. How many experiments are conducted ? A. 8 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16

70. The cause(s) for declining productivity rates in the United States is (are) Ⅰ. Management's refusal to invest more in research and development. Ⅱ. Lack of quality in marketed products. Ⅲ. Poor communication channels.

A. Ⅱ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ

71. Calculate the standard deviation of the following complete set of data11, 7, 12, 10, 8

A. 4.3 B. 2.2 C. 1.9 D. 5.0

72. What step in the Six Sigma DMAIC problem solving approach is missing from the PDSA and PDCA cycles ? A. C B. I C. M D. D


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73. Recognizing the nature of process variability, the process capability target is usually A. Looser than product specifications. B. The same as product specifications. C. Tighter than product specifications. D. Not related to product specifications.

74. The purpose of an audit interview can be to Ⅰ. Understand and evaluate the facts. Ⅱ. Attempt the identification of system deficiencies. Ⅲ. Ensure that both auditee and auditor understand the quality requirements.


75. The figure below is commonly referred to as a

A. Venn diagram. B. Pareto chart. C. OC chart D. Space diagram.

76. The figure below indicates

A. A strong interaction. B. No interaction. C. A weak interaction. D. A positive interaction.

Sample Test #4

- 18 -

77. The probability of survival (Ps) for a product is expressed as a decimal fraction or percent which indicates A. The expected number of devices in a quantity of devices that will not be degraded by the specified special tests. B. The expected number of devices in a quantity of devices that would not be found defective by sampling plan inspection. C. The expected number of devices in a quantity of devices that will not fail due to other than cause reasons. D. The expected number of devices in a quantity of devices that will survive for a required period of time.

78. When specifying the "10:1 calibration principle", one is referring to A. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the secondary standard to that of the primary standard B. The ratio of the frequency of calibration of the instrument to that of the primary standard C. The ratio of the main scale to vernier scale calibration D. The ratio of calibration standard accuracy to calibrated instrument accuracy.

79. Which of the following action steps is most recommended to change a satisfied product customer into a delighted customer? (A delighted customer won't buy anything but your product.) A. Exceed the customer's reliability requirements. B. Have an exceptionally quick warranty claim system. C. Provide an initial cost substantially below your competition. D. Consistently exceed the quoted delivery schedule.

80. When comparing internal and external customers, one finds that Ⅰ. The requirements of both must be clearly defined. Ⅱ. Feedback is essential in both areas. Ⅲ. An external customer may have more flexibility to seek a different supplier. Ⅳ. There are no significant differences.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ


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81. If the specification limits are wider than the control limits, then A. The process is capable. B. The process capability index is greater than 1.0. C. The specification limits replace the control limits on the chart. D. None of the above.

82. Please arrange the following quality management techniques in sequential order, from least complex to most complex. The complexity involves both the ease of use and the amount of subject familiarity necessary for effectiveness. 1. Affinity diagram. 2. Tree diagram. 3. Matrix diagram. 4. Prioritization matrix.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 2, 1, 4, 3 C. 3, 1, 2, 4 D. 1, 3, 2, 4

83. How many standard deviation units, symmetrical about the mean, will span an area around the mean of 40% of the total area under the normal curve ? A. ±0.84 B. ±0.52 C. ±1.28 D. ±0.25

84. The existence of a quality control manual at your key supplier means A. That a quality system has been developed. B. That a quality system has been implemented. C. That the firm is quality conscious. D. That the firm is a certified supplier.

85. When using a sine bar to measure an angle, the height of the gage block setting is determined by multiplying the sine of the angle by A. The width of the gage blocks. B. The height of the gage blocks. C. The length of the adjacent side. D. The length of the sine bar.

Sample Test #4

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86. On the production floor, parts being produced measure .995-1.005. The specification requires the parts to be .995-1.005. Which of the following techniques would NOT be particularly useful in trying to improve and control the process ? A. Pre-control B. Short run charts C. X-bar And R charts D. ANSI/ASQ Z1.4

87. The sequential design steps for Taguchi's robust design are Ⅰ. Concept design. Ⅱ. Parameter design. Ⅲ. Tolerance design.

A. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ B. Ⅰ, Ⅲ, Ⅱ C. Ⅱ, Ⅰ, Ⅲ D. Ⅲ, Ⅰ, Ⅱ

88. The factor D4 in X bar and R control charts is used to A. Determine the upper control limit of a range chart. B. Establish the control limits for the average chart. C. Correct the bias in estimating the population. D. Determine the lower control limit of a range chart.

89. The most frequent error made by top management, when dealing with system variation, is A. Treating common causes as special causes. B. Considering all causes to be local causes. C. Recognizing that common causes require quick action. D. Treating special causes as common causes.

90. Which of the following functions are normally considered work elements of quality control engineering ? Ⅰ. Preproduction planning. Ⅱ. Process capability studies. Ⅲ. Classification of characteristics. Ⅳ. Quality cost analysis.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅲ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ


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91. Which of the following are likely to be positive actions in obtaining a supplier's commitment to quality improvement ? Ⅰ. Involving the supplier early in the product development stage. Ⅱ. Partially reimbursing the supplier, when the product is rejected. Ⅲ. Establishing a firm schedule of required product quantities and dates. Ⅳ. Providing meaningful and timely quality performance feedback.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

92. Which of the following data types would provide the most useful information in eliminating the causes of paint blemishes on automobiles being produced on an assembly line ? A. Attribute. B. Ordinal. C. Locational. D. Variables.

93. Which of the following distributions is used in situations that have only two possible outcomes ? Ⅰ. Binomial. Ⅱ. Hypergeometric. Ⅲ. Geometric.


94. A box contains 5 red marbles and 2 blue marbles. Given a red marble has been drawn, what is the probability of drawing at least 2 red marbles in the next 3 draws ? A. .07564 B. 0.6864 C. 0.6911 D. 0.8000

95. The coefficients in the equation below can be determined using

y i=a+bx i+e i

A. SPC. B. Least squares regression. C. Sum of squares estimation. D. All of the above.

Sample Test #4

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96. Precision can BEST be defined as A. The ability to target a process to a specified normal value. B. The average reading determined after repeated measurements by different operators. C. The difference between the average of repeated measurements on the same item. D. The agreement or closeness of measurements on the same item.

97. Calculate the standard deviation of the following set of five sample observations 1.5, 1.2, 1.1, 1.0, 0

A. 0.658 B. 0.508 C. 0.568 D. 0.500

98. A process that is normally distributed will have which of the following characteristics ? A. It is predictable. B. It is bimodal. C. It is skewed. D. It is truncated.

99. Which of the following is NOT true in regards to blocking ? Ⅰ. A block is a dummy factor which doesn't interact with real factors. Ⅱ. A blocking factor has 2 levels. Ⅲ. A block is a subdivision of the experiment. Ⅳ. Blocks are used to compensate when production processes restrict randomization of runs.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅱ only C. Ⅲ only D. Ⅱ and Ⅳ only

100. Which of the following is BEST suited for modelling the reliability of a complex piece of equipment ? A. Fault-tree. B. FMEA. C. MIL-STD-217. D. Vector Space Analysis.


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101. What is the meaning of the G D & T symbol below ?

A. Maximum material condition. B. Regardless of feature size. C. Least material condition. D. Projected tolerance zone.

102. An audit consisting of an examination, inspection or testing of a product which has been previously inspected is called which of the following ? A. System audit. B. Internal audit. C. Process audit. D. Product audit.

103. What is usual sequence (from top to bottom) for action terms in a continuous improvement driven company ? 1. Tactics. 2. Mission. 3. Strategies. 4. Projects.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4 B. 2, 4, 3, 1 C. 2, 3, 4, 1 D. 3, 2, 4, 1

104. The probability of event A occurring and event B occurring is equal to the probability of event A occurring multiplied by the probability of event B occurring if Ⅰ. Events A and B are mutually exclusive. Ⅱ. Events A and B are independent. Ⅲ. The covariance of events A and B is zero.

A. Ⅰ only B. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ only D. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only

Sample Test #4

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105. Correlation coefficients are generated from which of the following graphs ? A. Measles charts. B. Scatter diagrams. C. Pareto diagrams. D. Control charts.

106. Which of the following would be the BEST application of a Pareto chart ? Ⅰ. To determine when to make proactive adjustments to a process. Ⅱ. To differentiate between major and minor problem areas. Ⅲ. To gather data and to design experimental controlled changes. Ⅳ. To evaluate the results of other problem solving techniques upon the product or service.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

107. Given a coefficient of determination of 0.9, what is the correlation coefficient ? A. 0.9 or -0.9 B. 0.81 or -0.81 C. 0.9487 or-0.9487 D. 0.9487

108. What type of production process does this histogram in the figure below show ?

A. In control, process capability = 1. B. Process capability needs to be improved. C. A distribution after 100% inspection. D. An in control process with special causes of variation.


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109. Communication with vendors on quality problems A. Should be initiated by the vendor's quality control department. B. Should be initiated by the vendee's purchasing department. C. Should be initiated by the vendee's engineering department. D. Can be resolved only through personal visits between vendor and vendee.

110. The first and most important step, in establishing a good product design is A. Determining customer requirements. B. Determining manufacturing process capabilities. C. Evaluating vendor quality systems. D. Ensuring quality participation in design review.

111. A sampling plan that may use up to 4 samples to make a decision to accept or reject is A. Single sampling B. Double sampling C. Multiple sampling D. Quadruple sampling

112. The best definition of the PDSA technique is which of the following ? A. A method of involving teams in the problem solving cycle. B. An organized mind-mapping technique. C. A continuous improvement loop. D. A creative planning analysis method

113. The administration and control of all inspection stamps normally rests with which of the following ? A. The production planning department. B. The quality department. C. The material Review Board. D. The customer requesting the part identification.

114. A graphical display of the total percentage of results below a certain measurement value is called a A. Histogram. B. Probability density function. C. Cumulative distribution function. D. Expected value.

Sample Test #4

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115. What type of data contains infinite data points that may be displayed on a continuous measurement scale ? A. Continuous distribution. B. Statistics. C. Parameters. D. Discrete distribution.

116. The equation below is

S xy

S xxS yy

A. The covariance of X and Y. B. The correlation coefficient of x and Y. C. The coefficient of determination of X and Y. D. The variance of the product of X and Y.

117. What is the reliability of the system below ?

A. 0.99. B. 0.874665. C. 0.93. D. 0.999965.

118. Which of the following could be used to accelerate failures in electronic devices ? Ⅰ. Increased voltage. Ⅱ. Vibration. Ⅲ. Temperature cycling.



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119. Which of the following are TRUE statements regarding the use of visual inspection ? Ⅰ. Reference standards can be used. Ⅱ. It provides consistency between inspectors. Ⅲ. It is relatively expensive. Ⅳ. It can be quickly performed.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅳonly B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳonly C. Ⅱ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

120. An X bar control chart is based on a sample size of 4. An operator mistakenly plots the value of a single point on the control chart. This point: A. Will not cause any misjudgements if the process is in control. B. Will always be plotted near the center line of the control chart. C. Will cause the associated R chart to show an out of control condition. D. Increases the probability of the process being labeled out of control.

121. Which of the following quality leaders is associated with the definition of quality as "fitness for use" ? A. Joseph M. Juran. B. Philip B. Crosby. C. W. Edwards Deming. D. Armand V. Feigenbaum.

122. A Latin square design is noted for its straight forward an analysis of interaction effects. This statement is A. True in every case. B. True sometimes, depending on the size of the square. C. False in every case. D. False except for Graeco-Latin squares.

123. Usually three-view orthographic drawings are used to fully dimension objects. Which of the design forms needs only two views to achieve full dimension ? A. Symmetrical. B. Chamfered. C. Perpendicular. D. Cylindrical.

Sample Test #4

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124. One use for a student test is to determine whether or not differences exists in A. Variability. B. Confidence intervals. C. Correlation coefficients. D. Averages.

125. The probability of accepting a lot of unacceptable quality is known as A. Alpha risk. B. 1-beta risk. C. Producer's risk. D. Beta risk.

126. Why are Pareto diagrams used ? A. To show the process capability. B. To prioritize problems. C. To show the flow of information or material. D. To facilitate a brainstorming session.

127. When introducing a new product to the manufacturing phase of the product's life, the most important justification for a process capability study-after a pilot run for stability, but during a controlled pre-production operation, is A. It will prove design feasibility. B. It will establish machine capability. C. It will provide manufacturing engineering with the basis for a preventive maintenance schedule. D. It will determine the degree of conformance of the system to meet design specifications and economic yield requirements.

128. Sensitivity in experimentation is A. Getting the true result. B. Extreme care in data analysis. C. Using the best measuring device. D. Ability to distinguish significant differences in the response variable.


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129. After constructing a process flow chart, an improvement team can often generate improvement ideas by asking which of the following questions ? Ⅰ. What are the significant few and the trivial many ? Ⅱ. Are proven components and configurations used ? Ⅲ. Is there any unnecessary complexity ? Ⅳ. Does duplication or redundancy exist ?

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅲ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ and Ⅳ only

130. Historical data is used to create a Pareto diagram. The following occurrences were noted for one month Minor corrosion 38 Inclusions 23 Bolts missing 19 Cracking 14 Other 14

From this data one can conclude A. Corrosion costs more than other categories. B. Inclusions cause more defects than cracking. C. The "other" category is insignificant. D. The operator causes more problems than the design.

131. The reliability of a component is 0.8. How many of these components are required in parallel if the system reliability requirement is 0.99 ? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

132. One of the major hazards in the material review board procedure is the tendency of the board to emphasize only the disposition function and to neglect which of the following functions ? A. Statistical analysis. B. Corrective action. C. Material evaluation D. Tolerance review.

Sample Test #4

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133. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the new quality management tools ? A. Scatter diagrams. B. PDPC charts. C. Tree diagrams. D. Matrix diagrams.

134. Which of the following is NOT true ? A. The range of the correlation coefficient is from -1 to 1. B. The range of the coefficient of determination is from 0 to 1. C. A negative correlation coefficient indicates negative correlation. D. The lower the correlation coefficient the lower the correlation.

135. Using the available angle blocks of 1', 3', 5', 20', 30', 1°, 3°, 5°, 20°, 30°, which of the following statements is correct regarding the angles that can be created ? A. Angles of approximately 1/3 of the possibilities up to 60°. B. Odd value angles below 20° and even values of 20° up to 50°. C. All angles from 1/ to 59° 59' in 1' increments. D. All angles from 0' to 59° 59' in 1' increments.

136. When trying to find all possible causes of a problem, which of the following tools would be useful ? Ⅰ. Systematic troubleshooting and brainstorming. Ⅱ. Fishbone diagrams and histograms. Ⅲ. Checklists and scatter diagrams. Ⅳ. Control charts and graphs.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅳonly B. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳonly C. Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳonly D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

137. Which of the following statements is NOT true in regards to X bar control charts ? A. The width of the limits are usually set at plus or minus 3 standard deviations of the sampling distribution. B. The width of the limits are inversely proportional to the sample size· C. If the process is in control, 2700 points per million will fall outside the control limits. D. If the process is in control, 1/2 the point will fall below the center line.


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138. Which of the following is a valid null hypothesis ? A. p > 1/8 B. mu < 98 C. The mean of population A is not equal to the mean of population B. D. mu = 110.

139. EVOP should be used A. When there is a manufacturing problem. B. When a process is not in statistical control. C. When an experimenter first begins working on a new product. D. When a process is producing satisfactory material.

140. A set of measurements is arranged in order of magnitude with a frequency associated with each measurement. This action describes : A. A grouped frequency distribution. B. A cumulative frequency distribution. C. An ungrouped frequency distribution. D. A histogram.

141. Kaizen is a Japanese approach directed toward A. Mistake proofing an operation. B. Doing things better to achieve an increasingly higher standard. C. Developing employee participation in the business decisions. D. Becoming more competitive in the world market.

142. What association does the expression "house of quality" normally make ? A. Our entire organization is quality minded. B. Full quality functional deployment. C. The organization listens to the voice of the customer. D. Prompt service and product quality.

Sample Test #4

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143. Which of the following statements BEST reflects the difference between breakthrough as compared to typical improvement ? A. Researching the competitive and noncompetive intelligence. B. Attempting to surpass the performance of the best benchmarked source. C. Determining the leader in the areas felt to be deficient. D. Identifying all major critical success functions.

144. A transistor is rated for use at 220 volts. Using this transistor in a device that delivers 180 volts is an example of A. Applying a safely factor. B. Allowing for part variability. C. Following the 1.2 electrical ratio rule. D. Derating.

145. When one performs "one experiment with five repetitions," what are the six experiments called ? A. Randomization. B. Replications. C. Planned grouping. D. Sequential.

146. Often costs of quality reports reflect 4-5% of sales when the true amount is 15-20%. Which of the following cost categories is generally neglected ? A. Direct quality department expenses. B. Indirect internal and external failure costs. C. Preventative quality costs. D. Combined appraisal and preventative expenses.

147. Which of the following terms apply to variable control charts ? Ⅰ. Cumulative lines. Ⅱ. Process averages. Ⅲ. Control limits. Ⅳ. Process standard deviation. Ⅴ. Correlation coefficients.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only B. Ⅱ and Ⅲ only C. Ⅱ and Ⅳ only D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ and Ⅳ only


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148. An X bar chart has shown control for a long time. The points for the last 50 samples are all very near the center line on the chart. In fact, they are all within one sigma of the center line. This probably indicates that A. A desirable situation has occurred. B. An undesirable situation has occurred. C. The process standard deviation has decreased during the time the last 50 samples were taken. D. The control chart limits are incorrectly computed.

149. In planning process controls A. Deciding whether the process runs or not is determined by whether the resulting product conforms. B. The basic approach follows the servomechanism cycle so common in engineering. C. Collection of information goes hand-in-hand with decision making. D. Meeting process specification tolerances is the same as meeting product tolerances.

150. Objective evidence during the conduct of an audit can be collected via which of the following methods ? Ⅰ. Interviews with personnel. Ⅱ. Reviews of old audit reports. Ⅲ. Examination of current documents. Ⅳ. Observation of actual conditions.

A. Ⅰ and Ⅲ only B. Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ only C. Ⅰ,Ⅲ and Ⅳonly D. Ⅰ,Ⅱ,Ⅲ and Ⅳ

151. What is the key ranking difference between the Deming philosophy and the Malcolm Baldrige award criteria? A. Deming prescribes "all or nothing" propositions but MBNQA ranks categories with different weights. B. The MBNQA ranks "business results" and "customer focus", but Deming does not consider these items. C. The MBNQA has seven categories compared to Deming's 14 points. D. There is no recognized rating system for the MBNQA.

Sample Test #4

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152. A supplier of cotton yarn claims that his product has an average breaking strength of 90 pounds. To test his claim, you select a random sample of 16 pieces of yarn. If the standard deviation of his process is unknown and one uses the normal curve theory instead of "t" distribution theory to test the null hypothesis, one would Ⅰ. Increase the risk of a Type Ⅰerror. Ⅱ. Decrease the risk of a Type Ⅰerror. Ⅲ. Increase the risk of a Type Ⅱ error.

A. Ⅰ only. B. Ⅱ only. C. Ⅰ and Ⅱ only. D. Ⅰand Ⅲ only.

153. Which of the following quality tools is also a bar or column chart ? A. Control chart. B. Ishikawa diagram. C. Pareto diagram. D. Scatter diagram.

154. In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally : A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques. B. Provide feedback to the group. C. Function as the group leader. D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.

155. When confirming the results of an improvement, which of the following tools would be LEAST beneficial ? A. Pareto diagram. B. Brainstorming. C. Histograms. D. Control charts.

156. Approved auditing interviewing includes which of the following techniques ? Ⅰ. Open-ended questions. Ⅱ. Paraphrasing. Ⅲ. Probing.

A. Ⅰ, Ⅱ B. Ⅱ, Ⅲ C. Ⅰ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ


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157. A process is in control with

x = 50, R = 4.0 and n = 6

The three-sigma limits of the process are approximately. A. 48.1 - 51.9 B. 45.3 - 54.7 C. 47.2 - 52.8 D. 47.0 - 53.0

158. If X and Y are independent random variables and if X has variance 3 and Y has variance 2, then the variance of 4X - 3Y is A. 18. B. 66. C. 6. D. 30

159. If a distribution is skewed to the left Ⅰ. The mode is between the median and the mean. Ⅱ. The mean is between the mode and the median. Ⅲ. The mode is greater than the median.

A. Ⅰ B. Ⅱ C. Ⅲ D. Ⅱ, Ⅲ

160. The authority for a quality audit program typically rests with which of the following ? A. The auditing organization. B. The auditee. C. A company's top management. D. The quality department.

Sample Test #4

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Solution #4

1 A 16 B 31 C 46 C 61 C 76 B 91 C 106 C 121 A 136 D 151 A2 A 17 A 32 D 47 A 62 B 77 D 92 C 107 C 122 C 137 B 152 A3 C 18 D 33 C 48 D 63 C 78 D 93 D 108 C 123 D 138 D 153 C4 D 19 C 34 D 49 D 64 B 79 A 94 D 109 B 124 D 139 D 154 C5 C 20 C 35 A 50 B 65 C 80 C 95 B 110 A 125 D 140 C 155 B6 D 21 A 36 C 51 C 66 B 81 D 96 D 111 C 126 B 141 B 156 D7 B 22 A 37 B 52 B 67 B 82 A 97 C 112 C 127 D 142 B 157 A8 B 23 A 38 C 53 B 68 D 83 B 98 A 113 B 128 D 143 B 158 B9 A 24 C 39 D 54 B 69 D 84 A 99 B 114 C 129 B 144 D 159 C10 B 25 D 40 C 55 A 70 D 85 D 100 A 115 A 130 B 145 B 160 C11 A 26 B 41 A 56 D 71 C 86 D 101 B 116 B 131 B 146 B12 A 27 D 42 C 57 C 72 A 87 A 102 D 117 D 132 B 147 B13 B 28 A 43 B 58 C 73 C 88 A 103 C 118 D 133 A 148 C14 C 29 B 44 B 59 D 74 D 89 A 104 D 119 A 134 D 149 B15 C 30 A 45 C 60 A 75 A 90 D 105 B 120 D 135 C 150 C


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CQE Sample Test #5

1. Good form design for quality information systems (QIS) provides for all of the following EXCEPT A. Economy - faster input and sorting. B. Validity and timeliness. C. Easier usage. D. Error avoidance .

2. In a manufacturing process, twenty samples of six units each have an overall average of 1.001 inches. The average of the twenty ranges is 0.002 inch. What are the X-bar chart control limits ? A. (0.995,1.007) B. (0.999,1.002) C. (0.999,1.003) D. (1.000,1.002)

3. An X bar - R chart with n=5 has been plotted for some time and has demonstrated random variation. Upon review of the last 30 plot points, the expected number of runs around the centerline on the X bar chart is expected to be approximately which of the following ? A. 4 B. 9 C. 12 D. 16

4. The BEST reason for instituting a quality cost system is A. To satisfy ISO 9000 system requirements. B. To achieve a proper balance of prevention, appraisal and failure costs. C. To identify opportunities for improvement. D. To benchmark your competitors.

Sample Test #5

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5. Consider the following quality cost elements for Apex manufacturing Inspection salaries 31,000 Customer deviation requests 17,000 Procedure writing 2,000 Field warranty costs 70,000 Calibration of inspection equipment 3,000 Quality planning 6,000 Final product testing 16,000 Internal rejections 72,000 Using customary practice, what % of total quality costs are appraisal?

A. 23.5% B. 25.0% C. 22.6% D. 15.7%

6. The common functions of a quality organization includes a branch which may be defined as:"A planned and systematic activity which provides adequate confidence that a product or service will conform to requirements." This function can be classified as that of A. Quality Control. B. Quality Assurance. C. Quality Inspection. D. Reliability.

7. Which of the following would NOT be considered an interpersonal skill ? A. Ability to work effectively in a team environment. B. Ability to generate supplier quality performance ratings. C. Ability to interface effectively with customers. D. Ability to communicate and interact with diverse groups.

8. On blueprints, thin lines with arrows at each end and numbers placed near their midpoints, specifying a part size, are called A. Conversion lines. B. Dimension lines. D. Object lines. D. Hidden lines.


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9. When any discontinuity is of such size, shape, type and location that it creates substantial chance of material failure in service, it is commonly called which of the following ? A. Major discontinuity. B. Type B discontinuity. C. Rejection. D. Defect.

10. An electronic control module has a constant failure rate. The probability of this controller surviving for 10,000 hours is 0.8. Given the controller has survived for 5,000 hours, what is the probability of the unit failing before 15,000 hours ? A. 0.2 B. 0.4 C. 0.6 D. 0.8

11. A process that is normally distributed will have which of the following characteristics ? A. It is predictable. B. It is bimodal. C. It is skewed. D. It is truncated.

12. Finding the root cause of a nonconformity and applying a remedy, then verifying the effectiveness is A. Preventive action. B. Corrective action. C. Disposition. D. Notification.

13. A method of improving the performance in any function area of your company including product or service quality would be A. Utilizing FTA or FMECA techniques. B. Appling the benchmarking process. C. Instituting an improved design review procedure. D. Reading the Malcolm Baldridge application guidelines.

14. When considering human motivation in solving quality problem, it is most important to recognize that A. Individuals have wants and needs. B. Individuals have different levels of needs. C. Individual motivation is of little concern in quality solving. D. All individuals have basic needs.

Sample Test #5

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15. Quality team success is MOST dependent on which of the following ? A. Team members having full knowledge of the fishbone technique. B. Active support by mid-managers. C. Policy support by top management. D. The facilitator setting strict schedules for ideas.

16. What would occur if the quality goals were NOT a part of the strategic plan ? A. There would be no strategic goals. B. There would not be as much emphasis on quality. C. The total quality effort would not suffer. D. The quality department would still maintain the quality goals.

17. For employee involvement efforts to succeed, what may be need ? A. Increased employee incentives. B. Increased basic training company wide. C. Employee understanding of how they can make a difference. D. The initiation of pilot projects.

18. The advantages of a quality cost system would NOT include which of the following items ? A. Aligns quality and company goals. B. Provides a prioritization system for the allocation of resources. C. Ensures the resolution of specific quality problems. D. Provides a manageable overview of quality.

19. The first and most important project planning step is A. Securing resources. B. Defining the objective. C. Defining the specifications. D. Creating the Gantt chart.


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20. Work breakdown structure mean A. Project management can only be applied to tearing down buildings, not construction of new structures. B. The workers have organized and have delayed the project until their demands are met. C. The project plan has failed due to lack of support by upper management. D. The statement of work is divided into the detailed listing of activities required to complete the project.

21. Receiving inspection is NOT used when A. It is too expensive. B. The supplier is part of the same parent company. C. A JIT program is in place. D. All of the above.

22. When making measurements with test instruments, precision and accuracy mean A. The same. B. The opposite. C. Consistency and correctness, respectively. D. Exactness and traceability, respectively.

23. Calibration intervals should be adjusted when A. No defective product is reported as acceptable due to measurement errors. B. Few instruments are scrapped during calibration. C. The results of previous calibrations reflect few "out of tolerance" conditions during calibration. D. A particular characteristic on the gage is consistently found to be out of tolerance.

24. Precision can BEST be defined as A. The ability to target a process to a specified normal value. B. The average reading determined after repeated measurements by different operators. C. The difference between the average of repeated measurements on the same item. D. The agreement or closeness of measurements on the same item.

Sample Test #5

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25. Which of the following are exclusively variable gages ? A. Ring gages. B. Pneumatic gages. C. Plug gages. D. Gage blocks.

26. A process is producing at a rate of 3% defective. What is the probability of accepting a lot of 2000 parts if a sample of 50 is taken and the lot is rejected when 2 or more rejects are found ? A. 0.332. B. 0.2181. C. 0.4447. D. 0.5578.

27. The indifference quality level is A. The quality level with probability of acceptance = 0.0. B. The quality level with probability of acceptance = 1.0. C. The quality level with probability of acceptance = 0.5. D. The worst acceptable quality level.

28. Using a sample size of 100 and an acceptance number of 1, what is the probability of accepting a lot that is 3% defective ? A. 0.05 B. 0.20 C. 0.42 D. 0.80

29. In ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 the AQL is always determined at what Pa on the OC curve ? A. 0.05 B. 0.10 C. 0.90 or 0.95 D. None of the above

30. A sampling plan involves selecting a sample of 50 from a very large lot, and rejecting the lot if 2 or more defects are found. If an incoming lot is 10% defective, what is the probability of rejecting the lot ? A. 0.6335 B. 0.9987 C. 0.5443 D. 0.9662

31. A lot of 75 parts is inspected to an AQL of 0.25% using normal inspection, single sampling. What is the sample size using ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 ? A. 13 B. 20 C. 32 D. 50


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32. A single sampling plan calls for a sample size of 80 with an acceptance number of 5 and a rejection number of 6. If the quality of the submitted lots is ten percent defective, then the percent of lots expected to be accepted in the long run is approximately A. 6 % B. 10 % C. 20 % D. 30 %

33. Parts in use during the "wear out" portion of the part life cycle curve will exhibit A. A constant failure rate. B. A decreasing failure rate. C. A low failure rate. D. An increasing failure rate.

34. Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for education program on the gaps in performance ? A. Secure a workshop trainer. B. Review a record of activities. C. Set up a one shot case study. D. Allocate employees for training.

35. Disadvantages of Gantt charts include A. They are more complex than bar charts. B. They do not show interdependencies of activities. C. Most project managers prefer PERT charts over Gantt charts. D. Slack times cannot be indicated.

36. The management team is establishing priorities to attack a serious quality problem. You are requested to establish a data collection system to direct this attack. You use which of the general management rules to support your recommendations as to the quantity of data required ? Ⅰ. You compare the incremental cost of additional data with the value of the information obtained and stop when they are equal. Ⅱ. Your decision will correspond to the rules applicable for management decisions in other factors of production. Ⅲ. Your decision is based upon the pure relationship between value and cost.

A. Ⅰ B. Ⅰ, Ⅲ C. Ⅱ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ

Sample Test #5

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37. Good quality information system should Ⅰ. Allow top management to easily view important information. Ⅱ. Collect as much data as possible electronically rather than manually. Ⅲ. Be accessible to all members of the organization.

A. Ⅰ B. Ⅰ, Ⅲ C. Ⅱ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ

38. Quality professional development can be LEAST accomplished by which of the following methods ? A. Attending quality seminars on pertinent topics. B. Studying for an ASQ certification examination. C. Reading articles in quality journals. D. Updating your resume from time to time.

39. The management approach MOST supportive of personnel effectiveness is which of the following ? A. Incorporate as many of the current motivational techniques as possible. B. Enforce the philosophy that people are the only asset which can be developed. C. Ensure that employees recognize that company objectives take precedent over individual objectives. D. Make sure that company employees leave work each day feeling good about themselves.

40. Which of the following criteria would NOT be considered to be an important descriptive factor for most high performance organizations ? A. Efficiency in manpower allocation and a profit oriented culture. B. Knowledgeable management and open communication channels. C. Balanced performance results with clear, challenging, corporate goals. D. An energized workforce dedicated to quality, improvement and productivity.

41. Which of the following techniques are NOT especially beneficial for the generation of ideas when solving quality and productivity problems ? A. Poka-yoke. B. Brainstorming. C. NGT. D. PERT.


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42. A critical path in a project means that A. The project is important to the profits of the organization. B. Slack times can be used to delay the ending date of project. C. Event on this path have no slack time. D. Events on this path delays the starting date of the project.

43. In order to implement a continuous improvement strategy, a company may institute a steering committee or improvement council. Which of the following would generally NOT be a task performed by this council ? A. The development of a quality vision for the company. B. The combined development and implementation of the company improvement strategy. C. The definition of certain quality objectives for sections of the company. D. The development of quality education and communication modules for the organization.

44. Variables control chart are designed with which of the following objectives ? A. To reduce sample size. B. To fix the risk of accepting poor product. C. To decide when to investigate of variation. D. To establish an acceptance quality level.

45. The BEST definition of the PDCA techniques is which of the following ? A. A method of involving teams in the problem solving cycle. B. An organized mind-mapping technique. C. A continuous improvement loop. D. A creative planning analysis method.

46. Which of the following is NOT a data presentation aid ? A. Brainstorming. B. Histograms. C. Scatter diagrams. D. Pareto diagrams.

47. Which of the following quality tools is also a bar chart ? A. Control Chart. B. Ishikawa Diagram. C. Pareto Diagram. D. Scatter Diagram.

Sample Test #5

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48. Pareto diagrams are used to A. Determine a cause-effect relationship between one or more variables. B. Focus attention on problems in priority order. C. Generate a large number of ideas. D. Display cause in a nongraphical manner.

49. As a problem-solving technique, which of the following would be the BEST application for an Ishikawa diagram A. Problem identification and corrective action. B. To support the Plan, Do, Check, Act cycle. C. Determination of potential root problem cause. D. Determination of short-term corrective action.

50. A process flow chart is ideal for A. Detecting the causes for delays. B. Determining defective parts. C. Prioritizing problems. D. Determining if two variables are related.

51. A problem exists with the labels in the print shop and there is a need for each shift to keep track of the number of defective units. The production rate varies from shift to shift and the customer is demanding that a control chart be implemented. What would be the BEST tool to keep track of the number of defective units ? A. Histogram. B. p chart. C. c chart. D. X-bar and R chart.

52. Which of the following is the underlying subgrouping scheme for control charting ? A. Selected to include a heterogeneous cross section of product produced. B. Selected to coincide with customer orders and invoices. C. Selected to consist of products produced in tight time sequence. D. Selected to match final inspection lots.

53. Which of the following quality improvement tools is MOST clearly customer directed ? A. Reengineering. B. Kaizen. C. QFD. D. Benchmarking.


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54. Which distribution is MOST appropriate for modelling the number of surface defects on a disk drive ? A. Normal. B. Poisson. C. Exponential. D. Lognormal.

55. The binomial distribution is a discrete distribution and may be used to describe A. A sampling without replacement from a finite population. B. The case of n independent trials with probabilities constant from trial to trial. C. The case of n independent trials with several outcomes for each trial. D. Sampling without replacement from a finite population where there are several outcomes for each trial.

56. The standard deviation as a percent of the mean is called A. Relative precision. B. Coefficient of variation. C. Standard deviation of the mean. D. Standard error.

57. The hypergeometric distribution is A. A continuous distribution. B. Used to describe sampling from a finite population without replacement. C. The limiting distribution of the sum of several independent discrete random variables. D. A special case of the Poisson distribution.

58. Statistical techniques do NOT include A. Frequency distributions. B. Control charts. C. Sampling tables. D. Sorting.

Sample Test #5

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59. The Poisson distribution is A. A continuous distribution. B. A discrete distribution with its expected value equal to its variance. C. Used to describe sampling without replacement from a finite population where there are several outcomes for each trial. D. The limiting distribution of the sum of several independent discrete random variables.

60. The distribution of a characteristic is negatively skewed. The sampling distribution of the mean for large samples is A. Negatively skewed. B. Approximately normal. C. Positively. D. Lognormal.

61. A statistic is A. The solution to a problem. B. A population value. C. A positive number between 0 and 1 inclusive. D. A sample value.

62. The probability of a train arriving on time and leaving on time is 0.8. The probability of the same train arriving on time is 0.84. The probability of this train leaving on time is 0.86. Given the train arrived on time, what is the probability it will leave on time ? A. 0.9302 B. 0.8434 C. 0.8837 D. 0.9524

63. Assume a large lot contains exactly 4 percent defective items. Using the Poisson distribution, what is the probability that a random sample of 50 items will NOT reflect the true lot quality ? A. 27% B. 73% C. 82% D. 67%

64. A shipment of 1,000 units contains 10% nonconforming items. A random sample of five units is selected from the shipment. The probability that the sample will contain no nonconforming items is A. 0.5905 B. 0.6070 C. 0.0001 D. 0.5000


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65. In order to test whether the outputs of two machines were yielding the same average value or one was larger than the other, a sample of ten pieces was taken from each. The t-value turned out to be 1.967. Using a level of significance of 0.05, one-tailed test, we conclude that A. The obtained t-ratio does not fall within the critical region. B. There was no significant difference between the means. C. The null hypothesis was rejected. D. The null hypothesis was accepted.

66. One use for a student t-test is to determine whether or not differences exists in A. Variability. B. Confidence intervals. C. Correlation coefficients. D. Averages.

67. The "least squares method" is used in A. The central limit theorem. B. Calculating significant few of causes of errors. C. Calculating tolerancing assembly parts. D. Calculating a best fit regression line.

68. A Latin square design is an experimental design which A. Cannot be used when estimation of the interaction effect is desired. B. Affords a good estimate of interaction effects. C. May not permit all treatments in every block. D. May require the need to estimate the parameters during the experimentation.

69. Given a one-way ANOVA, and given the sum of squares for error is 28, the sum of squares between treatments is 86, the mean square error is 7, and the mean square between treatments is 21.5, compute the F-statistic. A. 0.45 B. 3.07 C. 8.22 D. 1.302

Sample Test #5

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70. Which of the following is MOST important when calibrating a piece of equipment ? A. The calibration sticker. B. The maintenance history card. C. The standard used. D. The calibration interval.

71. Metrology is A. The science of measuring. B. The science of metals. C. The science of weather prediction. D. The science of variability.

72. In the establishment of a calibration schedule, which of the following statements apply ? A. The importance of tool pressure and operator "feel" must be emphasized. B. The cleanliness of all tools must be controlled. C. A time or usage interval must be established and maintained. D. Adequate instruction in the care and operation of the tool is necessary.

73. Measuring and test equipment are normally calibrated to A. Comply with federal regulations. B. Determine and/or assure their precision. C. Determine and/or assure their accuracy. D. Check the validity of reference standards.

74. The BEST approach when selecting quality measuring devices is which of the following ? A. Select those which are automated or can be automated in the future. B. Select those which integrate most efficiently with the entire quality system. C. Select those that are most inexpensive but will still differentiate between good and bad product. D. Select those, even if expensive, that will produce the most useful product.

75. Which of the following are good sources of information on customer satisfaction EXCEPT ? A. Internal customers. B. Suppliers. C. Upper management. D. Customers.


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76. A quality control program is considered to be A. A collection of quality control procedures and guidelines. B. A step by step listing of all quality control check point. C. A summary of company quality control policies. D. A system of activities to provide quality of products and service.

77. In obtaining Total Customer Satisfaction, management should NOT undertake which of the following activities ? A. Use and planning of time, manpower and training. B. Encourage team competition. C. Encourage sacrificing for the team. D. Coordinate efforts of the department.

78. A vendor may be audited both before and during the execution of a contract. During such a vendor audit, the focus may be directed at the management of the company. Which of the following areas would be EXCLUDED during such an audit ? A. Use and planning of time, manpower and training. B. Defined quality responsibilities. C. Company philosophy and organizational charts. D. Design and process capabilities.

79. What is the highest form of partnering with employees ? A. Employee involvement. B. Tasks team. C. Cost reduction projects. D. Stock option plans.

80. Kaizen is a Japanese approach directed toward A. Mistake proofing an operation. B. Doing things better to achieve an increasingly higher standard. C. Developing employee participation in the business decisions. D. Becoming more competitive in the world market.

Sample Test #5

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81 If the average repair time for a system is 3 hours and the MTBMA is 122 hours, what is the operational availability ? A. 0.975 B. 0.976 C. 0.982 D. 0.997

82. In preparing a quality policy concerning a product line for your company you should NOT A. Specify the means by which performance is measured. B. Develop criteria for identifying risk situations, and specify whose approval is required when there are known risks. C. Include procedural matters or ordinary functional responsibilities. D. Identify responsibilities for dispositioning defective hardware.

83. A two-way analysis of variance has r levels for one variable and c levels for the second variable with 2 observations per cell. The degree of freedom for interaction is A. 2(r)(c) B. (r - 1)(c - 1) C. rc -1 D. 2(r -1)(c - 1)

84. The value for t, when making a two-tailed paired t test, with samples of 13 and α=0.05, is A. 1.782 B. 2.179 C. 2.064 D. 1.711

85. Determine the 95% confidence interval for a proportion if 6 defectives were found in a sample size of 100 units. A. 0.021 ≤ p ≤ 0.099 B. 0.0135 ≤ p ≤0.1065 C. 0.011 ≤ p ≤0.109 D. 0.0245 ≤ p ≤0.0955


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86. Which of the following action steps is MOST recommended to change a satisfied product customer into a delighted customer ? (A delighted customer won't buy anything but your product) A. Exceed the customer's reliability requirements. B. Have an exceptionally quick warranty claim system. C. Provide an initial cost substantially below your competition. D. Consistently exceed the quoted delivery schedule.

87. A vendor quality assurance function has been adopted ; which of the following provision would you advise top management to be the LEAST effective ? A. Product audits B. Source inspection. C. Certificate of analysis D. Certificate of compliance.

88. The MOST important step in vendor certification is to A. Obtain copies of the vendor's quality manual. B. Familiarize the vendor with quality requirements. C. Analyze the vendor's with quality requirements. D. Visit the vendor's plant.

89. The purpose of a quality manual is to A. Use it as a basis for every quality decision. B. Standardize the methods and decisions of a quality department. C. Provide written basis for rejection of lots. D. Make it possible to handle every situation in exactly the same manner.

90. Which of the following is the BEST definition of configuration management ? A. The collection of all product information and activities. B. A documentation system. C. A change order and record keeping system. D. A product production management plan.

Sample Test #5

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91. The acceptance of purchased materials on the basis of certificates of conformance provided by suppliers requires A. Frequent material audits to confirm supplier's measurement system. B. Purchaser certification of supplier's measuring equipment. C. Reinspection of a sample from each lot submitted. D. Verification of supplier data at least once each quarter.

92. Quality policies are principally issued by management to A. State the position of the company on quality. B. Ensure people are reminded about quality. C. Provide detailed instructions in regards to quality. D. Ensure customer satisfaction.

93. What is(are) the prime purpose(s) of a failure reporting, analysis and corrective action system (FRACAS) ? Ⅰ. To determine the root cause of the problem. Ⅱ. To record the corrective action taken. Ⅲ. To document the problem. Ⅳ. To assure proper product quality.

A. Ⅰ B. Ⅱ, Ⅲ C. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ, Ⅳ

94. Which one of the following does NOT support the prevention philosophy ? A. Institute good work methods and train to instill quality attitudes. B. Choose only vendors that offer the lowest prices. C. Carefully screen employees in the initial hiring process. D. Eliminate ambiguities in procedures and instructions.

95. Which of the following items would be LEAST likely to be included in a company quality manual ? A. A nonconforming product element. B. The results of customer surveys - good or bad. C. An internal quality audit policy. D. A description of statistical techniques employed.


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96. Complaint indices should A. Recognize the degree of dissatisfaction as viewed by the customer. B. Provide a direct input to corrective action. C. Not necessarily be based on field complaints, service calls or dollar values of claims paid. D. Ignore life cycle costs.

97. Which of the following items is common audit finding in the documentation area ? A. Nonconforming material is not properly segregated. B. Inspectors are not using sound sampling plans. C. Obsolete drawings are being used. D. Test equipment is overdue for calibration.


99. What is the purpose of a quality audit program ? A. Catch defects missed by inspection. B. Insure that people follow procedures. C. Provide a super system for continuous improvement. D. Measure and report the effectiveness of the control functions.

100. If minor observation is suitably corrected by the auditee during the course of an audit, it is customarily A. Omitted from the exit review. B. Included in the exit review but not the written report. C. Omitted from both the exit review and written report. D. Included in the written report only.

Sample Test #5

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101. Preventive maintenance is characterized by Ⅰ. Replacing failed/defect items as they are found in normal service use. Ⅱ. A planned program of tests, inspections, and/or replacements. Ⅲ. Replacing items just before they fail.

A. Ⅰ B. Ⅱ C. Ⅰ, Ⅲ D. Ⅰ, Ⅱ, Ⅲ

102. A pre-award survey of a potential supplier is BEST described as which of the following audits ? A. Compliance. B. Assessment. C. Quantitative. D. Product.

103. The quality audit could be used to judge all of the following EXCEPT A. A prospective vendor's capability for meeting quality standards. B. The adequacy of a current vendor's system for controlling quality. C. The application of a specification to a unique situation. D. The adequacy of a company's own system for controlling quality.

104. A quality audit program should begin with A. A study of the quality documentation system. B. An evaluation of the work being performed. C. A report listing findings, the action taken, and recommendations. D. A charter of policy, objectives, and procedures.

105. Data from which of the following investigations would normally NOT be included in auditing a complete quality system ? A. Examination of all items produced. B. Examination of customer needs and the adequacy of design specifications in reflecting these needs. C. Examination of vendor product specifications and monitoring procedures. D. Examination of customer quality complaints and adequacy of corrective action.


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106. The diameter of a population of ball bearings is normally distributed with a mean of 75 and a standard deviation of 8. What is probability of the average diameter of 10 randomly selected ball bearing greater than 77 ? A. 0.3751 B. 0.4013 C. 0.2146 D. 0.0210


108. The critical value of the t-distribution is A. Always greater than the critical value of the normal distribution. B. Always less than the critical value of the normal distribution. C. Not related to the critical value of the normal distribution. D. Approaches the critical value of the normal distribution as the degrees of freedom increase.

109. In planning for quality, an important consideration at the start is A. The relation of the total cost of quality to the net sales. B. The establishment of a company quality policy or objective. C. Deciding precisely how much money is to be spent. D. The selling of the quality program to top management.

110. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the auditor ? A. Prepare a plan and checklist. B. Report results to those responsible. C. Investigate deficiencies for cause and define the needed corrective action. D. Follow up to see if the corrective action was taken.

Sample Test #5

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111. Which of the following techniques would NOT be used in a quality audit ? A. Select samples only from completed lots. B. Examine samples from the viewpoint of a critical customer. C. Audit only those items which have caused customer complaints. D. Frequency of audits to depend on economic and quality requirements.

112. According to Tchebysheff's theorem what % of measurements must lie within 2.5 standard deviations of the mean ? A. 3/4 B. 8/9 C. 84% D. 62.5%

113. What is the standard deviation of the following data ?3.2, 3.1, 3.3, 3.3, 3.1

A. 3.2 B. 0.0894 C. 0.0675 D. 0.0498

114. The average number of flaws in large plate glass is .25 per pane. The standard deviation of this poison distribution is A. 0.25 B. 0.05 C. 0.75 D. 0.50

115. An R chart is most closely related to a A. c chart. B. s chart. C. u chart. D. X bar chart.

116. A control chart is used to A. Determine if defective parts are being produced. B. Measure process capability. C. Determine cause of process variation. D. Detect non-random variation in process.


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117. The term collinear refers to A. Two linear variables. B. A linear interaction. C. Variables being a linear combination of one another. D. Linear correlation.

118. In the "Trace Forward" method of auditing, the auditor begins with sales, selects the order(s) of interest, and follows them through the various departments. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of "Trace Forward" auditing ? A. It shows the processing flow through the company. B. It provides a useful method for training auditors. C. It is practical for partial audits. D. It permits quick detection of deficiencies at the front end.

119. When asked to make recommendations on how to correct any deficiencies noted in the exit report, the auditor(s) should A. Make the best recommendation possible. B. Confer with the client first. C. Avoid a recommendation in writing but help the auditee if possible. D. Offer no specific advice and few suggestions.

120. When planning quality control functions, which one of the following is MOST directly related to production of a quality product ? A. Process control and process capability. B. Suitable blueprints. C. Dimensional tolerancing. D. Product audits.

121. The greatest contribution of a reliability effort is made in the A. Design area. B. Manufacturing area. C. Shipping area. D. Field service area.

Sample Test #5

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122. In a visual inspection situation, one of the BEST ways to minimize deterioration of the quality level is to A. Retrain the inspector frequently. B. Have a program of frequent eye exams. C. Add variety to the task. D. Have a standard to compare against as an element of the operation.

123. Protection against design error is MOST important because of which of the following ? A. Change control is costly. B. It will often go through the entire process undetected. C. Design errors have compounding costly effects throughout the system. D. Manufacturing departments can't make a quality product if the design is wrong.

124. Follow-up on corrective action requests initiated by the MRB should NOT be conducted by A. The individual or department assigned the task. B. The Material Review Board. C. An upper management review team. D. An independent audit team.

125. A design review is conducted for the purpose of A. Verifying the details of all the drawings. B. Verifying the accuracy of all the specifications. C. Verifying workmanship quality of the drawings. D. Verifying the completeness and accuracy of the overall design package.

126. An inspection performance audit is made of eight inspectors in an area of complex assembly, all doing similar work. Seven inspectors have an average monthly acceptance rate of 86% to 92%; one inspector has an average rate of 72% with approximately four times the daily variation as the others. As inspection supervisor you should, based on this audit A. Promote the 72% inspector since he/she is very conscientious. B. Discipline the 72% inspector since he/she is creating needless rework and wasted time. C. Initiate a special investigation of inspection and manufacturing performance. D. Discipline the other seven inspectors since they are not "cracking down".


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127. The task of inspection A. Must be performed by a quality organization employee. B. Should involve direct measurement of each part produced. C. May be performed by the operator who makes the part. D. May be eliminated if process control charts are maintained.

128. Which of the following quality management principles would you apply to increase the probability of better quality ? A. Drawings and specifications should be rigidly set with nominal enforcement. B. Drawings and specification should be realistically set with rigid enforcement. C. Drawings and specifications should be under the direction of quality engineering. D. Drawings and specifications should be rigidly set and rigidly enforced.

129. In the planning of a new major manufacturing program, the greatest quality effort should be put logically in A. Inspection of product. B. Nondestructive testing equipment. C. Non conformance to specifications. D. Prevention of occurrence of substandard quality.

130. The probability of accepting a lot of unacceptable quality is known as A. Alpha risk. B. 1- β C. Producer's risk. D. Beta risk.

131. Selecting 4 paint cans from a lot of 20, measuring the weight of each of the 4 cans, and making a decision whether or not to accept the lot based on the average and standard deviation of the obtained weights is an example of A. Attributes sampling. B. Go No-Go sampling. C. Variables sampling. D. None of the above.

132. The number of nonconformities per unit is BEST approximated by which of the following distributions ? A. Binomial. B. Normal. C. Hypergeometric D. Poisson

Sample Test #5

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133. Double sampling is better than single sampling because A. It is more economical regardless of lot quality. B. It is easier to administer and it gives the lot a second chance. C. If the first sample rejects the lot, the second will accept it. D. It involves less inspection when the lots are of very good or very bad quality.

134. The basic concept of ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 tables and procedures is that A. Poor product is accepted infrequently. B. Good product is accepted rarely. C. Poor product is accepted consistently. D. Good product is accepted most of the time.

135. The acronym "AQL" as used in sampling inspection means A. That level of lot quality for which there is a small risk of rejecting the lot. B. The best average quality limit. C. The maximum percent defective that can be considered satisfactory as a process average. D. The quality level that demonstrates the maximum defect rate.

136. A comparison of known sigma and unknown sigma variables sampling plans will show that equal protection is obtained (as determined by the OC curves) A. When the unknown sigma sample size is smaller than the known sigma sample size. B. When the known sigma sample size is larger than the unknown sigma sample size. C. When the known sigma and unknown sigma sample sizes are equal. D. When the known sigma sample size is smaller than the unknown sigma sample size.

137. A method of dealing with an inspector, found to be falsifying the results of inspection of borderline product, is to A. Criticize the inspector on the basis that the pattern of reading does not follow the law of chance. B. Review the procedure for evaluating and reporting borderline product. C. Review the inspector's results against the expected results calculated from a normal curve. D. Criticize the inspector for not knowing how to read the inspection equipment.


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138. Which of the following would NOT typically be considered an essential component of a quality improvement plan ? A. The transfer of decision making authority to lower levels in the organization. B. The support and commitment of upper management. C. The development of problem solving skills in all personnel. D. The use of outside advice and training.

139. A qualification test is used to determine that design and selected production methods will yield a product that conforms to specification. An acceptance test is used to determine that a completed product conforms to design. On this basis, a destructive test can be used for A. Qualification only. B. Qualification or acceptance. C. Acceptance only. D. Neither qualification nor acceptance.

140. The hazard rate A. Is the instantaneous failure rate. B. Increases with time. C. Is in general, higher for mechanical items than for electrical items. D. A constant failure rate.

141. A reliability data system usually implies collecting data on A. Process machine downtime. B. Product failures and operation time. C. Maintenance costs. D. Repair times.

142. The Monte Carlo method refers to a technique for A. The simulation of operations when random variations are an essential consideration. B. Programming roulette for maximum return. C. Random sampling from homogeneous populations. D. Establishing quantitative values to unknown restrictive variables in linear programming.

Sample Test #5

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143. Reliability, maintainability, and product safety improvements are MOST often economically accomplished during which of the following phases ? A. Design and development. B. Prototype test. C. Production. D. Field operation.

144. For complex electronic systems, the major contributor to repair time is generally A. Diagnosis. B. Disassembly/reassembly. C. Remove/replace. D. Final checkout.

145. Which one of the following will NOT increase reliability in design ? A. Derating techniques. B. Design redundancy. C. Designing for maintainability. D. Acceptance testing.


147. A solid state relay has a constant failure rate of 0.003 per hour. What is the probability of this relay surviving for 100 hours ? A. 0 B. 0.741 C. 0.671 D. 0.995

148. What is the reliability of a system at 850 hours, if the average usage on the system was 400 hours for 1650 items and the total number of failures was 145 ? Assume an exponential distribution. A. 0% B. 36% C. 18% D. 83%


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149. When selecting an audit sample size, which of the following rules should govern your choice ? A. Since quality may change over time, we should look at a fixed quantity each time period for audit purposes. B. We need only a very small sample for audit purposes, as long as it is chosen at random. C. Any size sample if randomly selected can be suitable for audit purposes, since we are not directly performing lot acceptance or rejection. D. ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 is a scientific sampling procedure and we need scientific sampling for audit purposes.

150. A vendor quality survey A. Is used to predict whether a potential vendor can meet quality requirements. B. Is an audit of a vendor's product for a designated period of time. C. Is always conducted by quality control personnel. D. Eliminates the need for receiving inspection of the surveyed product.

151. Which of the following is NOT a legitimate audit function ? A. Identify the function responsible for primary control and corrective action. B. Provide no surprises. C. Provide data on worker performance for punitive action by supervision. D. Contribute to a reduction in quality cost.

152. It is generally considered desirable that quality audit reports be A. Stated in terms different from those of the function being audited. B. Simple but complete. C. Sent to the general manager in all cases. D. Quantitative in all cases.

153. Product quality audits A. Are always useful. B. Are based on statistically sound sampling. C. Can be used in place of a sampling plan. D. Should be customer oriented.

Sample Test #5

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155. Which of the following would NOT be considered as part detailed inspection instructions ? A. Whether the product or service conform to specifications. B. What records must be kept. C. What must be done with non-acceptable parts. D. What are the applicable standards.

156. Specifying a tolerance by +0.000" -0.001", is known as A. Bilateral tolerancing. B. Limit dimensioning. C. Manufacturing limits. D. Unilateral tolerancing.

157. A fundamental step in the establishment of strategic quality management is A. Making sure that the quality organization reports to the Chief Executive. B. Surveying customers to determine their level of satisfaction. C. The formation of team to implement continuous improvement. D. The creation of a quality council(committee, advisory board, etc.).

158. Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost ? A. Writing operation procedures. B. Training. C. Data acquisition and analysis. D. Calibration test equipment.

159. Which of the following is a preventive action ? A. Expanding or rewriting a procedure after it has been found to be ineffective. B. Correcting tolerances after they were found to be wrong. C. Retraining workers on how to do a task after mistakes were found. D. Writing an inspection for a new product.


- 31 -

160. What type of data contains infinite data points that may be displayed on a continuous measurement scale ? A. Continuous distribution. B. Statistics. C. Parameters. D. Discrete distribution.

Sample Test #5

- 32 -

Solution #5

1 B 16 B 31 D 46 A 61 D 76 D 91 A 106 C 121 A 136 D 151 C2 D 17 C 32 C 47 C 62 D 77 B 92 A 107 B 122 D 137 B 152 B3 D 18 C 33 D 48 B 63 B 78 D 93 C 108 D 123 C 138 D 153 D4 C 19 B 34 B 49 C 64 A 79 A 94 B 109 B 124 B 139 B 154 A5 B 20 D 35 B 50 A 65 C 80 B 95 B 110 C 125 D 140 A 155 A6 B 21 C 36 A 51 B 66 D 81 B 96 A 111 A 126 C 141 B 156 D7 B 22 C 37 D 52 C 67 D 82 C 97 C 112 C 127 C 142 A 157 D8 B 23 D 38 D 53 C 68 A 83 B 98 C 113 B 128 B 143 A 158 D9 D 24 D 39 B 54 B 69 B 84 B 99 D 114 D 129 D 144 A 159 D10 A 25 D 40 A 55 B 70 C 85 B 100 C 115 B 130 D 145 D 160 A11 A 26 D 41 D 56 B 71 A 86 A 101 B 116 D 131 C 146 C12 B 27 C 42 C 57 B 72 C 87 D 102 B 117 C 132 D 147 B13 B 28 B 43 A 58 D 73 C 88 B 103 C 118 C 133 D 148 D14 B 29 D 44 C 59 B 74 B 89 B 104 D 119 D 134 D 149 C15 B 30 D 45 C 60 B 75 C 90 A 105 A 120 A 135 C 150 A

© 2004 ASQ ASQ grants permission for individuals to use this sample examination as a means to prepare for the formal examination. This examination may be printed, reproduced and used for non-commercial, personal or educational purposes only, provided that (i) the examination is not modified, and (ii) ASQ’s copyright notice is included. The user assumes all risks of copyright infringement.

SAMPLE EXAMINATION

The purpose of the following sample examination is to provide an example of what is provided on exam day by ASQ, complete with the same instructions that are provided on exam day. The test questions that appear in this sample examination are retired from the CQE pool and have appeared in past CQE examinations. Since they are now available to the public, they will NOT appear in future CQE examinations. This sample examination WILL NOT be allowed into the exam room.

Appendix A contains the answers to the sample test questions. ASQ will not provide scoring and analysis for this sample examination. Remember: These test questions will not appear on future examinations so your performance on this sample examination may not reflect how you perform on the formal examination. A self-appraisal of how well you know the content for the specific areas of the body of knowledge (BOK) can be completed by using the worksheet in Appendix B.

On page 2 of the instructions, it states “There are 160 questions on this 5-hour examination.” Please note that this sample exam only contains 75 questions.

If you have any questions regarding this sample examination, please email [email protected]

THIS PAGE WAS LEFT BLANK INTENTIONALLY

NAME____________________________________

CERTIFIED QUALITY ENGINEER

Please print your name above. Read all the instructions before beginning the examination. If you are unsure about any part of the instructions, consult your proctor.

General Instructions

All answers must be recorded on the Scantron Answer Sheet; no exam will be graded with the answers marked in the exam booklet. 1. Using a soft lead pencil (#2 or softer) only, blacken the circle of the correct answer. Do not use ink. If you change your

answer, be sure to erase the previous answer completely.

2. Each question has ONE correct answer only.

3. This is a timed test; do not linger over difficult questions. Instead, skip the questions of which you are unsure; return to them when you reach the end of the test.

4. Do not fold, staple, or tear the answer sheets.

5. Although this is an open book examination and personally generated materials/notes from training or refresher courses are allowed, the following conditions apply:

• Each examinee must make his/her reference materials available to the proctor for review.

• Absolutely no collections of questions and answers or weekly refresher course quizzes are permitted. Reference sources that contain such copy are not allowed unless the questions and answers are removed or obscured. Examples of such sources include but are not limited to refresher and preparatory primers.

• Calculator Policy: With the introduction of palmtop computers and increasing sophistication of scientific calculators, ASQ has become increasingly aware of the need to limit the types of calculators that are permitted for use during the examinations. Any silent, hand-held, battery-operated calculator WITHOUT an alphabetic keyboard will be permitted; however, all programmable memory must be cleared from the calculator before you enter the exam room. The examination is written so that a simple calculator will be sufficient to perform calculations.

− No laptop or palmtop computers are allowed.

• Reference materials and calculators may not be shared.

6. When you have finished, check your answer sheet to be sure it is properly identified with your name and member number. Return your examination booklet, answer sheet, examinee comment form and scratch paper to your proctor. You must sign the roster sheet to signify the return of your test booklet.

7. It is strictly forbidden to copy or remove examination materials. You will be disqualified from the examination and not certified by ASQ if you breach this trust.

8. PLEASE BE PATIENT - you will receive your results in approximately two weeks. Sorry, but we do not answer telephone requests for results. If you pass, your certificate will be sent directly to your address of record. If you do not pass, you will receive a Pareto analysis of your test results along with retake information.

CQE Sample Exam

Special Instructions 1. Please note that your answer sheet has been personalized with your name,

member number, section number, and test type. 2. Do NOT make any changes to these parts of the answer sheet. Doing so will

only delay your exam results. Notify the Proctor of any changes. 3. If you don’t have a personalized answer sheet, see your Proctor for further

instructions. 4. There are 160 questions on this 5-hour examination. Please check that you

have the correct number of questions.

STOP DO NOT CONTINUE UNTIL INSTRUCTED

OPTIONAL PLEASE NOTE: Information gathered from the following questions will be used only as grouped data, in order to ensure that the test is fair.

A. Please indicate your gender (see #1 on sample).

B. Please indicate your race/ethnic background as follows (see #2):

1. Asian American 5. Hispanic/Latino

2. American Indian 6. Other

3. Black/African

American

4. Caucasian

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

CERTIFIED QUALITY ENGINEER Test Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

3

1. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for generating continuous improvement ideas? (A) Tree diagram (B) Brainstorming (C) Prioritization matrix (D) Interrelationship digraph

2. A randomly drawn sample used to determine whether a

defined inspection lot conforms to requirements is known as (A) an acceptance sample (B) a statistical process control sample (C) a process validation sample (D) a measurement system correlation sample

3. Which of the following tools is used extensively in

quality function deployment (QFD)? (A) Affinity diagram (B) Matrix diagram (C) Cause and effect diagram (D) Activity network diagram

4. Which of the following affects system availability?

(A) FMECA (B) Maintainability (C) Producibility (D) LTPD

5. The ISO 9001 standard is best described as the (A) guidelines for developing quality manuals (B) guidelines for auditing quality systems (C) quality assurance requirements for measuring

equipment (D) quality management systems requirements

6. For consumer products, an increase in the percentage of

returned goods most likely equates to an increase in (A) products not meeting specifications (B) end-user dissatisfaction (C) internal reject rates (D) nonconforming material costs

7. On a drawing, the maximum permissible variation of

form, orientation, or location of a feature is known as the (A) benchmark value (B) tolerance bias (C) geometric tolerance (D) isometric tolerance

8. The primary advantage to using double sampling rather

than single sampling is that double sampling (A) gives the lot a second chance to be rejected (B) provides more protection to the customer (C) improves the likelihood of accepting the lot when it is

of average quality (D) requires a smaller number of total samples when

quality is very good or very bad

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

4

9. What is the standard deviation of a process that operates according to an exponential distribution with a mean of 25 units? (A) 0.4 (B) 5.0 (C) 12.5 (D) 25.0

10. Which of the following tools is most likely to be used to

organize a list of ideas generated during a brainstorming session?

(A) Activity network diagram (B) Affinity diagram (C) Histogram (D) Process control chart

11. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate

for collecting data to study the symptoms of a problem? (A) A check sheet (B) A flow diagram (C) A force field analysis (D) An activity network diagram

12. In a third-party audit, the lead auditor is responsible for

distributing the audit report to which of the following? I. Audit team II. Auditee III. Client IV. Department managers (A) II only (B) III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II, III, and IV

13. An effective method of evaluating a supplier’s quality

performance is to (A) analyze all relevant historical quality data (B) review historical data from receiving inspection only (C) conduct a compliance audit (D) survey a selected customer group

14. At the end of a process, a question concerning inspection status was raised because documentation was lacking, and the activity had to be reverified. Which of the following should have been used to prevent the cost of reverification? (A) The Taguchi method (B) A validation study (C) Lot traceability (D) Written work instructions

15. Kaizen is defined as

(A) re-engineering (B) lean manufacturing (C) continuous improvement (D) error-proofing

16. When preparing for an audit, which of the following steps

should the auditor perform first? (A) Notify the auditee of the dates of the audit (B) Determine which team members will be performing

the audit (C) Determine the audit objectives (D) Obtain copies of the auditee’s quality documents and

procedures

17. Which of the following are the fundamental units of the

International System (SI) that are used as a basis for primary reference standards? (A) Watt, volt, ampere, light candles, mole, Kelvin, hertz (B) Meter, kilogram, second, Kelvin, ampere, candela,

mole (C) Ampere, cubic foot, watt, mole, Angstrom, electron,

meter (D) Primary, secondary, tertiary, transfer, working,

master, reference

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

5

18. Legal requirements specify that a bottled product must contain no less than the volume printed on the label. A bottling company wants to reduce the amount of overfilled bottles.

Fill volume Lower Specification

On the basis of the data above, what is the most effective strategy to accomplish this task? (A) Decrease the target fill volume only (B) Decrease the target fill variation only (C) First decrease the target fill volume, then decrease the

target fill variation (D) First decrease the target fill variation, then decrease

the target fill volume

19. According to Juran, when a major quality improvement

project is launched, which of the following describes the desired change in performance level?

(A) Six sigma (B) Continuous (C) Breakthrough (D) Sporadic

20. The LEAST informative of the four measurement scales

is the (A) ratio (B) nominal (C) ordinal (D) interval

21. Which of the following can be used to determine the goodness-of-fit of a distribution to a data set?

(A) t test (B) ANOVA (C) F test (D) Chi square test

22. When σ = 10, what sample size is needed to specify a

95% confidence interval of ±3 units for the mean?

(A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 32 (D) 43

23. Which of the following statements is true about a

regression model with b0 = í300, b1 = 0.00, and n = 5 ? (A) No relationship exists between x and y. (B) x and y are positively correlated. (C) x and y are negatively correlated. (D) The standard error of the estimate is high.

24. In a sampling situation, the population contains a finite

number of items, each of which is classified as either good or bad. When the sampling is without replacement, the probability distribution that best models this situation is (A) negative binomial (B) binomial (C) hypergeometric (D) geometric

25. Which of the following best describes a design validation?

(A) It takes place periodically throughout the design development process.

(B) It matches design output to input requirements. (C) It ensures the product conforms to defined user needs or

requirements. (D) It is the final technical document used throughout the

process.

Freq

uenc

y

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

6

26. Which of the following tools can be used to compare process performance to specifications? I. Frequency distribution histogram II. Process flow chart III. Control charts for individuals IV. Probability paper

(A) III only (B) II and IV only (C) I, II, and IV only (D) I, III, and IV only

27. Which of the following figures is labeled correctly?

(A)

(B) (C) (D)

28. The time for a fail-safe device to trip is thought to follow a discrete uniform distribution from 1 to 5 seconds. To test this hypothesis, 100 tests are conducted with results as shown below.

Trip time seconds ( j )

Actual (Oj)

Theoretical (Ej)

2)0( jj E−

1 10 20 100 2 15 20 25 3 50 20 900 4 15 20 25 5 10 20 100 100 100 χ2 =

df =

On the basis of these data, what are the chi-square (χ2) value and the number of degrees of freedom (df)?

χ2 df

(A) 57.5 4 (B) 57.5 5 (C) 1,150.0 4 (D) 1,150.0 5

29. Generally, which of the following statements is true about

the Student’ s t distribution and the normal z distribution? (A) t has the same degrees of freedom as z. (B) t is more peaked (smaller variance) than z. (C) t is used instead of z when sample sizes are large. (D) t is used instead of z when sample sizes are small.

30. Which of the following is an example of a breach of the

ASQ Code of Ethics?

(A) Publishing a report to management citing a coworker’ s work

(B) Accepting a dinner at an expensive restaurant from a supplier

(C) Accepting compensation from two consenting parties for the same service

(D) Providing one supplier with process information gained from another supplier

r is negative r ≠ 1

r = 1 r2 = 1

r is positive r2 = 1

r is positive r2 ≈ 0

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

7

31. A process capability analysis is NOT used to

(A) determine the ability of a process to meet specifications

(B) maintain a process in a state of statistical control (C) establish new specifications (D) prioritize competing processes

32. Who is responsible for identifying and reporting the

occurrence of nonconforming product? (A) Quality engineering (B) Inspection personnel (C) Manufacturing management (D) Any employee

33. Training, control of purchased material, and process

control are all elements of

(A) implementing a quality system (B) identifying performance measurements (C) performing process analysis (D) initiating document control

34. For an F-test to be inferentially valid, all of the following

assumptions must be true EXCEPT:

(A) The populations are discrete distributions. (B) The samples are independent. (C) The populations are normally distributed. (D) The samples are randomly selected from the

population.

35. All of the following are potential benefits of using short-

run SPC methods EXCEPT

(A) significantly fewer charts need to be maintained (B) control methods are focused on the product rather

than the process (C) process variability improvements affect many parts

rather than just one (D) process control is continuous

36. Taguchi defines loss as a function of which of the following? (A) Manufacturing cost and product reliability (B) Frequency of out-of-control occurrences (C) Product maintainability and availability (D) Variability and deviation from target

37. A type of line graph used to assess the stability of a

process is called a (A) control chart (B) Pareto chart (C) check sheet (D) cause and effect diagram

38. A process produces nonconformities according to a

Poisson distribution. If the mean of the nonconformities is 25, what is the standard deviation? (A) 2.5 (B) 5.0 (C) 12.5 (D) 25.0

39. A number of units were returned from a customer

because they did not work as advertised. To start an investigation for root cause, the supplier should use which of the following techniques?

(A) Reliability prediction (B) Burn-in testing (C) Stress analysis (D) Failure analysis

40. Five six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two

histograms are constructed: one for the 500 individual results and one for the 100 averages of five results. In this situation, the individual results follow a uniform distribution, while the averages follow which of the following distributions? (A) Normal (B) Student’ s t (C) Binomial (D) Uniform

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

8

41. Which of the following is necessary when a complete quality cost system is implemented? (A) Cost data are presented in broad categories. (B) The quality department solely maintains the system. (C) Top management supports the system. (D) Implementation occurs simultaneously company-

wide

42. A calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated

measures of a reference standard. If mX = 0.073, and the true value of the reference standard is 0.075, what is the bias of the micrometer? (A) 0.001 (B) 0.002 (C) 0.073 (D) 0.075

43. The three types of audits that are commonly used to

evaluate a supplier are

(A) receiving, work in process, and finished goods (B) design, development, and manufacture (C) material control, documentation control, and

manufacturing control (D) system, product, and process

44. The power of a test for the difference between means is

measured by

(A) α (B) 1 í α (C) β (D) 1 í β

45. A document giving authorization to use product that does

not conform to specified requirements is called a

(A) contract (B) waiver (C) requisition order (D) scrap report

46. Which of the following refers to the process of comparing one standard against a higher-order standard of greater accuracy? (A) Calibration (B) Inspection (C) Validation (D) Correction

47. A process is stable and its output is normally distributed.

The process has a specification of 16.73 ± 0.01. What is the maximum process standard deviation if the Cp must be ≥ 1.5 ?

(A) 0.0011 (B) 0.0022 (C) 0.0041 (D) 0.0133

48. A registration quality audit report should provide executive

management with information related to

(A) conformance and effectiveness of the quality system (B) persons responsible for any deficiencies (C) details of audit findings and corrective actions (D) recommendations to correct deficiencies

49. Which of the following types of charts is based directly on

specification limits? (A) Cusum (B) PRE-control (C) X and mR

(D) X and R

50. As a general rule, the resolution of measuring equipment

should be how many times greater than the product’ s tolerance?

(A) Two (B) Five (C) Ten (D) Twenty

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

9

51. A quality improvement team that was assigned to decrease the number of pinholes in milk jugs presented the following Pareto diagrams during a management briefing.

Before Experiment A B C D E F G Causes of Pinholes After Experiment B C D A E F G Causes of Pinholes

The best interpretation of these data is that the project was (A) not successful in reducing pinholes, since causes B, C,

and D now occur more frequently than cause A (B) successful in removing the primary cause of pinholes,

and no further improvements are necessary (C) successful, and tracking pinholes by cause A is no

longer necessary (D) successful in decreasing pinholes, and the team should

work on cause B to further improve the process

52. Rank order, from first to last, the following steps in a structured procedure for troubleshooting.

1. State the nonconformity. 2. Reduce or eliminate the nonconformity. 3. Test the possible causes. 4. Identify the unique characteristics of the deviation. (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 4, 3, 2 (C) 2, 4, 3, 1 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2

53. When sample size is increased, the operating

characteristic curve will (A) steepen (B) flatten (C) remain unchanged (D) reduce discrimination

54. What is the predicted value for a regression model when

x = 36, b0 = í16, b1 = 2.6, and r2 = 0.78 ? (A) 28.1 (B) 52.0 (C) 77.6 (D) 93.6

Num

ber o

f jug

s w

ith p

inho

les

Num

ber o

f jug

s w

ith p

inho

les

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

10

55. The main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it (A) displays all the possible causes related to a problem (B) displays the strength of relationships between each

paired combination of variables (C) identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect

relationships that exist among all critical issues (D) identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering

a process

56. Poka-yoke is best defined as

(A) improving machine efficiency (B) reducing field failures to virtually zero (C) capturing the voice of the customer (D) preventing controllable defects

57. “Forming, storming, norming, and performing” are terms

that describe

(A) process variation reduction and improvement phases (B) brainstorming process steps (C) stages of team growth (D) root cause identification and corrective action

Questions 58-59 refer to the following situation.

A quality engineer for the Acme Company is assigned to perform a pre-award survey on the XYZ Company, a prospective new supplier of a critical component for Acme’ s best-selling product. Before the audit, the engineer collects data on XYZ and its products and processes by reviewing the “Pre-audit Questionnaire” completed by XYZ staff. The engineer also reviews the specifications and testing requirements for the component. Testing is destructive. 58. Which of the following are additional activities that

typically occur during this phase of the pre-award survey?

I. Determine the scope. II. Arrange the logistics. III. Develop the audit plan. IV. Negotiate the contract. (A) I and IV only (B) II and III only (C) I, II, and III only (D) II, III, and IV only

59. Which of the following terms best describes this phase of

the pre-award survey?

(A) Planning (B) Field work (C) Check list (D) Closure

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

11

60. The percent defective that is considered unsatisfactory but which the consumer is willing to accept with a small probability of acceptance is known as the (A) AOQ (B) AOQL (C) AQL (D) LTPD

61. During the random failure period on the bathtub curve,

the failure rate is

(A) increasing (B) fluctuating (C) decreasing (D) constant

62. The failure of any organization’ s quality improvement

efforts is most frequently caused by the (A) inability to manufacture product cost effectively and

meet market demands (B) selection of initial objectives and projects that are too

complex and have a high probability of failure (C) use of an improvement strategy that fits poorly with

the processes and culture of the organization (D) lack of involvement by top and middle management

in the improvement effort

63. Which of the following are needed to calculate the

process capability index, Cp? (A) The specification limits and the mean (B) The specification limits and σ̂ (C) The process mean and σ̂ (D) The upper and lower specification limits

64. At what point in the design/production process should a critical components list be initiated? (A) Early in the design effort (B) As soon as the design is firmly established (C) Before prototype testing starts (D) Just before production starts

65. Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that

operationally define

(A) bias (B) accuracy (C) discrimination (D) precision

66. A method that classifies data without significantly reducing

accuracy or precision is known as (A) bias adjustment (B) statistical efficiency (C) blocking (D) coding

67. Which of the following best describes two of the basic

responsibilities of the material review board (MRB)? (A) Assuring that effective action is taken to prevent future

occurrences of a problem and dispositioning nonconforming materials

(B) Assuring that effective action is taken to prevent future occurrences of a problem and addressing customer complaints

(C) Dispositioning nonconforming materials and addressing customer complaints

(D) Determining the source of a nonconformance and investigating its root cause

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

12

68. When a team consists of five quality engineers and eight manufacturing engineers, how many unique meetings could be held consisting of one quality engineer and two manufacturing engineers? (A) 40 (B) 80 (C) 140 (D) 280

69. When collecting samples of perishable goods, a quality

engineer should consider which of the following? I. Maximum holding time of samples for accurate

analytical results II. Necessary handling procedures III. Special preservation conditions or techniques IV. Calibration intervals of test equipment (A) I and IV only (B) II and III only (C) I, II, and III only (D) II, III, and IV only

70. A quality plan should define and document which of the

following? (A) How the process flow will add value to the

manufacturing steps (B) The indices for determining quality costs (C) The approval status and selection criteria for

suppliers and subcontractors (D) How the requirements for quality will be met

71. The facilitator for a quality improvement team should have

which of the following characteristics? (A) Previous experience in the process, procedures,

controls, and job instructions being investigated by the team

(B) Previous experience as a consultant from outside the company

(C) An in-depth understanding of process improvement tools and experience in implementing them

(D) The authority to resolve team impasses

72. If a process has a variance of 4 units and a specification of 96 ± 4, what is the process performance index (Pp)?

(A) 0.33 (B) 0.66 (C) 1.00 (D) 1.50

73. The person or group responsible for implementing

corrective action as a result of an audit is the (A) auditee (B) auditor (C) client (D) auditor’ s management

74. The main purpose of segregating nonconforming material

is to (A) provide for its rework (B) identify root causes of nonconformances (C) prevent investment of additional time and labor (D) prevent its incorporation with good material

75. An important aspect of data collection is that the data

collector should

(A) know how the data are to be used (B) use a stratified sampling plan (C) use a control chart to analyze the data (D) determine the dispersion of the data

STOP.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

13

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

14

APPENDIX A: Answer Sheet For each sample test question, the correct answer is provided below along with the area of the body of knowledge (BOK) that the item is classified to. This sample examination is not intended to represent all areas of the BOK but to provide a sampling from each major topic area. All ASQ examinations are based on the BOK for that particular exam. To view the BOK for CQE, please go to http://www.asq.org/cert/types/cqe/bok.html

Question BOK Correct Answer 1 V.A. B 2 III.C.1 A 3 V.B. B 4 IV.D.1 B 5 II.C. D 6 I.H. B 7 III.A.4 C 8 III.C.4 D 9 VI.C.2 D

10 V.B. B 11 VI.B.3 A 12 II.D.2 B 13 I.I. A 14 II.B. D 15 V.A. C 16 II.D.3 C 17 III.D.5 B 18 VI.B.6 D 19 I.B. C 20 VI.B.2 B 21 VI.D.4 D 22 VI.D.1 D 23 VI.E.1 A 24 VI.C.1 C 25 III.A.3 C 26 VI.H.2 D 27 VI.E.2 D 28 VI.D.4 A 29 VI.C.2 D 30 I.A. D 31 VI.H.1 B 32 V.D. D 33 II.A. A 34 VI.A.2 A 35 VI.G.7 B 36 I.G.3 D 37 V.C. A 38 VI.C.1 B

Question BOK Correct Answer 39 IV.E. D 40 VI.A.3 A 41 I.F. C 42 III.D.1 B 43 II.D.1 D 44 VI.D.2 D 45 III.B.2 B 46 III.D.1 A 47 VI.H.3 B 48 II.D.4 A 49 VI.G.6 B 50 III.D.3 C 51 V.C. D 52 V.D. B 53 III.C.1 A 54 VI.E.1 C 55 V.B. B 56 V.E. D 57 I.C. C 58 I.I. C 59 I.I. A 60 III.C.2 D 61 IV.B. D 62 V.F. D 63 VI.H.3 B 64 IV.B. A 65 III.D.1 D 66 VI.B.4 D 67 III.B.4 A 68 VI.A.4 C 69 III.B.2 C 70 I.B. D 71 I.D. C 72 VI.H.4 B 73 II.D.2 A 74 III.B.3 D 75 VI.B.3 A

CQE-SAMPLE EXAM

15

APPENDIX B: Analyzing Body of Knowledge (BOK) Content The following worksheet can be used to help you analyze the results of your answers on this sample examination. It can be used to determine which areas of the body of knowledge (BOK) you may want to study.

After learning which sample test questions you had correct, total the number you had correct and enter that number into the 2nd column of the worksheet. The 3rd column provides the total number of test questions that are in this sample examination for that major area of the BOK. The last column provides the total number of test questions that appear in a formal ASQ examination for that area of the BOK.

BOK Topic Area

Total You Had Correct on Sample

Exam

Total in the Sample Exam

Total in Formal ASQ

Exam I. Management and Leadership in Quality Engineering 11 19

II. Quality Systems Development, Implementation, and Verification

8 19

III. Planning, Controlling, and Assuring Product and Process Quality

15 33

IV. Reliability and Risk Management 4 11

V. Problem Solving and Quality Improvement 11 25

VI. Quantitative Methods 26 53

GRAND TOTAL 75 160

© 2011 ASQ ASQ grants permission for individuals to use this sample examination as a means to prepare for the formal examination. This examination may be printed, reproduced and used for non-commercial, personal or educational purposes only, provided that (i) the examination is not modified, and (ii) ASQ’s copyright notice is included. The user assumes all risks of copyright infringement.

SAMPLE EXAMINATION

The purpose of the following sample examination is to provide an example of what is provided on exam day by ASQ, complete with the same instructions that are provided on exam day. The test questions that appear in this sample examination are retired from the CRE pool and have appeared in past CRE examinations. Since they are now available to the public, they will NOT appear in future CRE examinations. This sample examination WILL NOT be allowed into the exam room.

Appendix A contains the answers to the sample test questions. ASQ will not provide scoring and analysis for this sample examination. Remember: These test questions will not appear on future examinations so your performance on this sample examination may not reflect how you perform on the formal examination. A self-appraisal of how well you know the content for the specific areas of the body of knowledge (BOK) can be completed by using the worksheet in Appendix B.

On page 2 of the instructions, it states “There are 150 questions on this 4-hour examination.” Please note that this sample exam only contains 75 questions.

If you have any questions regarding this sample examination, please email [email protected]

mailto:[email protected]

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NAME____________________________________

CERTIFIED RELIABILITY ENGINEER

Please print your name above. Read all the instructions before beginning the examination. If you are unsure about any part of the instructions, consult your proctor. In order for ASQ to be able to properly scan the Scantron answer sheet you must completely fill in the circle. Each circle must be filled in dark enough for the scanner to properly pick up the answer you chose. If not this could result in the exam not being scored correctly, or potentially delay your results. General Instructions All answers must be recorded on the Scantron Answer Sheet; no exam will be graded with the answers marked in the exam

booklet. 1. Using a soft lead pencil (#2 or softer) only, blacken the circle of the correct answer. Do not use ink. If you change your

answer, be sure to erase the previous answer completely.

2. Each question has ONE correct answer only.

3. This is a timed test, so do not linger over difficult questions. Instead, skip the questions that you are unsure of and return to them if you have time when you reach the end of the test.

4. Do not fold, staple, or tear the answer sheets.

5. Although this is an open-book examination and personally generated materials/notes from training or refresher courses are allowed, the following conditions apply:

• Each examinee must make his/her reference materials available to the proctor for review.

• Absolutely no collections of questions and answers or weekly refresher course quizzes are permitted. Reference sources that contain such copy are not allowed unless the questions and answers are removed or obscured. Examples of such sources include but are not limited to refresher and preparatory primers.

• Calculator Policy: With the introduction of palmtop computers and the increasing sophistication of scientific calculators, ASQ has become aware of the need to limit the types of calculators that are permitted for use during the examinations. Any silent, hand-held, battery-operated calculator WITHOUT an alphabetic keyboard will be permitted. However all programmable memory must be cleared from the calculator before you enter the exam room. The examination is written so that a simple calculator will be sufficient to perform all calculations.

• No laptop or palmtop computers are allowed.

• No Cell Phones are allowed in exam room

• Reference materials and calculators may not be shared.

6. When you have finished, check your answer sheet to be sure it is properly identified with your name and member number. Return your examination booklet, answer sheet, and scratch paper to your proctor. You must sign the roster sheet to signify the return of your test booklet.

7. It is strictly forbidden to copy or remove examination materials. You will be disqualified from the examination and not certified by ASQ if you breach this trust.

8. TEST Results – you can check your test results 7 – 10 days after the exam date by logging into www.asq.org website and navigating to the Certification webpage. Otherwise, your exam results will be mailed in approximately two weeks. Please Be Patient we do not answer telephone requests for results.

http://www.asq.org/

Special Instructions 1. Please note that your answer sheet has been personalized with your name, member number, section

number, and test type.

2. Do NOT make any changes to these parts of the answer sheet. Doing so will only delay your exam results. Instead notify the Proctor of any changes.

3. If you don’t have a personalized answer sheet, see your Proctor for further instructions.

4. There are 150 questions on this four-hour examination.

STOP DO NOT CONTINUE UNTIL INSTRUCTED

CRE-SAMPLE EXAM

CERTIFIED RELIABILITY ENGINEER Test Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding space on the answer sheet.

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1. Which of the following methods will most improve the reliability of a product?

(A) Reducing confidence levels (B) Reducing variation (C) Increasing sample size (D) Increasing test time

2. Which of the following methods can be used to

quantitatively identify items that are risk-critical?

(A) Design review (B) Fault-tree analysis (C) Concurrent engineering (D) Human reliability analysis

3. At the design stage of a product, the first safety focus

should be on which of the following?

(A) Regulatory requirements (B) Production tools (C) Controls and equipment (D) End-user applications

4. Which of the following statements is true about response

surface methods?

(A) They can eliminate day-to-day variations in a manufacturing environment.

(B) They are more efficient than two-level factorial design techniques.

(C) They do not require technical considerations to implement the method.

(D) They determine how an output is affected by a set of variables over a specified region.

5. Which of the following assumptions is true about degradation?

(A) It is inherent and irreversible. (B) It is inherent and reversible. (C) It is unacceptable and irreversible. (D) It is unacceptable and reversible.

6. A parts-count reliability prediction is calculated by

summing only the

(A) parts failure rates (B) number of parts in the system (C) variances of the part failure rates (D) parts failure rates with application stress

7. A part has a constant hazard rate. If preventive

maintenance is used, the part’s failure probability will be affected in which of the following ways? (A) It will increase. (B) It will decrease to a fixed value greater than zero. (C) It will decrease to zero. (D) It will remain the same.

8. The use of experimental design techniques early in the

process development stage generally results in

(A) increased personnel and product costs (B) increased product development time (C) decreased variability around target requirements (D) decreased start-up process yields

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9. A qualification test is planned to establish whether a unit meets required minimum mean time between failures (MTBF). Which of the following tools can be used to estimate the chance that the unit will pass the test even if its true MTBF is below the required level?

(A) Operating characteristic curve (B) Block diagram (C) Fault tree (D) Transition state matrix

10. The reliability block diagram of a system is shown in the

following figure with component reliability noted in each block.

.70 .80

.90 .70 .80 What is the reliability of the system? (A) 0.670 (B) 0.726 (C) 0.804 (D) 0.820

Questions 11-13 refer to the following information. A reliability engineer needs to use an accelerated test plan to select a new material. The failure modes are known to be temperature-related. 11. Which of the following stress-related characteristics should

be considered by the reliability engineer during the material selection stage? (A) Activation energy (B) Flexural energy (C) Tensile strength (D) Compression strength

12. Which of the following test techniques would allow the

reliability engineer to evaluate the material quickly?

(A) Ambient temperature test (B) Step-stress test (C) Full system test (D) Durability test

13. Which of the following approaches should be used for a

field validation test of the new material?

(A) Implement the material change and monitor field performance.

(B) Field test a sample of only the new material in the system.

(C) Field test samples of both old and new material in the system.

(D) Run lab tests on two systems.

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14. Which of the following statements best describes the set of all values of a random variable?

(A) It is finite. (B) It is an interval. (C) It can be discrete or continuous. (D) It can be tracked by using control charts or

scatter plots.

15. Which of the following is the best description of

randomization?

(A) A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment

(B) A means of assuring representative sampling (C) The repetition of an observation or measurement (D) The relationship between two or more variables

16. The hazard rate function for a device is given by

0.001 if t ≤ 10 hours and 0.010 if t > 10 hours What is the reliability of this device at 12 hours? (A) 0.970 (B) 0.980 (C) 0.988 (D) 0.990

17. Fault isolation is best facilitated by using

(A) trouble reports, corrective action reports, and inspection data

(B) interchangeability, redundancy, and corrective maintenance

(C) preventive maintenance, built-in test equipment, and design simplification

(D) periodic condition inspections and correction of detected deterioration

18. To be most cost-effective, a corrective action should be implemented between which of the following events?

After Before (A) Initial build Final qualification test (B) Final qualification test Initial production (C) Initial production Field release (D) Field release Field upgrades

19. In the model y = 12.1x1 + 5.3x2 + ε, the x1 follows a

Weibull distribution with a shape parameter of 3.5 and a characteristic life of 20; x2 follows a lognormal distribution with a mean of 16 and a standard deviation (σ) of 2.5; and ε is a random variable with a mean of 0 and a σ of 1. In this situation, which of the following methods would be best to evaluate the distribution of y ?

(A) Regression analysis (B) Monte Carlo simulation (C) Analysis of variance (D) Numerical integral

20. In design of experiments, the concept of “loss function”

is related to

(A) Monte Carlo simulation (B) Taguchi methods (C) evolutionary methods (D) regression analysis

21. A certain electronic component has a constant failure rate

of 4 × 10−7/hour. A system requires the use of 64 units of this component, and all of the components must function for the system to work. What is the system failure rate? (A) 2.56 × 10−5/hour (B) 3.91 × 10−5/hour (C) 2.56 × 104 hours (D) 3.91 × 104 hours

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22. When the order of items is not important, which of the following is the method to use to determine the number of sets and subsets of items? (A) Combination (B) Permutation (C) Factorization (D) Simulation

23. A system has four components in series with mean time

between failures (MTBF) of 5,000, 6,000, 4,500 and 2,000 hours, respectively. What is the 200-hour system reliability? (A) 0.804 (B) 0.832 (C) 0.898 (D) 0.989

24. One hundred units are subjected to a reliability test with

duration 500 clock hours. During the test, 2 failures occur, at T1 = 110 hours and at T2 = 300 hours. The failed units are not replaced. On the basis of this sample, the one-sided 95% lower confidence limit of reliability of these units for a mission of 600 hours is (A) 0.858 (B) 0.926 (C) 0.976 (D) 0.988

25. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean

and variance of the number of heads?

Mean Variance (A) 0.5 0.025 (B) 5.0 2.500 (C) 5.0 5.000 (D) 10.0 5.000

26. Which of the following best offsets the implementation costs of a product safety program?

(A) Increased production quality (B) Increased manufacturing safeguards (C) Reduced regulatory requirements (D) Reduced liability exposure

27. Percent failed Time or Cycles

Which of the following can be inferred from the Weibull analysis plot above? (A) There is an initial period of time where no

failures occur. (B) The analysis includes censored data. (C) More than one failure mechanism is included

in the data. (D) The hazard rate remains constant.

28. Which of the following must be known in order to

establish a reliability specification?

(A) The usage environment (B) The level of the system’s quality (C) The company’s reliability policy (D) The reliability model being used

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29. Which of the following probability distributions best satisfies the inequality P(x < 0) > 0 ?

(A) Two-parameter Weibull (B) One-parameter exponential (C) Normal (D) Lognormal

30. Which of the following is considered the most valuable

source of information on actual failure modes and mechanisms?

(A) Field data (B) Qualification tests (C) FMEAs (D) User profiles

31. A component has strength with mean value of 9,000 N and

standard deviation of 900 N. It has to withstand a load with mean value of 5,500 N and standard deviation of 800 N. Both strength and load are normally distributed. What is the probability of failure for the component? (A) 2.0 × 10−5 (B) 1.8 × 10−3 (C) 5.8 × 10−3 (D) 2.0 × 10−2

32. Early in the concept phase of a new product development

program, which of the following methods is most effective for incorporating desired product attributes into the design? (A) Quality function deployment (QFD) (B) Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) (C) Fault-tree analysis (FTA) (D) Failure reporting and corrective action systems

(FRACAS)

33. Which of the following is the most appropriate measure of

reliability?

(A) Manufacturing cost per unit (B) Service cost per unit (C) External customer satisfaction (D) Internal customer satisfaction

34. A repair facility consists of two independent stations in a series. Repair times in hours follow normal distributions as shown below.

Station

Mean

Standard Deviation

1 20 3 2 10 2

What is the probability of completing a repair in 35 hours or less? (A) 0.65 (B) 0.71 (C) 0.92 (D) 0.99

35. In a cross-functional team environment, the reliability

function can influence product reliability primarily by

(A) integrating the reliability requirements into product design

(B) developing reliability tests (C) performing thorough failure analysis (D) monitoring the failure rates of various products

36. A Pareto analysis of field failure data indicates

approximately equal magnitudes of the main failure modes. In this situation, the best next course of action is to look at (A) the failure mode that is least expensive to investigate (B) the failure mode that provides the highest return on

investment if eliminated (C) the failure mode that is closest to “no fault found” (D) every possible contributor for each main failure mode

37. Which of the following types of data is best to estimate the

life of a product?

(A) Time-to-failure (B) Time-to-repair (C) Failure modes (D) Failure criticality

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38. Which of the following techniques is used to discover design flaws and implement fixes to affect all future manufactured units?

(A) Reliability growth modeling (B) Reliability physics (C) Markov modeling (D) Monte Carlo simulation

39. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to

improve product reliability during the design phase?

(A) Perform a worst-case analysis. (B) Track manufacturing defects. (C) Conduct supplier auditing. (D) Increase the staff on the product development team.

40. The term “failure mode” is defined as the

(A) consequence of the mechanism through which a failure occurs

(B) physical, chemical, electrical, or thermal process that results in failure

(C) event or inoperable state in which an item or part of an item does not perform as specified

(D) failure caused by the failure of an associated item

41. Which of the following activities is most effective in

increasing reliability during a product’s lifecycle?

(A) Improving gage repeatability and reproducibility (B) Developing an aggressive testing strategy (C) Developing robust designs (D) Developing capable processes

42. The following ANOVA table was completed from a full factorial experiment. The object of the experiment was to determine whether the impact of factors A, B, or their interaction (AXB) was significant at the 0.95 confidence level.

Source df SS

A 2 18.7 B 3 25.5

AXB 6 43.1 Error 24 65.3

Total 35 152.6

In this situation, which of the following is true?

(A) Only source A is significant. (B) Only source B is significant. (C) Only the interaction (AXB) is significant. (D) All sources (A, B, and AXB) are significant.

43. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or

systematic is called

(A) bias (B) sensitivity (C) random (D) shift

44. Which of the following is designed to ensure that a

structure has sufficient strength to operate in its service environment and under the loads specified?

(A) Stress-strength analysis (B) Analysis of variance (C) Destructive physical analysis (D) Environmental stress characterization

CRE-SAMPLE EXAM

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45. The influence of a failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) on reliability is maximized at which of the following stages of development?

(A) Design (B) Prototype (C) Test (D) Operation

46. The two-sample t-test used in hypothesis testing assumes

that the two

(A) populations have the same mean (B) populations are normally distributed (C) samples are the same size (D) samples are not randomly selected

47. Before sending a corrective action notice to a supplier, a

manufacturer should review which of the following?

(A) The supplier’s financial condition (B) Its own manufacturing schedules (C) Documented evidence of failures related to that

supplier (D) All procedures, processes, and training records related

to that supplier

48. Which of the following information helps determine the

value of a product’s reliability to the customer?

(A) The failure rate and price of the product (B) A Weibull analysis of product failure data (C) An SPC analysis of product performance (D) The effectiveness of corrective action on product

failure

49. The most cost-effective product development phase in

which to eliminate a hazard is

(A) design (B) manufacturing (C) burn-in (D) field-failure analysis

50. A system consists of five units, as shown below.

The reliability of the X unit is 0.9900. The other four units are identical. If the system reliability goal is 0.9896, what is the minimum reliability that each of the Y units must have? (A) 0.980 (B) 0.985 (C) 0.990 (D) 0.995

51. If final product and preproduction test data differ, which of

the following types of data would be best for evaluating product reliability?

(A) Field use (B) Accelerated test (C) Monte Carlo modeling (D) Force-field analysis

52. Which of the following is the most effective technique

for prioritizing critical factors for problem-solving?

(A) Venn diagram (B) Scatter diagram (C) Pareto diagram (D) Cause and effect diagram

X

Y

Y

Y

Y

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53. In reliability, the most common use of the Pareto principle is in determining

(A) whether the output of a process is stable (B) whether problems in a system are sporadic or chronic (C) what the defects are in a product or process (D) what defects are responsible for the majority of the

problems 54. Which of the following statements is true about the

bathtub curve?

(A) The early phase represents wearout failures. (B) The early phase shows increasing failure rate. (C) The middle phase shows a decreasing failure rate. (D) The middle phase represents random failures.

55. Which of the following practices represents the principle of

preventive maintenance?

(A) Inspect periodically and repair or replace parts as necessary.

(B) When parts fail, replace with good ones. (C) When parts fail, repair the failed parts. (D) Replace all parts on a regularly scheduled basis.

56. Which of the following statements is true about reliability

prediction?

(A) It is accurate in the determination of system failure causes.

(B) It contributes directly to system reliability. (C) It forms decision criteria for selecting courses of action

that affect reliability. (D) It demonstrates that a proposed design will meet its

reliability requirement.

57. A company is in a multi-product, competitive market. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to help capture the maximum market share? (A) Reducing cycle time while introducing new, reliable

products (B) Increasing the reliability of current products (C) Improving the capacity of manufacturing processes (D) Performing aggressive field-testing

58. Accelerated life testing is most beneficial when

performed on

(A) dead-on-arrival products (B) products released to manufacturing (C) products under development (D) products returned from the field

59. A system has an availability of 95% when the MTBF is

500 hours and the mean time to repair is

(A) 22 hours (B) 26 hours (C) 133 hours (D) 167 hours

60. The x and y axes of the bathtub curve are

x y (A) time reliability (B) reliability time (C) time hazard rate (D) hazard rate time

61. Which of the following is the most effective approach to minimize accidents caused by human error?

(A) Provide easy access to equipment. (B) Provide clear user instructions to customers. (C) Put automatic preventive features into the products. (D) Put warning signs at the most visible locations.

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62. When parts are selected for a product in development, which of the following key elements should be considered first?

(A) Cost (B) Serviceability (C) Availability (D) Application

63. A certain component has its strength distributed normally

with an average of 20,000 pounds per square inch (psi) and a standard deviation of 1,200 psi. The stress on the component is also normally distributed with an average of 17,500 psi and a standard deviation of 800 psi. On the basis of this information, what is the component’s reliability? (A) 0.9052 (B) 0.9582 (C) 0.9814 (D) 0.9972

64. Correlation analysis is a technique used to measure the

degree of

(A) statistical relationship between two random variables (B) causal relationship between two random variables (C) goodness of fit to normal distribution (D) goodness of fit to exponential distribution

65. When the plot of the cumulative MTBF and the

cumulative operating hours on log-log paper follows a straight line, the plot is known as

(A) a Weibull plot (B) a normal plot (C) a Duane plot (D) an exponential plot

66. A fault tree analysis (FTA) differs from a failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) in that an FTA

(A) starts by considering individual or combined lower-

level failures first (B) starts by considering system failure effects or top

events first (C) does not take into account human factors such as

incorrect operation (D) is typically used in conjunction with a cause and effect

diagram

67. Which of the following statements is true about

maintainability?

(A) It should be initiated during the logistics review. (B) It should be initiated during the design stage. (C) It is primarily a field service issue. (D) It is primarily a contractual requirement.

68. Which of the following calculations is used to determine

the overall tolerance for a serial combination of components? (A) The average of the tolerances (B) The maximum of the tolerances (C) The sum of the tolerances (D) The square root of the sum of the squares of the

tolerances

69. The primary objective of reliability-centered

maintenance (RCM) is to

(A) obtain maintainability data (B) preserve system function (C) track maintenance training (D) characterize the downtime distribution

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70. A system is comprised of units X and Y in parallel with hazard rates as shown below.

Hazard rate

Unit X 0 m 2m 3m time

Hazard rate

Unit Y 0 m 2m 3m time If “m” is the scheduled replacement interval, then replacement of unit (A) X will increase failure probability of system (B) X will decrease failure probability of system (C) Y will increase failure probability of system (D) Y will decrease failure probability of system

71. Typically, which of the following distributions is used to

model equipment maintenance times?

(A) Lognormal (B) Gamma (C) Inverse beta (D) Exponential

72. As a result of improper machining, a gear-tooth in a vehicle’s transmission breaks causing the transmission to lock up and the vehicle to crash, injuring the driver. The failure mode in this case should be identified by the reliability engineer as the (A) injured driver (B) jammed transmission (C) improper machining (D) vehicle crash

73. An electromigration model for stress testing (MTTF =

KTEa

neAJ − ) is based on the

(A) stresses of voltage and vibration raised to powers (B) Arrhenius temperature dependence and a constant (C) current density to a power and the Arrhenius

temperature dependence (D) environmental stress screening and HALT testing

74. Which of the following is a model used for monitoring

reliability growth?

(A) Duane (B) Arrhenius (C) Normal (D) Lognormal

75. When reliability goals are being developed, reliability

predictions are initially used to

(A) set goals for all portions of the life cycle of a system (B) estimate potential performance of hardware and

software with respect to reliability requirements (C) measure customer needs and provide a means of

defining quantitative reliability goals (D) establish a competitive position with respect to

reliability

STOP.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS TEST.

CRE-SAMPLE EXAM

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APPENDIX A: Answer Sheet For each sample test question, the correct answer is provided below along with the area of the body of knowledge (BOK) that the item is classified to. This sample examination is not intended to represent all areas of the BOK but to provide a sampling from each major topic area. All ASQ examinations are based on the BOK for that particular exam. To view the BOK for CRE, please go to http://www.asq.org/certification/reliability-engineer/bok.html

Question BOK Correct Answer 1 II.B.2 B 2 III.A.5 B 3 I.C.3 D 4 II.B.2 D 5 III.B.2 A 6 IV.B.1 A 7 VI.B.1 D 8 III.A.7 C 9 IV.B.2 A

10 IV.A.2 B 11 V.B.1 A 12 V.B.1 B 13 V.C.1 C 14 II.A.1 C 15 II.B.2 B 16 II.B.1 A 17 VI.B.4 C 18 VII.B.2 A 19 IV.A.3 B 20 III.A.7 B 21 IV.B.2 A 22 II.A.2 A 23 IV.A.2 A 24 II.B.2 B 25 II.A.3 B 26 I.C.3 D 27 VII.B.1 C 28 III.B.4 A 29 II.A.3 C 30 IV.A.1 A 31 III.A.2 B 32 I.A.7 A 33 I.A.2 C 34 VI.B.2 C 35 I.A.3 A 36 VII.B.2 B 37 VII.A.2 A 38 IV.A.3 A

Question BOK Correct Answer 39 I.A.1 A 40 III.A.3 A 41 I.B.4 C 42 III.A.7 D 43 II.A.1 A 44 III.A.2 A 45 III.A.3 A 46 II.B.3 B 47 VII.A.2 C 48 I.A.1 A 49 I.C.3 A 50 III.A.12 C 51 V.A.2 A 52 VII.B.1 C 53 VII.B.1 D 54 II.A.3 D 55 VI.B.1 A 56 IV.B.2 C 57 I.B.2 A 58 V.B.1 C 59 VI.A.3 B 60 II.A.3 C 61 III.A.10 C 62 III.B.1 D 63 III.A.2 B 64 II.A.1 A 65 V.B.3 C 66 III.A.5 B 67 VI.A.1 B 68 III.A.6 D 69 VI.A.2 B 70 VI.B.1 A 71 VI.B.2 A 72 III.A.3 B 73 V.B.1 C 74 V.B.3 A 75 IV.B.2 B

http://www.asq.org/certification/reliability-engineer/bok.html

CRE-SAMPLE EXAM

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APPENDIX B: Analyzing Body of Knowledge (BOK) Content The following worksheet can be used to help you analyze the results of your answers on this sample examination. It can be used to determine which areas of the body of knowledge (BOK) you may want to study.

After learning which sample test questions you had correct, total the number you had correct and enter that number into the 2nd column of the worksheet. The 3rd column provides the total number of test questions that are in this sample examination for that major area of the BOK. The last column provides the total number of test questions that appear in a formal ASQ examination for that area of the BOK.

BOK Topic Area

Total You Had Correct on Sample

Exam

Total in the Sample Exam

Total in Formal ASQ

Exam I. Reliability Management 10 18

II. Probability and Statistics for Reliability 14 27

III. Reliability in Design and Development 13 26

IV. Reliability Modeling and Predictions 10 22

V. Reliability Testing 9 24

VI. Maintainability and Availability 9 15

VII. Data Collection and Use 10 18

GRAND TOTAL 75 150

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