Aircraft General Feedback

Hydraulics Feedback 1. In a modern airliner what is the hydraulic fluid used?

(a) synthetic (b) mineral (c) mineral/alcohol (d) vegetable

2. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised

(a) by a separate helium gas system (b) by air from the air conditioning system (c) by engine bleed air from a turbine engine (d) in flight only

3. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:

(a) reduce pressure to the braking system (b) restrict return fluid from the anti skid unit (c) allow the parking brake to remain on (d) prevent leakage if the hydraulic line breaks

4. A shuttle valve will

(a) automatically switch to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply

(b) reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached (c) allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down (d) operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full Flow relief valve

5. What type of hydraulic fluid is used in a modern aircraft?

(a) phosphate ester based (b) mineral based (c) vegetable based (d) water based

6. What happens with the hydraulic fluid level as you energise the

system?

(a) Stays the same (b) Increases and then stays the same (c) Decreases and then fluctuates (d) Increases initially and then returns

7. What is the normal pressure in a main hydraulic system?

(a) 1000psi (b) 1500psi (c) 3000psi (d) 4000psi

Bristol Groundschool Aircraft General Feedback

8. The pressure in the hydraulic accumulator is 1200psi and the system

pressure after start up is 3000psi. What pressure does the gauge show after start up?

(a) 1200psi (b) 1800psi (c) 3000psi (d) 4200psi

9. What is the colour of synthetic hydraulic oil?

(a) purple (b) red (c) orange (d) pink

10. What hydraulic device acts like an electric diode?

(a) Shuttle valve (b) non return check/valve (c) one way restrictor valve (d) hydraulic fuse

11. The hydraulic reservoir is pressurised in order to

(a) reduce fluid compressibility (b) prevent pump cavitation (c) seal the system (d) keep hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature

12. Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?

(a) the coolers (b) at the pumps (c) at the reservoirs (d) at the actuators

13. The result of an internal leakage in a hydraulic system is:

(a) fluid loss (b) increase in fluid pressure (c) decrease in fluid temperature (d) increase in fluid temperature

14. The ram air turbine provides emergency hydraulic power for:

(a) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed (b) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic

pressure (c) undercarriage selection and airborne brake system (d) flap extension only


15. Hydraulic fluids must have following characteristics

(i) emulsifying (ii) high volatility (iii) low viscosity (iv) low freezing point (v) high lubricity (vi) low boiling point (vii) corrosion resistance (viii) chemical stability

(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v) & (vii) (b) (ii) (iii) (v) & (viii) (c) (iii) (iv) (v) (vii) & (viii) (d) (iii) (vii) & (viii)

16. The hydraulic oil entering the hydraulic pumps is slightly pressurised

to

(a) prevent vapour lock (b) ensure sufficient pump output (c) prevent cavitation (d) prevent overheat

17. An accumulator in hydraulic system will:

(a) Reduce fluid temperature only (b) Reduce fluid temperature and pressure (c) Increase pressure surges within the system (d) Store fluid under pressure

18. What component converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion?

(a) Accumulator (b) Hydraulic pump (c) Reservoir (d) Jack / actuator

19. In the event of the normal hydraulic pressure regulation system failing,

there is fitted:

(a) An accumulator (b) A pressure relief valve (c) An automatic cut out valve (d) a non return valve

20. The low pressure switch in a hydraulic system will indicate a warning

if:

(a) The accumulator is deflated (b) The reservoir is too low (c) The pressure coming out of the pump is too low (d) The actuator has failed to operate


1 a 11 b 2 c 12 b 3 d 13 d 4 a 14 b 5 a 15 c 6 c 16 c 7 c 17 d 8 c 18 d 9 a 19 b 10 b 20 c


Pressurisation Feedback 1. In a bootstrap air conditioning system what is the first thing the air

does?

(a) goes through the compressor, secondary heat exchanger, turbine (b) goes through the compressor, turbine, secondary heat exchanger, (c) goes through the turbine, compressor, secondary heat exchanger (d) goes through the primary heat exchanger, turbine and

compressor 2. Where is the water separator?

(a) before the cold air unit (b) after the cold air unit (c) between the compressor and turbine (d) after the humidifier

3. If an aircraft maximum operating altitude is limited by the pressure

cabin, this limit is controlled by: (a) the maximum positive pressure differential at maximum operating

ceiling (b) the maximum positive pressure differential at maximum cabin

altitude (c) the maximum number of pressurisation cycles (d) the maximum zero fuel mass at maximum pressure altitude

4. If the pressure controller malfunctions and the outflow valve

malfunctions what happens to

i) Cabin ROC ii) Cabin Alt iii) Differential pressure

(a) increase increase decrease (b) decrease increase decrease (c) increase decrease decrease (d) increase increase increase

5. What controls cabin pressurisation?

(a) engine bleed valve (b) engine RPM (c) inflow valve (d) outflow valve

6. What is “conditioned air”?

(a) air adjusted for temperature and pressure (b) air adjusted for temperature (c) air adjusted for pressure (d) air adjusted for mass flow


7. If the cabin pressure tends to decrease below ambient

(a) the inward relief valve will close (b) the inward relief valve will open (c) the Outward relief valve will open (d) the Outward relief valve will close

8. What defines “cabin altitude”?

(a) the same cabin altitude is maintained as outside (b) the pressure altitude in the cabin (c) the difference in pressure between the cabin and outside (d) the pressure altitude of the aircraft

9. For a pressurised flight at FL290 if a brief on emergency decompression

equipment is necessary when must it be given?

(a) before FL 290 (b) before FL140 (c) before FL 100 (d) before takeoff

10. The purpose of a ditching control valve is

(a) to open the outflow valves (b) to allow rapid depressurisation (c) to close the outflow valves (d) to dump the toilet water after landing

11. In an air cycle air conditioning system what is the function of the

ground-cooling fan?

(a) to draw cooling air over the turbine (b) to draw cooling air over the heat exchangers (c) to blow air into the compressor (d) to re-circulate air through the mix manifold

12. In vapour cycle cooling system what is the purpose of the condenser?

(a) to convert the refrigerant to a liquid (b) to convert the refrigerant to a gas (c) to remove moisture from the air (d) to raise the pressure of the gas

13. Maximum differential pressure of a large transport aircraft is:

(a) 3 - 5 psi (b) 7 - 9 psi (c) 10 - 14 psi (d) 15 - 19 psi


14. During normal pressurised climb after take off:

(a) the cabin pressure decreases more slowly than the atmospheric pressure

(b) the cabin pressure decreases at the same rate as the atmospheric pressure

(c) the cabin pressure decreases more quickly than the atmospheric pressure

(d) the cabin pressure is always less than the atmospheric pressure 15. The maximum operating altitude of an aircraft with a pressure cabin is

limited, due to the maximum:

(a) positive cabin differential pressure at the maximum operating ceiling

(b) negative cabin differential pressure at the maximum cabin altitude

(c) positive cabin differential pressure at the maximum cabin altitude (d) negative cabin differential pressure at the maximum operating

ceiling 16. The turbine in the air-conditioning machine:

(a) increases the air temperature and drives the compressor (b) drives compressor and creates a temperature drop in the

conditioned air (c) increases the pressure of air supply to the cabin (d) is driven by the compressor and reduces the temperature of

conditioned air

17. The warning to the flight crew of excessive cabin altitude happens as a cabin altitude of ............is exceeded

(a) 10,000 ft (b) 12,000 ft (c) 8,000 ft (d) 14,000 ft

18. If the discharge valves fail closed in flight the effect will be

(a) to potentially damage the aircraft skin (b) the cabin pressure will rise to maximum differential pressure (c) the airflow will cease automatically (d) the cabin altitude will increase

19. If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside

ambient air pressure then the:

(a) Negative pressure relief valve will close (b) Air cycle machine will stop (c) Negative pressure relief valve will open (d) Outflow valves open completely


20. On most modern airlines the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:

(a) Airflow leaving the cabin (b) Airflow entering the cabin (c) RPM of the engine (d) Position of the bleed air valve.

21. During the normal pressurised climb after take off the:

(a) Cabin differential pressure is maintained constant (b) Pressurisation system is inoperative until a height of 10,000 is

reached. (c) Absolute cabin pressure increases t o compensate for the fall in

pressure (d) Cabin pressure decreases more slowly than the atmospheric

pressure 22. Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:

(a) Actual cabin pressure and selected pressure (b) Cockpit and passenger cabin (c) Cabin pressure and ambient air pressure (d) Cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL

23. The dehumidifier (water separator) is fitted:

(a) After the cooling system & operates on a condensation principle (b) After the cooling system & operates on a evaporation principle (c) Before the cooling system & operates on a condensation principle (d) Before the cooling system & operates on a evaporation principle

24. Use the Standard Atmosphere table at Annex A to determine the

maximum operating altitude for an aircraft with a maximum differential pressure of 7psi and a cabin altitude of 4000ft

(a) 22,000ft (b) 24,000ft (c) 26,000ft (d) 28,000ft


ANNEX A

ft millibars In hg lb/in2 °C

-1,000 1050.41 31.019 15.234 +16.981 0 1013.25 29.921 14.696 15.000

1,000 977.17 28.856 14.172 13.019 2,000 942.13 27.821 13.664 11.038 3,000 908.12 26.817 13.170 9.056 4,000 875.10 25.842 12.691 7.075 5,000 843.07 24.896 12.226 5.094 6,000 811.99 23.978 11.775 3.113 7,000 781.85 23.088 11.338 1.132 8,000 752.62 22.225 10.913 -0.850 9,000 724.28 21.388 10.502 -2,831 10,000 696.81 20.577 10.104 -4.812 11,000 670.20 19.791 9.718 -6.793 12,000 644,41 10.029 0.344 -8.774 13,000 691.43 18.292 8.891 -10.756 14,000 595.24 17.577 8.630 -12.737 15,000 571.82 16.886 8.291 -14.718 16,000 549.15 16.216 7.962 -16.699 17,000 527.22 15.569 7.643 -18.680 18,000 506.00 14.942 7.335 -20.662 19,000 485.47 14.336 7.038 -22.643 20,000 465.63 13.750 6.750 -24.624 21,000 446.45 13.184 6.472 -26.605 22,000 427.91 12.636 6.203 -28.686 23,000 410.00 12.107 5.943 -30.568 24,000 392.71 11.597 5.692 -32.549 25,000 376.01 11.104 5.450 -34.530 26,000 359.89 10.628 5.216 -36.511 27,000 344.33 10.168 4.991 -38.492 28,000 329.32 9.725 4.773 -40.474 29,000 314.85 9.298 4.563 -42.455 30,000 300.89 8.885 4.361 -44.436


1 a 11 b 21 d 2 b 12 a 22 c 3 b 13 b 23 a 4 a 14 a 24 b 5 d 15 c 6 a 16 b 7 b 17 a 8 b 18 b 9 d 19 c 10 c 20 a


Oxygen & Emergency Systems Feedback

1. The minimum height for door sills before a means of assisting escape is

required is:

(a) 1.83m (b) 1.82m (c) 1.28m (d) 1.38m

2. How are escape slides inflated?

(a) fed from bleed air system (b) hand pumped by cabin crew (c) self contained gas bottle (d) using the oral inflation adaptor

3. If an aircraft is 340 nm from land and its one engine inoperative speed

is 150 kts it

(a) must carry lifejackets for each passenger only (b) must carry lifejackets for each passenger and life rafts sufficient

to carry all persons on board (c) must carry life rafts sufficient for all persons on board but

lifejackets are not necessary (d) does not need lifejackets or life rafts

4. If an aircraft has a maximum seating configuration of less than 200 but

more than 9 how many crash axes or crowbars must be carried?

(a) one on the flight deck and one in the passenger cabin (b) two on the flight deck and one in the fwd cargo hold (c) one on the flight deck and two in the passenger cabin (d) one on the flight deck only

5. An aircraft at FL 390 is certified to carry 230 passengers, it is

configured to carry 200 and actually has 180 passengers on board. The number of drop-down oxygen masks provided must be

(a) 180 (b) 200 (c) 220 (d) 240


6. The passenger oxygen drop-drop mask stowage doors are released

(a) by a lanyard operated by a barometric capsule (b) electrically (c) electrically for chemical oxygen generators and pneumatically for

gaseous systems (d) manually by the cabin crew

7. Smoke hoods protect

(a) the full face with continuous oxygen flow (b) the mouth and nose with continuous oxygen flow (c) the full face with on demand oxygen (d) the mouth and nose with on demand oxygen

8. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the

pilot should select

(a) 100% (b) emergency (c) diluter (d) normal

9. The advantages of a gaseous oxygen system are:

(i) it is a self contained system (ii) it can be filled from outside the pressure hull (iii) the flow of oxygen is regulatable (iv) it can be turned off (v) it is relatively light

(a) (i) & (iv) (b) (ii) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) & (iv) (d) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v)

10. The advantages of a chemical oxygen system are:

(i) it is a self contained system (ii) it can be filled from outside the pressure hull (iii) the flow of oxygen is regulatable (iv) it can be turned off (v) it is relatively light

(a) (i) & (v) (b) (i) (iii) & (v) (c) (ii) & (iv) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v)


11. Under JAR-OPS 1, In the event of ditching an aircraft must carry sufficient liferafts to transport the occupants:

(a) plus 10 % (b) plus 30 % (c) in the event 2 rafts are lost (d) in the event the largest capacity raft is lost

12. An aircraft certificated to JAR 25 or equivalent cannot fly over remote

areas which would hamper rescue efforts, unless carrying additional survival aids. A remote area is more than:

(a) 30 min cruise from an airfield (b) 60 min cruise from an airfield (c) 90 min cruise from an airfield (d) 120 min cruise from an airfield

13. An aircraft with 201 seats requires how many fire axes?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none

14. A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid

oxygen for ............ calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than..............

(a) one passenger 10,000ft (b) two passengers 10,000ft (c) one passenger 8,000ft (d) two passengers 8,000ft

15. What is therapeutic oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft? (a) To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes (b) To protect certain passengers and carried only for those

passengers (c) To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew (d) To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental

depressurisation 16. The purpose of the diluter demand regulator in the oxygen system is to:

(a) mix air and oxygen in passengers’ oxygen masks (b) deliver oxygen flow only when inhaling (c) deliver oxygen flow only above FL100 (d) exclude smoke in cockpit


17. The diluter demand system has three selections available, ON, 100% and emergency. Which functions are available with each selection?

(i) oxygen is delivered under pressure (ii) no cabin air is breathed in (iii) cabin air is mixed with oxygen (iv) delivery is on demand

ON 100% Emergency (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iv) (i) (ii) (c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (i) (iv) (d) (iv) (ii) (iv) (ii) (iv)

18. On a pressurised aircraft the passenger briefing regarding the use of O2

equipment needs to be completed before:

(a) 8,000’ (b) 10,000’ (c) 14,000’ (d) take-off

19. An aircraft operating at FL350 must have sufficient supplementary

oxygen available for 30% of the passengers for a descent from its max certificated operating altitude

(a) to allow a descent to 13,000ft in 30 minutes (b) to allow a descent to 15,000ft in 4 minutes (c) to allow a descent to 15,000ft in 10 minutes (d) to allow a descent to 10,000ft in 4 minutes

20. In accordance with JAR-OPS an aeroplane with only one passenger

deck is equipped with 61 seats. The number of megaphones which should be available if there are more than 31 passengers on board is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

21. The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport

aircraft is stored is:

(a) liquid (b) chemical compound (c) gaseous (d) gaseous or chemical compound


22. In a ditching situation the passenger life jackets will be inflated when:

(a) leaving the aeroplane (b) the passengers are in the water (c) the plane is ditching (d) the exits are being opened

23. What is supplementary oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft? (a) To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes (b) To protect certain passengers and carried only for those

passengers (c) To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew (d) To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental

depressurisation 24. Protective breathing equipment:

(a) protects crew against accidental depressurisation (b) protects crew against fumes and noxious gases (c) protects crew and passengers against accidental depressurisation (d) protects crew and passengers against fumes and noxious gases

25. Where automatically deployable oxygen masks are required they must

deploy before the cabin altitude reaches

(a) 15,000ft (b) 14,000ft (c) 13,000ft (d) 10,000ft

26. Which of the following statements is true regarding a chemical oxygen

generator and oxygen mask assembly?

(i) oxygen is delivered under pressure (ii) oxygen is delivered close to ambient pressure (iii) the mask provides 100% oxygen (iv) the mask provides an air/oxygen mix

(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (i) & (iv) (c) (ii) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)

27. The number of emergency exits depends on

(a) the number of passengers on board (b) the ability to evacuate all passengers in 90 seconds with 50%

exits available (c) the number of passenger seats (d) the number of cabin crew available


28. What is the purpose of a crash axe? (a) to control unruly passengers (b) to gain access to a fire behind a panel and as a general

purpose tool during an evacuation (c) to take the top off a fire extinguisher that has not operated (d) to free access to exits in the event of an evacuation using

slides and chutes 29. A turbo prop aircraft is flying with 60 persons on board at 240 kt and

is 2hrs away from land, the minimum survival equipment is: (a) 60 lifejackets (b) 60 lifejackets plus 3 life rafts each for 30 people (c) 60 lifejackets plus 2 life rafts each for 30 people (d) 2 life rafts each for 30 people 30. Passenger oxygen is enabled by: (a) Switching on diluter demand and passenger oxygen (b) Opening the oxygen cylinder valves (c) Switching on diluter demand (d) Switching on passenger oxygen 31. The purpose of the "pressure relief valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to: (a) act as a manual shut off valve (b) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator

(c) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions

(d) maximise the charge pressure of the system 32. The opening of the doors giving access to the passenger oxygen masks is: (i) pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system (ii) electrical for the chemical oxygen system (iii) pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system (iv) electrical for the gaseous oxygen system

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: (a) (i) & (ii) (b) (i) & (iii) (c) (ii) & (iv) (d) (iii) & (iv)


33. In accordance with the JAR-OPS 1, 10% of the passengers in a non-pressurised airplane must have a supply of supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time:

(a) at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft (b) at pressure altitudes above 10,000ft (c) after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft (d) at pressure altitudes above 13,000ft and for any period exceeding

30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10,000ft but not exceeding 13,000ft

34. At what altitude must you provide oxygen for 10% of the passengers in

a pressurised aircraft? (a) for the complete flight (b) for the entire flight above 13,000ft (c) for the entire flight above 10,000ft (d) between 10,000ft and 14,000ft after the first 30 minutes 35. At what aircraft altitude is it mandatory for flight crew to wear oxygen masks? (a) 25,000ft (b) 35,000ft (c) 41,000ft (d) 49,000ft 36. An aircraft that weighs more than 5700kg has between 19 and 200 seats, how many crowbars and crash axes must it have on board? (a) a crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit (b) a crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit and a crash axe or crowbar

in the cabin (c) none are required (d) a crash axe and a crowbar in the cockpit 37. An unpressurised aircraft flying above FL100 must have sufficient

supplementary oxygen for: (a) the flight crew (b) the flight crew, cabin crew and passengers (c) the flight crew immediately and the cabin crew and a proportion of

the passengers after 30 minutes above FL130 (d) the flight crew immediately and the cabin crew and all of the

passengers when above FL130 38. Who are smoke hoods available to and for how long must they give oxygen? (a) everyone on board the aircraft and last for 15 minutes (b) the aircraft crew and must last for 20 minutes (c) the aircraft crew and must last for 15 minutes (d) the flight deck crew and must last for 20 minutes


1 a 11 d 21 c 31 c 2 c 12 c 22 a 32 a 3 b 13 b 23 d 33 c 4 d 14 c 24 b 34 d 5 c 15 c 25 a 35 c 6 c 16 b 26 d 36 a 7 a 17 a 27 c 37 d 8 b 18 d 28 b 38 c 9 b 19 c 29 b 10 a 20 a 30 d


Gear, Wheels & Brakes Feedback 1. An undercarriage leg is locked when

(a) amber light is on (b) it is down (c) mechanically locked by an over-centre mechanism (d) actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel

2. An under inflated tyre on a dry runway

(a) increases wear on the crown (b) increases wear on the shoulder (c) decreases viscous aquaplaning speed (d) will cause the tyre temperature to reduce

3. What is the purpose of the torque links in a landing gear leg?

(a) to prevent the wheel rotating around the leg (b) to prevent shimmy (c) to transfer the brake torque to the main casting (d) to position the wheels in the correct altitude prior to landing

4. Auto brakes are disengaged

(a) when the speed falls below 20 kts (b) on landing roll when the autopilot is disengaged (c) by the pilot (d) automatically when reverse thrust is cancelled

5. A new tyre with wear on the tread and parallel grooves

(a) can be repaired once only (b) can be repaired several times (c) can never be repaired (d) is fit for use only on a nosewheel

6. What brakes are used on modern transport aircraft ?

(a) single disc brakes (b) drum brakes (c) multi disc brakes

7. When does the torsion link in the landing gear suffer the most strain?

(a) landing (b) cross-wind landing (c) take-off (d) taxying


8. Wheel shimmy:

(i) is sinusoidal movement of the nosewheel (ii) is sinusoidal movement of the mainwheel (iii) is the nosewheel not responding to pilot’s steering inputs (iv) can be prevented by a torque link (v) can be prevented by hydraulic damping

(a) (i) & (v) (b) (ii) & (v) (c) (i) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) (iii) & (v)

9. A tubeless tyre has:

(i) cross ply construction (ii) radial ply construction (iii) a built in inner tube (iv) no inner tube

(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (ii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iv) (d) (ii) & (iii)

10. In the diagram below the landing gear arrangements are:

2 41 3

(a) fork half fork cantilever bogie (b) cantilever fork half fork dual wheel (c) strut tailwheel half strut dual wheel (d) half strut strut cantilever bogie

11. An anti-skid system will:

(a) reduce brake pressure to slower turning wheels (b) reduce brake pressure to faster turning wheels (c) increase brake pressure to faster turning wheels (d) increase brake pressure to slower turning wheels


12. The pressure for the braking system of a modern aircraft originates from:

(a) bottled gas (b) engine bleeds (c) an accumulator (d) the main hydraulic system

13. Green lights indicate the landing gear is:

(a) locked down (b) locked down and door locked (c) unlocked but the doors are open (d) up

14. In case of failure of the main lowering system the landing gear may be

lowered by:

(a) Electrical power (b) Pneumatic power (c) Hydraulic power (d) Mechanical power

15. What are the two main types of landing gear used on modern aircraft?

(a) Telescopic and articulated (b) Sprung leg and lever suspension (c) Telescopic and sprung leg (d) Liquid spring and articulated

16. In some aircraft there is protection device to avoid gear retraction on

ground. It consists of:

(a) an aural warning horn (b) a warning light activated by weight on the wheels (c) a bolt (d) a latch on the landing gear lever

17. In commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is

usually

(a) electrical (b) hydraulic (c) mechanical (d) pneumatic

18. Thermal plugs are found:

(a) in door frames (b) in the sealing of windows (c) within the landing gear leg (d) on wheel rims


19. A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when:

(a) it is in the down position (b) the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism (c) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber (d) the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel

20. On an aircraft landing gear, an under inflated tyre:

(a) will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed (b) will be more subject to viscocity aquaplaning on a dry runway (c) will wear at the shoulders (d) will suffer rapid tread wear

21. In landing gear, movement is damped by:

(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Springs (d) Nitrogen & liquid

22. Shimmy is:

(a) Felt when lowering the landing gear in the air (b) Movement of wheel when gear extended (c) Oscillation of wheels prior to landing (d) Sinusoidal and possibly damaging movement of the nose wheel on

the ground 23. Tubeless tyres:

(i) can only be used with detachable tyres (ii) have a valve that will not be ripped if the tyre creeps (iii) have an inner tube and an outer tyre (iv) will not burst

(a) (i) & (iv) (b) (i) (ii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (ii) (d) (iii) & (iv)

1 c 11 a 21 d 2 b 12 d 22 d 3 a 13 b 23 c 4 c 14 b 5 b 15 c 6 c 16 d 7 b 17 b 8 a 18 d 9 b 19 b 10 b 20 c


Fuel Systems Feedback 1. In a twin jet fuel system what is the function of a feeder box?

(a) to equally distribute the fuel to each tank during refuelling (b) to prevent pump cavitation (c) to control the amount of fuel remaining during fuel dumping (d) to feed fuel to the volumetric top-off unit

2. Fuel tank booster pumps are:

(a) low pressure spur gear pumps (b) high pressure spur gear pumps (c) high pressure centrifugal pumps (d) low pressure centrifugal pumps

3. In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system it will allow fuel to be

dumped

(a) down to the unusable fuel remaining (b) down to a predetermined safe value (c) to leave 15 gallons in each tank (d) down to the maximum landing weight

4. What does ‘octane rating’ when applied to AVGAS refer to

(a) the anti-knock value of the fuel (b) the volatility of the fuel (c) the power the fuel produces per unit volume (d) the specific gravity of the fuel

5. How are modern passenger aircraft fuel tanks pressurised?

(a) by bleed air from the pneumatic system (b) by separate reservoirs of inert gas (c) by ram air through the vent system (d) by a volumetric top off unit

6. When does the High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?

(a) after a booster pump failure (b) when the engine fuel switch is selected ‘off’ during engine shut-

down (c) when the engine fuel switch is selected ‘on’ during engine shut-

down (d) when flight idle is selected


7. When does the Low Pressure fuel shut off valve close?

(a) when the engine fuel switch is selected ‘on’ during engine start (b) when flight idle is selected (c) after a booster pump failure (d) when the fire handle is pulled

8. What voltage is supplied to booster pumps on a modern jet airliner?

(a) 200v AC (b) 115v AC (c) 28v DC (d) 12v DC

9. A volumetric top off valve works with

(a) pressure sensors (b) flow rate sensors (c) float switches (d) capacitive sensing systems

10. With reference to the fuel system diagram at Annex A, if the centre tank

is empty and there is more fuel in the left hand tank than the right is it possible to balance the fuel in the wing tanks in flight?

(a) yes, if the crossfeed cock is open (b) yes, if the manual defuelling valve is opened (c) yes, if the crossfeed cock is left open and the LP pumps are turned

off in the right hand tank (d) no

11. What pressure would you find at the booster pump under normal

conditions?

(a) 5-10psi (b) 20-50psi (c) 100-200psi (d) 3000-4000psi

12. Which method is used for refuelling transport aircraft?

(a) Suction pump (b) Over wing (c) Pressure (d) Fuel cap

13. On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are

(a) located on the engines (b) installed in each tank (c) not necessary at all (d) installed only in the centre tank


14. The advantages of a float type gauging system are

(i) simplicity (ii) it compensates for variations of specific gravity (iii) it reads fuel quantity by mass (iv) it compensates for changes of aircraft attitude

(a) (i) only (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) & (iii)

15. If a fuel tank having a capacitive contents gauging system is empty of

fuel but has a quantity of water in it

(a) The gauge will show the mass of fuel equal to the same volume as the water

(b) The gauge will show the volume of the water (c) The gauge will show the mass of the water (d) The gauge will show full

16. A fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heater device

upstream of the main fuel filters so as to:

(a) prevent fuel from freezing in the pipes at high altitudes (b) prepare the fuel for combustion by increasing its volatility (c) prevent the risk of ice formation from water in the fuel at low fuel

temperatures (d) Prevent the HP pump from icing up

17. The purpose of baffle check valves in fuel tanks is:

(a) to damp out the movement of the fuel in the tank. (b) to provide vertical strength in the tank (c) to prevent fuel movement to the wingtip (d) to ensure the fuel flows to the LP pumps

18. The fuel temperature at which, under standard conditions, the vapour

ignites in contact with flame and extinguishes immediately, is known as the:

(a) flash point (b) self ignition point (c) combustion point (d) fire point

19. Which fuel tanks are heated?

(a) wing tanks (b) fuselage tanks (c) all tanks (d) no tanks


20. When can fuel flow cross feed valves be used?

(i) in flight (ii) on the ground (iii) to supply an engine from any fuel tank (iv) to move fuel from tank to tank

(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (ii) & (iv) (c) (i) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) & (iv)

21. Fuel is pressurized to

(a) prevent cavitation (b) prevent vapour lock (c) keep a constant fuel flow in negative G (d) prevent fuel icing

22. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

(a) centrifugal low pressure type pumps (b) high pressure variable swash plate pumps (c) low pressure variable swash plate pumps (d) centrifugal high pressure pumps

23. The fuel cross-feed system enables:

(a) fuel to be supplied to the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tanks

(b) only the transfer of the fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.

(c) fuel to be supplied to any jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing

(d) fuel to be supplied to any jet engine from any fuel tank 24. Fuel dump systems are required on:

(a) transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take Off Mass (MTOM) is significantly higher than the Maximum Landing Mass (MLM)

(b) all transport category aircraft (c) transport category aircraft with a MTOM greater than 5,700kg (d) transport category aircraft with a MTOM greater than 15,000kg

25. The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by

measuring the:

(a) change in electrical resistance of the fuel (b) dielectric change between fuel and air (c) variations in the resistivity of the fuel (d) variations in density of the fuel


26. Fuel tanks accumulate moisture, the most practical way to limit this in

an aircraft flown daily is:

(a) to secure the drain plugs and filler caps (b) drain the tank at the end of each day (c) fill the tank at the end of each flight (d) drain the water prior to each flight

27. Low pressure fuel pumps are:

(a) engine driven (b) electrically driven centrifugal pumps (c) driven by the accessory gearbox (d) swash plate pumps with self governors

28. If a fuel sample is cloudy and clears slowly from the top it is an

indication of:

(a) cold soaked fuel (b) air in the fuel (c) wax in the fuel (d) water in the fuel

29. Which statement is true concerning the structure and possible

advantage of an integral fuel tank?

(a) it is a separate metal container that is relatively light weight (b) it is built internally using the aircraft structure, this saves weight

and space (c) it is constructed of rubber so it can be fitted into any free space

within the aircraft (d) it is a separate metal container that is relatively cheap to

manufacture. 30. Fuel tanks on large aircraft are located:

(a) only ever in the wings (b) in the wings and in the centre section (c) in the wings, the centre section and sometimes the fin (d) in the wings, the centre section and sometimes the fin or part of

the hold 31. What purpose do baffles serve?

(a) they reduce unwanted lateral movement of the fuel within the tank

(b) they guide the fuel towards the booster pumps (c) they give vertical strength to the fuel tank (d) they strengthen the tank laterally during refuelling


32. What is the main reason for a vent system?

(a) to allow for the thermal expansion of the fuel (b) it allows for the air to escape during refuelling (c) it allows air to replace the fuel during flight (d) both (b) and (c) are correct

33. What does the expression useable fuel mean?

(a) the remaining fuel in the bottom of the tank when the pump is no longer immersed in fuel

(b) the total fuel on board the aircraft at start up (c) the total fuel remaining at any stage of flight (d) the total amount of fuel that can be supplied

34. The most important precautions prior to refuelling from a bowser

include:

(i) the bowser, aircraft and hose must all be correctly bonded (ii) a fuelling zone is established where no naked flames are allowed (iii) the APU must not be running (iv) fire extinguishers should be readily available (v) all electrical aircraft power must be switched off

(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v) (b) (i) (ii) & (iv) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) (ii) (iv) & (v)

35. How much vent space is required in fuel tanks by JAR 23 & 25?

(a) around 10% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel

(b) around 5% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel

(c) 5% of the total tank space in each individual tank (d) 2% of the total tank space in each individual tank

36. How much fuel must remain after dumping?

(a) Sufficient for 45 minutes at range speed (b) Sufficient for 45 minutes at range speed having climbed to FL100 (c) Sufficient for 60 minutes at range speed (d) Sufficient for 15 minutes at range speed having climbed to FL100


ANNEX A

CONDITION:ENGINES OPERATINGWING TANKS FEEDING ENGINES


1 b 11 b 21 b 31 a 2 d 12 c 22 a 32 d 3 b 13 a 23 d 33 d 4 a 14 a 24 a 34 b 5 c 15 c 25 b 35 d 6 b 16 c 26 c 36 b 7 d 17 c 27 b 8 a 18 a 28 d 9 c 19 d 29 b 10 c 20 d 30 d


Flying Controls Feedback 1. If an artificial feel unit is fitted it would be connected

(a) in series with the primary control (b) in series with the secondary controls (c) in parallel with the secondary controls (d) in parallel with the primary controls

2. Kreuger flaps are positioned

(a) at the wing root (b) towards the wing tip (c) along the whole leading edge (d) trailing edge

3. What are flaperons?

(a) combined elevators and flaps (b) combined ailerons and elevators (c) combined aileron and flaps (d) combined rudder and ailerons

4. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?

(a) to reduce wing bending at high speed (b) to reduce wing twist at high speed (c) to reduce wing twist at low speed (d) to reduce wing bending at low speed

5. What is the purpose of trim tabs?

(a) to reduce stick forces in manoeuvres (b) to increase control effectiveness (c) to reduce control effectiveness (d) to reduce stick holding forces to zero

6. An artificial feel system is needed in the pitch channel if:

(a) elevators are controlled through a irreversible servo system (b) elevators are controlled through a reversible servo system (c) elevators is controlled through a servo tab (d) airplane has a variable incidence tailplane

7. A ‘Q’ Feel or artificial feel unit system:

(a) must be mounted in series with an irreversible servo control unit (b) must be mounted in parallel with an irreversible servo control

unit (c) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab (d) is necessary on a reversible servo unit


8. Why are there two trim switches on the control column?

(a) there are two motors (b) there is a fast trim for use at low level and a slow trim at altitude (c) both switches must be made for the trim to operate, this reduces

the likelihood of trim runaway (d) to prevent both pilots operating the trim at the same time

9. A Yaw Damper is:

(a) an elevator tab (b) a rudder damper to prevent Dutch roll (c) an aileron tab (d) an aileron damper to prevent Dutch roll

10. On an airplane, the Kreuger flaps are:

(a) Trailing edge flaps situated close to the wing root (b) Leading edge flaps situated close to the wing root (c) Trailing edge flaps situated close to the wing tip (d) Leading edge flaps situated close to the wing tip

11. Where are spoilers fitted?

(a) Asymmetrically on the wing lower surface (b) Symmetrically on the wing lower surface (c) Asymmetrically on the wing upper surface (d) Symmetrically on the wing upper surface

12. Which of the following will reduce adverse aileron yaw?

(i) Differential ailerons (ii) Frise ailerons (iii) Aileron upfloat (iv) Spoiler on up going wing (v) Aileron / rudder cross-coupling

(a) (i) (ii) & (v) (b) (i) (ii) (iv) & (v) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v) (d) (i) (iii) & (iv)

13. Why are flaps and slats fitted to modern aircraft?

(a) To increase lift without any drag penalty at low speed (b) To reduce take-off and approach speeds to an acceptable level (c) To reduce take-off, approach and landing speeds to an acceptable

level (d) To increase drag at low speed to assist with the landing


14. Why is artificial feel required and how is the degree of feel set?

(a) Fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and gives increased assistance as the speed increases

(b) Fitted to prevent overstressing of the aircraft and gives increased assistance as the speed increases

(c) Fitted to prevent overstressing of the aircraft and gives decreased assistance as the speed increases

(d) Fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and gives decreased assistance as the speed increases

15. In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large

output in a strictly proportionate manner is called:

(a) an amplifier (b) a servomechanism (c) an autopilot (d) feedback (control loop)

1 d 11 d 2 a 12 a 3 c 13 c 4 b 14 a 5 d 15 b 6 a 7 b 8 c 9 b 10 b


Fire Detection Feedback 1. The principle of operation of firewire is

(a) positive coefficient of resistance, negative coefficient of capacitance

(b) positive coefficient of inductance, negative coefficient of impedance

(c) positive coefficient of capacitance, negative coefficient of resistance

(d) positive coefficient of impedance, negative coefficient of inductance

2. What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a propane fire?

(a) water (b) dry powder (c) sand (d) foam

3. On what principle do smoke detectors work?

(a) optical and ionisation (b) ionisation and impedance (c) resistance and capacitance (d) inductance and light diffraction

4. An ion detector detects

(a) smoke and fire (b) overheat (c) smoke (d) light

5. The minimum number of fire extinguishers to be carried on the

passenger cabin of an aircraft having 31 - 60 seats is

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

6. The flight deck warning on activation of a fire detection system is

(a) an individual warning light and bell (b) a common warning light and a common bell (c) a warning light only (d) an individual warning light and common warning bell


7. When is an engine overheat firewire system activated?

(a) when a point overheat affects both detector loops (b) when a point overheat affects one detector loop (c) when an overheat is detected all along the length of one firewire

loop (d) when an overheat is detected all along the length of both firewire

loops 8. In which of the following areas would an overheat warning be provided?

(a) wheel/undercarriage bay (b) cabin (c) tyres (d) fuel tank

9. What would you use on a magnesium fire?

(a) Foam (b) BCF (c) Sand (d) Water

10. A continuous fire wire loop with an increase in temperature at the fire

wire experiences

(i) an increase in resistance (ii) a decrease in resistance (iii) an increase in current (iv) a decrease in current


11. How many fire extinguishers do you need in the cabin if you have

between 501-600 passengers?

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8

12. How many fire extinguishers are required in the passenger

compartment for 401-500 passengers?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7


13. If inflammable gaseous materials like propane, for example, are set on fire the following extinguisher agent(s) should be used:

(a) CO2 and water (b) BCF and CO2 (c) Dry powder and water (d) water

14. If the continuous element of a fire detection system is heated then

(a) the resistance increases and the leakage current increases (b) the resistance decreases and the leakage current increases (c) the resistance increases and the leakage current decreases (d) the resistance decreases and the leakage current decreases

15. How do you test a gaseous smoke detector?

(a) use pressurized gas to test the sensor (b) use the test button (c) use a Lindburgh Fire Detector (d) apply heat to the detector

16. If an aircraft has 10 seats how many fire extinguishers are required in

the passenger cabin?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

17. The best extinguishing product for a wheel fire is: (a) dry powder (b) CO2 (c) water (d) foam 18. How is a typical gas turbine engine fire detection system tested? (a) using a heat source (b) using a pressure source (c) it cannot be checked apart from a physical wiring check (d) there is a test circuit that carries out a continuity check 19. The fire extinguisher on the flight deck should be filled with: (a) water (b) carbon dioxide (c) halon (d) a special fluid


20. The fire extinguisher system for an engine is activated: (a) immediately that a fire is sensed and is automatic (b) is automatic but is delayed to allow pilot to take out appropriate actions (c) by the pilot as required (d) once the engine has been shut down 21. A fire zone is an area designated by the manufacture to be possibly at risk, these include: (i) the cockpit (ii) the cabin (iii) the freight hold (iv) electrical bays (v) engine compartments (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v) (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) & (v) (c) (iii) (iv) & (v) (d) (iv) & (v) 22. Fire wire detects a fire by: (a) detecting the smoke that is produced by the fire (b) detecting the heat caused by the fire (c) detecting the flame produced by the fire (d) all of the above 23. The meaning of the phrase ‘a double shot fire extinguisher’ is: (a) each of two engines has its own independent fire extinguisher (b) there is a single fire extinguisher that can be fired in two

directions (c) each engine has two fire extinguishers (d) each engine has a fire extinguisher, and if a second shot is

required the bottle of the adjacent engine may be used 24. A diagram of a fire protection system on a twin engine turbine aircraft

is shown at Annex A. If the number one fire handle is pulled and twisted to the right

(a) the left fire extinguisher will be discharged into the left engine (b) the left fire extinguisher will be discharged into the right engine (c) the right fire extinguisher will be discharged into the left engine (d) the right fire extinguisher will be discharged into the right engine


ANNEX A

1 c 11 c 21 a 2 d 12 c 22 b 3 a 13 b 23 d 4 c 14 a 24 c 5 a 15 b 6 d 16 a 7 a 17 a 8 a 18 d 9 c 19 c 10 c 20 d


Electrics & Radio Feedback Last amended 8/02/02

1. Because of its function an AND gate is also referred to as a

(a) all or nothing gate (b) any or nothing gate (c) invert or not gate (d) either or gate

2. When a fuse operates it is...........and when a circuit breaker is operated

it is..................

(a) low current, high current (b) high current, low current (c) resettable, non resettable (d) non resettable, resettable

3. What are the advantages of NICAD batteries?

(a) more compact (b) longer life (c) even voltage before rapid discharge (d) higher voltage than lead acid type

4. An EPROM

(i) is a read only memory (ii) is a write to memory (iii) losses all information stored in it, on power off (iv) retains all information stored in it, on power off


5. What frequency is commonly used in aircraft electrical systems?

(a) 400Hz (b) 200Hz (c) 100Hz (d) 50Hz

6. In computer technology an input peripheral device would be

(a) a hard disk (b) a floppy disk (c) a keyboard (d) a screen display unit


7. A fuse is rated by:

(a) its resistance in ohms (b) the current amperage it will carry (c) the voltage it will carry (d) the wattage it will pass

8. The stators of a 3-phase alternator are separated by:

(a) 60 degrees (b) 90 degrees (c) 120 degrees (d) 180 degrees

9. You can use circuit breakers in.

(a) AC circuits only (b) DC circuits only (c) AC or DC circuits (d) Re-settable systems

10. If a CSD overheat warning is shown

(a) the CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight (b) the pilot must throttle back (c) the CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the

temperature has reduced (d) the CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the

alternator himself 11. Which of the following is an output peripheral?

(a) Disc drive (b) Keyboard (c) Screen (d) Hard drive

12. Electrical protection for current using:

(i) under voltage (ii) over voltage (iii) under current (iv) over frequency (v) excessive vibration

is used on the following:

(a) Battery only (b) AC Generators (c) Alternator & battery (d) AC & DC Generators


13. If the load increases on a constant speed generator what does the voltage regulator do?

(a) increases field excitation (b) decreases field excitation (c) remains the same

14. If the fire handle is pulled in an aeroplane with an AC generator system

what disconnects?

(a) generator control relay and GCB (b) GCB (c) BTB (d) generator control relay

15. How many pole pairs does a generator have that produces 400Hz at

6000rpm ?

(a) 12 (b) 25 (c) 40 (d) 4

16. If a 12 volt secondary cell battery has 6 cells and one cell is dead -

(a) you cannot use it (b) 1/12 of a reduction in voltage but can still be used (c) 1/12 of a reduction in voltage, capacity also reduced but can still

be used (d) 1/12 of a reduction in capacity, voltage also reduced but can still

be used 17. With an almost discharged battery there will be:

(a) an increase of current with decrease of voltage (b) a decrease of current with increasing load (c) a decrease of voltage with increase load (d) an increase of voltage with increasing load

18. How can you tell when bonding is incorrect?

(a) corrosion at skin joints (b) CB trips (c) static on the radio (d) VOR interference

19. How long does emergency lighting last for?

(a) 90 seconds (b) 5 minutes (c) 10 minutes (d) 30 minutes


20. The advantage of a Unipole system is

(i) lighter (ii) easier fault finding (iii) more likely to short circuit (iv) less likely to short circuit (v) it is not a single wire system

(a) (i) (ii) & (iii) (b) (i) (ii) & (vi) (c) (ii) (iv) & (v) (d) (i) (iv) & (v)

21. The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon

(a) poles only (b) poles and RPM (c) RPM only (d) load

22. In an aircraft which uses DC as the primary source of power, AC for the

instruments may be obtained from:

(a) a rectifer (b) the AC busbar (c) a TRU (d) an inverter

23. Persistent over exciting of one AC generator field will cause:

(a) the GCB and exciter control relay to trip (b) the BTB and exciter control relay to trip (c) the GCB and BTB to trip (d) the GCB and SSB to trip

24. When a battery is nearly discharged, the

(a) voltage decreases (b) voltage and current decrease (c) current increases because voltage has dropped (d) electrolyte will boil

25. What is the wavelength of a VOR?

(a) Metric (b) Decimetric (c) Heximetric (d) Centimetric


26. What frequency does MLS use?

(a) Decimetric (b) hectometric (c) myriametric (d) centimetric

27. What is the wavelength that corresponds to the frequency 121.95 MHz?

(a) 246 m (b) 2.46 cm (c) 2.46 m (d) 24.6 m

28. Skip distance is longest by (i)………. and with a (ii)………. frequency

(a) day low (b) day high (c) night low (d) night high

29. FADING happens when?

(a) in daytime when groundwaves and skywaves interfere with each other

(b) at night when the signal is received by groundwaves only (c) in daytime when the signal is received by skywaves only (d) at night when groundwaves and skywaves interfere with each

other 30. The skip zone of an HF transmission will increase with:

(a) An increase in frequency and an increase in height of the reflective (refractive) layer.

(b) An increase in frequency and a decrease in height of the reflective (refractive) layer.

(c) A decrease in frequency and an increase in height of the reflective (refractive) layer.

(d) A decrease in frequency and a decrease in height of the reflective (refractive) layer.

31. What is the voltage level of a fully charged lead-acid battery (cell)?

(a) 1.8V (b) 1.4V (c) 2.2V (d) 1.2V

32. A magnetic circuit breaker:

(a) is a quick tripping response protective system (b) permits overvoltage for a short period of time (c) has a slow response time (d) can be reset repeatedly without danger


33. How are the loads on an aircraft busbar connected?

(a) in parallel so that current reduces through the busbar as loads are switched off

(b) in parallel so that voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are switched off

(c) in series so that current reduces through the busbar as loads are switched off

(d) in series so that voltage reduces through the busbar as loads are switched off

34. A relay is

(a) a fuse (b) an actuator (c) an electrical switch (d) a connector

35. Hot/direct busbars are:

(a) heated directly by bleed air (b) directly connected to the battery (c) directly connected to the DC generator (d) directly connected to the AC generator

36. The purpose of static discharge wicks is to:

(a) reduce the likelihood of lightning strikes (b) reduce radio interference (c) discharge static from the skin after landing (d) safely dissipate the static charge of the aircraft in flight

37. A static inverter is:

(a) a transistorised unit that converts AC to DC (b) a transistorised unit that converts DC into AC (c) a fixed unit that changes DC voltages (d) a fixed unit that changes AC voltages

38. If AC generators are connected in parallel the reactive loads are

balanced by adjusting:

(a) frequency (b) torque of the CSD (c) energising current (d) voltage

39. The output power of a constant frequency AC system is expressed in

terms of:

(a) Volt and ampere (b) Ampere and kilowatt (c) kVA and kVAR (d) volt and kilowatt


40. The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:

(a) parallel with the shunt field coil (b) parallel with the armature (c) series with the armature (d) series with the shunt field coil

41. The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in

(a) series with the armature and parallel with the shunt field (b) parallel with the armature and parallel with the shunt field (c) series with the armature and series with the shunt field (d) parallel with the armature and series with the shunt field

42. The output of a generator is controlled by:

(a) reverse current circuit breaker (b) varying the field strength (c) speed of the engine (d) varying length of wire in armature winding

43. If the load on a DC generator is reduced the voltage regulator

will...........the current in the exciter field?

(a) decrease (b) increase (c) do nothing

44. What are the conditions necessary in order to parallel DC generators?

(a) voltage must be the same (b) voltage must be nearly the same (c) voltage and frequency must be the same (d) output frequency must be nearly the same

45. When load sharing AC generators, real and reactive loads are adjusted

by controlling

(a) Frequency only (b) Voltage only (c) Frequency and voltage (d) CSD speed

46. What happens to the current in a series capacitive circuit when

frequency increases?

(a) it increases (b) it decreases (c) it neither increases nor decreases (d) it either increases or decreases


47. Into what range does the ILS wavelength fall?

(a) Decimetric (b) Metric (c) Nanometric (d) Millimetric

48. If the strength of a radio signal decreases away from the transmitter,

this effect is called

(a) attenuation (b) ducting (c) refraction (d) fading

49. The purpose of bonding is

(a) to protect against lightening (b) prevent static (c) keep all parts of the aircraft at the same potential (d) keep the aircraft at zero potential

50. Consider the piston engine ignition system at Annex A. The normal

sequence of events when starting No 2 engine would be:

(a) move the start selector switch to position 2, close the master switch, engine starts, warning lamp goes out, release start selector switch

(b) close the master switch, move the start selector switch to position 2, engine starts, warning lamp goes out, release start selector switch

(c) close the master switch, move the start selector switch to position 2, engine starts, release start selector switch, warning lamp goes out.

(d) close the master switch, move the start selector switch to position 2, warning lamp goes out, engine starts, release start selector switch

51. The Auxiliary Power System in a modern twin jet will provide power

supply to

(i) N1 RPM indications (ii) N2 RPM indications (iii) EGT indications (iv) Fuel Flow indications (v) Starter valves (vi) Vibration indicators (vii) Igniters

(a) all except (i) (b) all except (vi) (c) all except (iii) (d) the complete list


A highly dodgy question. I have no real idea what is meant by the auxiliary power system except that it might mean loss of all generators. There is no relevant JAR 25 or JAR OPS requirement but the options above are part of a list from the B737 tech manual recognised by one of the students who sat the exam. 52. The device illustrated at Annex B would

(a) give an output only when the input is 1 (b) give an output only when the input is 0 (c) invert the input to opposite logic (d) change AC to DC

53. The wavelength used by a radio altimeter is

(a) metric (b) decimetric (c) centimetric (d) millimetric

54. Refer to the diagram at Annex C. This represents the inputs from four

cargo bay smoke detectors through a logic circuit to one output that triggers the alarm. Which inputs will set off an alarm?

(a) 1 & 4 (b) 1 & 3 (c) 1 & 2 (d) Any input


(e) ANNEX A

W

No1Starter

No 2Starter

No 2StarterRelay

No 1StarterRelay

StartSelector

Switch

Main Relay

Master Switch

MainBusbar

AccessoriesBusbar

W

1 2

ANNEX B


ANNEX C

1 2 3 4 1 a 11 c 21 b 31 c 41 d 51 b 2 d 12 b 22 d 32 a 42 b 52 c 3 c 13 a 23 a 33 a 43 a 53 c 4 b 14 a 24 b 34 c 44 b 54 a 5 a 15 d 25 a 35 b 45 c 6 c 16 a 26 d 36 d 46 a 7 b 17 c 27 c 37 b 47 b 8 c 18 a 28 d 38 d 48 a 9 c 19 c 29 d 39 c 49 c 10 a 20 a 30 a 40 d 50 c


Anti-Icing Systems Feedback 1. In a bleed air anti icing system the areas that are heated are

(a) the leading edge slats and flaps (b) the whole surface of the aircraft (c) the trailing edge flaps (d) the leading edges of the wings and empennage

2. On a modern turbo prop aircraft the method of anti-icing/de-icing the

wings is?

(a) fluid (b) electrical heater mats (c) pneumatic boots (d) hot air bled from the engines

3. What is used on modern airliners for anti-icing?

(a) hot air (b) electrical (c) fluid (d) boots

4. On large transport aircraft how is rain protection provided?

(a) de mist (b) anti icing / de icing (c) Water repellent, only applied when wet (d) Windscreen wipers, effective even with heavy rain.

5. What do you do if you encounter rain along your route of flight?

(a) Anti-ice helps (b) Wipers are sufficient even in heavy rain (c) Alcohol in the anti-ice fluid helps (d) Use rain repellent with the wipers in heavy rain

6. When is windscreen heating activated?

(a) At low altitude and moderate icing (b) High altitude (c) When the de-fogger isn't keeping up (d) All the time to increase integrity of the windscreen for bird strikes

7. Anti-icing in a modern jet airliner is:

(a) Electric (b) Mechanical (c) Hot air (d) Liquid


8. Electric heating as ice protection is used on:

(a) wings (b) HF radio aerials (c) pitot tubes (d) landing gear micro-switches

9. Pneumatic boot de icing on wing leading edge

(a) has a cycle that lasts longer than 10 seconds (b) has 10 cycles a second (c) prevents ice build up (d) should be permanently selected on

10. On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:

(a) electric heating (b) anti-icing fluid (c) a rain repellent system (d) a vinyl coating

1 d 2 c 3 a 4 c 5 d 6 d 7 c 8 c 9 a 10 a


Airframes Feedback 1. The properties of Duralumin are

(i) aluminium/copper base (ii) aluminium/magnesium base (iii) hard to weld (iv) easy to weld (v) good thermal conductivity (vi) poor resistance to air corrosion

(a) (i) (iii) (v) (b) (ii) (iii) (v) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (d) (iv) (v) (vi)

2. In the context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe component

is:

(a) a component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that following a failure it is in the safe condition.

(b) a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is detected.

(c) a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is assessed as remote

(d) a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft

3. A door is opened from the outside,

(a) the slide raft will deploy but not inflate (b) the slide raft will automatically deploy (c) the aircraft will de-pressurise (d) the slide raft will automatically be disarmed

4. Which part of a wing, other than stressed skin construction, takes

upward loads?

(a) ribs (b) skin (c) spars (d) webs


5. When is an exit unserviceable?

(i) unable to open the door from the outside (ii) unable to open the door from the inside (iii) no emergency exit light (iv) no instructions to open door (v) no inflatable slide (vi) no flight deck indication (vii) no stay open door latch

(a) all except (i) (b) all except (iv) (c) all except (vii) (d) the entire list

6. Maximum zero fuel weight

(i) is a limit set by regulation (ii) is designed for maximum load factor (iii) is due to the maximum bending moments at the wing root (iv) requires the external tanks to be emptied first (v) requires the internal tanks to be empty first

(a) (ii) & (v) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (i) (iii) & (iv) (d) (i) (ii) & (iii)

7. With reference to stringers they: (a) integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress (b) provide sound and thermal insulation (c) perform no structural role (d) withstand the shear stresses 8. Evacuation slides are inflated by: (a) the aircraft pneumatic system (b) aircraft air conditioning air (c) a pressurised gas bottle attached to the slide (d) a manual inflation pump 9. The purpose of mass and balance calculation is: (a) to bring the C of G of the control surface forward to assist in controllability of the surface. (b) to bring the C of G of the control surface forward to prevent aerodynamic flutter (c) to even out the air loads on the control surface to assist in controllability of the surface (d) to even out the air loads on the control surface to prevent aerodynamic flutter 10. If an emergency evacuation slide fails to inflate


(a) the slide can be inflated with an oral inflation tube (b) the slide can be inflated by pulling a manual inflation handle (c) the slide can not be used (d) the slide can be inflated using a foot pump

11. How can in flight wing loading be reduced? (a) aileron down float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible

(b) having inboard mounted engines and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible

(c) having inboard mounted engines and reducing the fuel at the wing tips as soon as possible (d) aileron up float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible 12. MZFW is: (a) The recommended maximum weight of the aircraft without useable fuel (b) The total maximum permissible weight of the aircraft without useable fuel (c) The actual maximum weight of the aircraft without useable fuel (d) The minimum allowable weight of the aircraft without useable

fuel 13. Define the term "fatigue" (a) a one off loading that breaks the material (b) a loading on the material but it returns fully to its former state when the load is removed (c) if a material is continually loaded and unloaded it will eventually break even though the load remains the same (d) the material suffers progressively more permanent damage each time that it is loaded and unloaded 14. Which of the following statements concerning the stresses “torsion” and

“tension” is correct? (a) tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart (b) torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart (c) torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force pulling it apart (d) torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force


15. Long haul aircraft are not used as short haul aircraft because

(a) structures are given fatigue lives based on their use (b) it would use too much fuel (c) some tanks will be empty the whole time imposing too much

strain on the aircraft (d) checklists would be too time consuming

I can’t answer this. In my view the real reason is that passenger loads are rarely high enough to make it economical. In some cases where the load factors are high enough, the Haj season, the skiing season and some intercity routes like London to Paris, long haul aircraft are used on short haul routes. It is true that pressurisation cycles are recorded and this would increase the inspection rate on the hull but it is not lifed, as such. Best guess (a) 16. A rescue flare is used

(a) by day only (b) by night only (c) to provide smoke in the day and a flare at night (d) to provide a flare in the day and smoke at night

1 a 11 d 2 b 12 b 3 d 13 c 4 c 14 b 5 c 15 ? 6 b 16 c 7 a 8 c 9 c 10 b


Engines Feedback 1. High exhaust gas temperature on a piston engine is theoretically

associated with:

(a) mass ratio of 1:15 (b) cruise mixture setting (c) a weak mixture (d) a rich mixture

2. What types of combustion chambers are depicted below?

(a) tubo-annular cannannular annular (b) multi chamber tubo-annular cannannular (c) can-annular annular concentric (d) multi-chamber tubo-annular annular

3. In gas turbine engines maximum gas temperature is attained:

(a) within the combustion chamber (b) at entry of the exhaust unit (c) in cooling airflow around the turbine (d) across the turbine

4. When TAS increases the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller

(a) increases (b) reduces (c) stays constant (d) first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.

5. The conditions for highest engine power are:

(i) low temperature (ii) low humidity (iii) high air pressure (iv) high temperature (v) high humidity (vi) low air pressure

(a) (i) (ii) & (vi) (b) (i) (v) & (iii) (c) (iii) (iv) & (v) (d) (i) (ii) & (iii)


6. For a turbine engine the term ‘self sustaining speed’ is the speed at which:

(a) the lowest acceptable rpm in flight occurs (b) the engine will continue to run when the starter is disengaged (c) the IAS below which flameout will occur (d) the highest rpm acceptable, above which the rpm will increase

uncontrollably 7. A torque meter is situated

(a) between the engine and propeller (b) on the auxiliary gearbox (c) between the turbine and the gearbox (d) in the spinner housing

8. The primary purpose of a supercharger on a piston engine is to:

(a) boost power at sea level (b) maintain power at altitude (c) reduce fuel flow at altitude (d) maintain thermal efficiency

9. A reverse thrust door warning light on flight deck instrment panel

illuminates when:

(a) the reverser doors are unlocked (b) the thrust levers are lifted beyond ground idle (c) the reverse thrust mechanism is not operating correctly (d) asymmetric reverse thrust has been selected

10. The fan in high by-pass ratio turbo jet engines produces

(a) about half the thrust (b) about a third of the thrust (c) only a minimal amount of thrust (d) the greater part of thrust

11. To adjust mixture ratio of piston engine when altitude increases means

to:

(a) increase fuel flow to compensate for decreasing air density (b) decrease fuel flow in order to compensate for decreasing air

density (c) increase fuel flow to compensate for increasing air density (d) decrease fuel flow to compensate for increasing air density


12. A gas turbine engine power change is achieved by:

(a) adjusting the amount of fuel supplied and the amount of air entering the compressor

(b) adjusting the amount of fuel supplied (c) adjusting the amount of air supplied (d) adjusting the amount of fuel supplied and the amount of air

entering the turbine 13. High-pressure bleed valves

(a) reduce the engine pressure ratio (b) increase the EGT (c) have no effect on thrust (d) increase the fuel flow

14. If the cylinder head temp increases and EGT increases this indicates:

(a) the mixture is too rich (b) the mixture is too lean (c) the external barometric pressure has increased (d) the external barometric pressure has decreased

15. What is a rich mixture?

(a) 20 to 1 (b) 15 to 1 (c) 9 to 1 (d) 30 to 1

16. In a centrifugal compressor

(a) The air enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery tangentially

(b) The air enters the periphery axially and leaves the eye tangentially (c) The air enters the eye and leaves at the tip tangentially (d) The air enters the eye tangentially and leaves at the periphery

axially 17. What happens to pressure, temperature and velocity of the air in the

diffuser of a centrifugal compressor?

(a) velocity increases, pressure and temperature decrease (b) velocity pressure and temperature increase (c) velocity decreases, pressure and temperature increase (d) velocity pressure and temperature decrease

18. The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by multiplying

(a) force times distance (b) work times velocity (c) pressure times arm (d) torque times RPM


19. An EPR gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:

(a) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure (b) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure (c) turbine inlet pressure to compressor outlet pressure (d) compressor inlet pressure to turbine outlet pressure

20. A fan stage of a ducted fan turbine engine is driven by:

(a) the high pressure turbine (b) the airflow across it by the high pressure compressor (c) the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing (d) the low pressure turbine

21. The propeller blade is twisted to:

(a) keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade (b) avoid appearance of sonic phenomena (c) allow higher mechanical stress (d) decrease blade tangential speed from blade root till tip

22. EGT on a piston engine is used

(a) to indicate cylinder head temperature (b) to control the boost (c) to indicate the equivalent thrust (d) to assist the pilot to monitor the fuel mixture

23. On a single spool axial flow gas turbine engine the compressor rotates

(a) at the same speed as the turbine (b) slower than the turbine (c) faster than the turbine (d) independent of the turbine

24. A squirrel cage tacho generator system uses

(a) single phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine converted to a square wave pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument

(b) three phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered to a three phase synchronous motor and drag cup

(c) a squirrel cage generator which drives an AC motor at the instrument. The AC motor drives a rotating magnet in a drag cup.

(d) a tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed and sending information to a squirrel cage motor and drag cup

25. In a 4 stroke engine when does ignition occur?

(a) after TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft (b) before TDC every 2nd rotation of the crankshaft (c) before TDC every rotation of the crankshaft (d) after TDC every rotation of the crankshaft


26. Which part of a gas turbine engine limits the temperature?

(a) turbine (b) combustion chamber (c) compressor (d) exhaust

27. In a ‘free turbine’

(a) There is no mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the turbine

(b) There is a mechanical connection between the compressor and the propeller shaft

(c) There is a mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the turbine

(d) Air enters via compressor inlet and the turbine 28. In a fan jet engine the bypass ratio is

(a) internal mass airflow divided by external mass airflow (b) external mass airflow divided by internal mass airflow (c) internal mass airflow divided by mass airflow (d) mass fuel flow divided by mass fuel flow

29. Thrust reverser door light illuminates on the flight deck panel when

(a) thrust reverser doors have been selected but the doors have not moved

(b) thrust reverser doors are locked (c) thrust reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position (d) thrust reverser doors are unlocked

30. In very cold weather the pilot notices slightly higher than normal oil

pressure on start up. This:

(a) is abnormal, engine must be shut down immediately (b) indicates an oil change is required (c) is normal providing it decreases after start up (d) abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down

31. Where is torque measured in a turboprop engine?

(a) reduction gearbox (b) accessory gearbox (c) at the constant speed unit (d) at the turbine

32. A normally aspirated aircraft climbing at constant throttle setting

(a) the RPM will increase (b) the MAP will increase (c) the RPM will decrease (d) the MAP will decrease


33. What happens to air pressure as it passes over the turbine blades known as impulse/reaction blades (i) and to the velocity of the air as it passes over the nozzle guide vanes (ii)?

(i) (ii)

(a) increase decrease (b) decrease increase (c) stays the same increase (d) decrease stays the same

34. The propeller blade is twisted to:

(a) keep the local angle of attack constant along the blade (b) allow higher mechanical stress (c) avoid appearance of sonic phenomena (d) decrease blade tangential speed from blade root to tip

35. What is a crank assembly?

(a) crankcase, crankshaft, pistons and connection rods (b) crankshaft, pistons and connection rods (c) propeller, crankshaft, and connection rods (d) crankshaft, camshaft, valve springs

36. The first stage of an axial compressor

(a) has a compression ratio of about 2:1 (b) comprises a row of stators and a rotor disc (c) has a compression ration of about 0:8 (d) comprises a rotor disc followed by a row of stators

37. How does a feathering pump work when used in conjunction with

double acting propeller control units?

(a) it operates from engine oil pressure (b) it is an electrical device and can work when the engine has

stopped (c) it is a mechanical device driven by the engine (d) it is a mechanical device driven by the windmilling propeller

38. The oil pressure gauge measures oil pressure

(a) before the pressure pump (b) after the pressure pump (c) differential across the pressure pump (d) in the tank

39. The carb heat is selected on, this results in?

(a) a reduction in RPM as a result of leaner mixture (b) no change in mixture (c) mixture is now leaner but RPM is unchanged (d) a reduction in RPM as the mixture is now richer


40. The ignition is turned to the OFF position and the engine continues to run. The most likely explanation is

(a) the ignition circuit wire is broken (b) the ignition circuit wire is touching the airframe (c) the magneto has malfunctioned (d) the spark plugs are fouled and the engine is dieseling

41. When controlling mixture do you control?

(a) fuel flow (b) the amount of air entering the engine (c) an increase in Oxygen supplied (d) a decrease in the Oxygen supplied

42. What are secondary air holes used for in a gas turbine combustion

chamber?

(a) to increase power at low altitudes (b) to increase mass flow at high Mach number cruise speed (c) to increase engine cooling (d) to increase the mixture strength

43. What is the purpose of a condenser fitted to a magneto?

(a) it provides the high voltage spark (b) it prevents arcing and provides a sink for the collapsing primary

current (c) it ensures the spark discharge rate is correct (d) it regulates the firing sequence

44. What does a diffuser in a gas turbine do?

(a) it converts kinetic energy into static pressure (b) it converts static pressure to kinetic energy (c) it introduces fuel into the combustion chamber (d) it ensures laminar exhaust flow

45. Which of the following combinations correctly shows the systems

controlled on a turboprop aircraft?

Prop lever RPM lever

(a) TGT RPM (b) RPM TGT (c) torque TGT (d) RPM blade angle


1 c 11 b 21 a 31 a 41 a 2 d 12 b 22 d 32 d 42 c 3 a 13 a 23 a 33 b 43 b 4 b 14 b 24 b 34 a 44 a 5 d 15 c 25 b 35 b 45 c 6 b 16 a 26 a 36 d 7 a 17 c 27 c 37 b 8 b 18 d 28 b 38 b 9 a 19 b 29 d 39 d 10 d 20 d 30 c 40 a


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