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KAB Model EAMCET-2016Agriculture and Medical

Hall Ticket Number

(To be filled in by the candidate)

Booklet Code: A ______________Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES(Read the instructions carefully before Answering)

1. Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Answer Sheet is supplied to you along with Question Paper Booklet. Please read and follow the instructions on the OMR Sheet for marking the responses and also the required data.

2. Candidates should write the Hall Ticket Number only in the space provided on this page and the OMR sheet. Do not write the Hall Ticket Number anywhere else.

3. Immediately on opening the Question Paper Booklet by tearing off the paper seal please check for (i) The same booklet code (A/B/C/D) on each page, (ii) Serial number of the questions (1–160), (iii) The number of pages, and (iv) Correct Printing. In case of any defect, please report to the invigilator and ask for replacement with the same booklet code within five minutes from the commencement of the test.

4. Electronic gadgets like Cell Phone, Pager, Calculator, Electronic watches and Mathematical / LogTables are not permitted into the examination hall.

5. Darken the appropriate circles of 1, 2, 3 or 4 in the OMR sheet corresponding to correct or the most appropriate answer to the concerned question number in the sheet. Darkening of more than one circle against any question automatically gets invalidated.

6. Rough work should be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Question Paper Booklet.7. Once the candidate enters the Examination Hall, he/she shall not be permitted to leave the Hall

till the end of the Examination.8. Ensure that the Invigilator puts his/her signature in the space provided on Question Paper Booklet

and the OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet and filled – in application form.

9. The candidate should write the Question Paper Booklet number, OMR Answer Sheet number, sign in the space provided in the Nominal Rolls and affix the left hand thumb impression in the nominal rolls and filled – in application form.

10. Return the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the examination hall. Failure to return the OMR is liable for criminal action. The Question Paper Booklet shall be taken away by the candidate and should be preserved till the declaration of results.

11. Filled – in application form shall be submitted to the invigilator in the examination hall, In case of SC/ST candidates who have not furnished the caste application number in online application form, attested copy of Caste Certificate should also be enclosed along with filled – in application form.

This booklet consists of 87 Pages for 160 questions +4 Pages of RoughWork + 1 Title page i.e Total 92 pages

M 2016 A

Q

ABooklet No. 24345

Serial No:

KAB Model EAMCET 2016

Rough Work

M 2016 A 2 Q

A

Time: 3 Hours Marks: 160

Instructions:

(i) Each question carries one mark.

(ii) Choose the correct or most appropriate answer from the given options to the following

questions and darken, with blue/black ball point pen the corresponding digit 1, 2, 3 or 4 in the

circle pertaining to the question number concerned in the OMR Answer Sheet, separately

supplied to you

OMR

BOTANY

1. One of the following Phencomenon or character is the most obvious and technically

important feature of all living organisms is

1) Metabolism

2) Ability to sense their surroundings

3) Growth

4) Reproduction


Rough Work

M 2016 A 3 Q

A

2. The root, stem and the leaves are modified for the same purpose respectively in

1) Dolichos, Dioscorea, Dionea

2) Taeniophyllum, Euphorbia, Acacia

3) Asparagus, Nerium, Bryophyllum

4) Vanda, Citrus, Nepenthes

3. One of the following Whittaker’s Kingdom shows membrane bounded organelles,

mitosis and meiosis for first time.

1) Fungi 2) Animalia

3) Plantae 4) Protista


Rough Work

M 2016 A 4 Q

A

4. Match the following environmental issues with corresponding solutions:

List-I (Environmental Issues) List-II (Solutions)

I) Soil pollution A) Use of bio-fertilizers

II) Soil and water pollution B) Bio-remediation

III) Soil erosion C) Intensive tree plantation

IV) Green house effect D) Sand binding plants

The correct match is

1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C 2) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D

3) I –C, II-B, III-A, IV-D 4) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A

5. The ratio between the microsporophyll’s and megasporophylls of the male flower and

female flower of the special inflorescence with pedicellate, naked unisexual flowers is

1) 3: α 2) 1: 3 3) α : 3 4) 1 : 1


Rough Work

M 2016 A 5 Q

A

6. One of the following is related to Brassicaceae

1) 2)

3) 4)

7. The mother cell of male gametes in angiosperms.

1) Generative cell 2) Pollen grain

4) Tube cell 4) Pollen mother cell

8. Floral formula of Crotalaria is

1) 1+2+(2) 15 9 +1K C A G 2) 5 15 9K C A G

3) 1+2+(2) 15 10K C A G 4) 5 5+5 15K C A G


Rough Work

M 2016 A 6 Q

A9. Match the following

:

List – I List – II

I) Raw material for taxonomic botany.

A) Post Darwinian classifications

II) Advantage of artificial classification

B) Characters of evolutionary importance

III) Characters not considered in Bentham and hookers classification

C) Plant diversity

IV) Evolutionary trends in plants considered

D) Easier identification of an unknown plant.


1) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C 2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A 4) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D


Rough Work

M 2016 A 7 Q

A10. Identify the correct combination.

(A) Pisum A(10) G1 Entomophilous

A(10) G1

(B) Crotalaria A(9)+1 G1 Piston mechanism

A(9)+1 G1

(C) Solanum C(5) A5 G(2) Protogyny

C(5) A5 G(2)

(D) Allium P3+3 : A3+3 G(3) Protandrous

P3+3: A3+3 G(3)

1) A & D 2) B, C & D 3) C & D 4) C only

11. The following functions are not related to cytoskeleton.

A) Cell motility

B) Gives shape to the cell

C) Mechanical support

D) Inter cellular transport

E) Secretion

1) A, D, E 2) B, C, D 3) B, D, E 4) A, C, D


Rough Work

M 2016 A 8 Q

A

12. Similarity between Lysosomes and Vacuoles

A) Both are single membrane bounded spaces

B) Both change their size & occupy more space

C) Both have non-photosynthetic pigments

D) Both are part of Endomembrane system

1) D only 2) A, D 3) A, B, D 4) B, C


Rough Work

M 2016 A 9 Q

A

13. Match the following showing all incorrect

List-A List-B

I) Primary structure A) Double helix model of DNA

DNA

II) Secondary structure B) Cellulose

III) Tertiary structure C) Starch

IV) Quaternary structure D) Architecture of a protein with

more than one polypeptide.

E) Necessary for many biological

activities of proteins


1) I-E, II-C, III-A, IV-D 2) I-A, II-C, III-E, IV-B

3) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-E 4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C


Rough Work

M 2016 A 10 Q

A14. Synapsis and segregation of homologous chromosomes occur respectively in

1) Zygotene, Anaphase I I

2) Prophase I, Prophase II I II

3) Pachytene, Telophase I I

4) Metaphase I, Anaphase I I I

15. Assertion (A): Collenchyma occurs in aerial primary body parts of dicots and mostly

restricted to the sub epidermal region of aerial plant organs.

Reason (R): Collenchyma cells contain pecto cellulosic thickening in specific areas of

their walls

1) If both “A” and “R” are true and reason is the correct explanation of “A”

2) If both “A” and “R” are true but reason is not the correct explanation of “A”

3) If both “A” true but R is false

4) If both “A” and R are false


Rough Work

M 2016 A 11 Q


:


I) Endodermis of Dicot stem

A) Casparian strips

II) Endodermis of Dicot root

B) Sclerenchyma

III) Hypodermis of Dicot stem

C) Starch sheath

IV) Hypodermis of Monocot stem

D) Collenchyma


1) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B 2) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B

3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D 4) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C


Rough Work

M 2016 A 12 Q

A

17. Assertion (A): Ephemerals are considered as Xerophytes.

Reason (R): They are biennials and grow in arid zones.

1) A and R correct, R explains A.

2) A and R correct, R do not explains A.

3) A is false, R is right

4) A is correct, R is false


Rough Work

M 2016 A 13 Q


:


I) Habitat destruction

A) Wild bees

II) Pesticides

B) Honey bee

III) Complete or partial pollination service in California’s agricultural region occurs by

C) Threat to insect pollinator

IV) The most important pollinator for agricultural purpose

D) Threat to pollinators


1) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A 2) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

3) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B 4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B


Rough Work

M 2016 A 14 Q

A

19. Assertion (A): Seeds are formed without fertilization in some species of Asteraceae

and grasses.

(A)

Reason (R): Formation of embryo from unfertilized egg is called “Parthenocarpy”

1) If both “A” and “R” are true and “R” is the correct explanation of “A”

A AR

2) If both “A” and “R” are true but “R” is not the correct explanation of “A”

AR A R

3) If both “A” true but R is false AR

4) If both “A” and R are false AR


Rough Work

M 2016 A 15 Q

A

20. Read the following statements. Find out the incorrect.

(1) Nucellus is naked in Loranthus

(2) Six of eight nuclei in embryosac are surrounded by cell walls and organized into

cells.

(3) Pollen grains of seagrasses are long, ribbon like and protected by mucilaginous

covering.

(4) Wind and water pollinated flowers never produce nectar.

(5) Pollen – pistil interaction ends with porogamy.

1) 1, 5 2) 3 3) 5 4) 4, 2


Rough Work

M 2016 A 16 Q

A

21. Three plant cells A, B and C with different Osmotic potential and pressure potential

values, are placed as follows. Water flows between them as follows.

A, B, C

1) 2)

3) 4)

A = 16 atmP = 12 atm

B = 20 atmP = 18 atm

C = 12 atm

P = 6 atm

A B

C

A B

C

A B

C

A B

C


Rough Work

M 2016 A 17 Q

A

22. What is correct about Facilitated diffusion?

1) It is an active transport

2) It is insensitive to inhibitors

3) Transport of molecules is from less concentration to high concentration

4) It is a very specific transport

23. - Ketoglutaric acid becomes Glutamic acid by

-

1) Reductive amination

2) Oxidative decarboxylation

3) Transamination

4) Protonation


Rough Work

M 2016 A 18 Q

A24. Study the following lists


I II

Deficiency of micronutrients Diseases

A) MO I) Die back in citrus

B) Ni II) Heart rot in beet

C) Cu III) Mouse ear in pecan

D) B IV) Mottled leaf in citrus

V) Red root.


1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 2) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-III

3) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I 4) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I


Rough Work

M 2016 A 19 Q

A25. Match the following:


I II

I) First action spectrum of Photosynthesis A) Julius von Sachs

II) Oxygen evolved by the green B) T.W. Engelmann

plants comes from water T.W.

III) Green substance is located in Chloroplasts. C) Jan Ingenhousz

IV) Sunlight is essential to the plant D) Cornelius Van Niel

The correct matching is

1) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B 2) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D

3) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C 4) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A


Rough Work

M 2016 A 20 Q

A

26) Common between C3 and C4 plants.

C3 C4

1) They produce glucose in mesophyll cells

2) They have PEP case PEP case

3) They have RuBisCo in Mesophyll cells RuBisCo

4) They show Calvin Cycle

27. Number of oxidation and decarboxylations is Krebs cycle

1) 4 & 2 2) 3 & 2 3) 2 & 4 4) 2 & 2


Rough Work

M 2016 A 21 Q

A28. Assertion (A): Formation of Fumaric acid from succinic acid in TCA cycle is

inhibited in presence of malonic acid.

(ATCA

Reason (R): Malonic acid is structurally similar to succinic dehydrogenase

(R)

1) If both “A” and “R” are true and “R” is the correct explanation of “A”

AR AR

2) If both “A” and “R” are true but “R” is not the correct explanation of “A”

AR AR

3) If “A” true but R is false AA

4) If both “A” and R are false AR


Rough Work

M 2016 A 22 Q

A

29. List – I I List – II II

(Phytohormones) (Physiological effects)

(

A) IAA I) Stress tolerance

B) GA3 II) To promote root growth and root hair formation

C) Cytokinin III) Promote flowering in pineapple

D) ABA IV) To improve the apple fruit shape

V) Delay of leaf senescence

1) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II 2) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-I

3) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I 4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V


Rough Work

M 2016 A 23 Q

A

30. An example for re-differentiated tissue.

1) Bark 2) Cork

3) Cork Cambium 4) Lateral meristem

31. The difference between Vibrioid and Spirillum

1) Former is spherical & Later is spiral

2) Former has less than one complete twist and later has more than one complete

twist

3) Former has one complete twist and later has more than one complete twist.

4) Former has no twist and later has one twist.


Rough Work

M 2016 A 24 Q

A32. Rod shaped TMV Capsid with 2130 protein sub units of identical size arranged in a

helical manner around a central hollow space. Each protein sub-unit is made of a

single polypeptide chain. Find out the number phosphate ester bonds and

phosphodiester bonds respectively in the polynucleotide chain of the genetic material

present in the virus.

TMV

1) 13000, 6500 2) 4260, 2130 3) 12999, 6499 4) 6500, 6499

33. In a dihybrid cross round seeds, yellow coloured seeded are crossed with wrinkled

seeds and green coloured Pea plants. The off spring in F2 showed 128 plants. How

many plants are in them with dominant phenotype for both characters?

F2

1) 72 2) 93 3) 64 4) 122

34. Maximum types of genotypes exhibiting both dominant characters in the F2 of

dihybrid cross.

F2

1) 4 2) 5 3) 9 4) 6


Rough Work

M 2016 A 25 Q

A

35. The stability of helical structure of DNA is conferred by

DNA

A) Presence of Thymine

B) H-bonds between two polynucleotide chains

H-

C) Absence of 2-OH group at every nucleotide

2-OH

D) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other pair in the double helix

E) Its molecular weight

1) A, B, D 2) C, D, E 3) A, B, C, D 4) B, D


Rough Work

M 2016 A 26 Q



I) Linear vector ) A) Elution

II) Alien DNA is ligated to plasmid by DNA

B) Selectable markers

III) Technique of extracting separated bands of DNA from Agarose gel DNA

C) Probe

IV) Identification and elimination of non-transformants

D) Artificial chromosome

E) Phospho diester bonds


:

1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D 2) I-D, II-E, III-A, IV-B

3) I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-D 4) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-E


Rough Work

M 2016 A 27 Q

A37. Arrange the following steps or chemicals in a sequence that happen in the process of

r DNA technology.

r DNA

A) Ribonuclease B) Ethidium bromide

C) Detergent D) Elution

E) Lysozyme F) Spooling

G) Agarose gel

1) C E A G F D B 2) E C A F G B D

3) B D G C E A F 4) A C D E F B G


Rough Work

M 2016 A 28 Q

A38. Match the following transgenic plants with their corresponding efficiency.


I) Basmati variety of Rice

A) Prevents blindness

II) Flavr Savr tomato

B) Herbicide tolerance

III) Golden Rice variety

C) Resistant to biotic and aboitic stresses

IV) Roundup ready Soyabean D) Longer shelf life

E) Rich in vit A


1) I-C , II-D, III-A, IV-B 2) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-C

3) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D 4) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-A

39. The source of statin

1) Saccharomyces 2) Chlorella

3) Torula 4) Monascus


Rough Work

M 2016 A 29 Q

A

40. Parbhani kranti is a variety of

1) Okra 2) Tomato

3) Cauliflower 4) Chilli

ZOOLOGY

41. Following are related to the levels and hierarchy of classification

a) Bilateria b) Deuterostomia

c) Vertebrata d) Chordata

e) Enterocoelomata f) Gnathostomata

g) Mammalia

Which of the above represent obligatory taxa

1) a, b, d and h a, b, d h

2) All except d and h d, h

3) d and g only d, g

4) a, c, e and f only a, c, e f


Rough Work

M 2016 A 30 Q

A42. The species diversity between two adjacent ecosystems which is obtained by

comparing the number of taxa unique to each of the ecosystems is

1) Genetic diversity

2) Alpha diversity

3) Gamma diversity

4) Beta diversity

43. Periosteum is made up of

1) Reticular connective tissue

2) Regular dense fibrous connective tissue

3) Elastic dense fibrous connective tissue

4) Irregular dense fibrous connective tissue


Rough Work

M 2016 A 31 Q

A

44. Study the following and choose the correct option

Type of skeletal tissue

Character Example

A) Hyaline cartilage

Transluscent, glass like cartilage

Articular cartilages

B) Sesamoid bone

Ossification of ligament

Patella bone

C) Fibrous cartilage

Presence of elastic and collagen fibres

Intervertebral discs.

D) Compact bone

Dense continuous lamellar matrix

Diaphysis of long bones.

1) A and D are correct AD

2) B and D are correct BD

3) B and C are correct BC

4) A, B and D are correct A, BD


Rough Work

M 2016 A 32 Q

A

45. Which of the following is true about Class Scaphopoda

A) Shell is tubular, open at one end and closed at the other.

B) Foot is wedge shaped and useful in digging.

C) Eyes, tentacles, atria and gills are absent.

1) A and B 2) B and C

3) A and C 4) Only C


Rough Work

M 2016 A 33 Q


List-I I List-II II

A) Tornaria I) Lamelli branchiates

B) Aristotle's lantern II) Sea gooseberries

C) Crystalline style III) Acorn worm

D) Green glands IV) Palamnaeus

E) Bortyoidal tissue V) Palaemon

F) Colloblasts VI) Sea urchin

VII) Pontobdella

A B C D E F

1) III VI I V VII II

2) III VI I IV VII II

3) III VI I II IV VII

4) III VI I VII V II

47. Which of the following animal has a chitinous exoskeleton and respires through

tracheae but lacks antennae?

(1) Periplaneta (2) Palamnaeus

(3) Limulus (4) Aranea


Rough Work

M 2016 A 34 Q

A48. Study the following and choose the correct option

A) Cloaca is three chambered in sauropsids.

B) There are ten pairs of cranial nerves in icthyopsida.

C) Renal portal system is absent in homeotherms.

1) A & B are correct AB 2) A & C are correct AC

3) B & C are correct BC 4) All are correct

49. Function of Renette gland in Nematodes is similar to that of

1) Ctenidia of Moluscs

2) Dermal papulae of Echinoderms

3) Flame cells of Platyhelminthes

4) Lasso cells of Ctenophores


Rough Work

M 2016 A 35 Q

A

50. Both sinus venosus and conus arteriosus are absent in

1) Fishes and amphibians

2) Birds and mammals

3) Amphibians and reptiles

4) Reptiles and birds

51. Study the following

A) Preen gland B) Proboscis gland C) Ink gland

D) Green gland E) Sudoriferous glands F) Hardarian glands

Arrange the above glands based on their presence, from Arthropoda to Mammalia

1) D→C→B→E→A→F 2) D→C→A→B→E→F

3) D→A→C→B→F→E 4) D→C→B→F→A→E


Rough Work

M 2016 A 36 Q

A

52. During undulation movement, if flagellum bends to one side and shows a wave like

movement from the base to tip, the organism moves in this direction

1) Laterally in the same direction

2) Pushed in backward direction

3) Laterally in the opposite direction

4) Pulled in forward direction

53. In Paramecium conjugation occurs during

1) Favourable conditions for rejuvenation of macronucleus.

2) Unfavourable conditions for rejuvenation of macronucleus.

3) Favourable conditions for rejuvenation of micronucleus.

4) Unfavourable conditions for rejuvenation of micronucleus.


Rough Work

M 2016 A 37 Q

A

54. In the primary host, sporozoites of Plasmodium are found in

1) Sporocyst, haemolymph and salivary glands

2) Sporocyst, salivary glands and lumen of crop

3) Haemolymph and salivary glands only

4) Haemolymph, salivary glands and lumen of mesenteron


Rough Work

M 2016 A 38 Q

A

55. Match the following and choose the correct option

Column –I Column-II

A) Hyperplasia i) Larvae of Fasciola in snail

B) Neoplasia ii) RBC infected by Plasmodium

C) Hypertrophy iii) Fasciola in the bile ducts of sheep

D) Gigantism iv) Degeneration of gonads

v) Development of cancers.

1) A-iii, B- v, C- ii, D-i 2) A-i, B- v, C-ii, D-iii

3) A- iii, B-ii, C-v, D-I 4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-v


Rough Work

M 2016 A 39 Q

A

56. Statement-I: In the gut of cockroach, backward flow of contents into the ventriculus

is prevented

-I:

Statement-I: In cockroach, opening between ventriculus and ileum is guarded by

stomodaeal valve

-II:

1) Both SI and SII are true and SII is the correct explanation of SI

SISIISII

2) Both SI and SII are true and SII is not the correct explanation of SI

SISIISIISI

3) SI is true and SII is false SISI

4) SI is false and SII is true SIISI


Rough Work

M 2016 A 40 Q

A

57. Match the following with regard to Periplanata Americana

LIST-I I LIST-II II

A) Intima I) Stipes

B) Tympanal organs II) Mentum

C) Palpifer III) Prementum

D) Palpiger IV) Anal cerci

E) Subgenual organs V) Tibia

VI) Tarsus

VII) Tracheoles

VIII) Trachea

A B C D E

(1) VII VI II I V

(2) VIII IV I III V

(3) VII IV I III V

(4) VIII IV I II V


Rough Work

M 2016 A 41 Q

A

58. Statement-I: Mediterranean orchid Ophrys and bumble bee, exhibit co-existence to

avoid competition

I:

Statement-II: Male bumble bee is attracted to the petal of Ophrys as it presumes it to

be the female and pseudo copulates with the flower

II:

1) Both SI and SII are true and SII is the correct explanation of SI

SISIISII

2) Both SI and SII are true and SII is not the correct explanation of SI

SISIISIISI

3) SI is true and SII is false SISII

4) SI is false and SII is true SISII


Rough Work

M 2016 A 42 Q

A59. Match the following and choose correct combination

LIST-I I LIST-II I

A) Nosema notabilis

1) Intercellular parasite

B) Wuchereria

2) Hyper Parasite

C) Sphaerospora

3) Intracellular

D) Plasmodium

4) Host & Parasite

5) Digenetic Parasite

A B C D(1) 1 2 3 4(2) 1 2 4 5(3) 2 1 4 3(4) 2 1 5 3

60. Verhulst -Pear logistic growth is described by the equation.

1) dT K N

rNdN K

2)

K N dNrN

K dT

3) dN K N

rNdT K

4)

dN K NrN

dT K


Rough Work

M 2016 A 43 Q

A61. Note the following

a) Carboxypeptidase b) Disaccharidases

c) Aminopeptidase d) Nucleases

e) Dipeptidase f) Nucleosidase

Which of the above enzymes are present in the pancreatic juice?

1) Only c, d 2) Only b, c, d

3) Only a, d 4) Only a, e, f

62. Statement-I: Expiration in humans involves decrease in the pulmonary volume

S1

Statement-II: Expiration occurs when there is a negative pressure in the lungs with

respect to atmospheric pressure

S2

(1) Both SI and SII are true and SII is the correct explanation of SI

S1 S2 S2 , S1 (2) Both SI and SII are true and SII is not the correct explanation of SI

S1 S2 S2, S1

(3) SI is true and SII is false S1 S2 (4) SI is false and SII is true S1 S2


Rough Work

M 2016 A 44 Q

A63. Study the following and choose the correct option

A) Intrinsic pathway occurs when the blood is exposed to collagen of injured

endothelium of blood vessel.

B) During intrinsic pathway factor XI activates clotting factors which results in the

formation of prothrombin activator.

XI

C) When the vascular wall is severely damaged and extra vascular tissue comes in to

contact with blood tissue thromboplastin is released.

D) The factor activated in extrinsic pathway is factor VIII.

VIII

1) A and B are correct 2) A and C are correct

3) B and D are correct 4) C and D are correct


Rough Work

M 2016 A 45 Q

A

64. Which of the following statements are true with respect to human skeleton?

i) The largest and strongest free vertebrae are lumbar vertebrae

ii) 'U' shaped bone present at the base of the buccal cavity between the larynx and the

mandible is stapes

'U'

iii) Vertebro-chondral ribs are called as 'false ribs'

iv) Acromion process is a part of pelvic girdle

v) Number of bones in each forelimb is equal to number of bones of each hind limb

1) Only i & ii 2) Only i, ii & iii

3) Only iii, iv & v 4) All except ii & iv


Rough Work

M 2016 A 46 Q

A65. Which of the following waste products are removed from blood, in the ‘ornithine

cycle’ in liver?

?

(1) Uric acid and urea (2) Urea and Guarine

(3) Urea and uric acid with carbon dioxide

(4) Ammonia with carbondioxide & urea.

66. Select correct combination

LIST-I -I LIST-II -II LIST-III -III

i) Mid brain

Crura cerebri ventrally –

Optic lobes dorsally

ii) Coeliac, superior

mesenteric ganglia

Collateral ganglia

Cranio sacral outflow

iii) Hypoglossal nerve

Arise from medulla

XIIth cranial nerve

XII

1) i and iii 2) ii and iii 3) i, ii and iii 4) i and ii


Rough Work

M 2016 A 47 Q

A67. Which of the following are not a set of antagonistic hormones?

(1) Insulin and Glucagon (2) Parathormone and Calcitonin (3) Melatonin and Intermedin (4) Adrenaline and Nor-Adrenaline

68. Read the following statements about antigens and antibodies, pickout the correct statementsI) Class-I MHC molecules are found on the surface of almost all nucleated cells of the

body and they present the antigens to Tc cells.

IMHC Tc

II) The part of an antibody that recognizes an antigen is called the epitope

III) Class-II MHC molecules are found on the surface of altered self cells and they

present the antigens to TH cells.

-IIMHC TH

IV) Antibody is a ‘Y’ shaped molecule with four polypeptide chains and it is

represented as H2L2.

‘Y’ H2L2

1) II & III 2) I & III 3) II & IV 4) I & IV


Rough Work

M 2016 A 48 Q

A69. Identify the incorrect statement regarding “B cells”

B-

1) Mature B-cells synthesize various types of antibodies which are displayed on their

membrane surface.

B

2) Mature B cells produce free antibodies

B

3) The mature B cells develop into functional B cells in secondary lymphoid organs

B

4) Functional B cells differentiates into plasma cells and memory cells

B


Rough Work

M 2016 A 49 Q

A70. Graafian follicle is maintained by

(1) Estrogen

(2) Prolactin

(3) Leutinising hormone

(4) Follicle stimulating hormone

71. Match the contraceptive methods given under column -I with the column–II

III

List-I I List-II II

A) Saheli

I) Tubectomy & vasectomy

B) Barrier

II) Once a week non-steroid medicine

C) IUD'sIUD's

III) Prevent meeting of sperms with ovum

D) Sterilisation

IV) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation

V) Prevent ovarian development

1) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - V 2) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

3) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - V 4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV


Rough Work

M 2016 A 50 Q

A

72. If a man with haemophilia marries a woman who is a carrier of colour blindness

chance of haemophilia and colour blindness respectively in their sons is

(1) 25% & 25% (2) 50% & 0% (3) 0% & 50% (4) 25% & 50%

73. Select the wrong statement

1) VNTR belong to a class of mini satellite DNA

VNTRDNA

2) DNA sequencers work on the principle developed by Frederick Sanger

DNA

3) HGP was coordinated by US Department of Energy and the National Institute of

Health

HGP

4) DNA fingerprinting involves identifying similarities in repetitive DNA

DNA


Rough Work

M 2016 A 51 Q

A

74. Study the following related to genetic disorders of human and choose the incorrect

statement

1) Down’s syndrome – Trisomy of 22nd pair – Furrowed tongue

2) Edward’s syndrome – Trisomy of 18th pair – Kidney malfunction

3) Patau’s syndrome–Trisomy of 13th pair – Microphthalmia

4) Klinefelter's syndrome – Trisomy of 23rd pair – Gynaecomastia

75. Statement-I: Klinefelte’s syndrome is a male with gynaecomastia and hypogonadism.

S1

Statement-II: Klinefelter’s syndrome is a male without Barr body.

S2

(1) S1 and S2 are true (2) S1 and S2 are wrong

S1 & S2 S1 & S2

(3) S1 is true but S2 is false (4) S1 is false but S2 is true

S1 S2 S1 S2


Rough Work

M 2016 A 52 Q

A

76. Study the following and choose the incorrect match

(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny–Von Baer

(2) Nothing in biology makes sense except in the light of evolution – Dobzhansky

”

(3) Adaptations are universal – Neo Lamarckists

(4) Formation of a new species is due to the cumulative effect of fluctuating variations

– Darwin

77. In a Hardy -Weinberg population of 1400 individuals, if 16% individuals are with

recessive phenotype, how many individuals are homozygous dominant.

(1) 672 (2) 504 (3) 224 (4) 728


Rough Work

M 2016 A 53 Q

A78. Match the following.

List –I I List–II II

A) Leukemia I) PSA test PSA

B) Prostate cancer II) Blood test

C) Breast cancer III) Pap test

D) Pre cervical cancer IV) PET scan PET

V) Angiogram

Correct match is

A B C D

(1) III II IV I

(2) II I III V

(3) II I IV III

(4) III II V I


Rough Work

M 2016 A 54 Q

A

79. Match the following

List-I I List-II II

A) Digital subtraction angiography

I) Myocardial infarction

B) Elevated S-T segment of EKGEKGS-T

II) Pregnancy test

C) Theta waves of EEGEEG

III) Coronary blocks

D) Competitive ELISA ELISA IV) Aneurysms

E) MRI scanMRI

V) Emotional stress in adults

A B C D E

1) III I V II IV

2) III I V IV II

3) III V I IV II

4) I III V II IV


Rough Work

M 2016 A 55 Q

A

80. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is treated by the following method of

gene therapy

(1) In vivo, somatic line gene therapy

(2) Ex vivo, somatic line gene therapy

(3) In vivo, germ line gene therapy

(4) Ex vivo, germ line gene therapy

PHYSICS

81. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. If the same deceleration

is applied on both the cars, the ratio of the respective distances in which the two cars

are stopped from that instant is

u4u

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 4 3) 1 : 8 4) 1 : 16


Rough Work

M 2016 A 56 Q

A

82. The velocity of a projectile at a height 15m from the ground is ˆ ˆ20 10i j m/s. Where

‘i’ is along the horizontal and ‘j’ is vertically upwards (g = 10 m/s2).

ˆ ˆ20 10i j ‘I’ ‘j’

g = 10

).

a) Speed of projection e) 20 m

b) Angle of projection f) 45°

c) Maximum height g) 20 2m

d) Horizontal range h) 80m

i) 60°

1) a-g; b-f; c-e; d-h 2) a-e; b-f; c-g; d-h

3) a-h; b-f; c-g; d-e 4) a-f; b-g; c-e; d-h

83. Two bodies of masses A = 10kg and B=20 kg are kept on a smooth horizontal surface

and are tied to the ends of a light string. A horizontal force 600N is applied at A first

and B next. The ratio of tensions in the strings in the two cases is (along the string)

A = 10kgB=20 kg

AB

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 1


Rough Work

M 2016 A 57 Q

A84. If the series limit of Lymen series for hydrogen atom is equal to the series limit of

Balmer series for a hydrogen like atom, then atomic number of this hydrogen like atom

is

1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8

85. A uniform rod of length is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal

axis through its centre. The rod begins rotation from rest from its unstable equilibrium

position. When it has turned through an angle , its angular velocity is given as

l

,

1) 6g

sin

2) 6g

sin2

3) 6g

cos2

4) 6g

cos


Rough Work

M 2016 A 58 Q

A86. A steel sphere is to be passed through a circular brass ring. At 20°C the outer diameter

of sphere is 2.5 cm and the inner diameter of the ring is 2.49 cm. If both are heated

together, at which temperature the sphere would just pass through the ring?

6 0 6 0b s20 10 / Cand 12 10 / C

20°C

6 020 10 / C 6 012 10 / C )

1) 125°C 2) 225°C 3) 325°C 4) 525°C

87. Two metal plates each of area ‘A’ form a parallel plate capacitor with air in between

the plates. The distance between the plates is ‘d’. A metal plate of thickness d/2 and of

same area A is inserted between the plates. If the effective capacitance of the capacitor

is 'C and the capacitance of the capacitors is C initially, then '/C C is

‘A’ ‘d’ C

d/2 'C '/C C

1) 4 2) 2 3) 6 4) 1


Rough Work

M 2016 A 59 Q

A

A B Y

0 0 00 1 1

1 1 0

1 0 1

A B Y

0 0 00 1 0

1 1 1

1 0 1

A B Y

0 0 10 1 1

1 1 0

1 0 0

A B Y

0 0 10 1 0

1 1 1

1 0 0

88. A car travelling at a speed of 54 km km/hr towards a large wall horns a sound of

frequency 400 Hz. If the person stands behind the car such that the car receding from

him approaches the wall. The difference in frequency of the two sounds, one received

directly from the car and the other reflected from the wall is nearly (speed of sound is

335 m/s).

400

1) 35.8 Hz 2) 15.2 Hz 3) 22.6 Hz 4) 30.8 Hz

89. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure:

NAND

1) 2) 3) 4)


Rough Work

M 2016 A 60 Q

A

90. A wire of uniform density is bent in the form of a circle of radius r. The moment of

inertia of the circle about an axis along its tangent and perpendicular to its plane is I1.

Now the same material wire is used to form a square of side length a. The moment of

inertia of the square about an axis in the plane and along one of the sides is I2. The

value of 1

2

I

Iis equal to

r

I1

a

I2 1

2

I

I

1) 3

2

12 r

5a

2) 3

3

3

5

r

a

3) 3

3

12

5

r

a

4) 3

3

6

5

r

a

91. The magnetic induction at two points on the axis of a circular coil at distances of

0.05m and 0.2m from the centre are in the ratio 8 : 1. The radius of the coil is

1) 1.0m 2) 0.1 m 3) 0.15 m 4) 0.2 m


Rough Work

M 2016 A 61 Q

A

92. An open tank of water of height 6m has water filled up to a height 2m. The minimum

horizontal acceleration a0 of the tank for the pressure at the point A inside the tank

(as shown) to be equal to that of atmosphere pressure is

A

a0

1) 3

2

g

2) 4

3

g

3) 2g

4) 3

4

g

93. A particle is moving in a straight line with some initial velocity and uniform

acceleration. If the sum of the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1)th second is 100m, the

velocity of the particle after t seconds will be

t t + 1

100 t

1) 80 / 2) 50 / 3) 20 / 4) 30 /


Rough Work

M 2016 A 62 Q

A

94. The angle of dip at a certain place on earth is 60° and the magnitude of earth’s

horizontal component of magnetic field is 0.26G. The magnetic field at that place on

the earth is

1) 0.13G 2) 0.26G 3) 0.52G 4) 0.65G

95. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes making an angle 45°. The

percentage of incident intensity of unpolarized light that passes through the system will

be

1) 100% 2) 50% 3) 12.5% 4) 37.5%


Rough Work

M 2016 A 63 Q

A

96. An aluminium wire and a steel wire of same length and cross section are joined end to

end. The composite wire is hung from a rigid support and a load is suspended from the

free end. If total increase in length of composite wire is 1.35mm then the individual

elongations of aluminium and steel wires respectively (in mm) are

1) 0.35 and 1 2) 1 and 0.35 3) 0.675 and 0.675 4) 0.54 and 0.81

110.7 10Y

112 10Y


Rough Work

M 2016 A 64 Q

A

97. One hundred turns of insulated copper wire are wrapped around a wooden cylindrical

core of cross sectional area 1.3 10-2m2. The two ends of the wire are connected to a

resistor. The total resistance in the circuit is 13 . If an externally applied uniform

longitudinal magnetic field in the core changes from 1.6T in one direction to 1.6T in

the opposite direction, how much charge that flows through a point in the circuit

during the change is

1.3 10-2

1) 16mC 2) 320mC

3) 160mC 4) 32mC

98. A smooth sphere moving on a horizontal surface has velocity ˆ ˆ2 2i j before hitting a

vertical wall. The wall is parallel to j vector. The velocity vector of the sphere after it

hits the wall, if the coefficient of restitution between the sphere and the wall is 1

,2

e

ˆ ˆ2 2i j

j 1

,2

e

1) ˆ ˆi j 2) ˆ ˆi j 3) ˆ ˆ2i j 4) ˆ ˆ2i j


Rough Work

M 2016 A 65 Q

A

99. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by XE 100N/C sin

Ct

.

If the average energy contained in a cylindrical region of cross-section 10cm2 and

length 50cm along the x- axis is 2.2 10–11J, then the intensity of the wave is

E 100sinx

tc

(

2.2 10–11

1) 12.4 W/m2 2) 13.2 W/m2

3) 15.7 W/m2 4) 11.9 W/m2

100. A 2.0V potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of 1.5V cell. The

balance point of the cell in the open circuit is 75cm. When a resistor of resistance 10

is connected across the cell, the balance point shifts to 60cm. The internal resistance of

the cell is

10

1) 1.5 2) 2.0 3) 2.5 4) 3.5


Rough Work

M 2016 A 66 Q

A

101. In a closed organ pipe when air column is 20cm it is in resonance with a tuning fork A.

When the length is increased by 2cm then the air column is in resonance with tuning

fork B. When A and B are sounded together they produce 8 beats/sec. The frequencies

of tuning forks A and B are (in Hz) respectively

A

BAB

AB

1) 40 and 44 2) 80 and 88 3) 44 and 40 4) 88 and 80

102. In an L-C-R circuit R = 100 ohm. When capacitance C is removed, the current lags

behind the voltage by 3

when inductance L is removed, the current leads the voltage

by3

. The impedance of the circuit is

L-C-R R =100 .C3

L3

1) 50 ohm 2) 100 ohm 3) 200 ohm 4) 400 ohm


Rough Work

M 2016 A 67 Q

A

103. While measuring acceleration due to gravity by simple pendulum, a student makes a

positive error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the

measurement of the time period the actual percentage error in the measurement of the

value of ‘g’ will be

1) 2% 2) 4% 3) 7% 4) 10%

104. Figure shows graph of deviation versus angle of incidence ‘i’ for a light ray incident

a prism. Refracting angle of the prism is

‘i’

1) 30°

2) 45°

3) 60°

4) 75°

i

60°15°

30°


Rough Work

M 2016 A 68 Q

A

105. Which pair of quantities has dimensions different from other three pairs?

1) Young’s Modulus and Pressure 2) Impulse and linear momentum 3) Planck’s constant and angular momentum 4) Moment of Inertia and Moment of force

106. A capacitor of capacitance 4µF is charged to 80V and another capacitor of capacitance

6 µF is charged to 30V. When they are connected together, the energy lost by 4 µF

capacitor is

4µF6 µF 4 µF

1) 2.5 m J 2) 4.6 m J

3) 7.8 m J 4) 3.2 m J

107. An unknown resistance wire is connected in the left gap of Meter Bridge and the

balancing length is found to be 30 cm from left. Now if a resistance of 2 is

connected in series to the unknown wire of left gap, balancing length changes by 20

cm. Resistance of the unknown wire is

2

1) 2 2) 1.5 3) 3 4) 2.5


Rough Work

M 2016 A 69 Q

A

108. An equi convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 20cm is cut into

two identical pieces perpendicular to its principal axis. One of the pieces is immersed

in a liquid of refractive index 4 / 3. Now the focal length of this lens in the liquid when

compared to that of the given convex lens

1) Increases by 100cm 2) Increases by 140 cm 3) Remains same

4) Decreases by 120 cm

109. The force of attraction between two charges separated by certain distance in air is F1. If

the separation between the charges is completely filled with a medium of dielectric

constant 4, the force became F2. If half of the distance between the charges is filled

with the same dielectric, force is F3. Then F1:F2:F3 is

F1.

F2

F3 F1:F2:F3

1) 16:9:4 2) 9:36:16 3) 4:1:12 4) 36:9:16


Rough Work

M 2016 A 70 Q

A

110. A particle executes SHM with a time period2

n

. sec. The amplitude of vibration is ‘a’,

when t = 0, it is at a distance 2

afrom the mean position and when

24t

sec, it is at a

distance 3

2a from the mean position. The minimum possible value of 'n' is

‘a’ 2

n

t = 0, 2

a 24

t

3

2a 'n'

1) 10 2) 2 3) 4 4) 8

111. A current of 0.8 A is drawn from a cell when a parallel combination of two resistances

each of 6 is connected across it. The current drawn from the same cell changes to 0.2

A, when a resistance of 12 is connected in series to the above parallel combination.

The e.m.f of cell is

6

12

1) 3.5 Volt 2) 3.2 Volt 3) 2.2 Volt 4) 3.0 Volt


Rough Work

M 2016 A 71 Q

A

112. Which of the following statement is wrong?

1) Ammeter is connected in series and maximum current flows through it

2) Voltmeter is connected in parallel and potential drop is maximum

3) Ammeter is connected in series and current through it is negligible

4) Voltmeter is connected in parallel and current through it is negligible

113. The work functions of metals A and B are in the ratio 1:2. If light of frequency f and 2f

are incident on metal surfaces A&B respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic

energies of photoelectrons emitted is (f is greater than threshold frequency of A, 2f is

greater that threshold frequency of B)

ABf2f

AB

f A

2f B

1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 4


Rough Work

M 2016 A 72 Q

A

114. The coefficients of static and moving friction for iron on sand are 0.7 and 0.5. If a 100

kg iron bar is just set in motion by applying some force and same force is continued,

what will be the acceleration of the iron bar

1) 4.9 m/s2 2) 2.45 m/s2 3) 9.8 m/s2 4) 1.96 m/s2

115. Two identical sonometer wires have a fundamental frequency of 500Hz. When kept

under same tension. The fractional increase in the tension of one wire that would cause

an occurrence of 5 beats per sec, when both wires vibrate together is.

1) 1% 2) 2% 3) 5% 4) 10 %

116. A carnot’s engine works as a refrigerator between 250K and 300K. If it receives 750

calories of heat from the sink at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected to

reservoir at the higher temperature is

250K 300K

1) 900 cal 2) 625 cal 3) 750 cal 4) 1000 cal


Rough Work

M 2016 A 73 Q

A

117. In a n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of electrons injected

by the emitter are able to reach the collector, then.

n-p-n

1) Emitter current is 11.11 mA

2) The base current is 0.1 mA

3) Base current is 0.9 mA

4) The emitter current is 9mA

118. Find the ratio of energy required to raise a satellite upto a height R (radius of earth)

from the surface of earth to that required to put it into an orbit at that height.

RR

R

1) 2

32)

3

23)

4

34)

3

4


Rough Work

M 2016 A 74 Q

A

119. Statement-I: Mean free path of the molecule of a gas varies inversely as the density of

the gas

-I

Statement-II: Mean free path varies inversely as pressure of the gas.

-II

1) S-I and S-II are true and S-II is the correct explanation of S-I

S-IS-IIS-IIS-I

2) S-I and S-II are true but S-II is not the correct explanation of S-I

S-IS-IIS-IIS-I

3) S-I is true but S-II is false S-IS-II

4) S-I is false but S-II is true S-IS-II

120. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. If

initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of

X1 to that of X2 will be 1/e after a time of

X1 X2 10

X1 X2

1/e

1) 1

102)

1

113)

11

104)

1

9


Rough Work

M 2016 A 75 Q

A

CHEMISTRY

121) When 1 mole of NO3–1 accepts 8 moles of electrons then it forms

NO3–1

1) 1 mole of 2N O 2N O 2) 1 mole of NO NO

3) 1 mole of 4NH 4

NH 4) 1 mole of 2 3N O 2 3N O

122) In acidic medium the number of gram equivalents of oxalic acid required to reduce

4KMnO (molecular weight =158) present in 250 ml of 0.04 M 4KMnO solution is

M 4KMnO

4KMnO

1) 0.02 2) 0.05 3) 0.04 4) 0.07

123) The total pressure exerted by a mixture of 3.2 gm of 4CH and 4.4 gm of 2CO contained

in a 9 dm3 flask at 27°C is …… Pa

27°C9 dm3 4CH 2CO

1) 0.821 2) 8.314 × 104 3) 0.8314 × 104 4) 0.0821


Rough Work

M 2016 A 76 Q

A124) Critical temperatures of four gases A, B, C and D are 154.3k, 304.1k, 126k and 405.5k

respectively. The gas which can be liquefied most easily is

A, B, C D154.3k, 304.1k, 126k

405.5k

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D

125) If the speed of electron in the Bohr’s first orbit of hydrogen in ‘x’ cm.s-1. Then the

speed in the third orbit of +He ion is

‘x’ cm.s-1 +He

1) x/9 2) 2x/3 3) 3x 4) 9x

126) Which of the following suggested de Broglie’s wave lengths, is not possible for an e

in a Bohr’s orbit of H – atom

1) 33.30 A0 2) 4.98 A0 3) 9.99 A0 4) 19.98 A0


Rough Work

M 2016 A 77 Q

A

127) Which of the following is paramagnetic with two unpaired e s in 2 p bonding

molecular orbitals?

2 p

1) 2B 2) 2C 3) 2N 4) 2O

128) For the reaction A + 2B C the entropy change at 27°C is +5 cals and 0fG values of

A, B and C are 200, 300 and 500 cals respectively. This reaction is

CA + 2B C A, B C

0fG

1) Exothermic and spontaneous

2) Endothermic and non–spontaneous

3) Endothermic and spontaneous

4) Exothermic and non–spontaneous

129) Sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give a deep blue solution which is also

conducting in nature. This is due to the presence of the following.

1) 3 xNa NH

2) 3 y

e NH

3) 4NH 4) 3 xNa NH

and 3 y

e NH


Rough Work

M 2016 A 78 Q

A

130) The equilibrium constants 1Kp and 2Kp for the reactions 2X Y and Z P Q

respectively are in the ratio of 1:9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal

then the ratio of total pressures at these equilibria is

2X Y Z P Q 1Kp 2Kp

XZ

1) 1:1 2) 1:3 3) 1:9 4) 1:36

131) In O2–, O2 and O2

2– species, the total number of antibonding electrons are respectively

O2–, O2 O2

2–

1) 7, 6 and 8 2) 1, 0 and 2 3) 6, 6 and 6 4) 8, 6 and 8

132) The PH of 0.08M weak monobasic acid, if it is 10% ionized is

M PH

1) 2.0970 2) 1.6031 3) 0.0970 4) 1.0970

133) In the following first ionisation enthalpy is lowest for

1) Nitrogen 2) Oxygen 3) Fluorine 4) Neon

134) The volume of oxygen liberated at S.T.P when 100 ml of 15V 2 2H O decomposes is

15V 2 2H O S.T.P

1) 150 ml 2) 300ml 3) 3 lit 4) 1.5 lit


Rough Work

M 2016 A 79 Q

A

135) The most soluble sulphate of IIA group elements is

IIA

1) 4BeSO 2) 4SrSO 3) 4CaSO 4) 4BaSO

136) The chain length of silicones (i.e) organo silicon polymers can be controlled by adding

…….

1) 3 3CH SiCl 2) 3 22CH SiCl 3) 3 4

CH Si 4) 3 3CH Si-Cl

137) Dipole moment is shown by

1) 1, 4-dichloro benzene

2) trans-1, 2-dichloro ethene

3) cis-1, 2-dichloro ethene

4) trans-2-butene


Rough Work

M 2016 A 80 Q

A

138) List – I List – II

1) Global warming a) F ions

2) Acid rains b) 2CO

3) Depletion of Ozone layer c) oxides of sulphur

4) Fluorosis d) 2 2CF Cl

Correct match is

1) 1 b; 2 c; 3 d; 4 a 2) 1 c; 2 b; 3 a; 4 d

3) 1 c; 2 b; 3 d; 4 c 4) 1 b; 2 c; 3 a; 4 d

139) In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen at STP, 0.3gms of an organic compound

liberated 45ml of N2 gas. Then the percentage composition of nitrogen in the

compound is

N2STP

1) 18.75 2) 37.5 3) 3.75 4) 1.875


Rough Work

M 2016 A 81 Q

A140) 3CH X NaOH

CaOCOOH Na A

Electrolysis3 2 2 22CH COOK 2H O B CO KOH H . ‘A’ and ‘B’ are …….

A’ ‘B’ 1) Chain isomers

2) Functional isomers

3) Homologues

4) Position isomers

141) The following set of matching is incorrect for depletion of Ozone layer

1) In summer – 2 2ClO NO ClONO

2) In winter – 2 2 3ClONO H O HOCl + HNO

3) In Spring – HOCl OH + Cl

4) In Rainy season – 2 2 2 3CH CH O CH CHO

142) 0.5 molal aqueous solutions each of NaCl, 2BaCl and 3AlCl have boiling points of

1 2 3T , T , T respectively. Then which of the following is correct?

0NaCl, 2BaCl 3AlCl 1 2 3T , T , T

1) 1 3 2T T T 2) 3 1 2T T T 3) 3 2 1T T T 4) 1 2 3T T T


Rough Work

M 2016 A 82 Q

A143) Edge length of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm. Its face diagonal length would be

pm

1) 600 pm 2) 200 pm 3) 566 pm 4) 692 pm

144) A hydrocarbon ‘X’ adds on one mole of hydrogen to give another hydrocarbon and

decolorised bromine water. ‘X’ reacts with 4KMnO in presence of acid to give two

moles of the same carboxylic acid. The structure of ‘X’ is

‘X’

‘X’ 4KMnO

‘X’

1) 3 2 3CH CH = CHCH CH 2) 3 2 2 3CH CH CH = CHCH CH

3) 3 2 2 3CH CH CH CH CHCH 4) 2 2 2 3CH CHCH CH CH

145) The conductivity of a saturated solution of BaSO4 is 63.06 10 ohm–1cm–1 and its

equivalent conductance is 1.53 ohm–1cm2 equiv–1. The Ksp for BaSO4 will be

BaSO4 63.06 10

BaSO4 Ksp

1) 124 10 2) 92.5 10 3) 132.5 10 4) 64 10


Rough Work

M 2016 A 83 Q

A

146) For the reaction A + B AB experimental data is given

A + B AB [A] [B] Rate of reaction (Ms-1)(Ms-1)

1) 0.020 0.010 2.4 × 10-4

2) 0.020 0.030 2.16 × 10-3

3) 0.040 0.030 4.32 × 10-3

What is the order of the reaction?

1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 0

147) Assertion (A): A negative colloid As2S3 is more easily coagulated by 0.1M CaCl2 than 0.1M NaCl: As2S3 0.1M NaCl0.1M CaCl2

Reason (R): Coagulation power is directly proportional to magnitude of charge of the coagulating cation.:

1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is correct explanation of ‘A’.

‘A’‘R’‘R’ ‘A’2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not correct explanation of ‘A’.

‘A’‘R’‘R’‘A’3) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false ‘A’‘R’

4) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true ‘A’‘R’


Rough Work

M 2016 A 84 Q

A

148) The wrong statement about 15 group hydrides is

15

1) The decreasing order of volatile nature of 15 group hydrides is

3 3 3 3 3NH >PH >AsH >SbH >BiH

15 3 3 3 3 3NH >PH >AsH >SbH >BiH

2) The decreasing order of stability of 15 group hydrides is

3 3 3 3 3NH >PH >AsH >SbH >BiH

15 3 3 3 3 3NH >PH >AsH >SbH >BiH

3) The Increasing order of reducing power among 15 group Hydrides is

3 3 3 3 3NH < PH < AsH < SbH < BiH

15 3 3 3 3 3NH < PH < AsH < SbH < BiH

4) The Increasing order of boiling points among 15 group Hydrides is

3 3 3 3 3PH < AsH < NH < SbH < BiH

15 3 3 3 3 3PH < AsH < NH < SbH < BiH

149) Sulphuric acid is not used to prepare an acid X from its salt. Where ‘X’ is

X

‘X’

1) HCl 2) HF 3) HBr 4) 3HNO


Rough Work

M 2016 A 85 Q

A150) Incorrect statement is

1) 2 2 2 2 F Cl Br I reactivity

: 2 2 2 2 F Cl Br I

2) Cl F Br I electron gain enthalpy

: Cl F Br I

3) 2 3 2 F ClF Cl reactivity

: 2 3 2 F ClF Cl

4) 2 2 2 2 F Cl Br I bond dissociation energy

: 2 2 2 2 F Cl Br I

151) The complex showing a spin only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M.?

B.M.

1) 4

Ni CO 2) 2

4NiCl

3) 3 4Ni PPh 4)

2

4Ni CN

152) If pairing energy is greater than octahedral splitting energy 0P , d4 configuration

is represented as ………

0P ,

d4

1) 2 22t g eg 2) 3 1

2t g eg 3) 4 02t g eg 4) 1 3

2t g eg


Rough Work

M 2016 A 86 Q

A153) When a mixture containing 3PCl and 5PCl is heated with ethyl alcohol, a total of 4

moles of ethyl chloride is formed. Then the mole ratio of 3PCl and 5PCl in the mixture

is

PCl3 PCl5

PCl3 PCl5

1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 3 4) 2 : 1

154) 3-hydroxyl butanal is formed by the reaction of X and Y in dilute Z solution. X, Y and

Z are.

X Y Z X, Y Z

X Y Z

1) 3CH CHO 3 2CH CO NaOH

2) 3CH CHO 3CH CHO NaCl

3) 3 2CH CO 3 2

CH CO HCl

4) 3CH CHO 3CH CHO NaOH

155) Arrange the following in the correct order of their basic character in aqueous medium

I) 3NH II) 3 2CH NH III) 3 2CH NH IV) 3 3

CH N

1) III >II >IV >I 2) III >IV>II>I 3) IV>III>II>I 4) I>II>III>IV


Rough Work

M 2016 A 87 Q

A156) The reagent used to identify a primary Alcoholic group in glucose is

1) Tollen’s reagent 2) HI + Red Phosphorous

3) 2NH OH 4) Conc.HNO3 HNO3

157) The number of d p bonds present on the central atom in the compound formed on

complete hydrolysis of 6XeF is …….

XeF6 d p 1) 3 2) 4 3) 1 4) 2

158) Which of the following is incorrect?

1) Nylon-2, Nylon-6: Condensation, Co-polymer

:

2) Buna-S : Addition, Co polymer

-S :

3) Nylon 6, 10 : Condensation, homo polymer

:

4) Terylene : Condensation, Co polymer

:


Rough Work

M 2016 A 88 Q

A

159) In Williamson’s synthesis of ethers, which one of the following is not used?

1) Ethyl bromide

2) Tert butylchloride

3) Sodium Ethoxide

4) Sodium tert butoxide

160) 523 17002 4 22 2K KTi I TiI Ti I

(s) (g) (g) (s) (g)

The above sequence of the reaction is involved in the purification of metal by……

method

1) Zone refining 2) Cupelletion

3) Poling 4) Van-arkel method

523 17002 4 22 2K KTi I TiI Ti I


Rough Work

M 2016 A 89 Q

A


Rough Work

M 2016 A 90 Q

A


Rough Work

M 2016 A 91 Q

A


Rough Work

M 2016 A 92 Q

A

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