Aerodynamic Question

PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

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Civil Aviation Agency of Slovenia

CATALOG WRITTEN EXAM QUESTIONS

LICENCE

Glider Pilot Licence - GPL

Ref. kat. 2007


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THEORY OF FLIGHT (A) A-0001. Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle? (1) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. (2) An additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the wing deflects air downward. (3) Air travelling faster over the curved upper surface of an aerofoil causes lower pressure on the top surface. A-0002. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle (1) between the wing chord line and the relative wind. (2) between aircraft trajectory and horizon. (3) formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing. A-0003. The angle between the relative wind and the wing chord line is (1) angle of incidence. (2) angle of attack. (3) gliding angle. (4) climb angle. A-0004. The angle of incidence is (1) the angle between the direction of relative airflow and the chord line of the wing. (2) the angle between horizontal stabilizer and the chord line of the elevator. (3) distance between wing leading edge and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. (4) the angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. A-0005. At which angle of attack should we normally expect beginning of a stall? (1) 3° - 5°. (2) 5° - 10°. (3) 10° - 18°. (4) greater than 25°. A-0006. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will (1) increase if the CG is moved forward. (2) change with an increase in gross weight. (3) remain the same regardless of gross weight. (4) increase if the CG is moved aft.

A-0007. When reaching the critical angle of attack, it is (1) (Cy)max. (2) (Cy/Cx)max. (3) (Cy)min.

(4) (Cy³/Cx²)max.


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A-0008. What happens to the lift and drag of an aerofoil when the angle of attack is increased beyond the stalling angle? (1) Both lift and drag start decreasing. (2) Lift continuous increasing and drag starts decreasing. (3) Lift starts decreasing and drag continuous increasing. (4) Lift and drag remain the same beyond the stalling angle. A-0009. Aspect ratio is a ratio between (1) wing span and average chord. (2) chord and wing span. (3) drag and thrust. (4) shape of an aerofoil and chord. A-0010. What is the relationship between lift and aspect ratio? (1) As lift increases, aspect ratio will decrease. (2) High (numeric value) aspect ratio means more lift for a given area of wing. (3) High (numeric value) aspect ratio means less lift for a given area of wing. A-0011. The laminar flow aerofoil is (1) a symmetrical aerofoil. (2) an aerofoil with a slightly curved surface. (3) an aerofoil with a smooth surface. (4) an aerofoil with the maximum thickness moved towards the rear of the aerofoil. A-0012. A symmetrical aerofoil (1) does not produce any lift. (2) has minimum induced drag at positive angle of attack. (3) has the center of pressure position which is independent of the angle of attack. (4) has high lift-drag ratio. A-0013. The point of tangency between the line drawn from the coordinate point of origin and the wing polar denotes the (1) critical angle of attack. (2) minimum-rate-of-descent angle of attack. (3) null-lift angle of attack. (4) best lift-drag ratio angle of attack. A-0014. On the wing polar diagram, the angle of attack for a minimum sink is marked as (1) 2. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (see Figure 1) A-0015. The best angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as (1) 2. (2) 4. (3) 5.


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(4) 6. (see Figure 1) A-0016. The critical angle of attack on the wing polar diagram is marked as (1) 1. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (see Figure 1) A-0017. The angle of attack for a minimum drag on the wing polar diagram is marked as (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 7. (see Figure 1) A-0018. Which forces act on an aircraft in a stable, straight gliding? (1) Lift, pressure and weight. (2) Thrust, drag and weight. (3) Lift, drag and weight. (4) Lift, drag and weight of an empty aircraft. A-0019. Which forces create the resulting aerodynamic force? (1) Lift and velocity. (2) Drag and velocity. (3) Lift and drag. (4) Velocity and profile drag. A-0020. Lift generated by an aerofoil is (1) proportional to the square of the velocity of the relative airflow. (2) proportional to the velocity of the relative airflow. (3) inversely proportional to the air density. (4) inversely proportional to the wing surface area. A-0021. How will lift coefficient behave when a pilot gradually increases the angle of attack by pulling on the control column or the stick? (1) It increases and reaches maximum value at the critical angle of attack. (2) It increases and reaches maximum value at the angle of attack for the best glide. (3) It decreases and reaches minimum value at the angle of attack for minimum sink. (4) It decreases and reaches minimum value at the angle of attack for minimum drag. A-0022. What happens to the center of pressure of an aerofoil when the angle of attack is increased toward the stalling angle? (1) It moves aft. (2) It does not change its position. (3) It moves upward. (4) It moves forward.


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A-0023. Drag coefficient of a body mainly depends on the (1) mass of the body. (2) shape and attitude of the body in an airstream. (3) air temperature. (4) substance from which the body is made. [2] 6567-A2 A-0024. Which of the shapes of the same size and velocity has the greatest aerodynamic drag? (1) Flat plate. (2) Tear-shaped body. (3) Hollow half-ball, opened toward airstream. (4) Full ball. A-0025. If the velocity of an airstream is doubled, the drag coefficient will (1) double. (2) not change. (3) increase 4-times. (4) increase 6-times. A-0026. Aerodynamic drag force depends on (1) form drag, mass and the material from which the body is made. (2) drag coefficient, form drag, and total surface area of the body. (3) drag coefficient, total surface area, dynamic pressure and lift coefficient. (4) drag coefficient, perpendicular surface area of the body, and density and velocity of the air. A- 0027. Aerodynamic drag, caused by vortices due to pressure equalizing at wingtips, is called (1) induced drag. (2) interference drag. (3) total drag. (4) form drag. A- 0028. What is the reason for the creation of wingtip vortices during flight? (1) Deflected flaps in heavy aircraft. (2) The deflection of airflow behind the trailing edge of the wing upwards because of the creation of lift. (3) While an aeroplane moves forward, the air from beneath the wing flows up to the upper surface, the air from above the wing, however, flows down; this creates wingtip vortices. A-0029. What is the direction of rotation of the wingtip vortices? (1) Clockwise near the left wingtip and counter clockwise near the right wingtip, viewing to the direction of flight. (2) Counter clockwise near the left wingtip and clockwise near the right wingtip, viewing to the direction of flight. (3) From the lower surface of the wing upward and forward; their axis is parallel to the wing spare. A-0030. Which wing planform has the greatest induction drag? (1) Rectangular. (2) Taper. (3) Elliptical. (4) Double taper.


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A-0031. Which wing planform gives minimal induced drag? (1) Rectangular. (2) Tapered. (3) Elliptical. (4) Double taper. A-0032. What is the relationship between induced drag and airspeed? (1) Induced drag decreases as airspeed decreases. (2) Induced drag increases as airspeed decreases. (3) Induced drag is constant through the entire speed range. (4) Induced drag increases only at the speeds above 180 kt. A-0033. The reduction of induced drag is achieved also (1) with a shorter wing span. (2) with flaps. (3) with the same chord along the wingspan. (4) by making the wingspan as long as possible relative to the chord. A-0034. The interference drag is the greatest (1) at wingtips. (2) on flaps. (3) between the wing and fuselage. (4) in the thickest part of the aerofoil. A-0035. The glide ratio or finesse is the relationship between (1) the distance forwards and the distance downwards. (2) lift and drag ratio. (3) the forward speed and sink speed. (4) All of the above answers are correct. A-0036. Approximately how high is the drag force of a glider weighing 300 kg gliding with glide ratio 30? (1) 3.000 N. (2) 1.000 N. (3) 300 N. (4) 100 N. A-0037. The angle of attack of the best finesse equals the expression (1) (Cy)max. (2) (Cy/Cx)max. (3) (Cy)min.

(4) (Cy³/Cx²)max.

A-0038. The best gliding ratio of an aircraft (1) is significantly greater at higher aircraft mass. (2) depends on aircraft CG position. (3) is practically independent of aircraft mass.


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A-0039. Which number in the gliding diagram indicates aerodynamic resultant? (1) Number 1. (2) Number 2. (3) Number 3. (4) Number 4. (see Attachment 2!) A-0040. Which number in the gliding diagram indicates lifting force? (1) Number 1. (2) Number 2. (3) Number 3. (4) Number 4. (see Attachment 2!) A-0041. Which number in the gliding diagram indicates drag? (1) Number 1. (2) Number 2. (3) Number 3. (4) Number 4. (see Attachment 2!) A-0042. Which number in the gliding diagram indicates the glide angle of descent? (1) Numbers 5 and 7. (2) Only number 6. (3) Only number 5. (4) Numbers 6 in 7. (see Attachment 2!) A-0043. Which number in the gliding diagram indicates the angle of attack? (1) Numbers 5 and 7. (2) Only number 6. (3) Only number 5. (4) Numbers 6 in 7. (see Attachment 2!) A-0044. In gliding flight, which force is equal to weight? (1) Lift force. (2) Resultant of the lift and drag forces. (3) Vertical component of the lift force. (4) Resultant of the lift force and velocity. A-0045. Which force makes a fixed-wing aircraft or helicopter turn? (1) Vertical component of lift. (2) Centrifugal force. (3) Increased lift. (4) Horizontal component of lift.


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A-0046. In a turn, the lift force is (1) equal to the lift force in straight-and-level flight. (2) always twice as big as the lift force in straight-and-level flight. (3) greater than the lift force in straight-and-level flight. (4) smaller than the lift force in straight-and-level flight because the centrifugal force compensates for a part of the lift force. A-0047. Increased velocity in a turn must be maintained (1) to prevent slipping toward lowered wing. (2) to prevent bank oscillations. (3) to compensate for adverse yaw. (4) to keep the wing angle of attack the same as in straight-and-level flight. A-0048. What is the load factor in a 60° banked level turn? (1) 1.5 G. (2) 2.0 G. (3) 0.5 G. (4) 1.0 G. (see attachment 3!)

A-0049. What is the stalling speed of an aircraft in a 60° banked turn if its value in a level flight equals 85 km/h? (1) 100 km/h. (2) 120 km/h. (3) 135 km/h. (4) 140 km/h. (see attachment 3!) A-0050. Compared with solo flying, when flying with passengers on board, the pilot must be aware that (1) the speed of the best glide ratio is lower. (2) the critical angle of attack is better, i.e. wider. (3) the best glide ratio is higher. (4) the stalling speed (minimum speed) is higher. A-0051. How does increased wing loading affect the stalling speed of an aircraft? (1) Stalling speed is greater. (2) Stalling speed is lower. (3) Stalling speed remains unchanged because it depends exclusively on bank angle. (4) Stalling speed remains unchanged because it depends on bank angle and flaps position only. A-0052. Approximately for what percentage will the stalling speed increase if wing loading is increased by 20%? (1) 0%. (2) 10%. (3) 30%. (4) 20%.


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A-0053. What is the approximate increase of the minimum speed if the aircraft mass is increased by 40%? (1) 0%. (2) 100%. (3) 40%. (4) 18%. A-0054. In a turn, the separation of the airstream on the wing could result in (1) greater control forces. (2) skidding. (3) slipping. (4) a spin. A-0055. During a turn, the indicated stalling speed (1) decreases with increasing bank. (2) increases with increasing bank. (3) decreases with decreasing radius. (4) does not depend on bank and radius. A-0056. With an increase of altitude the indicated stalling speed will (1) decrease progressively. (2) increase progressively. (3) stay unchanged. A-0057. During a turn in windy conditions, the indicated stalling speed when flying toward the wind, compared with the indicated stalling speed when flying with the tailwind, is (1) increased by one half of the longitudinal wind component. (2) decreased by one half of the longitudinal wind component. (3) decreased by the longitudinal wind component. (4) the same, because the wind does not affect the stalling speed of an aircraft. A-0058. Does an aircraft wing stall at unique angle of attack? (1) No, because a wing stalls at unique velocity rather than unique angle of attack. (2) Yes, always. (3) No, because the stalling speed depends on aircraft's mass and bank angle. A-0059. How do we prevent the aircraft from stalling when the airflow separates on a part of the wing and the wing drops? (1) We have to turn all controls in the opposite direction of the spinning. (2) Pull the control column forward to level the plane (3) We have to apply air brakes. (4) We have to apply full opposite rudder and ease the control column forward to increase the speed of the aircraft. A-0060. Under which circumstances can an aircraft wing stall? (1) Only when the nose of the aircraft is high above the horizon and the velocity is low. (2) Only when the velocity decreases below the value from the manual. (3) At any velocity and attitude.


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(4) Only when the nose of the aircraft is high above the horizon. A-0061. Is it possible for the spin to develop without stalling the wing? (1) Yes, at the speeds, higher than stalling speed. (2) Yes, if the center of gravity is located in the aft position. (3) No, because the spin is the result and continuation of the stall. A-0062. What would be the control and airspeed indications during a developed spin? (1) Controls = firm; airspeed = increasing rapidly. (2) Controls = sloppy; airspeed = relatively constant. (3) Controls = firm; airspeed = relatively constant. (4) Controls = sloppy; airspeed = increasing rapidly. A-0063. What would be the control and airspeed indications during a developed spiral? (1) Controls = firm; airspeed = increasing rapidly. (2) Controls = sloppy; airspeed = relatively constant. (3) Controls = firm; airspeed = relatively constant. (4) Controls = sloppy; airspeed = increasing rapidly. A-0064. The correct procedure for recovering an airplane or a glider from the stall is: (1) apply the opposite rudder, set the ailerons to normal operation, ease the control column forward, level the wings from the pitch. (2) apply the rudder and opposite ailerons, pull the stick on you with force. (3) simply release the stick. (4) turn the rudder and stick into the direction of spinning, push the stick forward . A-0065. During ridge soaring, the pilot shall fly at (1) the speed which is closest to the minimum speed. (2) the speed of the best finesse/glide ratio. (3) Minimum sink speed. (4) the maximum allowed speed. A-0066. What does label 1 in the picture of a polar curve of a glider represent? (1) Speed for the best glide angle. (2) Speed for the best finesse/glide ratio. (3) Maximum allowed speed. (4) Minimum sink speed. (see Attachment 4!) A-0067. Label 2 in the picture of a polar curve of a glider represents (1) the best finesse/glide ratio regime. (2) minimum sink speed. (3) maneouvring speed. (4) the glide angle which should be applied during ridge soaring. (see Attachment 4!)


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A-0068. The speed for the best glide of a glider or hang glider flying in headwind can be determined graphically with help of a polar curve by drawing a tangent from the origin of the coordinate system, which is in our case shifted for the speed of the headwind (1) to the right. (2) upwards. (3) downwards. (4) to the left. A-0069. By drawing a secant which goes through the origin of the coordinate system to the polar curve we get two points with (1) different finesse/glide ratio and the same angle of attack. (2) different angle of attack and the same finesse/glide ratio. (3) different angle of attack and different finesse/glide ratio. (4) different finesse/glide ratio and the same sink rate. A-0070. How does the polar curve change if the pilot loads water ballast? It shifts (1) along the tangent from the origin of the coordinate system, the shape however remains unchanged. (2) in the direction of higher sink rates. (3) in the direction of higher speeds. (4) along the tangent from the origin of the coordinate system, and is deformed. A-0071. To determine the speed for the best glide ratio of a glider or hang glider flying through the sinking air the origin of the coordinate system of the polar curve has to be (1) left in the original/basic position. (2) moved up by an amount equal to the velocity of the downdraft / sinking air. (3) moved down by an amount equal to the velocity of the downdraft. (4) moved along the tangent for half of the value of the sink. A-0072. What is the sink rate of a glider flying at 90 km/h? (1) 0,8 m/sec. (2) 1,0 m/sec. (3) 1,25 m/sec. (4) 1,5 m/sec. (see Attachment 5!) A-0073. What is the sink rate of a glider flying at 100 km/h? (1) 0,8 m/sec. (2) 1,1 m/sec. (3) 1,25 m/sec. (4) 1,5 m/sec. (see Attachment 5!) A-0074. What is the sink rate of a glider flying at 120 km/h? (1) 0,8 m/sec. (2) 1,0 m/sec. (3) 1,25 m/sec. (4) 1,6 m/sec. (see Attachment 5!)


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A-0075. What is the sink rate of a glider flying at 140 km/h? (1) 2,3 m/sec. (2) 1,8 m/sec. (3) 1,75 m/sec. (4) 1,5 m/sec. (see Attachment 5!) A-0076. What is the speed of the best finesse of a glider flying in still air? (1) 83 km/h. (2) 97 km/h. (3) 105 km/h. (4) 112 km/h. (see Attachment 5!) A-0077. What is the speed of the best finesse, and the best finesse of a glider? (1) 83 km/h and 31. (2) 83 km/h and 11. (3) 100 km/h and 41. (4) 105 km/h and 38. (see Attachment 5!) A-0078. What is the highest crousing speed that can be reached by a specific glider in still air and average thermal rising 2,5 m/sec (downdrafts during risings are not considered)? (1) 65 km/h. (2) 74 km/h. (3) 85 km/h. (4) 120 km/h. (see Attachment 5!) A-0079. What is the highest crousing speed that can be reached by a specific glider in still air and average thermal rising 1 m/sec (downdrafts during risings are not considered)? (1) 50 km/h. (2) 30 km/h. (3) 25 km/h. (4) 22 km/h. (see Attachment 5!) A-0080. What is the overall tendency of an aircraft to return to its original position, following a series of dampening oscillations? (1) Positive dynamic stability. (2) Pitch stability. (3) Static stability. (4) Choices 1) and 2). A-0081. Why is necessary for the pilot to keep the center of gravity of an aircraft within the limits? (1) in order not to overstress the aircraft. (2) to ensure the stability of the aircraft remains within the design limitations. (3) to ensure that the stalling speed is as low as possible. (4) to ensure that the stalling speed is as high as possible.


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A-0082. Which CG position is the most dangerous regarding longitudinal stability of an aircraft? (1) Backward position. (2) Forward position. (3) Too excessive lateral displacement. (4) Too low position. A-0083. What is the longitudinal axis of an airplane? (1) An axis which runs from nose to tail through the center of gravity. (2) An axis which runs from wingtip to wingtip through the center of gravity. (3) An axis which runs from wingtip to wingtip through the center of pressure. A-0084. How do we call the stability around the longitudinal axis? (1) Longitudinal stability. (2) Lateral stability. (3) Directional stability. A-0085. What determines the stability around the longitudinal axis (lateral stability) of an aircraft? (1) The angle of sweepback. (2) The aerodynamic washout of a wing. (3) The aerodynamic balancing of ailerons. (4) Dihedral angel and low position of the center of gravity. A-0086. Besides other factors, what determines the stability around the lateral axis (longitudinal stability) of an aircraft? (1) The effectiveness and design of the horizontal tail surfaces. (2) The dihedral angle. (3) The variable angle of incidence. (4) The angle of sweepback of the wings. A-0087. Which parts of an aircraft ensure stability around the vertical axis? (1) Vertical stabilizer only. (2) Rudder only. (3) Dihedral of the wings. (4) Entire vertical tail surfaces. A-0088. When flying without a bank, what is the secondary effect of rudder deflection to the left? (1) Banking to the left. (2) Banking to the right. (3) The rudder has no secondary effect.

A-0089. Because of a down-deflected aileron (1) both lift and drag increase. (2) the moment around the lateral axis changes significantly. (3) only lift increases. (4) only drag increases. A-0090. What is the secondary effect of a control stick move to the right?


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(1) Adverse yaw to the left. (2) No secondary effect. (3) Uncontrolled roll movements at high angle of attack. (4) Adverse yaw to the right. A-0091. What control responds are needed for recovering an airplane or glider from a left bank, caused by a thermal strike under the left wing? (1) Control stick to the left together with a pressure on the right pedal. (2) Control stick to the left only. (3) Control stick to the left together with a pressure on the left pedal. (4) Control stick to the left first, followed by a pressure on the right pedal. A-0092. During a straight flight, what kind of adverse effect is caused by elevator deflection? (1) Banking to the left. (2) Yawing to the right. (3) Yawing to the left. (4) When deflected, an elevator has no adverse effect. A-0093. Which adverse effect is caused by elevator deflection during level flight? (1) No effect, because elevator deflection affects movement around the lateral axis only. (2) Banking to the left. (3) Banking to the right. (4) Banking to the right and rotation around the vertical axis to the right A-0094. The change of the effect of rudder and elevator occurs during (1) sharp turns with a bank angle greater than 45°. (2) application of full rudder. (3) deflection of elevator at all speeds. (4) deflected ailrons at the critical angle of attack. A-0095. At the angles of attack close to the stalling angle, banks should be recovered using (1) ailerons mostly. (2) elevator only. (3) ailerons exclusively. (4) rudder mostly. A-0096. The manoeuvring speed (VA) is the maximum speed at which the pilot, even with an instantaneous full deflection of the elevator upwards, shall not exceed the (1) overload coefficient of 1G. (2) allowed negative value of the overload coefficient. (3) allowed positive value of the overload coefficient. (4) never-exceed speed (VNE). A-0097. Extending flaps increases the curvature of the wing aerofoil. How does it affect lift and drag? (1) Both of them increase. (2) Both of them decrease. (3) Lift increases, drag decreases. (4) Lift decreases, drag increases.


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A-0098. One of the main reasons for the use of flaps during approach and landing is the fact that flaps (1) enable touchdown at a higher indicated speed. (2) increase sink angle without increasing speed. (3) decrease sink angle without increasing speed. A-0099. If the pilot deflects flaps to the position for take-off, (1) lift increases with simultaneous small increase of drag. (2) lift increases with simultaneous large increase of drag. (3) drag increases significantly with simultaneous small decrease of lift. (4) lift and drag remain constant. A-0100. When flying with down-deflected flaps, pilots have to be aware that the stalling speed of an aircraft, compared to the flight without deflected flaps, is (1) lower. (2) unchanged, because it does not depend on the position of flaps. (3) higher. A-0101. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to (1) decrease lift to permit steep approach. (2) increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. (3) permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed. (4) decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. A-0102. The advantage of flaps in thermal soaring is that (1) they enable a better use of lift because the pilot can circle at a lower speed and within a shorter radius. (2) they lower the sink rate to a large extent and enable thermal circling at the same speed and sometimes even higher speed than without them. (3) due to the increase of lift coefficient, they increase the maximum glide ratio, especially when flying at high speed. (4) at a constant bank and speed they enable a shorter radius of circling than in thermal soaring without flaps. A-0103. Which of the below statements concerning the technique of thermal gliding with flaps is correct? During thermal gliding with flaps (1) pilots exploit the fact that the sink rate of the aircraft with deflected flaps is considerably lower and that they can circle at increased speed to achieve a more stable flight. (2) pilots can circle at a lower speed than without flaps; in this way the radius of circling is shorter and the exploitation of themals better. (3) pilots circle at the same speed and bank than without flaps because the radius of circling with deflected flaps is shorter. (4) pilots circle at the same speed and bank than without flaps because the sink rate with deflected flaps is significantly lower, which is the main objective of flaps. A-0104. A glider using flaps during thermal soaring makes a better use of rising because with deflected flaps (1) minimum sink rate is considerably lower. (2) maximum glide ratio is higher. (3) it is possible to circle at lower speed. (4) it is possible to circle at increased speed without significantly increasing the sink rate.


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A-0105. During take-off, the pilot does not deflect the flaps fully because (1) lift would be too strong. (2) drag would be grater. (3) the plane would be "Nose Heavy". (4) they could be damaged. A-0106. During the landing phase, just before touchdown at low speed, it is dangerous to retract the extended flaps because by retracting them (1) drag increases and speed quickly decreases. (2) speed increases momentarily and the aircraft starts to rise. (3) lift greatly decreases and the aircraft can dive. (4) the effect of flaps is greatly reduced. A-0107. The maximum speed at which the pilot may deflect flaps (1) is lower than the maximum allowed speed for flying with deflected flaps. (2) equals the maximum allowed cruising speed. (3) equals the manoeuvring speed. (4) equals the maximum allowed speed for flying with deflected flaps.

A-0108. The effect of the deployed spoilers is (1) higher glide ratio. (2) lower glide ratio. (3) increase of lift. (4) decrease of minimum speed. A-0109. How do deployed spoilers effect flying of a glider? (1) Lift and drag are increased. (2) Landing is possible at lower speed. (3) Due to increased drag the sink rate increases. (4) It is possible to fly at a higher angle of attack. A-0110. How do deployed spoilers affect the approach phase before landing? The minimum speed is (1) lower, the glide angle is unchanged. (2) higher, the glide angle is unchanged. (3) higher, the glide angle is steeper. (4) lower, the glide angle is steeper. A-0111. The most effective and safest way of extending the final approach when landing with a glider is (1) reduction of speed. (2) pulling the control stick backwards. (3) slightly retracting the spoilers and adjusting the speed. (4) trimming "to the tail". A-0112. If the pilot deploys the braking parachute, the stalling speed of the aircraft (1) decreases. (2) remains the same. (3) increases.


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KONSTRUKCIJE JADRALNIH LETAL (K) K-0001. A wing shape with the angle of incidence at the wingtip lower than the angle of incidence at the wing root is called (1) geometrically twisted wing. (2) dihedral. (3) swept wing. (4) aerodynamically twisted wing. K-0002. A wing shape with the same angle of incidence along the wingspan but with different aerofoils at the wing root and at the wingtip is called (1) aspect ratio. (2) geometrically twisted wing. (3) aerodynamically twisted wing. K-0003. What is the purpose of geometric and aerodynamic twisting of the wing? (1) Better wing rigidity and resistivity against bending. (2) Lower gliding airspeed with flaps extended. (3) Better aileron effectiveness at high angles of attack and lower induced drag. (4) Better wing torsion resistivity. K-0004. A rectangular wing, which has a tendency to stall first at the wing root when approaching the stalling angle, is a convenient solution because (1) so created vortices strike against tail surfaces thus warning the pilot of impending stall, before the airstream starts separating from the rest of the wing. (2) the tendency towards banking during approach to the stalling angle is weaker. (3) ailerons stay efficient at high angle of attack. (4) all of the above is correct. K-0005. "Wing loading" is (1) maximum mass that a wing can support. (2) maximum take-off mass. (3) mass supported per unit area of a wing. (4) mass of the air substituted by an aircraft.

K-0006. The fuselage of the glider Blanik consists of (1) frame, longerons and hull. (2) ribs, frames and covering. (3) formed/moulded parts, pylons and covering. (4) ribs, pylons and longerons. K-0007. The purpose of the fuse in the tow wire is (1) protection of the tow wire. (2) to prevent the throttle-back of the winch engine. (3) to prevent the overloading of the glider airframe during towing. (4) to prevent overflight of the winch prior to disconnecting the tow wire.


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K-0008. The pilot is making preparations for a solo flight in a two seat glider; a label in the cockpit says: MIN. MASS DURING SOLO FLIGHT IS 75 KG What does the pilot do if he/she weighs 60 kg and the parachute 7 kg? The pilots adds (1) 8 kg of ballast on the back seat. (2) 15 kg of ballast on the back seat. (3) 8 kg of ballast on the front seat. (4) 15 kg of water ballast. K-0009. The control surface(s) for controlling movements around the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is (are) called (1) Ailerons. (2) rudder. (3) bank trimmer. (4) elevator. K-0010. In which direction deflect the ailerons of an aircraft, if the pilot moves the control wheel or stick to the left? (1) Left aileron deflects down, right aileron deflects up. (2) Both ailerons deflect up but the left aileron deflects more than the right one. (3) Both ailerons deflect down but the left aileron deflects less than the right one. (4) Left aileron deflects up, right aileron deflects down. K-0011. Differential ailerons are (1) mass balanced ailerons which decrease forces on the control stick. (2) aerodynamically balanced ailerons which decrease forces on the control stick. (3) ailerons which deflect up more than deflect down. (4) ailerons which deflect down more than deflect up. K-0012. During a pre-flight check, the pilot observes that when moving the stick to the side the up-going aileron is deflected through a greater angle than the opposite down-going aileron. What does he/she do? (1) The pilot informs the mechanic. (2) The pilot considers the situation as normal if the difference in unequal aileron deflection in the opposite direction is the same, however, he/she writes the observation in the log in the form of a technical note. (3) Nothing, because these are the so called differential ailerons. (4) The pilot eliminates the unequal deflections by means of setting the hinges in the control surface of the ailerons. K-0013. The control surface(s) for controlling movements around the lateral axis of an aircraft is(are) called (1) ailerons. (2) rudder. (3) bank trimmer. (4) elevator. K-0014. By adjusting the elevator trimmer in flight, the pilot (1) moves the aircraft's center of gravity. (2) alters lift hence it is always equal to the aircraft's weight. (3) eliminates the force, required to hold the control stick in a given position. (4) equalizes deflections of both halves of the elevator.


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K-0015. The effect of an elevator trimmer: (1) the surface of the trim tab creates an aerodynamic force which pushes the elevator's surface into desired direction. (2) by manipulating the trimmer, we are displacing the elevator's mass compensator. (3) by manipulating the trimmer, we alter the effectiveness of the elevator. (4) moving the trimmer lever forward causes the air stream to start separate from the trailing edge of the elevator. K-0016. In which direction does the elevator trim tab surface deflect if the pilot pulls the stick backward? (1) Upward. (2) Downward, but only if an aircraft moves. (3) Nowhere. (4) Downward. K-0017. When the trim tab on the elevator is deflected downward, the position of the trim lever in the cockpit is: (1) neutral. (2) forward. (3) rearward. K-0018. In which position or near which label is the elevator trim lever in the cockpit if the trim tab on the elevator is deflected upward? (1) In neutral. (2) Near the label "Nose Heavy". (3) Near the label "Tail Heavy". K-0019. How are the controls in the cabin of a glider connected to control surfaces? (1) By means of wire ropes exclusively. (2) By means of wire ropes and steel rods. (3) By means of seamless steel rods exclusively. (4) Hydraulically. K-0020. How often does an authorised person check airworthiness of a plane or glider? (1) Every two years and after each hard landing. (2) Once a year, prior to selling the aircraft and after repair. (3) In the period of one year after last check, after major repair and general revision. (4) Each year prior to the beginning of flying period. K-0021. Official data regarding restrictions in use and permitted loading of our aircraft is contained in the (1) aircraft maintenance logbook. (2) Aircraft Flight Manual. (3) Airworthiness Certificate and Certificate of Registration. (4) official publications of the Cavil Aviation Agency. K-0022. The never-exceed speed (VNE), listed in the Aircraft Flight Manual (1) is prescribed only for aerobatic flights. (2) cannot be reached in pitching. (3) can never be exceeded.


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(4) can be exceeded only in still air. K-0023. Where can a pilot obtain official data regarding the polar curve of his/her glider? (1) At the Civil Aviation Agency. (2) At the Aviation Safety Inspectorate. (3) At the aircraft manufacturer. (4) In the Aircraft Flight Manual. K-0024. One of the materials used for building modern gliders is (1) polyvinyl chloride, reinforced with carbon fibres. (2) epoxide resin, reinforced with glass fibres. (3) polyester resin, reinforced with glass fibres. (4) Bakelite resin, reinforced with carbon fibres. K-0025. The resin used for the building of aircraft (1) has a high bearing capacity, and glass fibres are added only as a filler to reduce the weight and price of the final product. (2) is a row material of unlimited duration. (3) is single component row material, which starts to harden when it comes into contact with air. (4) has a binding function while most of the load bearing function is performed by glass fibres, which have the function of the armature/frame. K-0026. When working with epoxy, special attention should be paid to (1) working temperature. (2) draught. (3) sufficient force, with which we press the glued parts. (4) the ratio of resin-hardener and working temperature. K-0027. The paint coating on a glider (1) is protected by a two pack colourless varnish which does not require a special protective layer and is resistant to atmospheric effects. (2) is not treated because the paint surface is smooth. After application of paint, the surface is waxed. (3) is after application treated with rough and fine polishing paste and finally protected with a silicon coating. (4) is sanded with finer and finer paper and finally waxed and polished with a flannel.

K-0028. How do we care for the paint coating on a glider?

(1) The paint on a glider does not require special care. Regular washing with a car detergent is sufficient. (2) After each washing, we spread a liquid containing bee wax on the glider and polish it with soft cloth. (3) After each washing, we use a silicon polish and polish the glider to shine. (4) The paint on a glider does not require special care. Regular washing with a good detergent and occasional polishing with a silicon floor polish is sufficient.

K-0029. The artificial glass used for aircraft canopies or windshields may be cleaned (1) with the same preparations normally used for cleaning window glass. (2) similarly as the motor car windows because of the same hardness. (3) together with other aircraft surfaces and with the same preparations for cleaning. (4) with mild and non-abrasive preparations for cleaning.


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K-0030. Oil on the windscreen of an aircraft may be removed with (1) alcohol. (2) water and mild liquid detergent. (3) acetone. (4) gasoline or kerosene.

K-0031. After cleaning, the windows of an aircraft could be protected by (1) a thin film of oil. (2) graphite paste. (3) silicon paste. (4) a thin deposit of wax and polished with a soft cloth.

K-0032. When is it necessary to leave the rope with which we tie down the glider a bit loose? (1) When using hemp ropes. (2) When using nylon ropes. (3) In strong wind. (4) Ropes for tying down gliders shall always be tightened.

K-0033. In the cabin of a glider there is a green handle used for controlling (1) air brakes. (2) the trimmer. (3) the tow hook. (4) the canopy jettison system.

K-0034. In the cabin of a glider there is a red handle used for controlling (1) air brakes. (2) the trimmer. (3) the tow hook. (4) the canopy jettison system. .

K-0035. In the cabin of a glider there is a blue handle used for controlling (1) air brakes. (2) the trimmer. (3) the tow hook. (4) the canopy jettison system.

K-0036. What does the green colour band on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft indicate? (1) Dangerous area. (2) Landing gear and flaps operating speed range. (3) Normal operating range. (4) Maximum allowed speed.

K-0037. What does the red line on an aviation instrument generally represent? (1) Dangerous area. (2) Landing gear operating speed range. (3) Normal operating range. (4) Maximal or minimal allowed value.


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K-0038. What does the yellow arc on the indicator of an aircraft instrument represent? (1) Dangerous area. (2) Landing gear and flaps operating speed range. (3) Normal operating range. (4) Maximum allowed value.

K-0039. Which pneumatic instrument(s) is (are) connected to the total pressure?

(1) Compensated variometer with TE probe and variometer with Mac Cready ring. (2) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator and variometer with Mac Cready ring.

(3) Airspeed indicator only and if installed pneumatically operated turn-and slip indicator. (4) Airspeed indicator, variometer with capsule and variometer with Mac Cready ring. K-0040. Besides the altimeter, which instruments are connected to the static pressure line? (1) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and turn-and-skid indicator. (2) Airspeed indicator only. (3) Airspeed indicator and external temperature indicator. (4) Airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.

K-0041. Which instrument(s) does (do) not need static pressure supply for operation? (1) Airspeed indicator. (2) Airspeed indicator and electrical vertical speed indicator. (3) Van-type vertical speed indicator. (4) Pneumatically operated turn-and-slip indicator.

K-0042. If static vents become clogged, the accuracy of the (1) airspeed indicator is not affected. (2) vertical speed indicator is affected only. (3) altimeter is affected only. (4) altimeter, vertical speed and airspeed indicator is affected.

K-0043. Which instrument(s) become inoperative if static vents become clogged? (1) Altimeter, vertical speed and airspeed indicator. (2) Vertical speed, airspeed and turn-and-skid indicator. (3) Altimeter, artificial horizon, and turn-and-skid indicator. (4) Vertical speed indicator, artificial horizon, and turn-and-skid indicator.

K-0044. Which instrument(s) is (are) not affected if static vents become clogged? (1) Airspeed indicator. (2) Altimeter. (3) Vertical speed indicator. (4) Turn-and-slip indicator.

K-0045. Which pressure is collected by the mouth of a pitot tube? (1) Total pressure (p+q). (2) Static pressure (p). (3) Dynamic pressure (q). (4) The suction (-q) for the operation of a turn-and-slip indicator.


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K-0046. Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? (1) Altimeter only. (2) Pneumatic vertical speed indicator only. (3) Airspeed indicator only. (4) Altimeter and airspeed indicator.

K-0047. What is the basic constructional difference between the membrane capsule in an airspeed indicator and the membrane capsule in an altimeter? The membrane capsule in an airspeed indicator is (1) closed; the total pressure line is connected to the place for connection of the static pressure line; in the membrane capsule is vacuum. (2) closed and connected to static pressure; the membrane capsule in an altimeter is opened and connected to total pressure. (3) opened and connected to total pressure; the membrane capsule in an altimeter is closed. (4) under influence of atmospheric pressure; the membrane capsule in an altimeter is under influence of dynamic pressure.

K-0048. What does the white arc on the airspeed indicator of an aircraft or a glider indicate? (1) Airbrakes operating speed range. (2) Flaps operating speed range. (3) Allowed speed range for the performance of aerobatics. (4) Maximum allowed speed.

K-0049. What does the green triangle on the airspeed indicator of a glider indicate?

(1) Minimum speed at maximum weight. (2) Recommended approach speed for landing at maximum weight. (3) Maximum speed for flying with flaps extended. (4) Manoeuvring speed.

K-0050. For airspeed measurement with a classic airspeed indicator, the dynamic pressure is needed, which depends (1) on air pressure only. (2) on air density and the square of the airspeed. (3) on airspeed exclusively. (4) on temperature only.

K-0051. How does a mechanical airspeed indicator work? (1) High pressure ram air moves a lever which moves the airspeed indicator needle. (2) Differential air pressure from two separate inputs acting on either side of a diaphragm operates a system of levers which moves the airspeed indicator needle. (3) Combined air pressure inputs operate a turbine which is geared to the airspeed indicator needle.

K-0052. Which speed can basically be measured by each GPS instrument? (1) True airspeed. (2) Indicated airspeed. (3) Vertical speed. (4) Wind speed


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K-0053. What kind of pressure supply is needed for the functioning of an aircraft airspeed indicator? (1) Dynamic pressure and a separate supply of static pressure. (2) Static pressure only. (3) Total pressure and a separate supply of static pressure. (4) The suction equal to the dynamic pressure only.

K-0054. Each airspeed indicator needs for its operation (1) static pressure, which comes from the static ports on the fuselage. (2) total pressure, which comes from the mouth of the pitot tube. (3) Both answers 1 and 2 are correct provided each pressure line is connected to the instrument on its own connection pad. (4) Both answers 1 and 2 are correct provided both pressure lines are connected to the instrument on the same connection pad. K-0055. At what indicated airspeed (IAS) do pilots preform an approach for landing in high temperature if they are aware that due to lower air density the true airspeed (TAS) of the stall is increased? (1) At increased indicated airspeed (IAS). (2) At normal indicated airspeed (IAS). (3) At decreased indicated airspeed (IAS). (4) At own discretion. K-0056. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is equal to the true airspeed (TAS) of an aircraft

(1) at sea level, at pressure 1013,2 hPa and temperature 15°C. (2) only at aerodrome level, at standard pressure and temperature. (3) at each level where the temperature is standard. (4) at sea level if the temperature is 0°C.

K-0057. What happens to the true airspeed (TAS) if the indicated airspeed (IAS) remains constant during a climb? (1) It increases. (2) It decreases. (3) It remains constant.

K-0058. Which important airspeed limitation is not colour coded on an aircraft airspeed indicator? (1) Never-exceed speed (VNE). (2) Maximum structural cruising speed (VMO). (3) Manoeuvring speed (VA). (4) Maximum speed with wing flaps extended (VFE).

K-0059. The zero level from which a pneumatic aircraft altimeter measures altitude is the (1) mean sea level. (2) airport. (3) pressure level set on the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter. (4) ground surface perpendicular to the aircraft.

K-0060. The pneumatic altimeter shows aircraft altitude above the (1) ground surface. (2) airfield.


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(3) mean sea level. (4) pressure surface set on the instrument.

K-0061. The barometric pressure scale on an aircraft altimeter serves to (1) read air pressure at flight altitude. (2) read the pressure difference between air pressure at airport level and air pressure at sea level. (3) set the altimeter precisely during the annual inspection in a service facility. (4) set the pressure value at the pressure level, from which the altimeter measures altitude.

K-0062. When is it necessary to set the pressure value on the supplementary barometric scale of an aircraft altimeter? (1) Once a year. (2) Once a month. (3) Before each flight and in the air, if necessary. (4) Each morning prior to the beginning of flying.

K-0063. If set to QNH, what will indicate the aircraft altimeter after landing? (1) Zero. (2) Airfield height above mean sea level. (3) Airfield height above the pressure plane 1013,2 hPa. (4) Airfield pressure altitude above the standard value. K-0064. What height does the altimeter indicate if set to local QNH? (1) Height above sea level. (2) Height above airport. (3) Height above terrain. (4) Flight level.

K-0065. Which altitudes indicates an aircraft altimeter if set to standard atmospheric pressure? (1) Absolute altitudes. (2) Relative altitudes. (3) True altitudes above the ground surface. (4) Flight levels. K-0066. What would be the indication of an aircraft altimeter if the pilot fails to set QNH during descent and leaves the instrument set to the standard pressure? (1) Zero. (2) The airport elevation. (3) The indication is not usable. (4) The airport height above the pressure plane 1013.2 hPa. K-0067. When set to QFE pressure, an altimeter will indicate the (1) altitude above sea level. (2) height above the airfield. (3) true altitude above ground surface. (4) flight level.


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K-0068. If an altimeter is set to QFE pressure, the instrument indication after landing will be (1) zero. (2) the airfield elevation. (3) the airfield height above the pressure plain 1013.2 hPa. (4) the airfield pressure height above the standard value.

K-0069. If an altimeter is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield level, it will indicate (1) the airfield elevation. (2) the altitude zero. (3) none of the specified altitudes. (4) the density altitude.

K-0070. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft true altitude (1) decreases. (2) increases. (3) is not defined. (4) stays unchanged. K-0071. What effect would an approaching low pressure system have on the altimeter in a parked aircraft? (1) No effect, since the aircraft is neither climbing nor descending. (2) The indicated altitude would increase due to decreasing barometric pressure. (3) The indicated altitude would decrease due to decreasing barometric pressure. (4) The altimeter would fluctuate due to increasing atmospheric instability. K-0072. When parking an aircraft for the night, the altimeter correctly indicates the height of the airport (1,000 ft MSL). The next morning, the altimeter indicates 1,200 ft. If the altimeter setting has not been changed, what is the most likely reason for the indicated change of altitude? (1) The altimeter setting has increased. (2) The barometric pressure has increased. (3) The barometric pressure has decreased.

K-0073. The correct operation of an altimeter is checked by (1) flying over towers of known height. (2) comparing indications of altimeter and radio altimeter. (3) setting the altimeter to QNH and checking that on surface level it indicates the see level. (4) compering the altitudes on the aviation map with a scale of 1:500 000. K-0074. The operational principle of a variometer with the capsule is measurement of the (1) difference between the pressure in the capsule and the pressure in the housing of the instrument. (2) difference between the total pressure and static pressure. (3) difference between the dynamic pressure and static pressure. (4) static pressure in the housing of the instrument. K-0075. How does the variometer with the capsule work during descent? (1) The outside pressure decreases, which causes the indication of descending? (2) The pressure build up in the capsule delays in comparison with the pressure build up in


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the instrument’s housing resulting in the shrinking of the membrane capsule, which causes the indication of descending. (3) The pressure differential between total pressure and static pressure transfers to the membrane capsule and from there to the instrument´s pointer. (4) The membrane capsule extends because of pressure drop in the instrument´s housing and constant pressure in the membrane capsule, which causes the indication of descending. K-0076. How does the vane-type variometer operate during descent? (1) The outside pressure decreases, which causes the indication of descending? (2) The pressure in the part of the housing of the variometer behind the vane, which is equalised with atmospheric pressure through a narrow gap between the vane and the housing, is delayed in respect to the pressure on the opposite side of the vane, which causes the vane to deflect resulting in the indication of descending. (3) The pressure differential between total pressure and static pressure transfers to the membrane capsule and from there to the instrument´s pointer. (4) The pressure in the instrument’s housing drops, which causes the vane to deflect resulting in the

indication of descending. K-0077. Which pneumatic hoses are connected to a classic pneumatic non-compensated variometer? (1) Static pressure hose (p), total pressure hose (p+q) and thermos hose. (2) Total pressure hose (p+q) and thermos hose. (3) Static pressure hose (p) and total pressure hose (p+q). (4) Static pressure hose (p) and thermos hose. K-0078. A classic pneumatic compensated variometer with a tube is, in addition to compensating pressure (p-q), connected to

(1) thermos bottle. (2) static pressure (p) and thermos bottle. (3) total pressure (p+q) and static pressure (p), the connection to the thermos bottle is not required. (4) total pressure (p+q) and thermos bottle. K-0079. Which pneumatic hoses are connected to an electronic variometer with pressure probe, total energy compensation and Mac Cready probe in addition to the static pressure hose (p)?

(1) None. (2) Total pressure hose (p+q). (3) Total pressure hose (p+q) and thermos hose. (4) Total pressure hose (p+q) and eventual compensating pressure hose (p-q). K-0080. What does the pilot achieve by connecting the variometer to a compensation tube? (1) The variometer does not show vertical movements that are the result of a change in altitude due to a change in velocity ("stick thermals"). (2) A quicker response of the variometer. (3) Damping of the variometer indication. (4) An increased range of the variometer scale.

K-0081. Which data does a pilot have to input into the total energy compensated variometer in SC mode? (1) None. (2) Wind and lift force. (3) Minimum damping and lift force.


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(4) Lift force and glider mass or wing loading.

K-0082. When flying at constant speed, the total energy compensated variometer indicates the vertical movement

(1) of a glider in respect of air mass.

(2) of air mass. (3) of a glider in respect of a point on the ground reduced for the vertical speed of air mass. (4) of a glider in respect of a point on the ground. K-0083. What does the total energy compensated variometer indicate, when a glider flies into a arising air and the pilot starts slowing down? (1) speed of the rising air. (2) speed of the rising air, reduced for intrinsic sink rate of a glider. (3) Zero. (4) Vertical speed of a glider in respect of a point on the ground. K-0084. The liquid in a magnetic compass serves as (1) temperature compensation. (2) damping of the compass rose oscillations. (3) decreasing of the magnetic dip. (4) easier instrument reading because of its magnifying effect. K-0085. The term "magnetic dip" stands for the (1) angle between the direction to the magnetic north and the direction to the true north. (2) angle between the longitudinal axis of an aircraft and the direction to the true north. (3) angle between the direction of the magnetic field and the horizontal plane. (4) deviation of a compass caused by electrical fields.

K-0086. The compass error caused by the influence of metall parts in the aircraft is called the (1) compass deviation. (2) compass turning error. (3) magnetic dip. (4) magnetic variation. K-0087. The compass deviation is the (1) angle between the longitudinal axis of an aircraft and the heading line. (2) deviation of the compass indication caused by variations in airspeed. (3) deviation of the compass indication caused by the magnetic influence of metal parts and electromagnetic fields in an aircraft. (4) heading correction due to crosswind.

K-0088. What is the reason for calibrating (or "swinging") the aeroplane compass? (1) Magnetic inclination. (2) Compass turning error. (3) Magnetic variation. (4) Compass deviation.


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K-0089. How often do we have to calibrate (swing) the magnetic compass of the aircraft? (1) Before the first basic inspection of an aircraft. (2) Once a year prior to the yearly inspection of an aircraft, or after each installation of additional instruments or radio equipment, or more often if necessary. (3) Each month. (4) After each longer flight. K-0090. The turning error of a magnetic compass is caused by (1) the compass deviation. (2) magnetic dip and radial acceleration in a turn. (3) torsion and magnetic dip. (4) magnetic variation and radial acceleration in a turn.

K-0091. The cardan-mounted gyroscope with 3 free axes (1) cannot maintain direction in space. (2) aligns own spin axis with the spin axis of Earth. (3) follows with own spin axis the rotation of Earth. (4) maintains own attitude in space. K-0092. Which instrument(s) indicate(s) movements around an aircraft's vertical axis? (1) The artificial horizon. (2) The gyroscopic compass. (3) The turn-and-slip and turn coordinator. K-0093. A turn-and-slip provides an indication of movement of an aircraft around the (1) Longitudinal axis. (2) Vertical axis. (3) Lateral axis. (4) Earth axis. K-0094. What does a turn-and-slip indicator display? (1) Pitch attitude. (2) Direction of turn and angular rate about vertical axis. (3) Movements around the longitudinal axis. (4) Movements around the lateral axis. K-0095. In addition to our feeling, we can recognize the side skidding of an aircraft by a (1) displacement of the turn-and-slip pointer. (2) displacement of the ball of the turn-and-slip. (3) bank of the artificial horizon. (4) compass spinning. K-0096. Besides of pilot´s feeling the indication of side slipping or skidding is (1) displacement of the turn-and-slip pointer. (2) displacement of the turn-and-slip ball or displacement of the string on the canopy at gliders. (3) bank of the phantom airplane at an artificial horizon. (4) compass spinning.


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K-0097. The ball in a turn-and-slip indicator provides the pilot with information about the (1) aircraft attitude in space. (2) direction of the normal. (3) angular velocity around the vertical axis of an aircraft. (4) direction of the resultant between gravity and centrifugal force. K-0098. What aerodynamic information is indicated when both the needle and ball of a turn-and-slip indicator are centred? (1) The aircraft is neither skidding nor slipping, and it is not turning. (2) The aircraft is climbing. (3) The aircraft is flying straight and level. K-0099. What information is indicated when the needle and ball of a turn-and-slip indicator are deviated to the right, as shown on picture B? (1) Left turn, skidding outwards. (2) Right turn, skidding outwards. (3) Left turn, slipping inwards. (4) Right turn, slipping inwards. (see Attachment 6!) K-0100. What information is indicated when the needle of a turn-and-slip indicator is left of centre and the ball is right of centre, as shown on picture C? (1) Left turn, skidding outwards. (2) Right turn, skidding outwards. (3) Left turn, slipping inwards. (4) Right turn, slipping inwards. (see Attachment 6!) K-0101. In an uncoordinated right turn with the ball of a turn-and-slip indicator deflected left of centre, the pilot would correct the situation by (1) increasing the bank or decreasing the rate of yaw. (2) deflecting rudder to the right. (3) decreasing the bank. (4) decreasing the bank or increasing the rate of yaw.


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NAVIGATION (N) N-0001. Which points on the Earth's surface determine the Earth's axis? (1) North geographic pole and north magnetic pole. (2) North and south geographic pole. (3) North and south magnetic pole. (4) Equator-hemisphere. [2] 6829-N1 N-0002. The circumference of Earth along the Equator is approximately (1) 21,600 NM. (2) 40,075 km. (3) 30,000 NM. (4) 24,000 km. [2] 6830-N1 N-0003. The Earth's diameter, when compared to the Earth' axis, is (1) longer by 43 km. (2) twice as great. (3) the same. (4) shorter by 42 km. [1] 6831-N1 N-0004. Which of the following statements regarding the rotation of Earth around the Sun is correct? Earth (1) encircles the Sun one time during summer and one time during winter. (2) does not circle around the Sun because it is stationary with the Sun circling around it. (3) encircles the Sun in one year. (4) encircles the Sun in one day. [3] 6833-N1 N-0005. The Earth's globe rotates (1) around its axis in the direction from east to west. (2) together with the Sun in the direction from east to west. (3) around its axis in the direction from west to east. (4) around the so called Sun's tropic. [3] 6834-N1 N-0006. The orbit of the Earth is (1) a circle with the Sun at the center. (2) an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci. (3) an ellipse with the Sun at different point inside it. (4) a circle around which the Sun rotates. [2] 6835-N1 N-0007. What is the cause of the seasons? (1) Irregular movement of the Earth around the Sun. (2) Uneven temperatures in space. (3) A shape of the Earth's orbit. (4) The tilt of the Earth's axis. [4] 6836-N1


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N-0008. The shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe is called (1) rhumb line. (2) great circle. (3) lambodrome. (4) small circle. [2] 2816-N2 N-0009. The great Circle(s) on the Earth's surface is (are) (1) the equator only. (2) the equator and meridians. (3) the equator, meridians and parallels of latitude. (4) the equator, meridians and orthodroms. [4] 6837-N2 N-0010. Which statement about longitude and latitude is true? (1) Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator. (2) Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles. (3) The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England. [2] 7064-N2 N-0011. The equator is a Great Circle whose plane (1) divides the Earth's globe into the eastern and western hemisphere. (2) is parallel to the Earth's axis. (3) divides the Earth's globe into the northern and southern hemisphere. N-0012. How many Great Circles (orthodroms) can be determined on the Earth's surface? (1) 90. (2) 180. (3) 360. (4) an infinite number. [4] 6839-N2 N-0013. The Great Circle on the Earth's globe is the cross-section of the Earth's surface and the plane passing through (1) the center of the Earth and is always perpendicular to the Earth's axis. (2) the center of the Earth and is always oblique to the Earth's axis. (3) the center of the Earth and is tilted to the Earth's axis at any angle. (4) any two points on the Earth's surface; the cross-section with the Earth's surface is the shortest distance between these points. [3] 6840-N2 N-0014. Which of the following circles on the Earth's globe does not have the center at the Earth's center? (1) Orthodrom. (2) Small Circle. (3) Great Circle. (4) Equator. N-0015. What is the characteristic of the Rhumb Line? (1) It cuts meridians under various angles. (2) It is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe. (3) It cuts meridians under constant angle. (4) It is the Great Circle.


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N-0016. Which circles, forming the graticule, are at the same time Great Circles and Rhumb Lines? (1) Parallel of latitude only. (2) Meridians and equator. (3) Meridians only. (4) Equator only. [2] 6843-N2 N-0017. The Sun travels across the sky an arc of 5° in (1) 60 minutes. (2) 30 minutes. (3) 20 minutes. (4) 4 minutes. [3] 2865-N3 N-0018. The Sun makes in one hour an arc between the following meridians: (1) From 5°E to 10°W. (2) From 15°E to 5°E. (3) From 10°E to 10°W. (4) From 10°W to 5°E. [1] 6844-N3 N-0019. What time is needed for the Sun's azimuth to change by 27 arc degrees? (1) 30 minutes. (2) 90 minutes. (3) 405 minutes. (4) 108 minutes. [4] 6845-N3 N-0020. The Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is (1) the Local Time. (2) the Zone Time. (3) the time on the longitude 0 degrees. (4) the Standard Time. [3] 6846-N3 N-0021. 13:00 according to the MidEuropean Summer Time is (1) 1200 UTC. (2) 1400 UTC. (3) 0100 UTC. (4) 1100 UTC. [4] 6847-N3 N-0022. An aircraft over Ljubljana is headed exactly to the south. It is 1200 UTC. What is the relative bearing of the Sun? (1) Exactly straight-in. (2) Left of the aircraft's nose. (3) Right of the aircraft's nose. (4) May be left or right of the aircraft's nose, with regard to the season. [3] 6848-N3 N-0023. The geographic longitude is the distance of a point on the Earth's surface from the (1) Equator, measured in statute miles. (2) Equator, measured in arc degrees. (3) Prime Meridian, measured in arc degrees.


34

(4) Prime Meridian, measured in geographic miles. [2] 6849-N4 N-0024. What is the latitude of a point on the Equator? (1) 0°. (2) 90°N. (3) 180°S. (4) 90°S. [1] 6850-N4 N-0025. The change of longitude between point A (04° 14' 28" E) and B (02° 30' 30" E) on the Earth's globe is (1) 01° 43' 58". (2) 06° 44' 58". (3) 02° 44' 58". (4) 02° 16' 02". [1] 2866-N4 N-0026. What is the difference between the latitude of point A and point B that are located on the following parallels of latitude: A: 15° 54' 30" N B: 10° 33' 30" S (1) 05° 21' 00". (2) 26° 28' 00". (3) 25° 27' 00". (4) 05° 28' 00". [2] 6851-N4 N-0027. Determine the latitude of point B, located 240 NM north of point A with the latitude 62° 33' 00" N. (1) 58° 33' 00" N. (2) 86° 33' 00" N. (3) 66° 33' 00" N. (4) 64° 33' 00" N. [3] 6852-N4 N-0028. The distance between the parallel of latitude 10°N and the parallel of latitude 11°N, measured along the meridian, is (1) 60 SM. (2) 60 km. (3) 111 km. (4) 111 NM. [3] 6853-N4 N-0029. The geographic coordinates of point A are (1) N 49° 11,0' and E 21° 18,0'. (2) N 50° 11,0' and E 20° 12,0'. (3) N 50° 49,0' and E 20° 12,0'. (4) N 49° 49,0' and E 21° 18,0'. (see Attachment 9) [4] 6854-N4 N-0030. Which navigational clue is located at the position with the geographic coordinates N 50° 19,0' and E 21° 04,2'? (1) Point C. (2) The railway bridge over the river Visla. (3) The town Mielec.


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(4) The settlement Stopnica. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6855-N4 N-0031. What are the geographic coordinates of point B (1) N 50° 07,4' and E 20° 31,0'. (2) N 57° 04,0' and E 20° 31,0'. (3) N 50° 07,4' and E 23° 01,0'. (4) N 57° 04,0' and E 21° 18,0'. (see Attachment 9) [1] 6856-N4 N-0032. The geographic coordinates of point D are (1) N 44° 21,7' and E 79° 12,8'. (2) N 44° 21,7' and W 78° 47,2'. (3) N 44° 38,3' and E 78° 12,8'. (4) N 57° 04,0' and W 79° 12,8'. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6857-N4 N-0033. Which airfield has the geographical coordinates N 44° 43,7' and W 78° 54,8'? (1) Military airport Greenbank. (2) Airport Lindsay. (3) Hydrodrom Head Lake. (4) Hydrodrom Balsam Lake. (see Attachment 10) [3] 6858-N4 N-0034. The geographic coordinates of the military airport Greenbank are (1) N 44° 52,2' and W 78° 58,8'. (2) N 44° 07,8' and W 79° 01,2'. (3) N 44° 07,8' and W 78° 58,8'. (4) N 44° 52,2' and W 79° 01,2'. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6859-N4 N-0035. The distance of 1 NM is equivalent to (1) the distance of one arc minute on a Meridian. (2) exactly the 40-thousandth part of the Earth's perimeter. (3) the distance between a Meridian and the pole. (4) the perimeter of a Polar Circle. [1] 6860-N5 N-0036. The distance of 1 NM equals to (1) 1,111 m. (2) 1,432 m. (3) 1,609 m. (4) 1,852 m. [4] 6861-N5 N-0037. The formula for a quick calculation from kilometres to nautical miles is: (1) (km : 2) + 10%. (2) (km x 2) - 22%. (3) (km : 2) - 10%. (4) (km x 2) - 10%.


36

N-0038. Approximately how many kilometers are in 70 nautical miles? (1) 130 km. (2) 135 km. (3) 140 km. (4) 145 km. [1] 6863-N5 N-0039. The distance of 1 statute mile is equal to (1) 1,852 m. (2) 1,609 m. (3) 1,432 m. (4) 1,111 m. [2] 6864-N5 N-0040. How many kilometers are in 50 SM (statute miles)? (1) Approximately 92 km. (2) Exactly 100 km. (3) A little less than 75 km. (4) Approximately 80 km. [4] 6865-N5 N-0041. Where on the chart can the distance between two points which has been callipered by a pair of compasses or marked on the edge of a piece of paper be determined? (1) On each Meridian. (2) Only on the Meridian at the midpoint between points. (3) Only on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart. (4) On each Meridian or on the scale ribbon on the edge of the chart. [4] 6866-N5 N-0042. On a chart, 6 cm represents the distance 15 km; on the same chart, 4 cm represents the distance 10 km. What is the scale of the chart? (1) 1:300 000. (2) 1:250 000. (3) 1:400 000. (4) 1:500 000. [2] 6867-N5 N-0043. The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters represent the distance 105km? (1) 10.5 cm. (2) 21.0 cm. (3) 42.0 cm. (4) 84.0 cm. [2] 6868-N5 N-0044. The scale of the chart is 1:500 000. How many centimeters represents the distance 220km? (1) 110 cm. (2) 11 cm. (3) 44 cm. (4) 40.4 cm. [3] 6869-N5 N-0045. Determine the distance between point A and point B! (1) 55 NM. (2) 55 km. (3) 35 km.


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(4) 35 NM. (see Attachment 9) [4] 2842-N6 N-0046. The distance of the route segment B-C on the chart is (1) 61 km. (2) 52 NM. (3) 33 SM. (4) 54 km. (see Attachment 9) [1] 6870-N6 N-0047. The distance between the points C and A on the chart is (1) 67 NM. (2) 44 SM. (3) 44 NM. (4) 67 SM. (see Attachment 9) [3] 6871-N6 N-0048. The distance of the route segment D-E on the chart is (1) 30 NM. (2) 33 NM. (3) 39 NM. (4) 42 NM. (see Attachment 10) [1] 6872-N6 N-0049. The distance between the points E and F on the chart is (1) 42 NM. (2) 38 NM. (3) 34 NM. (4) 30 NM. (see Attachment 10) [3] 6873-N6 N-0050. What is the distance of the route segment F-D on the chart? (1) 29 km. (2) 21 NM. (3) 29 SM. (4) 29 NM. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6874-N6 N-0051. A distance in meters can be converted to feet using the formula: (1) m x 0.3. (2) (m x 3) + 10%. (3) (m : 10) x 3. (4) (m x 3) : 10. [2] 6879-N7 N-0052. The altitude 1,500 meters is approximately (1) 3,600 ft. (2) 4,000 ft. (3) 4,500 ft. (4) 4,900 ft.


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[4] 6880-N7 N-0053. On a chart we read the obstacle altitude 275 meters. Complying with the rule of height clearance (1,000 feet over obstacles), what is the lowest altitude for overflying the obstacle? (1) 2,230 ft. (2) 2,130 ft. (3) 1,900 ft. (4) 1,230 ft. [3] 6881-N7 N-0054. The altitude 6,000 ft is approximately (1) 1,200 m. (2) 1,800 m. (3) 3,000 m. (4) 12,000 m. [2] 2867-N7 N-0055. Approximately what QNH pressure corresponds to the QFE pressure 1000 hPa on an airfield with the elevation 200 meters? (1) 985 hPa. (2) 990 hPa. (3) 1025 hPa. (4) 1035 hPa. [3] 6882-N7 N-0056. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 996 hPa to 1033 hPa, the altitude indication will (1) not change. (2) increase. (3) decrease at low temperatures and increase at high temperatures. (4) decrease for 1,000 ft. [2] 2868-N7[2] 6883-N7 N-0057. If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 1010 hPa to 1000 hPa, what is the approximate change in indication? (1) The altimeter will indicate 300 ft lower. (2) The altimeter will indicate 300 ft higher. (3) No change in indication. (4) Variously, depending on QNH. [1] 6902-N9 N-0058. Which mark on the wind triangle on the picture represents a true course? (1) mark 4. (2) mark 3. (3) mark 2. (4) mark 1. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [2] 6903-N9 N-0059. Which mark on the wind triangle on the picture represents a true heading? (1) mark 4. (2) mark 3. (3) mark 2. (4) mark 1. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6


39

N-0060. Which mark on the wind triangle on the picture represents a magnetic heading? (1) mark 1. (2) mark 2. (3) mark 3. (4) mark 4. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [2] 6904-N9 N-0061. Which mark on the wind triangle drawing denotes a compass heading? (1) Number 1. (2) Number 2. (3) Number 3. (4) Number 4. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [2] 2846-N9 N-0062. Which mark on the wind triangle on the picture represents a wind correction angle? (1) mark 2. (2) mark 3. (3) mark 4. (4) mark 5. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [4] 6905-N9 N-0063. Which mark on the wind triangle represents a magnetic variation? (1) mark 3. (2) mark 5. (3) mark 9. (4) mark 10. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [3] 6906-N9 N-0064. Which mark on the wind triangle represents a compass deviation? (1) mark 5. (2) mark 8. (3) mark 9. (4) mark 10. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [4] 6907-N9 N-0065. Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's true airspeed (TAS)? (1) mark 5. (2) mark 6. (3) mark 7. (4) mark 8. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [4] 6908-N9 N-0066. Which mark on the wind triangle represents an aircraft's ground speed (GS)? (1) mark 5. (2) mark 6. (3) mark 7. (4) mark 8. (see Attachment 8) [2] 6874-N6 [2] 6909-N9


40

N-0067. Which mark on the wind triangle represents a wind vector? (1) mark 5. (2) mark 6. (3) mark 7. (4) mark 8. N-0068. Which azimuth corresponds to the general direction WNW? (1) 247.5°. (2) 292.5°. (3) 337.5°. (4) 202.5°. N-0069. When planning a distance flight, true course measurements on an ICAO VFR aeronautical chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the (1) values of the isogonic lines change from point to point. (2) angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point. (3) angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point. [2] [4] 6929-N12 N-0070. What is the true course of the route segment A-B? (1) 031°. (2) 059°. (3) 239°. (4) 301°. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6874-N6 [2] 6934-N12 N-0071. What is the true course of the route segment B-C? (1) 042°. (2) 142°. (3) 222°. (4) 302°. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6874-N6 [1] 6930-N12 N-0072. What is the true course of the route segment C-A on the chart? (1) 010°. (2) 170°. (3) 190°. (4) 350°. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6874-N6 [1] 2847-N12 N-0073. Determine the true course between point D and point E. (1) 057°. (2) 123°. (3) 237°. (4) 303°. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6874-N6 [4] 6931-N12 N-0074. The true course of the route segment E-F is (1) 260°.


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(2) 100°. (3) 080°. (4) 070°. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6874-N6 [3] 6932-N12 N-0075. What is the true course of the route segment F-D? (1) 288°. (2) 252°. (3) 198°. (4) 018°. (see Attachment 10) [2] 6874-N6 [3] 6933-N12 N-0076. Where is the value of inclination 90%? (1) On magnetic equator. (2) On magnetic poles. (3) In the area of middle latitudes . (4) On the geographic pole in the northern hemisphere. N-0077. Which parameter is included in the reckoning of a magnetic course? (1) Compass deviation. (2) Magnetic inclination. (3) Wind correction angle. (4) Magnetic variation. [4] 6915-N10 N-0078. The angle between a direction toward geographic north and a direction toward magnetic north is called (1) compass deviation. (2) variation. (3) inclination. (4) convergence of meridians. [2] 6916-N10 N-0079. The value of magnetic variation at a given point on the Earth's surface can be obtained by (1) referring to the table of magnetic variation in the cockpit. (2) referring to the isogonic lines on aeronautical charts. (3) calculating the angular difference between the meridian of a given point and the Greenwich meridian. (4) calculating the difference between magnetic and compass heading. [2] 7048-N10 [2] 6917-N10 N-0080. The lines on geographical charts joining points of equal magnetic variation are called (1) isogonic lines. (2) agonic lines. (3) isoclinic lines. (4) isobars. [1] 6918-N10 N-0081. The lines on geographical charts joining points of zero magnetic variation are called (1) isogonic lines. (2) isoclinic lines. (3) agonic lines. (4) aclinic lines.


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N-0082. What is the magnetic variation of the area? (1) 50° 30' W. (2) 21° E. (3) 50° W. (4) 15° E. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6874-N6 N-0083. What is the magnetic variation of the area on the chart? (1) 44° 30' E. (2) 11° W. (3) 1,7° W. (4) 79° E. (see Attachment 9) [2] 6874-N6 N-0084. When calculating magnetic direction from a given true direction, westerly variation should be (1) added. (2) subtracted. (3) multiplied. (4) divided. N-0085. When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should (1) subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle. (2) add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle. (3) subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle. N-0086. Magnetic course is calculated using the equation (1) true heading plus/minus magnetic variation. (2) true course plus/minus magnetic variation. (3) true course plus/minus compass deviation. (4) magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation. N-0087. What is the magnetic course of the route segment A-B? (1) 171°. (2) 286°. (3) 301°. (4) 316°. (see Attachment 9)2] [2 N-0088. What is the magnetic course from point B to point C? (1) 027°. (2) 042°. (3) 057°. (4) 142°. (see Attachment 9) [2] [1] 6935-N12


43

N-0089. What is the magnetic course from point C to point A? (1) 155°. (2) 170°. (3) 185°. (4) 190°. (see Attachment 9) [ [1 ] 6936-N12 N-0090. The magnetic course of the route segment D-E is (1) 303°. (2) 322°. (3) 314°. (4) 292°. (see Attachment 10) [ [3] 6937-N12 N-0091. Determine the magnetic course for a flight from point E to point F. (1) 069°. (2) 089°. (3) 091°. (4) 279°. (see Attachment 10) [ [3] 6938- N12 N-0092. The magnetic course of the route segment F-D is (1) 087°. (2) 187°. (3) 198°. (4) 209°. (see Attachment 10) N-0093. Magnetic heading is calculated using the equation (1) true heading plus/minus magnetic variation. (2) true course plus/minus magnetic variation. (3) true course plus/minus compass deviation. (4) magnetic heading plus/minus compass deviation. 4] N-0094. Is it possible that desired true course, true heading and actual true course have the same value? (1) No, in no case. (2) Yes. (3) Yes, because these values are always equal. (4) This is possible only when flying in north or south direction.

N-0095. Which element of the wind triangle has the null value if the magnetic heading equals the compass heading? (1) Magnetic dip. (2) Compass deviation. (3) Drift. (4) Magnetic variation.


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N-0096. Determine the compass heading for the following: true course ..................... 168° wind correction angle ........+6° variation .......................... 5°E Compass deviation table magn.dir. N 030 060 E 120 150 S 210 240 W 300 330 deviation 0 0 1E 3E 2E 0 3W 1W 0 2E 1E 1E (1) 167°. (2) 177°. (3) 187°. (4) 171°.

N-0097. What is the meaning of the term "drift angle" in navigation? (1) The angle between an aircraft's longitudinal axis and actual path. (2) The difference between the direction of the true air speed of an aircraft and the desired track. (3) The difference between a magnetic course and wind direction. (4) The difference between the angle at which the wind blows to the vector of an actual true air speed and an aircraft's longitudinal axis.

N-0098. A Wind Correction Angle is the angle difference between (1) true heading and desired true course. (2) desired true and desired magnetic course. (3) true and magnetic heading. (4) magnetic and compass heading in still air.

N-0099. A pilot has to be aware of the fact that in the northern hemisphere it is necessary to start to roll out from the turn in the northern headings (1) 10°-20° late (2) 20°-30° early. (3) exactly on heading.

N-0100. When flying in the northern hemisphere, the pilot has to know that it is necessary to start to roll out from the turn in the southern headings (1) 10°-20° late. (2) 20°-30° early. (3) exactly on heading.

N-0101. With a left 15° bank, you turn from heading 270° to heading 180°. At which heading do you have to roll out from the turn? (1) 180°. (2) 160°. (3) 210°. (4) 230°. N-0102. With a left 15° bank, you turn from heading 070° to heading 360°. At which heading do you have to roll out from the turn? (1) 030°.


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(2) 360°. (3) 330°. (4) 010°. N-0103. Approximately how high would be the true airspeed (TAS) of a glider at the altitude of 4.000 m, in standard conditions, if a pilot reads 100 km/h on the airspeed indicator? (1) 120 km/h. (2) 110 km/h. (3) 100 km/h. (4) 90 km/h. N-0104. What does a measuring unit knot used in aviation mean? (1) SM/h. (2) NM/h. (3) km/h. (4) m/h. N-0105. The wind velocity of 10 m/sec equals approximately (1) 40 kts. (2) 20 kts. (3) 5 kts. (4) 2,5 kts.

N-0106. If a vertical speed indicator of a towing airplane shows 500 ft/min, the approximate aero tow’s rate-of-climb in meters-per-second is (1) 1,5 m/sec. (2) 3,5 m/sec. (3) 5 m/sec. (4) 2,5 m/sec.

N-0107. How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots? (1) 2.45 NM. (2) 3.35 NM. (3) 4.08 NM. N-0108. The distance between the points ALFA and BRAVO is 107 NM. If an aircraft covers first 16 NM in 10 minutes, what time does it take to travel the entire route ALFA-BRAVO with the same groundspeed? (1) 1 hour and 6 minutes. (2) 1 hour and 3 minutes. (3) 1 hour and 1 minute. (4) 59 minutes. N-0109. What is the ground speed (GS) of an aircraft that covers in 40 minutes the distance which represents 10.8 cm on a 1:500 000 chart? (1) 81 kts. (2) 100 mph. (3) 81 km/h. (4) 100 km/h.


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N-0110. An aircraft would cover a 120 km-distance in no wind condition in 2 hours and 40 minutes, however in actual meteo conditions the flight lasted 3 hours and 5 minutes. What was the longitudinal wind component on route? (1) 16 kts tailwind. (2) 16 km/h headwind. (3) 6 km/h headwind. (4) 6 kts tailwind.

N-0111. The distance of the route from point X to point Y via the control point Z is 84 km. If an aircraft covers the first segment X-Z in 50 minutes, what will be the total flight time between points X and Y? (1) 45 minutes. (2) 2 hours. (3) 50 minutes. (4) 1 hour and 10 minutes. N-0112. What is the glide ratio of a glider flying in still air at 130 km/h if a variometer shows the rate of descent 1,2 m/sec? (1) 17. (2) 30. (3) 35. (4) 40. N-0113. What is the glide ratio of a glider flying at 130 km/h with 30 km/h tailwind if the indicated rate of descent is 1,6 m/sec? (1) 42. (2) 37. (3) 31. (4) 26.

N-0114. What is the glide ratio of a glider flying at 120 km/h with 20 km/h headwind if the indicated rate of descent is 1 m/sec?

(1) 22.

(2) 24.

(3) 26.

(4) 28.

N-0115. From the final climb performed 45 km from the airport, you intend to glide with a glider at the speed where glide ratio is 30. At which height will you stop climbing and start approach, if you fly in still air and have to reach the airport at the height of 200 m? (1) 1.700 m. (2) 1.500 m. (3) 1.350 m. (4) 1.150 m. N-0116. At what distance from an airport located at an altitude of 460 m can you start the approach, and how long will you glide/soar, in still air and with a cumulus cloud base at 2.300 m above the aerodrome, if you glide/soar at 110 km/h with glide ratio 25? (Observe the prescribed height (200 m) for the entry into the aerodrome circle!)


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(1) 41 km, 22 min. (2) 44 km, 24 min. (3) 46 km, 25 min. (4) 53 km, 29 min. N-0117. At what altitude will you start the approach, and how long will you glide/soar to an airport located at an altitude of 180m, if you are 55 km from the airport, and if you intend to glide/soar at 120 km/h with glide ratio 35? Wind is calm. Observe, however, the prescribed height (200 m) for the entry into the aerodrome circle! (1) 1.550 m, 28 min. (2) 1.580 m, 14 min. (3) 1.950 m, 28 min. (4) 2.580 m, 28 min. N-0118. At which height will you reach the airport in a glider and how long will you glide if you intend to start the final approach from below the cumulus cloud base, 42 km from the airport with the speed of 110 km/h, where glide ratio is 35? Wind is calm; the cumulus cloud base is 2.100 m above the aerodrome. (1) 630 m, 23 min. (2) 900 m, 23 min. (3) 1.230 m, 23 min. (4) 1.470 m, 32 min.

METEOROLOGY (M)

M-0001. What name is given to the layer of gases surrounding the Earth? (1) Troposphere. (2) Atmosphere. (3) Homosphere. (4) Stratosphere. M-0002. Successive layers of the atmosphere are (1) Strato-, tropo-, meso-, ionosphere. (2) Strato-, tropo-, iono-, mesosphere. (3) Tropo-, strato-, meso-, ionosphere. (4) Tropo-, iono-, strato-, mesosphere. M-0003. In which layer of the atmosphere do weather phenomena occur? (1) In the tropopause. (2) In the mesosphere. (3) In the stratosphere. (4) In the troposphere. M-0004. In which layer of the athosphere is always inversion or isothermy? (1) In the tropopause. (2) In the layer below the cloud base.


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(3) In the layer close to the ground. (4) Such layer does not exist because in the atmosphere the temperature decreases with height. M-0005. How do we call the higher segment of the earth atmosphere where weather phenomena cease to exist and what is its height in the standard atmosphere? (1) Tropopause, 11 km MSL. (2) Stratopause, 20 km MSL. (3) Tropopause, 20 km MSL. (4) Stratopause, 11 km MSL. M-0006. How does the percentage of oxygen in the troposphere vary with height? (1) It increases with height. (2) It stays the same. (3) It decreases with height. (4) It depends on changes of air pressure. M-0007. The International Standard Atmosphere according to ICAO is based on the following values: (1) Relative density 100%, temperature gradient -3°C/1.000 ft, pressure at mean sea level 750 mmHg, temperature at mean sea level 15°C. (2) Temperature at mean sea level 15°C, relative density 20%, temperature gradient -0,65°C/100 m or -2C°/1.000 ft, pressure at mean sea level 29,92 in Hg. (3) Pressure at mean sea level 1013,2 hPa, temperature at mean sea level 15°C, relative density 0%, temperature gradient -0,65C/100 m or -2°C/1.000 ft. (4) Temperature gradient -1°C/100 m, pressure at mean sea level 1013,2 hPa, temperature at mean sea level 15°C, relative density 0%. M-0008. What is the Temperature Laps Rate in International Standard Atmosphere (ICAO)? (1) 1.00°C/100 m. (2) 0.65°C/100 m or 2°C/1,000 ft. (3) 0.80°C/100 m. (4) 0.50°C/100 m. M-0009. What air temperature may we expect at 2500 m if the air temperature at 500 m above sea level is 15°C? (1) +4°C. (2) +2°C. (3) 0°C. (4) -2°C. M-0010. Isothermy is (1) increase of air temperature with height. (2) the difference between actual air temperature and dew point. (3) a phenomenon where with increasing height the temperature of the air remains constant. (4) decrease of air temperature with height. M-0011. What are the characteristics of a temperature inversion? (1) A stable layer of air. (2) An unstable layer of air. (3) Ascending winds on mountain slopes.


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(4) Thunderstorms inside air masses. M-0012. Which weather phenomena are associated with a temperature inversion? (1) A stable layer of air. (2) An unstable layer of air. (3) Ascending winds on mountain slopes. (4) Thunderstorms inside air masses. M-0013. What is meant by the term “temperature inversion”? (1) Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. (2) Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. (3) An increase in temperature as altitude is increased. (4) A decrease in temperature as altitude is increased. M-0014. Which weather conditions should be expected in summer beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? (1) Smooth air, no turbulence, fog, haze, or low clouds. (2) Smooth air, no turbulence, and development of cumulus clouds above a temperature inversion layer. (3) Moderate turbulence and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation. (4) strong rising of air due to surface heating, good visibility and cumulus clouds above a temperature inversion layer. M-0015. What is meant by the term "dew point''? (1) The temperature at which dew will always form. (2) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. (3) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. M-0016. What value is being calculated by the following formula: temperature minus dew point times 123 = ....... ? (1) Relative humidity. (2) Temperature aloft. (3) Tops of stratus clouds in meters. (4) Ceiling of cumulus clouds in meters. M-0017. What is the approximate airfield dew point if the surface air temperature is 20 °C and the reported base of the cumulus clouds is 1,100m above the airfield level? (1) -3°C. (2) 5°C. (3) 7°C. (4) 11°C. M-0018. What is the approximate base of cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is 27°C and dew point is 15°C? (1) 1.000 m. (2) 1.500 m. (3) 2.000 m. (4) 2.700 m.


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M-0019. What approximate base of cumulus clouds should be expected if the surface air dew point is 5°C and the forecasted daily maximum temperature is 25°C? (1) 2,800 m. (2) 2,500 m. (3) 2,000 m. (4) 1,500 m. M-0020. What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere? (1) Atmospheric pressure (2) Actual lapse rate. (3) Surface temperature. (4) wind speed M-0021. Moist adiabatic movement of air is the vertical movement of air where (1) clouds start to build during rising of dry air. (2) during descending of air mass the condensation of water vapour occurs. (3) the saturated air is rising and thus cooling for less than 1°C/100 m. (4) the saturated air is rising and thus cooling for more than 1°C/100 m. M-0022. What unit is used for atmospheric pressure in aviation? (1) atm. (2) mWS. (3) psi. (4) hPa. M-0023. Which two instruments are used for measuring air pressure? (1) Mercury barometer and hygrometer. (2) Station barometer and psychrometer. (3) Aneroid barometer and hygrometer. (4) Aneroid barometer and Mercury barometer. M-0024. How does air pressure vary/change with height? (1) It remains unchanged. (2) It decreases constantly 1 hPa per 8 km. (3) It falls to approximately half of the value at the height of 5.500 m. (4) It falls to half of the value at the height of 11.000 m. M-0025. At approximately which level is the value of air pressure only half of the value at sea level? (1) 1.500 m MSL. (2) 2.500 m MSL. (3) 5.500 m MSL. (4) 7.000 m MSL. M-0026. The height of the atmosphere is approximately 600 km. At which level does air pressure decrease by ½ of the pressure at mean sea level? (1) At 18.000 ft MSL. (2) At 300 km MSL.


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(3) At 8.000 m MSL. (4) At the level of the tropopause. M-0027. What is the standard (ISA) air density? (1) 1,239 g/L.

(2) 1,226 g/m³. (3) 0,001293 g/m³. (4) 1,226 kg/m³. M-0028. If at constant pressure air temperature rises, (1) relative humidity rises. (2) the difference between temperature and dew point remains constant. (3) dew point falls. (4) air density decreases. M-0029. Air density, which depends to a large extent on temperature and air pressure, increases if air pressure (1) increases and temperature falls. (2) decreases and temperature falls. (3) increases and temperature rises. (4) decreases and temperature rises. M-0030. If set to QFE of the airport, what will be the aircraft altimeter reading after landing? (1) altitude above sea level. (2) zero. (3) QNH. (4) A value which depends on the height of the previous flight. M-0031. If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the aircraft’s true altitude (1) increases. (2) decreases. (3) decreases but only when it rains (4) stays unchanged. M-0032. Without adjusting the altimeter setting, the altimeter reading will be too high if (1) a flight is made within cold air mass. (2) QFE pressure is low. (3) a flight is made into an area of high pressure. (4) a flight is made into an area of low pressure. M-0033. When parking an aircraft at night, the altimeter indicates 350 ft. The next morning, the altimeter indicates 400 ft. What is the most likely reason for the indicated change of altitude? (1) The barometric pressure has decreased. (2) The barometer is not accurate. (3) The barometer is out of order. (4) The barometric pressure has increased.


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M-0034. In an air mass which is cooler than the standard, the altimeter (1) will not show correct and cannot be used in such condition. (2) will show correct. (3) will over-read. (4) will under-read. M-0035. A flight just near a peak in Alps during a cold winter day with the altimeter setting on local QNH. What will be the altitude reading compared with the peak's altitude? (1) Greater. (2) Lesser. (3) Exactly the same. (4) The answer is not possible. M-0036. A flight just near a peak in Alps during a hot summer day with the altimeter setting on local QNH. What will be the altitude reading compared with the peak's altitude? (1) Greater. (2) Lesser. (3) Exactly the same. (4) The answer is not possible. M-0037. When a flight is made into an area of cold air masses, the altimeter indication will be: (1) lower than the true altitude. (2) exactly the same as the true altitude. (3) higher than the true altitude. (4) below 2000 m GND lower than the true altitude. M-0038. Which component of the air has the key role in weather phenomena? (1) Nitrogen. (2) Oxygen. (3) Carbon Dioxide. (4) Water vapour. M-0039. The amount of water vapour that the air can hold depends on the (1) dew point. (2) temperature. (3) stability of the air. (4) relative humidity. M-0040. The term »ground visibility« denotes: (1) visibility from the cockpit in the direction of the ground. (2) the value of the horizontal visibility, measured by an authorised person at the airport. (3) runway visual range. (4) visibility of an aircraft from the ground. M-0041. The relative humidity of the falling air in the free atmosphere (1) increases. (2) does not vary. (3) decreases.


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(4) none of the above answers is correct. M-0042. What are the values of temperature, dew point, spread and relative humidity if there is fog? (1) Temperature is different from dew point, spread is high, relative humidity is high. (2) Temperature equals dew point, spread is low, relative humidity is moderate. (3) Temperature equals dew point, spread is equal to 0, relative humidity is close to or equals 100%. (4) The values of temperature, dew point and relative humidity are the same, spread is high. M-0043. The consequence of the movement of worm humid air over a cold surface is (1) radiation fog. (2) frontal fog. (3) advection fog. (4) hail. M-0044. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog? (1) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. (2) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. (3) The movement of cold air over much warmer water. (4) When at night a light wind moves warm and moist air up the hill. M-0045. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? (1) at night above cold surface of the sea. (2) everywhere if the conditions for the formation are right. (3) above the ground in calm and cold nights. (4) above the ground in the afternoon. M-0046. Is hail considered hazardous to gliders? (1) In no conditions. (2) Yes, because hail grains can accumulate on the aerofoil which leads to reduced lift. (3) Yes but only to older, wooden sailplanes. (4) Yes, in all conditions because it can damage all aircraft. M-0047. With what type of clouds we do not associate precipitation? (1) ST. (2) CI. (3) CB. (4) NS. M-0048. With what type of clouds do we associate showers? (1) CB. (2) ST. (3) CI. (4) CU. M-0049. Which cloud types indicate precipitation in the form of showers? (1) ST. (2) NS. (3) SC.


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(4) CB. M-0050. Intensive shower precipitation can be anticipated beneath (1) Cumulonimbus. (2) Stratus clouds. (3) Cirrostratus clouds. (4) Rotor clouds. M-0051. On a day with good thermic conditions, the wind in closed alpine valleys flows (1) in accordance with the prevailing high wind. (2) horizontally to the axis of the valley. (3) down the slope. (4) up the slope. M-0052. What wind is depicted by the symbol from meteorological charts? (1) North wind at 60 knots. (2) West wind at 60 knots. (3) South wind at 15 knots. (4) East wind at 15 knots. (see Attachment 7) M-0053. Which type of wind blows in our country in advance of a cold front approaching from the west? (1) South-westerly wind. (2) North-westerly wind. (3) East wind. (4) South-easterly wind. M-0054. Which wind can be anticipated after passage of the cold front, approaching Slovenia from the west? (1) North-easterly wind. (2) West wind. (3) South-easterly wind. (4) North-westerly wind M-0055. The Bora wind in the coastal region (1) blows after the passage of a front. (2) indicates an approaching front. (3) blows up the back side of the hill. (4) is a strong but steady wind. M-0056. The direction of the upper wind is determined according to the weather chart considering the fact that the wind blows (1) perpendicular to isobars. (2) from a low pressure area to a high pressure area. (3) along the pressure izohyps. (4) from a high pressure area to a low pressure area.


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M-0057. If the wind over the surface is 330/20, on 1.500 m it is probably (1) 350/30. (2) 310/30. (3) 350/15. (4) 310/15. M-0058. Which wind type can be anticipated if the aircraft flies from a high pressure area to a low pressure area? (1) Tailwind. (2) Headwind. (3) Right crosswind. (4) Left crosswind. M-0059 When flying in the vicinity of thunderstorm activity, what is the most hazardous atmospheric phenomenon? (1) Precipitation static. (2) Lightning. (3) Eli’s fire. (4) Turbulence and wind shear.

M-0060. Which of the listed cloud types always consist of ice crystals? (1) Stratus, stratocumulus, cumulus. (2) Cirrostratus, cirrocumulus. (3) Altocumulus, altostratus, nimbostratus. . M-0061. Clouds which appear in the medium cloud level are (1) stratus, stratocumulus, cumulus clouds. (2) cirrostratus, cirrocumulus. (3) altocumulus, altostratus, nimbostratus clouds. M-0062. Which cloud types created before noon indicate the possibility of thunderstorms? (1) Foehn cap clouds above mountain tops. (2) AC-castelanus clouds. (3) Rotor cumulus clouds. (4) Cirrocumulus clouds. M-0063. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as (1) mammatocumulus clouds. (2) standing lenticular clouds. (3) roll clouds (4) rotor clouds. M-0064. Which of the following cloud types can extend through at least three cloud levels? (1) CI. (2) ST. (3) AC. (4) CB.


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M-0065. Which of the following cloud types can extend through at least two cloud levels? (1) ST. (2) NS. (3) CI. (4) SC. M-0066. What type of cloud indicates a stable atmosphere? (1) CU. (2) AS. (3) CB. (4) ST. M-0067. What type of cloud indicates an unstable atmosphere? (1) CU. (2) CS. (3) ST. M-0068. Which cloud types are the result of thermic convection? (1) Altocumulus lenticularis clouds. (2) Nimbostratus clouds. (3) Cumulus clouds. (4) Cirrus clouds. M-0069. Cloud types where turbulence occurs most frequently are (1) cumulus clouds. (2) cumulonimbus clouds. (3) nimbostratus clouds. (4) altocumulus castelanus clouds. M-0070. What type of clouds form in clear sky in spring or summer as a result of strong terrestrial radiation? (1) Stratus clouds. (2) Cumulus clouds. (3) Nimbostratus clouds. (4) Cirrostratus clouds. M-0071. In the morning, cumulus clouds start to develop, at noon the sky is to a large extent covered with clouds. In this situation we can expect (1) development of cumulus clouds into stratus clouds above inversion. (2) development of cumulus clouds into cumulonimbus clouds and creation of thunderstorms. (3) dissipation of cumulus clouds and appearance of blue thermic. (4) forming of cirrostratus and altostratus clouds and dissipation of cumulus clouds. M-0072. Extensive descending of air masses in the high pressure area is called (1) subsidence. (2) inversion. (3) adiabatics. (4) advection.


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M-0073. The descending of air masses in the summer anticyclone cause (1) heating of the atmosphere, dissipation of inversion, cloud dissipation. (2) inversion, cooling of the atmosphere, cloud formation. (3) heating of the atmosphere, inversion, cloud dissipation. (4) cloud dissipation, cooling of the atmosphere, dissipation of inversion. M-0074. Which adverse weather conditions are associated with the winter anticyclone? (1) Low and high level fog and occasional light precipitation. (2) Large horizontal areas with showers. (3) Poor visibility due to snow showers. (4) Vertically forming clouds with low bases.

M-0075. Why is the anticyclone frequently associated with warm weather? (1) Due to heating in high pressure the clouds are not able to form. (2) At high altitude, inversion dissipates. (3) Due to direct heating by the sun the clouds dissipate. (4) At high altitude, air descends and clouds dissipate. M-0076. In what direction do the areas of low air pressure move in the northern hemisphere? (1) Towards east. (2) Towards south. (3) Towards north. (4) Towards west. M-0077. In what direction do low and high pressure areas move in the northern hemisphere? (1) Low pressure areas move clockwise, high pressure areas, however, anti-clockwise. (2) The direction of movement depends on the position of high and low pressure areas. (3) Clockwise, but only at high altitude. (4) Low pressure areas move anti-clockwise, high pressure areas, however, clockwise. M-0078. In which pressure area does air descend and what conditions prevail there? (1) Within the anticyclone; stable conditions. (2) Within the cyclone; stable conditions. (3) Within the anticyclone; unstable conditions. (4) Within the cyclone; unstable conditions. M-0079. What cloud types can be anticipated in the summer, in a humid and unstable air? (1) CU, CB and later thunderstorms. (2) NS and above them AS. (3) ST and above them CU. (4) CI and ST, which later transform into fog. M-0080. What weather conditions are associated with the passage of a cyclone and in which order do they occur? (1) Clearing up after a longer period of rain, CBs, pressure fall, showers possible. (2) High clouds, pressure rise, gusty westerly wind, showers.


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(3) Cloud development, pressure fall, precipitation, cloud dissipation, pressure rise with the change of wind direction, cumulus clouds. (4) Cloud development, temperature fall, showers, clearing up, showers. M-0081. What are the characteristics of an unstable air mass? (1) Turbulence and good surface visibility. (2) Turbulence and poor surface visibility. (3) Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility. M-0082. A humid and unstable air mass in summer may be identified by: (1) cumulus clouds and showers. (2) poor visibility and smooth air. (3) stratus clouds and steady precipitation. (4) fog and drizzle. M-0083. Where can we find large areas of ascending air masses? (1) In anticyclones. (2) Above inversion (3) In cyclones and anticyclones. (4) In cyclones. M-0084. What weather phenomenon is most characteristic of a cold front in summer? (1) Rain. (2) Storms with showers. (3) Fog. (4) Light rain. M-0085. Into which direction does the wind change in the northern hemisphere after the passage of a warm front and into which direction after the passage of a cold front? (1) To the right after the passage of a warm front and to the left after the passage of a cold front. (2) To the left after the passage of a warm front and to the right after the passage of a cold front. (3) To the left after the passage of a warm and cold front. (4) To the right after the passage of a warm and cold front. . M-0086. What type of cloud indicates a cold front? (1) Cumulonimbus clouds. (2) Stratus clouds. (3) Nimbostratus clouds. (4) Altostratus clouds. M-0087. How strong is thermal rising in a cumulonimbus cloud? (1) Up to 5 m/sec. (2) Up to 2 m/sec. (3) Below 1 m/sec. (4) More than 10 m/sec.


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M-0088. What happens to wind at the passage of a cold front of an ideal cyclone? The direction of the wind (1) does not change, speed increases. (2) does not change, speed decreases. (3) changes from SW to NW, speed decreases. (4) changes from SW to NW, speed increases. M-0089. What kind of wind conditions and visibility are associated with the passage of a cold front in the summer, and which types of clouds and precipitation are associated with this phenomenon? (1) wind increases, visibility is moderate, clouds are AS and NS, moderate precipitation. (2) the wind is backing suddenly, windy conditions, clouds are AS and NS, precipitation in the form of showers. (3) the wind is backing, windy conditions, good visibility; clouds are CB and fractus, precipitation in the form of showers. (4) the wind veers, windy conditions, good visibility, clouds are CB, precipitation in the form of showers and possibility of thunderstorms. M-0090. The stable air mass is associated with (1) good visibility. (2) good thermal conditions. (3) precipitation in the form of showers. (4) moderate to poor visibility with haze. M-0091. Cirrus clouds are associated with the approach of a (1) cold front. (2) warm front. (3) warm front occlusion. (4) line of instability. M-0092. At what distance from the approaching warm front do cirrostratus and altostratus clouds start to form? (1) 40-60 km. (2) 60-80 km. (3) 100-120 km. (4) 400-800 km. M-0093. What types of clouds usually accompany the passage of a warm front? (1) CI, CC, NS, CB. (2) CC, AC, CU, CB. (3) CI, CS, AS, NS. (4) CC, SC, ST, NS. M-0094. Which cloud types are associated with the humid and stable air of the weather front? (1) ST, NS. (2) SC, AC. (3) CI, CU. (4) CU, CB.


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M-0095. The strength of the thermal depends on (1) initial temperature difference and thermal gradient. (2) daily values of the dry adiabatic gradient. (1) initial temperature difference and daily values of the dry adiabatic gradient. (4) daily values of the dry adiabatic gradient and wet adiabatic gradient. M-0096. When gliding with headwind below a cumulus cloud and approaching the center at a relatively low altitude, the variometer does not indicate rising but sinking. What will you do to find rising? (1) Try my luck below another cumulus cloud in the vicinity. (2) Make a turn in the direction of the sunny side of the cloud. (3) Look for the cloud’s shadow and glide towards it. (4) Glide a bit further against the wind. M-0097. The pilot who lost the core of the thermal in windy conditions would probably find the same rising air (1) if he flew against the wind. (2) in the direction of the wind. (3) exactly below the cloud. (4) below the sunny side of the cloud.

RADIOTELEPHONY (R/T)

R-0001. A pilot of a glider with the call sign OE-5624 should initiate his radio message to Ljubljana Tower with (1) OSCAR-TWO-FOUR, LJUBLJANA TOWER, GOOD AFTERNOON. (2) THIS IS OSCAR-TWO-FOUR, GOOD AFTERNOON. (3) LJUBLJANA TOWER, OSCAR-ECHO-FIVE-SIX-TWO-FOUR, GOOD AFTERNOON. (4) OSCAR-ECHO-FIVE-SIX-TWO-FOUR, LJUBLJANA TOWER, GOOD AFTERNOON. R-0002. A pilot of a glider with the call sign S5-3002 should contact the radio station operator at Ptuj airport with the phrase (1) GOOD AFTERNOON, THIS IS SIERRA-THREE-TWO. (2) SIERRA-FIVE-THREE-ZERO-ZERO-TWO, PTUJ, GOOD AFTERNOON. (3) PTUJ, SIERRA-FIVE-THREE-ZERO-ZERO-TWO, GOOD AFTERNOON. (4) PTUJ, SIERRA-FIVE-THREE-NULL-NULL-TWO, GOOD AFTERNOON. R-0003. A pilot of a glider with the call sign S5-4321 should initiate his radio message to Maribor Tower with (1) MARIBOR TOWER, SIERRA-FIVE-FOUR-THREE-TWO-ONE, GOOD MORNING. (2) SIERRA-FIVE, MARIBOR TOWER, GOOD MORNING. (3) SIERRA-TWO-ONE, MARIBOR TOWER, GOOD MORNING. (4) THIS IS SIERRA-TWO-ONE, GOOD MORNING. R-0004. Which altitude has been reported by a pilot using the phrase "FIVE-THOUSAND-FEET-QFE"? (1) Flight level. (2) Altitude above mean sea level.


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(3) Adequate altitude in International Standard Atmosphere (ICAO). (4) Height above the airfield. [4] 6655-R4 R-0005. When a pilot reports "FIVE-THOUSAND-FEET", a controller concludes (1) the altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above mean sea level. (2) the altimeter of the aircraft is set to the local QFE. (3) the altitude of the aircraft is 5,000 ft above the airfield. (4) the altimeter of the aircraft is set to the standard pressure 1013.2hPa R-0006. What does the term "ALTITUDE" mean? (1) Height above mean sea level. (2) Height above an airfield. (3) Flight level. (4) Standard altitude. R-0007. What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"? (1) A pressure level based on the regional QNH. (2) A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH. (3) A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa. (4) A level in atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE. R-0008. When it measures the relative heights above airfields, an altimeter of the aircraft is set to the atmospheric pressure, named in aviation as (1) QBA. (2) QFE. (3) ELT. (4) QNH. R-0009. The altitude 4,500 ft QNH should be pronounced as (1) FORTY-FIVE-THOUSAND. (2) FOUR POINT FIVE. (3) FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL. (4) FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. R-0010. The altitude 5,000 ft should be broadcasted as (1) FIVE-THOUSAND FEET. (2) FIVE-NULL-NULL-NULL. (3) FIVE-ZERO-ZERO-ZERO FEET. (4) FIFTY HUNDRED. R-0011. The altitude 11,000 ft should be broadcasted as (1) ELEVEN THOUSAND FEET. (2) ONE-ONE-ZERO-ZERO-ZERO FEET. (3) ELEVEN THOUSAND ZERO FEET. (4) ONE-ONE THOUSAND FEET. [4] 6664-R9


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R-0012. The altitude 10,500 ft should be broadcasted as (1) TEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. (2) TEN POINT FIVE. (3) ONE-ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET. (4) ONE-ZERO-FIVE HUNDRED FEET ABOVE SEA LEVEL. R-0013. When broadcasting numbers in radiotelephony communication, the number 583 is transmitted as (1) FIVE-EIGHT-THREE. (2) FIVE HUNDRED EIGHTY THREE. (3) FIFTY EIGHT-THREE. (4) FIVE HUNDRED EIGHT THREE. R-0014. The number 600 should be broadcasted as (1) SIX-ZERO-ZERO. (2) SIX HUNDRED. (3) SIX-NULL-NULL. (4) SIXTY- ZERO. R-0015. The COMM frequency 118.0 MHz should be broadcasted by pronouncing (1) ONE HUNDRED EIGHTEEN POINT NULL. (2) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ZERO. (3) ONE-ONE-EIGHT. (4) ONE-ONE-EIGHT POINT ZERO. R-0016. How do we pronounce the COMM frequency 118.1 MHz in aviation broadcasting? (1) ONE-ONE-EIGHT-POINT ONE. (2) ONE HUNDRED ELEVEN POINT ONE. (3) ONE-ONE-EIGHT-ONE. (4) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ONE. R-0017. The COMM frequency 118.125 MHz should be transmitted by pronouncing (1) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ONE-TWO-FIVE. (2) ONE-ONE-EIGHT-ONE-TWO-FIVE. (3) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ONE-TWO. (4) ONE-ONE-EIGHT POINT ONE-TWO-FIVE. R-0018. In aviation broadcasting, the COMM frequency 118.150 MHz is pronounced as (1) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ONE-FIVE. (2) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DECIMAL ONE-FIVE-ZERO. (3) ONE-ONE-EIGHT POINT ONE-FIVE-ZERO. (4) ONE-ONE-EIGHT DASH ONE-FIVE. R-0019. When a control tower transmits the phrase "REPORT DOWNWIND", a pilot is instructed to report (1) estimated wind direction and velocity at the altitude of flying. (2) maximum allowed tail wind for landing.


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(3) aircraft position in a traffic pattern between the second turn and the third turn, abeam of the halfway point of the runway. (4) aircraft position "final" in a traffic pattern. [3] 6671-R11 R-0020. The portion of the airport identified by the letter A is called (1) RUNWAY. (2) TAXIWAY. (3) BASE LEG. (4) APRON. (see Figure 11) [4] 6464-R11 R-0021. The portion of the airport taxiway identified by the letter B is called (1) HOLDING POINT. (2) APRON. (3) LINE-UP POSITION. (4) CROSSWIND LEG. (see Figure 11) R-0022. The portion of the runway identified by the letter C is called (1) START-UP POSITION. (2) APRON. (3) BASE LEG. (4) LINE-UP POSITION (see Figure 11) R-0023. The portion of the airport traffic circuit identified by the letter E is called (1) LINE-UP. (2) DOWNWIND POSITION. (3) CROSSWIND LEG. (4) BASE LEG. (see Figure 11) [2] 6467-R11 R-0024. Which designator denotes the part of the aerodrome traffic circuit named "Base Leg"? (1) G. (2) F. (3) E. (4) D. (see Figure 11) [2] 2766-R11 R-0025. Which letter identifies that portion of the airport traffic circuit called "FINAL LEG"? (1) E. (2) F. (3) G. (4) C. (see Figure 11) [3] 64682222 R-0026. In poor visibility, a glider pilot glides towards a controlled airport which he/she does not see? He/she asks ATC for help and receives the answer: “YOUR QDM IS 115”. What is the correct pilot’s response?


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(1) Turn into magnetic course 115°. (2) Set the frequency of the radio station to 115,0 MHz. (3) Continue flight and take into consideration that he/she has 11,5 min to the airport. (4) Continue flight and take into consideration that the runway will be clear for landing at 11:05 UTC. R-0027. What is the correct response of a glider pilot when he receives the following information: QNH ONE-ZERO-ZWO ZERO HECTOPASCALS”? (1) Set the time to 10:20 UTC. (2) Select the heading 1020, which leads to the airport. (3) Set the altimeter to 1.020 m, which is the present height of a glider above the airport. (4) Set the pressure in the altimeter to 1020 hectopascals and bear in mind that the altimeter now shows the altitude. R-0028. What does the phrase "QDM" mean? (1) Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation. (2) Actual weather at an airfield. (3) Atmospheric pressure at airfield elevation, reduced to sea level. (4) Magnetic direction from an aircraft to the goniometric station. R-0029. What does "QNH" mean? (1) Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation. (2) Non-directional radio beacon. (3) Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on ground. (4) A specific geographical location at which the position of an aircraft is reported. R-0030. The standard radio station in an aircraft operates within the frequency range (1) UHF. (2) VHF. (3) HF. (4) LF. R-0031. The frequency range of a VHF COMM radio station in a glider is (1) 118,000 MHz to 136,975 MHz. (2) 115,000 MHz to 140,000 MHz. (3) 109,975 MHz to 118,975 MHz. (4) 100,000 MHz to 136,975 MHz. R-0032. The power of transmission of a VHF COMM radio station in a glider (1) is limited to less than 1 W. (2) is generally 1W to 10W. (3) is generally 10W to 50W. (4) has to be less than 50W. R-0033. The prescribed channel spacing of a VHF COMM radio station in an aircraft performing a VFR flight is (1) 100 kHz. (2) 50 kHz. (3) 25kHz. (4) 3 or 2 kHz.


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R-0034. The required voltage of an accumulator for a standard radio station for gliders is (1) 4,5 V. (2) 6 V. (3) 12 V. (4) 24 V. R-0035. What is set with the VOL button on the radio station in an aircraft? (1) Strength of the received signal. (2) Strength of the transmitted signal. (3) Frequency. (4) Volume level of the speakers or the headset. R-0036. What does a pilot do if he is told that they do not read him loud and clear? (1) turns the VOL button to the right. (2) puts the microphone closer to the lips. (3) switches off SQUELCH. (4) turns the VOL button to the left. R-0037. With the switch on the radio station labelled with SQ, a pilot (1) regulates the strength of the transmission. (2) switches on and off the quality threshold to the receiving radio station. (3) increases the receiver bandwidth. (4) decreases the receiver bandwidth. R-0038. The radio station antenna has to be mounted on the (1) fuselage. (2) vertical stabilizer. (3) outer side of the airframe. (4) one of the wings. R-0039. Emergency Locator Transmitter – ELT (1) has to be switched on during the entire flight. (2) has to be switched on manually if necessary. (3) is activated automatically and the pilot cannot switch it on manually. (4) has to be set to automatic switch on; the pilot can also switch it on manually. R-0040. Which broadcasting phrase means "URGENT MESSAGE CONCERNING SAFETY OF ANOTHER AIRCRAFT"? (1) Word "MAYDAY", transmitted in Morse code. (2) Spoken word "MAYDAY". (3) Spoken word "SECURITY". (4) Spoken word "PANPAN". R-0041. In case a pilot intends to transmit an urgent message, concerning the safety of other aircraft, he/she should begin his/her broadcast by the (1) spoken word "PANPAN". (2) spoken word "MAYDAY". (3) Morse code "XXX".


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(4) Morse code "MAYDAY". R-0042. When overflying a remote forest area, you notice a hang glider on a treetop. It seems that the pilot is hanging on his harnesses. You decide to call the nearest airport and report the accident. You should begin your radiotelephony message with the phrase: (1) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. (2) MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL. (3) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (4) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. R-0043. Which phrases should you begin your radio message with if you want to report to the ground that you intend to land and need medical assistance for a passenger with a heart attack? (1) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. (2) MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL. (3) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (4) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. R-0044. During a cross-country flight, you notice an emergency landing of a light aeroplane on a meadow below. The aircraft seems undamaged and the pilot unhurt. Which phrase will you use at the beginning of your report to the air traffic control concerning the event? (1) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. (2) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (3) HELPHELP, HELPHELP, HELPHELP. (4) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. R-0045. The phrase, used at the beginning of a distress message is: (1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (2) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. (3) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. (4) HELP, HELP, HELP. [1] 6680-R15 R-0046. During wave gliding over a mountainous area, a dense cloud builds below you. An airplane which flies on the same route below you reports that mountain peaks are in clouds and you are forced to leave the glider with a parachute. You radiotelephony message to the airport begins with the standard international phrase: (1) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY (2) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. (3) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. (4) HELP, HELP, HELP. R-0047. At outlanding you damaged your aircraft and hurt yourself and there is nobody in the vicinity to assist you. Which international phrase should you start your radiotelephony call with to ask for help? (1) EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY. (2) PANPAN, PANPAN, PANPAN. (3) MEDICAL, MEDICAL, MEDICAL. (4) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY. R-0048. Which of the following frequencies is the international emergency frequency? (1) 122.538 MHz.


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(2) 6538 MHz. (3) 121.050 MHz. (4) 121.500 MHz. R-0049. The frequency 121.5 MHz is (1) the international emergency frequency. (2) a regional guard frequency. (3) a regional frequency. (4) a frequency for air-to-air communication. R-0050. Which frequency shall be used for the conversation between the intercepting aircraft and the intercepted aircraft? (1) International emergency frequency 121.5 MHz. (2) Local air force frequency. (3) Local emergency frequency. (4) Frequency air-air. R-0051. Which international phrase is used by the intercepting aircraft to order the intercepted aircraft to follow him? (1) PROCEED. (2) FOLLOW. (3) YOU LAND. (4) CALL SIGN R-0052. Which international phrase is used by the intercepting aircraft to tell the intercepted aircraft to continue the flight? (1) CALL SIGN. (2) FOLLOW. (3) DESCEND. (4) PROCEED. R-0053. The phrase "CALL SIGN", transmitted by a pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means: (1) Call the air traffic control! (2) What is your call sign? (3) Transmit an emergency call! (4) Return to your airport of origin! R-0054. The phrase "YOU LAND", transmitted by a pilot of an intercepting aircraft to the pilot of an intercepted aircraft, means: (1) Report the name of your aerodrome of origin. (2) You may proceed. (3) Land at this aerodrome. (4) Follow me. R-0055. Which is the correct phrase used by the pilot of an intercepted aircraft to convey to an intercepting aircraft his inability to comply with the received instructions? (1) AM LOST. (2) WILCO.


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(3) CAN NOT. (4) MAYDAY. R-0056. The pilot of an intercepted aircraft reports that he is lost and uncertain of his position by transmitting the following international radio phrase: (1) WILCO. (2) CAN NOT. (3) MAYDAY. (4) AM LOST

R-0057. If a pilot cannot follow the instructions and orders, he should advise air traffic control by transmitting the phrase: (1) I CANNOT COMPLY. (2) UNABLE TO ACCEPT. (3) UNABLE TO COMPLY. (4) REQUEST RECLEARANCE.

USE OF THE PARACHUTE (P) P-0001. The prescribed interval for repacking the personal lifesaving parachute is (1) 3 months. (2) 4 months. (3) 6 months. (4) 12 months. P-0002. The required height for deploying the parachute at usual speeds is (1) 20-70 m. (2) 70-80 m. (3) 80-150 m (4) 150-200 m. P-0003. Which method is the most convenient for leaving a glider with a parachute at low altitudes and speeds up to 150 km/h? (1) (Self) ejection. (2) During inverted flying. (3) Premature opening. (4) Pull out method. P-0004. When leaving a glider which is diving with a parachute, the pilot has to (1) wait with the deployment of the parachute until the speed of falling decreases. (2) deploy the parachute immediately as the ground is drawing nearer very quickly. (3) use the pull out method. (4) try to use the method of leaving the aircraft during inverted flying.


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P-0005. The correct procedure for leaving a glider with a parachute is: (1) open the belts, throw off the canopy, pull the handle for the deployment of the parachute. (2) consider the jump with a parachute as the last possibility, tighten the harnesses of the parachute, estimate height and then deploy the parachute. (3)decide to jump on time, throw off the canopy, open the harnesses, jump out, pull the handle for the activation of the parachute strongly and timely. (4) throw off the canopy and jump out. P-0006. According to the rules, the pilot leaves the glider in spiral-dive (1) on the inner side. (2) with a pull out method. (3) on the outer side. (4) by means of baling out. P-0007. The stability of falling during activation of the parachute is assured by (1) moving both arms symmetrically so that the free arm follows the movements of the arm which

reaches for and pulls the handle for the activation of the parachute. (2) keeping the free arm stretched out. (3) keeping the free arm bent. (4) stretching the free hand away from the body and opening the legs wide apart. P-0008. What does a pilot have to do during free fall with the back down? (1) Stretch one arm away from the body and bend the other one. (2) Deploy the parachute immediately. (3) Take care that both arms are tightly pressed to the body. (4) Bend both legs and press both arms tightly to the body. P-0009. The first thing a pilot has to do after opening the canopy of the parachute is to (1) settle in the harnesses. (2) orientate himself/herself and find out in which direction does the wind carry him/her. (3) determine wind direction. (4) check if the canopy is wholly opened. P-0010 To avoid injuries, the pilot has to land with the parachute (1) with his/her legs apart and bent knees. (2) with his/her legs pressed tightly together and slightly bent knees. (3) with stretched legs and arms in front of the face and try to soothe the blow arising from landing

with a crouch. (4) in such a way that he/she embraces the bent knees to soothe the blow arising from landing. P-0011 Landing the parachute without top opening must be done with the wind into the 1) back. 2) hip. 3) forehead. P-0012 When landing with the parachute in power lines, we have to (1) bend our knees more than when landing on the ground. (2) keep our legs slightly apart.


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(3) turn our body so that we watch in the direction of wires. (4) turn our body so that we watch perpendicular to the wires, and press our legs tightly together P-0013 When landing with the parachute on water, how do we ensure that we do not unfasten the straps

too early and get hurt by the impact with water surface? (1) we take off the parachute harness at a short distance from water surface which we determine

according to the height of waves. (2) When approaching the water surface, we look out towards the horizon and assess the appropriate

height for taking off the parachute harness. (3) We unfasten the straps when we touch the surface of water with our feet. (4) We unfasten the straps when swiming up after landing on water. P-0014 What do we do if after landing the parachute the canopy drags us on the ground due to stormy winds? (1) We open the harness and free ourselves from the canopy. (2) We protect our head with hands and wait until the canopy gets empty. (3) We try to get to the side of the canopy which is opposite to the wind direction. (4) We try to stop the dragging with stretched arms.

RULES AND REGULATIONS (Z) Z-0001. What is the minimum age for an applicant for a Glider Pilot Licence? (1) 15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. Z-0002. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Glider Pilot Licence? (1) A. (2) B. (3) C. (4) D. Z-0003. How many hours of total flying experience are required to apply for the practical skill test for the issue of a Glider Pilot Licence? (1) 30 hours of solo flight time. (2) 50 hours, of which at least 25 hours must be solo flight time. (3) 25 hours of solo flight time. (4) 30 hours, of which at least 20 hours must be solo flight time. Z-0004. At least how many hours of solo flight time are required to apply for the practical skill test for the issue of a Glider Pilot Licence? (1) 10 hours. (2) 20 hours. (3) 30 hours. (4) 40 hours.


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Z-0005. To apply for the practical skill test for the issue of a Glider Pilot Licence, a holder of a PPL(A) or a licence of higher category must have at least (1) 5 hours of solo flight in a glider. (2) 10 hours of solo flight in a glider. (3) 15 hours of solo flight in a glider. (4) 20 hours of solo flight in a glider. Z-0006. Maximum validity of a Glider Pilot Licence is (1) 6 months. (2) 1 year. (3) 2 years. (4) 3 years. Z-0007. A requirement for revalidation of a glider pilot licence is at least 10 hours of flying in gliders during the validity period, of which a minimum of (1) 5 hours of flight time have to be performed within 12 months preceding the expiry of the licence. (2) 5 hours of flight time have to be performed within 6 months preceding the expiry of the licence. (3) 3 hours have to be solo flight. (4) 3 hours of flight time have to be performed within 6 months preceding the expiry of the licence. Z-0008. Which minimum conditions have to be met by a holder of a Glider Pilot Licence to be able to take part in gliding competitions? (1) All together at least 200 hours of flight time in gliders. (2) At least 300 hours of flight time in gliders, of which at least 50 hours in the glider type used in the competition. (3) Gliding Gold C badge and 100 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (4) At least 100 hours of solo flight time in gliders, of which at least 10 hours in the glider type used in the competition. Z-0009. A holder of a Glider Pilot Licence is allowed to fly in a glider in clouds if the glider is properly equipped, and if he/she (1) has passed a special blind flying test in gliders and has at least 150 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (2) has at least 200 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (3) is a gliding instructor. (4) is a gliding instructor and has passed a special blind flying test in gliders. Z-0010. Which conditions have to be met by a holder of a Glider Pilot Licence to be able to fly in a glider at night? (1) 300 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (2) 500 hours of solo flight time in gliders and the exam for a gliding instructor. (3) 100 hours of solo flight time in gliders and pass a special exam for night flying in gliders. (4) A special exam for a gliding instructor. Z-0011. Who can trial glider prototypes? (1) Every gliding instructor who has at least 600 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (2) Only the gliding instructor who has passed a special exam for the trialling of prototypes. (3) Every holder of a Glider pilot licence who has at least 600 hours of solo flight time in gliders. (4) Only an approved inspector for the safety of air navigation.


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Z-0012. A holder of a glider pilot licence shall undergo a proficiency check on a glider if he/she has not been engaged in gliding within the preceding (1) 30 days. (2) 45 days. (3) 60 days. (4) 90 days. Z-0013. During a flight, the following documents and books have to be on board a light sport aeroplane (with the exception of hang gliders, paragliders, balloons and ultralights): (1) -Certificate of Registration

-Certificate of Airworthiness -permission to use the radio station (if on board) -licences of crew members -Journey and Technical Log

(2) -Certificate of Registration

-Certificate of Airworthiness -permission to use the radio station (if on board) -aviation hull insurance - Journey and Technical Log.

(3) -Purchase contract or invoice

-Certificate of Airworthiness - Journey and Technical Log.

(4) -Certificate of Registration

-purchase contract or invoice -Airworthiness Certificate - Journey and Technical Log. -aviation hull insurance, aviation liability insurance -permission to use the radio station (if on board)

Z-0014. The registration mark of a glider registered in the Republic of Slovenia is (1) a certain combination of four digits. (2) a certain combination of digits and letters. (3) the mark S5. (4) a certain combination of three letters. Z-0015. Which rules of the air apply to an aircraft registered in the Republic of Slovenia when flying outside the native airspace? (1) Rules of the air of the Republic of Slovenia. (2) Rules of the air of the state being overflown. (3) Rules of the air of the state producer of the aircraft. (4) International regulations of ICAO. Z-0016. In the territory of the Republic Slovenia, night flying is defined as flying between (1) sunset and sunrise. (2) 30 minutes before sunset and 30 minutes after sunrise. (3) 60 minutes before sunset and 60 minutes after sunrise. (4) 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise.


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Z-0017. When flying without the night rating inside the territory of the Republic of Slovenia, what is the latest time for landing if the sun sets at 20:15? (1) 19:45. (2) 20:15. (3) 20:45. (4) 21:15. Z-0018. What frequency should be monitored by an aircraft taking-off from an airfield in the territory of the Republic of Slovenia without a published frequency? (1) 123.2 MHz. (2) 123.5 MHz. (3) 122.8 MHz. (4) 121.5 MHz. Z-0019. Which agency issues the Radio Station Licence for an aircraft? (1) Association of Radio Amateurs of the Republic of Slovenia. (2) Post and Electronics Communications Agency of the Republic of Slovenia. (3) Telekom. (4) Ministry of Infrastructure and Spatial Planning. Z-0020. What does "AAL" stand for? (1) Above aerodrome level. (2) Angle of attack limitation. (3) Acknowledge. (4) Aerodrome altitude level. Z-0021. The minimum allowed height for circling in a thermal is (1) 50 m. (2) 100 m. (3) 150 m. (4) 300 m. Z-0022. What is the minimum allowed height for the performance of glider aerobatics? (1) 150 m. (2) 200 m. (3) 400 m. (4) 500 m. Z-0023. Supplemental oxygen shall be used by the crew of a glider flying at the altitude above (1) 3,000 m MSL. (2) 3,800 m MSL. (3) 4,000 m MSL. (4) 4,500 m MSL. Z-0024. The minimum altitude for a glider to enter a traffic pattern is: (1) 80 m. (2) 100 m. (3) 120 m. (4) 150 m.


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Z-0025. What is the minimum safe altitude required to operate an aircraft over settlements or open-air assemblies of people? (1) The altitude allowing an emergency landing in case of engine failure without undue hazard to persons or property on the ground. (2) 150 m (500 ft) above ground and not closer than 150 m from any person, vessel or structure. (3) 150 m (500 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m of the aircraft. (4) 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m of the aircraft. Z-0026. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should (1) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL. (2) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated. (3) fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL. Z-0027. Visual flying of aircraft in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, up to 3,050 m (10,000 ft) is permitted if horizontal visibility is at least (1) 8 km. (2) 5 km. (3) 3 km. (4) 1.5 km. Z-0028. When flying visually in class G airspace at altitudes above 900 m (3,000 ft) MSL or 300 m (1,000 ft) from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot of an aircraft must maintain the vertical separation from clouds at least (1) 100 m. (2) 150 m. (3) 250 m. (4) 300 m. Z-0029. While wave gliding in class F airspace at altitudes above 900 m or 300 m from ground, whichever is higher, the pilot shall maintain the horizontal separation from clouds at least (1) 300 m. (2) 600 m. (3) 1 000 m. (4) 1 500m. Z-0030. Minimum weather conditions in which »cross-country« gliding is permitted (1) are not prescribed. (2) are the same as the conditions pertaining to the training in aero tow. (3) are the same as the conditions pertaining to the training for the acquisition of authorisations. (4) are the same as the conditions pertaining to the visual flying of aircraft in the controlled airspace. Z-0031. During which weather conditions is gliding not permitted? (1) When it rains at the airport. (2) When it rains at the airport or when there is fog. (3) During thunderstorms and when there is fog at the airport. (4) During bora wind, thunderstorm, snow shower, snowstorm, fog or when it rains at the airport.


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Z-0032. When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, what action should both pilots take? (1) Both should turn to the left. (2) Both should turn to the right. (3) Both should make a climbing turn to the right. (4) Both should make a climbing turn to the left. Z-0033. How shall aircraft in the air avoid each other on a head-on collision course? (1) Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right. (2) Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left. (3) Powered-aircraft has the right of way, non-powered aircraft shall deviate to the right. (4) Non-powered aircraft has the right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left. Z-0034. What action should the pilots of an airplane and a glider take if on a head-on collision course? (1) The airplane pilot should give way because the glider has the right of way. (2) The airplane pilot should give way because his aircraft is more controllable. (3) Both pilots should give way to the right. (4) The glider pilot should give way because a glider is more controllable than an airplane. Z-0035. Which glider engaged in ridge soaring shall have the right of way? (1) The glider with right crosswind. (2) The glider with left crosswind. (3) The glider with its left wing towards the ridge. (4) Two-seater or the glider with lower performance. Z-0036. A hang glider, a paraglider and a glider are engaged in ridge soaring. Which statement concerning head on flight is correct? (1) The hang glider and paraglider have the right of way. For this reason, the glider shall give way by leaving the ridge. (2) The glider shall give way to the hang glider and paraglider, the hang glider shall give way to the paraglider. (3) The aircraft with its right wing towards the ridge shall have the right of way. Z-0037. In which direction has to turn a glider, hang glider or paraglider when more aircraft are sharing the same thermal? (1) Left. (2) Right. (3) At pilot's discretion. (4) In the same direction as the aircraft that was the first to circle in the thermal. Z-0038. How to overtake another glider during thermal soaring? (1) On the right side. (2) On the left side. (3) Increase the speed and overtake the glider by flying below it.


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Z-0039. What should a glider pilot do if on a head-on collision course with a two-engined Cessna? (1) He/she should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane. (2) He/she should deviate to the right. (3) He/she should open the air brakes immediately and descend to a lower level because a multi-engine airplane has the right of way. (4) He/she may maintain heading and speed because a glider has the right of way, however, he/she should pay extra attention. Z-0040. Which of the statements listed concerning the right of way of two converging aircraft that are not on the head-on course is correct? (1) Normal category aircraft should give way to ultralight aircraft. (2) Airplanes should give way to helicopters. (3) Airplanes in free flight should give way to non-powered aircraft. (4) Ultralight aircraft should give way to normal category aircraft. Z-0041 Which of the statements listed concerning the right of way of two converging aircraft that are not on the head-on course is correct? (1) A hang glider or paraglider shall have priority over a glider. (2) A glider shall give way to a hang glider and paraglider, a hang glider shall give way to a paraglider. (3) A glider shall give way to a hang glider and paraglider, a hang glider and paraglider are equal with regard to the right of way, therefore the right aircraft has the right of way. (4) Rules of the Air do not deal explicitly with the right of way of hang gliders and paragliders, therefore, in this regard they shall be treated as gliders. Z-0042. A powered glider with the engine turned off crosses the way of a sailplane approaching from its right. Which aircraft shall give way? (1) A powered glider shall give way to a sailplane. (2) A sailplane shall give way to a powered glider. (3) The faster aircraft shall give way to the slower aircraft. (4) Both gliders shall alter course. Z-0043. Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed? (1) Glider. (2) Airship. (3) Aircraft towing other aircraft. (4) Helicopter. Z-0044. While in final gliding flight toward airfield, a glider pilot notices an aerotow closing from his left side. What action should the glider pilot in free flight take? 1) He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has priority over a glider. (2) He may keep heading and speed because he is on the right side and thus has the right of way, and intensify attentiveness. (3) He should alter his heading to the left and give way to the aerotow, which has priority over all other aircraft. (4) He may keep heading and speed because a glider has priority over a powered aircraft.


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Z-0045. Which aircraft must give way if a glider and an airplane converge in free flight? (1) The airplane. (2) The glider. (3) Both aircraft. (4) No one. Z-0046. Which of the following statements concerning priority of heavier-than-air aircraft during landing is correct? (1) An aircraft at a higher level shall give way to an aircraft at a lower level, but the latter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft which is in the final approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft. (2) An aircraft in the final approach or an aircraft which is first in an airport traffic circuit has the right-of-way over all other aircraft. (3) The highest aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception of turbojet aircraft, which have priority over propeller aircraft. Z-0047. When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should (1) alter your course to the left. (2) alter your course to the right. (3) fly below or above it. (4) fly below it exclusively. Z-0048. What signals are used by the signalist at the start of aerotow to inform the winch operator that the glider is ready for take-off? (1) He/she holds a white flag horizontally above ground. (2) He/she waves a white flag vertically above ground. (3) He/she waves a white and red flag simultaneously above head. (4) He/she waves a white flag above head. Z-0049. What signals are used by the signalist at the start of aerotow to inform the winch operator that the tow rope is tight? (1) He/she holds a white flag horizontally above ground. (2) He/she waves a white flag vertically above ground. (3) He/she waves a white and red flag simultaneously above head. (4) He/she waves a white flag above head. Z-0050. What signals are used by the signalist at the start of aerotow to inform the winch operator that the glider started to move? (1) He/she holds a white flag horizontally above ground. (2) He/she waves a white flag vertically above ground. (3) He/she waves a white and red flag simultaneously above head. (4) He/she waves a white flag above head. Z-0051. What signals are used by the signalist at the start of aerotow to inform the winch operator to stop the towing immediately? (1) He/she holds a white flag horizontally above ground. (2) He/she waves a red flag above head. (3) He/she waves a white and red flag simultaneously above head. (4) He/she waves a white flag above head.


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Z-0052. What signals are used by the signalist at the start of aerotow to inform the pilot of the towing plane that the glider is ready for departure and that the plane is cleared for take-off? (1) He/she waves a red flag above head. (2) He/she drops a red flag and raises a white flag above head. (3) He/she holds a red flag above head and waves a white flag vertically above ground. (4) He/she waves a white and red flag simultaneously above head. Z-0053. Holding a red flag above head and waving a white flag vertically above ground at the start of aerotow indicates? (1) Glider ready for departure, cleared for take-off! (2) STOP – stop aerotow! (3) The end of flying! (4) Tighten the tow rope! Z-0054. Waving a red flag above head at the start of aerotow indicates: (1) Glider ready for departure, cleared for take-off! (2) STOP – stop aerotow! (3) The end of flying! (4) Tighten the tow rope! Z-0055. Waving a white and red flag above head simultaneously at the start indicates: (1) STOP – stop aerotow! (2) The tow rope is tightened! (3) Glider ready for departure, cleared for take-off! (4) The end of flying! Z-0056. You landed at a controlled aerodrome. Above one of the doors in the aerodrome building is a board with the letter C in black against a yellow background (picture C). What does this signal indicate? (1) Customs. (2) Exit for the crews of light sport aircraft. (3) Exit for aerodrome staff. (4) The location of the ATS reporting office. (see Appendix 12) Z-0057. What does the signal in the form of a horizontal red square with a yellow diagonal (picture B), displayed in the signal square indicate? (1) Landings are prohibited! (2) Special precautions must be observed in landing owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area! (3) Glider flights in operation! (4) Helicopter flights in operation! (see Appendix 12) Z-0058. What does the signal in the form of a horizontal red square with yellow diagonals (picture A), displayed in the signal square, indicate? (1) an area unfit for the movement of aircraft! (2) Aircraft are required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways only! (3) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing! (4) Landings are prohibited! (see Appendix 12)


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Z-0059. The signal in the form of a white cross, displayed horizontally on runways or taxiways indicates: (1) an area unfit for the movement of aircraft! (2) Caution, you are approaching a crossing with a runway! (3) Landing area for helicopters. (4) Caution, you are approaching a crossing with a taxiway! (see Appendix 12) Z-0060 What does a double white cross (picture H), displayed in the signal square, indicate? (1) Landings are prohibited because the airport is not safe! (2) Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing! (3) Taxiing is not confined to runways and taxiways only! (3) Glider flights in operation! (see Appendix 12) Z-0061. What does a horizontal white dumbbell (picture D), displayed in the signal square, indicate? (1) Landings parallel to the balls or perpendicular to the crossbar! (2) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only! (3) Aircraft are required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways only! (4) Landings are prohibited! (see Appendix 12) Z-0062. What does a horizontal white dumbbell with black bars (picture E), displayed in the signal square, indicate? (1) Landings are prohibited and prohibition is likely to be prolonged! (2) Aircraft are required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and taxiways only! (3) Glider flights in operation! (4) Aircraft are required to land and take-off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways. (see Appendix 12) Z-0063. The signal in picture I, displayed in the signal square, indicates: (1) After landing vacate the runway with a right turn! (2) The parking area is on your right! (3) Continue to the next airport because the runway is closed! (4) Right hand circuit in use! (see Appendix 12) Z-0064. A horizontal white or orange landing T (picture F) indicates: (1) Landing in the direction to be used by aircraft for landing and take-off. (2) Landings only on paved surfaces! (3) Landings and taxiing only on paved surfaces! (4) Landings are prohibited! (see Appendix 12) Z-0065. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following lights: (1) Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light. (2) Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tail: white light. (3) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light. (4) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: orange light.


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Z-0066. In addition to the required lights on the wing tips, a glider operating at night must have a tail light, the colour of which is (1) green. (2) red. (3) orange. (4) white. Z-0067. If during a night flight, a steady green light and a flashing orange light is observed at the same altitude, a pilot of an aircraft should (1) pay extreme attention because another aircraft is in emergency. (2) give way by turning to the right because the other aircraft is approaching head-on. (3) pay attention because the pilot of another aircraft should give way. (4) alter his heading to the left because another aircraft is crossing its path from left to right. Z-0068. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light on your left and a steady red light on your right at the same altitude. You should (1) turn to the right, because the other aircraft is approaching head-on. (2) turn to the left, because the other aircraft is approaching head-on. (3) continue because the other aircraft flies in the same direction, therefore there is no danger of collision. Z-0069. During a cross-country flight, you find yourself in the vicinity of an unknown airport. A military aircraft approaches, turns around your aircraft, rocks the wings and finally lowers the landing gear. What does this mean? (1) You may proceed! (2) You have been intercepted, land at the airport below you! (3) Leave the airport zone immediately! (4) Leave the airport zone and land at the nearest sport airfield! Z-0070. During a cross-country flight, you notice a military aircraft approaching your left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away manoeuvre of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean? (1) You have been intercepted. Follow me! (2) Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight! (3) Leave the prohibited area immediately! (4) You may proceed! Z-0071. During a cross-country flight, you notice a military aircraft approaching your left wingtip, flying along for a while, then rocking the wings and commencing a shallow turn to the right. What does this mean? (1) You have been intercepted. Follow me! (2) Leave the prohibited area immediately! (3) You may proceed! (4) Return to the aerodrome of origin! Z- 0072. After an aircraft has been intercepted in flight, the intercepted aircraft is rocking its wings. This means: (1) understood. (2) NO.


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(3) you are not to enter this airspace. (4) will comply.

PRAVILNI ODGOVORI

A-0001 = 3 A-0002 = 1 A-0003 = 2 A-0004 = 4 A-0005 = 3 A-0006 = 3

A-0007 = 1 A-0008 = 3 A-0009 = 1 A-0010 = 2 A-0011 = 4 A-0012 = 3

A-0013 = 4 A-0014 = 3 A-0015 = 2 A-0016 = 4 A-0017 = 1 A-0018 = 3

A-0019 = 3 A-0020 = 1 A-0021 = 1 A-0022 = 4 A-0023 = 2 A-0024 = 3

A-0025 = 2 A-0026 = 4 A-0027 = 1 A-0028 = 3 A-0029 = 1 A-0030 = 1

A-0031 = 3 A-0032 = 2 A-0033 = 4 A-0034 = 3 A-0035 = 4 A-0036 = 4

A-0037 = 2 A-0038 = 3 A-0039 = 2 A-0040 = 3 A-0041 = 4 A-0042 = 1

A-0043 = 2 A-0044 = 2 A-0045 = 4 A-0046 = 3 A-0047 = 4 A-0048 = 2

A-0049 = 2 A-0050 = 1 A-0051 = 1 A-0052 = 2 A-0053 = 4 A-0054 = 4

A-0055 = 2 A-0056 = 3 A-0057 = 4 A-0058 = 2 A-0059 = 4 A-0060 = 3

A-0061 = 3 A-0062 = 2 A-0063 = 1 A-0064 = 1 A-0065 = 3 A-0066 = 4

A-0067 = 1 A-0068 = 1 A-0069 = 2 A-0070 = 4 A-0071 = 2 A-0072 = 1

A-0073 = 2 A-0074 = 4 A-0075 = 1 A-0076 = 1 A-0077 = 1 A-0078 = 2

A-0079 = 1 A-0080 = 1 A-0081 = 2 A-0082 = 1 A-0083 = 1 A-0084 = 2

A-0085 = 4 A-0086 = 1 A-0087 = 4 A-0088 = 1 A-0089 = 1 A-0090 = 1

A-0091 = 3 A-0092 = 4 A-0093 = 1 A-0094 = 1 A-0095 = 4 A-0096 = 3

A-0097 = 1 A-0098 = 2 A-0099 = 1 A-0100 = 1 A-0101 = 2 A-0102 = 1

A-0103 = 2 A-0104 = 3 A-0105 = 2 A-0106 = 3 A-0107 = 4 A-0108 = 2

A-0109 = 3 A-0110 = 3 A-0111 = 3 A-0112 = 1

-------

K-0001 = 1 K-0002 = 3 K-0003 = 3 K-0004 = 4 K-0005 = 3 K-0006 = 1

K-0007 = 3 K-0008 = 3 K-0009 = 1 K-0010 = 4 K-0011 = 3 K-0012 = 3

K-0013 = 4 K-0014 = 3 K-0015 = 1 K-0016 = 3 K-0017 = 3 K-0018 = 3

K-0019 = 2 K-0020 = 3 K-0021 = 2 K-0022 = 3 K-0023 = 4 K-0024 = 2

K-0025 = 4 K-0026 = 4 K-0027 = 4 K-0028 = 2 K-0029 = 4 K-0030 = 2

K-0031 = 4 K-0032 = 1 K-0033 = 2 K-0034 = 4 K-0035 = 1 K-0036 = 3

K-0037 = 4 K-0038 = 1 K-0039 = 4 K-0040 = 4 K-0041 = 4 K-0042 = 4

K-0043 = 1 K-0044 = 4 K-0045 = 1 K-0046 = 3 K-0047 = 3 K-0048 = 2

K-0049 = 2 K-0050 = 2 K-0051 = 2 K-0052 = 2 K-0053 = 3 K-0054 = 3

K-0055 = 2 K-0056 = 1 K-0057 = 1 K-0058 = 3 K-0059 = 3 K-0060 = 4

K-0061 = 4 K-0062 = 3 K-0063 = 2 K-0064 = 1 K-0065 = 4 K-0066 = 4

K-0067 = 2 K-0068 = 1 K-0069 = 2 K-0070 = 1 K-0071 = 2 K-0072 = 3

K-0073 = 3 K-0074 = 1 K-0075 = 2 K-0076 = 2 K-0077 = 4 K-0078 = 1

K-0079 = 4 K-0080 = 1 K-0081 = 4 K-0082 = 4 K-0083 = 2 K-0084 = 2

K-0085 = 3 K-0086 = 1 K-0087 = 3 K-0088 = 4 K-0089 = 2 K-0090 = 2

K-0091 = 4 K-0092 = 3 K-0093 = 2 K-0094 = 2 K-0095 = 2 K-0096 = 2

K-0097 = 4 K-0098 = 1 K-0099 = 4 K-0100 = 1 K-0101 = 1

-------

N-0001 = 2 N-0002 = 2 N-0003 = 1 N-0004 = 3 N-0005 = 3 N-0006 = 2

N-0007 = 4 N-0008 = 2 N-0009 = 4 N-0010 = 2 N-0011 = 3 N-0012 = 4

N-0013 = 3 N-0014 = 2 N-0015 = 3 N-0016 = 2 N-0017 = 3 N-0018 = 1

N-0019 = 4 N-0020 = 3 N-0021 = 4 N-0022 = 3 N-0023 = 2 N-0024 = 1

N-0025 = 1 N-0026 = 2 N-0027 = 3 N-0028 = 3 N-0029 = 4 N-0030 = 2

N-0031 = 1 N-0032 = 2 N-0033 = 3 N-0034 = 2 N-0035 = 1 N-0036 = 4

N-0037 = 1 N-0038 = 1 N-0039 = 2 N-0040 = 4 N-0041 = 4 N-0042 = 2

N-0043 = 2 N-0044 = 3 N-0045 = 4 N-0046 = 1 N-0047 = 3 N-0048 = 1

N-0049 = 3 N-0050 = 2 N-0051 = 2 N-0052 = 4 N-0053 = 3 N-0054 = 2

N-0055 = 3 N-0056 = 2 N-0057 = 1 N-0058 = 1 N-0059 = 2 N-0060 = 2

N-0061 = 1 N-0062 = 4 N-0063 = 3 N-0064 = 4 N-0065 = 4 N-0066 = 2


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N-0067 = 3 N-0068 = 2 N-0069 = 2 N-0070 = 4 N-0071 = 1 N-0072 = 2

N-0073 = 4 N-0074 = 3 N-0075 = 3 N-0076 = 2 N-0077 = 4 N-0078 = 2

N-0079 = 2 N-0080 = 1 N-0081 = 3 N-0082 = 4 N-0083 = 2 N-0084 = 1

N-0085 = 2 N-0086 = 2 N-0087 = 2 N-0088 = 1 N-0089 = 1 N-0090 = 3

N-0091 = 3 N-0092 = 4 N-0093 = 1 N-0094 = 2 N-0095 = 2 N-0096 = 4

N-0097 = 2 N-0098 = 1 N-0099 = 2 N-0100 = 1 N-0101 = 2 N-0102 = 1

N-0103 = 1 N-0104 = 2 N-0105 = 2 N-0106 = 4 N-0107 = 3 N-0108 = 1

N-0109 = 3 N-0110 = 3 N-0111 = 2 N-0112 = 2 N-0113 = 3 N-0114 = 4

N-0115 = 1 N-0116 = 4 N-0117 = 3 N-0118 = 2

-------

M-0001 = 2 M-0002 = 3 M-0003 = 4 M-0004 = 1 M-0005 = 1 M-0006 = 2

M-0007 = 3 M-0008 = 2 M-0009 = 2 M-0010 = 3 M-0011 = 1 M-0012 = 1

M-0013 = 3 M-0014 = 1 M-0015 = 2 M-0016 = 4 M-0017 = 4 M-0018 = 2

M-0019 = 2 M-0020 = 2 M-0021 = 3 M-0022 = 4 M-0023 = 4 M-0024 = 3

M-0025 = 3 M-0026 = 1 M-0027 = 4 M-0028 = 4 M-0029 = 1 M-0030 = 2

M-0031 = 2 M-0032 = 1 M-0033 = 1 M-0034 = 3 M-0035 = 1 M-0036 = 2

M-0037 = 3 M-0038 = 4 M-0039 = 2 M-0040 = 2 M-0041 = 3 M-0042 = 3

M-0043 = 3 M-0044 = 1 M-0045 = 2 M-0046 = 4 M-0047 = 2 M-0048 = 1

M-0049 = 4 M-0050 = 1 M-0051 = 4 M-0052 = 2 M-0053 = 1 M-0054 = 4

M-0055 = 1 M-0056 = 3 M-0057 = 1 M-0058 = 4 M-0059 = 4 M-0060 = 2

M-0061 = 3 M-0062 = 2 M-0063 = 2 M-0064 = 4 M-0065 = 2 M-0066 = 4

M-0067 = 1 M-0068 = 3 M-0069 = 2 M-0070 = 2 M-0071 = 2 M-0072 = 1

M-0073 = 3 M-0074 = 1 M-0075 = 4 M-0076 = 1 M-0077 = 4 M-0078 = 1

M-0079 = 1 M-0080 = 3 M-0081 = 1 M-0082 = 1 M-0083 = 4 M-0084 = 2

M-0085 = 4 M-0086 = 1 M-0087 = 4 M-0088 = 4 M-0089 = 4 M-0090 = 4

M-0091 = 2 M-0092 = 4 M-0093 = 3 M-0094 = 1 M-0095 = 1 M-0096 = 4

M-0097 = 1

-------

R-0001 = 3 R-0002 = 3 R-0003 = 1 R-0004 = 4 R-0005 = 1 R-0006 = 1

R-0007 = 3 R-0008 = 2 R-0009 = 4 R-0010 = 1 R-0011 = 4 R-0012 = 3

R-0013 = 1 R-0014 = 2 R-0015 = 2 R-0016 = 4 R-0017 = 3 R-0018 = 1

R-0019 = 3 R-0020 = 4 R-0021 = 1 R-0022 = 4 R-0023 = 2 R-0024 = 2

R-0025 = 3 R-0026 = 1 R-0027 = 4 R-0028 = 4 R-0029 = 3 R-0030 = 2

R-0031 = 1 R-0032 = 2 R-0033 = 3 R-0034 = 3 R-0035 = 4 R-0036 = 2

R-0037 = 2 R-0038 = 3 R-0039 = 4 R-0040 = 4 R-0041 = 1 R-0042 = 4

R-0043 = 4 R-0044 = 1 R-0045 = 1 R-0046 = 3 R-0047 = 4 R-0048 = 4

R-0049 = 1 R-0050 = 1 R-0051 = 2 R-0052 = 4 R-0053 = 2 R-0054 = 3

R-0055 = 3 R-0056 = 4 R-0057 = 3

-------

P-0001 = 1 P-0002 = 2 P-0003 = 4 P-0004 = 1 P-0005 = 3 P-0006 = 3

P-0007 = 1 P-0008 = 1 P-0009 = 4 P-0010 = 2 P-0011 = 1 P-0012 = 4

P-0013 = 3 P-0014 = 1

-------

Z-0001 = 2 Z-0002 = 3 Z-0003 = 1 Z-0004 = 3 Z-0005 = 2 Z-0006 = 3

Z-0007 = 1 Z-0008 = 4 Z-0009 = 1 Z-0010 = 3 Z-0011 = 2 Z-0012 = 4

Z-0013 = 1 Z-0014 = 1 Z-0015 = 2 Z-0016 = 4 Z-0017 = 3 Z-0018 = 2

Z-0019 = 2 Z-0020 = 1 Z-0021 = 3 Z-0022 = 3 Z-0023 = 3 Z-0024 = 4

94 PRAVILNI ODGOVORI

GPL - KATALOG 2007

Z-0025 = 4 Z-0026 = 2 Z-0027 = 2 Z-0028 = 4 Z-0029 = 4 Z-0030 = 1

Z-0031 = 4 Z-0032 = 2 Z-0033 = 1 Z-0034 = 3 Z-0035 = 2 Z-0036 = 3

Z-0037 = 4 Z-0038 = 2 Z-0039 = 2 Z-0040 = 3 Z-0041 = 4 Z-0042 = 2

Z-0043 = 1 Z-0044 = 4 Z-0045 = 1 Z-0046 = 1 Z-0047 = 2 Z-0048 = 4

Z-0049 = 1 Z-0050 = 2 Z-0051 = 2 Z-0052 = 2 Z-0053 = 4 Z-0054 = 2

Z-0055 = 4 Z-0056 = 4 Z-0057 = 2 Z-0058 = 4 Z-0059 = 1 Z-0060 = 4


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Z-0061 = 3 Z-0062 = 4 Z-0063 = 4 Z-0064 = 1 Z-0065 = 2 Z-0066 = 4

Z-0067 = 3 Z-0068 = 1 Z-0069 = 2 Z-0070 = 4 Z-0071 = 1 Z-0072 = 4

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