ADVANCED AIRPLANE BRIDGING COURSEEXAMINATIONHIGH SPEED AERODYNAMIC1. Critical Mach number isa. The Mach number which the airspeed over the wing reach Mach 1.0b. The Mach number which the airspeed over the wing exceed Mach 1.0c. The Mach number which the airspeed over the wing exceed MMOd. The Mach number which the airspeed over the wing all supersonic

2. Mach tuck is caused bya. Forward shift of Center of Pressureb. Forward shift of C of Gc. Aft ward shift of Center of Pressured. Aft ward shift of C of G

3. Use of wingleta. Reduce induced dragb. Reduce transonic dragc. Reduce parasite dragd. Increase fuel consumption

4. When are inboard ailerons normally used?a. Low-speed flight onlyb. High-speed flight onlyc. Low-speed and high speed flightd. Locked when flaps are down

5. When are outboard ailerons normally used?a. Low-speed flight onlyb. High-speed flight onlyc. Low-speed and high speed flightd. Locked when flaps are down

6. Swept wing stall characteristica. Nose downb. Nose up c. Nose down and rolld. Roll

7. Coffin Corner isa. Max certified altitude depicted in AFMb. Max absolute altitude, higher than max certified altitudec. Max altitude for one engine inoperative conditiond. A waypoint on an airway with change of heading more than 245 degrees

8. Mach buffet isa. High speed buffetb. Low speed buffetc. Buffet caused by other airplane nearbyd. Aileron buzz

9. VMCAa. Minimum Control Speed in the airb. Visual Meteorological Condition airbornec. Minimum Control Speed - airplaned. Visual Meteorological Condition airplane

10. Critical Engine isa. The one engine which, if failed will cause the least yawb. The one engine which, if operating will cause the greatest yawc. The one engine which, if failed will cause the greatest yaw d. The one engine with the critical airplane system

11. On an airplane with 4 turboprop engine rotating counter clock wise, the critical engine is number from left to right)a. No. 1 and No.4b. No.2 and no. 3c. No. 1d. No. 4

GAS TURBINE ENGINE12. Controls for a turboprop enginea. Thrust lever and reverse thrust leverb. Power Lever, and condition leverc. Throttle, Propeller and Mixtured. Throttle and speed brake/spoiler lever

13. Controls for a jet enginea. Forward Thrust lever, Reverse thrust lever and fuel controlb. Power lever and condition lever and fuel controlc. Throttle, Propeller and Mixtured. Throttle and speed brake/spoiler lever

14. A turbine is designed toa. Provide compressed air for combustionb. Ignite the fuel air mixturec. Extract power from the expanding gas to rotate the compressor d. Provide cooling air to the engine

15. Ignition on a gas turbine engine isa. Normally only turned on during engine startb. Continuously on by magneto powerc. Turned on for start and adverse weather and takeoff/landing operationd. Both a and b is correct

16. The correct Gas turbine engine cycle isa. Intake-expansion -compression-combustion -exhaustb. Intake-compression-combustion-expansion-exhaustc. Intake-combustion-compression -expansion-exhaustd. Intake-exhaust -compression-combustion-expansion

17. Pure turbo jet engine characteristic isa. Efficient both at lower and higher speedb. Inefficient both at lower and higher speedc. Inefficient at lower speed, efficient at higher speedd. Efficient at lower speed, inefficient at higher speed

18. Gas turbine acceleration from idle to max thrust may take as long asa. 1 secondb. 2 secondsc. 4 secondsd. 8 seconds

19. Gas turbine advantage over piston enginea. Lower weightb. Lower vibrationc. Higher thrustd. All answer above are correct

20. A compressor stall is caused bya. Loss of fuel b. Reversed airflow within the enginec. Loss of combustiond. A turbine disk rupture

21. On a turboprop engine, a Beta Mode is wherea. The propeller pitch is controlled directly by the power leverb. The propeller pitch is controlled by the condition leverc. The propeller RPM is sensed by the Negative Torque Systemd. The propeller is feathered

22. By pass ratio isa. The ratio of fan air bypassing the combustion section and the air through the combustion sectionb. The ratio of fuel and air mixturec. The ratio air burned and cooling air in the combustion sectiond. The ratio of fan and compressor diameter

HIGH ALTITUDE PHYSIOLOGY23. After a rapid decompression at 35,000 feet, the estimated TUC isa. 20 to 30 minutesb. 10 minutesc. 15 to 30 secondsd. 5 seconds

24. On a multi crew airplane, should a pilot leave his/her station above FL 250 but not below FL 410, the pilot at the control musta. Make sure his/her oxygen mask is ready to useb. Don oxygen mask and use it until the other pilot returnsc. Notify ATCd. Fasten his seatbelt and shoulder harness

25. Hyperventilation is a. The result of loss of CO2 from the bodyb. The result of loss of O2 from the bodyc. The result of evolved gas in the bodyd. The result of trapped gas in body cavity

26. The Bends isa. The result of loss of CO2 from the bodyb. The result of loss of O2 from the bodyc. The result of evolved gas in the bodyd. The result of trapped gas in body cavityAIRCRAFT SYSTEM27. Is pressurized air taken from engine :a. compressorb. turbinec. turbine and compressor

28. In modern aircraft, bleed air are used for :a. Engine start, Hydraulic start, Air data Heaterb. Engine start, Cabin Pressurization, Air Conditionc. Air Condition, Air data heater, Cabin Pressurization

29. Generally anti icing system for civilian aircraft usinga. Bleed airb. Electricc. Liquidd. All above

30. Windshield anti ice to add strength and flexibility when bird strike occur.a. False.b. True.

31. APU is used on the ground to supply a. Electricb. Hydraulicc. Pneumatic (bleed air)d. A and c above

32. The APU battery supply power to the starter, also supply toa. Air inlet door, APU controller, DC fuel pump, and APU fire detection and protection system.b. Air inlet door, APU controller, and DC fuel pump.c. APU controller, DC fuel pump, and APU fire detection and protection system.

33. If the Battery switch is positioned OFF prior to completion of the cool down period, the APU will not shut down immediately.a. Falseb. True 34. The most electrical in use for an Airplane are:a. 115 volt, three phase, 60 Hzb. 225 volt, three phase, 400 Hzc. 115 volt, three phase, 400 Hz

35. Electric as a heater of air data, what item being used as air data source?a. Pitot tube, static port, and TAT probeb. Pitot tube, static port, and water waste exilec. Static port, TAT probe, and water waste exile.

36. Normally battery life for emergency isa. 20 minutesb. 25 minutesc. 30 minutes

37. Fire protection system consist ofa. Fire Detectionb. Fire Warning systemc. Fire extinguishing systemd. All of above.

38. The fire bell can be silenced by extinguishing the fire or pushing Master Warning/Caution Reset switch.a. True.b. False.

39. Fuel drip stick can be found underneath each tank..a. Below the wing.b. Over the wing.c. Below the body.

40. Each tank at least has two fuel pumps which are electrically operated.a. The same bus.b. Different bus.c. The same current.

41. Hydraulic power pumps normally has pressure of a. 2800 psib. 3000 psic. 3500 psi

42. Modern transport airplane equipped with retractable landing gear in order to havea. Lower dragb. Minimize fuel consumptionc. Higher altitude capability d. All of above

43. Anti skid function are prevent wheel locked condition and prevent tyre blow outa. Falseb. True

44. Wind shear alerts are enabled during takeoff, approach, and landing.a. Trueb. False

45. Approaching selected altitude, when the highlight white box no longer displayed?a. 900 feet of the selected altitude. b. 300 feet of the selected altitude. c. 000 feet of the selected altitude.

46. TCAS provides advisories and traffic display, what red bold square mean?a. other traffic display b. proximate traffic display c. traffic advisory (TA) and displayd. resolution advisory (RA) and display

HIGH LEVEL METEOROLOGY

47. What should pilots do before performing each flight at dispatch center?a. Gather an appropriate weather briefing.b. Gets the right flight plan.c. Gets the Notice to Airman.d. All above correct.

48. Weather specialist will brief weather, all of the three kind weather briefinga. Falseb. True

49. Standard weather briefing should include adverse weather condition, weather synopsis, current condition as well asa. En-route forecastb. Destination forecastc. Wind temperature aloftd. All of above

50. These part of sig-met: SIGMET ROME02 VALID UNTIL 100530What does ROME02 mean?a. Romeo 2, second day.b. Romeo 2, second issuance day.c. Romeo 2, the second issuance.

51. KORD 011405Z 0114/0218 08006KT P6SM FEW030 FM011900 07008KT P6SM SKC FM020700 12004KT P6SM FEW030 FM021300 12006KT P6SM SKCWhat is period of few 3000?a. Day 2nd 0700-1300b. Day 2nd 0700-1200c. Day 1st 1900-0700 day 2nd

MULTICREW

52. When is the PIC has to take his seat? Choose the correct statement.a. Below 10000 AGL is a must.b. The PIC has to be Route Instructor, Flight Instructor or Check Pilot to take the RH seat.c. When other Pilot has the qualification to take the LH seat (Captain or Captain Training), then the Route Instructor, Flight Instructor or Check Pilot is allowed to take the RH seat.d. All of above.

53. Enlarge Crew.When there are 2 captains and one first officer in one enlarge crew flight. How many captains have to be nominated as PIC in that flight?a. Two.b. One.

54. Whom the F/O has to report to if in his opinion any aspect of the flight preparation has been overlooked.a. Chief Pilot.b. Ramp coordinator.c. None, just advise the Captain.

55. Who is responsible for the execution of the flight and for the safety of the aircraft and its occupants during the flight? a. Ramp coordinator.b. The Chief Pilot.c. The Captain. 56. Choose the correct statement: a. The pilot and co-pilot have the same duties as crewb. The pilot and co-pilot duties are allocated so that they work in a coordinated pattern thereby enhancing operational performance.c. Teamwork is mutual respect for the other pilot, by being supportive of each other while achieving the common goal of enhanced safety and operational proficiency.d. b and c.

57. Cockpit Management involves 7 principles which are important for multi-crew operations, 3 of them are:a. Appropriate delegation of tasks and assignments of responsibilities.b. Establishment of a logical order of priorities.c. Continuous monitoring and cross-checking of essential instruments and systems.d. All of above.

58. Choose the correct answer on the task of verification on reading the checklist:a. The task of verification has to be left only to the pilot responding to the Checklist. b. The pilot making the challenge calls read the checklist items but also has to move his eyes away from the list to cross-check his partner.c. The pilot flying answer with the proper response immediately when he/she heard the challenge call from the pilot not flying, not verifying that the item called was set accordingly.

59. A basic principle of the normal checklist is the caller should be satisfied that the crew member replying has carried out the action required.a. Trueb. False.

60. When on emergency, impending or existing, is detected, who has to nominate the emergency checklist he is about to action?a. The Captain.b. The PF.c. The PIC.

61. Emergency Checklist. The checklist is actioned first by the pilot in command calling Phase 1 items from memory with challenge and response action. When the emergency actions are completed he will call for the checklist to be read. a. Phase 1 items are read silently and Phase 2 items are read in the normal challenge and response actions and principles.b. Phase 1 items are read loudly and Phase 2 items are read in the normal challenge and response actions and principles.c. Phase 1 items are read normally and Phase 2 items are read in the normal challenge and response actions and principles.

62. Task sharing and responsibility. Choose the correct statement.a. The Pilot Flying is responsible for controlling the vertical flight path and horizontal flight path and for energy management. b. The Pilot Flying supervising the auto pilot (AP) vertical guidance and lateral guidance and the auto thrust (A/THR) operation.c. Pilot Flying hand flying the aircraft, with or without flight director (FD) guidance and with or without Autothrottles / auto thrust (A/THR) assistance.d. All of above.

COST INDEX QUESTIONAIRE63. Cost Index Definition.The CI is the ratio of the time-related cost of an airplane operation and the cost of fuel.a. True.b. False.

64. Time Related Costs.Choose the correct statement.a. Flight crew, Cabin crew, Aircraft Leasing and Maintenance are included in Time Related Costs.b. Expressed in units of currency per flight-hour ($/hour).c. May be difficult to determine.d. All of above.

65. Fuel Costsa. Fuel cost considers Price of fuel used on all flight.b. Fuel Cost expressed in units of currency per quantity of fuel (cents/pound).c. Fuel Cost probably difficult to calculate.d. All of above.

66. Economy SpeedHow economy speed is determined ? Choose the wrong statement.a. Economy Speed (which is using fixed descent speed) is the speed at which the fuel cost plus time cost during descend is minimized.b. Economy Speed (which is using fixed climb speed) is the speed at which the fuel cost plus time cost during climb is minimized.c. Economy Speed (which is using fixed cruise speed) is the speed at which the fuel cost plus time cost during cruise is minimized.d. All of above.

67. Cost Index summary.a. Cost Index is determined by company staff using various data which normally also available to pilots.b. Use Cost Index given by the company, but modifying Cost Index by pilot is also allowed.c. Modifying Cost Index by pilot will result to a contra productive with company policy.d. All of above.

PERFORMANCE

68. Choose the correct statement.5 Basic T/O Performance requirements are:a. Field Length requirement, Climb capabilities requirement, Obstacle clearance requirement, Tire Speed requirement and Brake Energy requirement.b. Safely stop before V1 requirement, Climb capabilities requirement, Obstacle clearance Field Length requirement, Climb capabilities requirement, Obstacle clearance requirement,c. Extra margin of Runway on normal T/O, Climb capabilities requirement, Obstacle clearance requirement, Tire Speed requirement and Brake Energy requirement.

69. Choose the correct statement. Climb requirements are specified in the terms of Climb Gradients.a. Climb Gradient is the ratio (in the same unit) expressed as a percentage of Change in height to the Horizontal distance traveled.b. 1st segment requirement is positive Climb Gradient for 2 engines aircraft.c. 1st segment requirement is Climb Gradient of 0.5 % for 4 engines aircraft.d. All of above.

70. Choose the correct statement.a. V1: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway length.b. V1: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35 feet.c. V1: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet withd. one engine failed.

71. Choose the correct statement.a. V2: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway length.b. V2: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35 feet.c. V2: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet withone engine failed.

72. Choose the correct statement.a. VR: Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of critical engine, either to continue take-off within limits of available take-off length or to stop the aircraft within limits of available runway length.b. VR: Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35 feet.c. VR: Take-off safety speed, reached before the altitude 35 feet with one engine failed.

73. VMCG : Minimum controllable speed on ground from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can be controlled by use of primary flying controls only. Another engine remaining at take-off power.a. True.b. False.

74. VMCG : Minimum controllable speed on ground from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can be controlled by use of primary flying controls only. Another engine remaining at take-off power.a. True.b. False.

75. Stopway is:a. A defined rectangular area selected or prepared for the normal take-off and landing run of an aircraft.b. An area extending beyond the runway, with the following requirements: Not less in width than the runway it augments, designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the aircraft during reject take-off and capable of supporting the aircraft during a rejected take-off without inducing structural damage to the aircraft.c. An area extending beyond the runway, with the followingrequirements: Not less than 500 feet wide, the maximum length is 50% of the TORA under the control of the airport authorities.

76. 2nd segment:In the configuration existing along the one-engine-out gross take-off flight path at the point where the gear is fully retracted, the steady climb gradient without ground effect shall not be less than 2.4% for two-engine aircraft.a. True.b. False.

77. Minimum Altitude which guarantees the same obstruction clearance as does the MEA but that assures a reliable navigation signal only within 22 nautical miles of the VOR facility is:a. MEAb. MORAc. MOCA

NAVIGATION78. Radio Navigation System are VOR DME ILS ADF a. ATC transponder, Weather Radarb. ATC transponder, FMSc. FMS, IRS

79. In the modern aircraft, Flight Management System is inclusive in Navigation system.a. False.b. True.

80. Navigation Satellite Timing and Ranging Global Positioning System. a. Owned by UN, Operated by US Air forceb. Owned by US Government, Operated by NASAc. Owned by US Government, Operated by US Air force

81. Normally Two GPS receivers installed in commercial aircraft.a. They are independent receivers and automatic tuning.b. They are independent receivers and manual tuning.c. They are independent receivers, only one be used, the other as a back-up.

82. The GPS symbols are identical and display as a single symbol when the GPS receivers calculate the same position. a. True.b. False.

83. The IRS consists of at least .. and the IRS mode selector panel.a. Four Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)b. Three Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)c. Two Inertial Reference Units (IRUs)

84. If NAV mode become inoperative in flight, rotating from NAV mode into ATT mode, aircraft must be ina. Straight and turn in order to get best accuracy.b. Straight and level in order to get best accuracy.c. Descend and turn in order to get best accuracy.

85. Alignment can be accomplished only when the airplane is ina. Parkb. Flightc. Push back

86. The Commercial plane normally two VOR receivers are installed. The receivers can be tuned manually on the NAV RADIO page on the CDU or Navigation Radio Box.a. Falseb. True

87. It is essential to verify the identity of the tuned navigation (with decoded) station from the audio Morse code if a. All bellow b. The tuned frequency remains displayedc. An incorrect identifier displays.

88. ATC transponder, mode S operates continuously when the transponder mode selector is :a. At TA/RA.b. Out of standby.c. At TA.

89. In flight, the selected transponder activates beacon and altitude reporting when the transponder mode selector is ina. ALT ONb. TAc. TA/RAd. All the answer above

90. The FMS automatic flight functions manage the airplane lateral flight path (LNAV) and vertical flight path (VNAV).a. Falseb. True

91. The FMS navigation database supplies the necessary data to fly routes such as,a. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and procedure turnsb. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and high level app. proc.c. SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and taxy routes.

92. Two IRUs in conjunction with one FMC and two FMS-CDUs meet the requirements as the sole means of navigation for flightsa. Up to 06 hours duration.b. Up to 12 hours duration.c. Up to 18 hours duration.

93. After a journey completed, one of pilot duty on the FMS calleda. Landing complete.b. Flight complete.c. Mission complete.

94. Entry wind and temperature loft data into leg page categories as :a. Required preflight datab. Optional preflight datac. Compulsory preflight data

95. Climb phase starts at thrust reduction for climb and terminates at the top of climb (T/C) point, step climbs and en route descents are inclusive on this climb part.a. Trueb. False

96. The DIRECT TO or INTERCEPT COURSE TO a procedures after OFFSET or off from active route could be done fora. Return into active routeb. Return into Flight Levelc. Return into normal condition after emergency condition experienced

97. Dual FMC failure, all pages of CDU are still availablea. Trueb. False 98. Which identifies the active waypoint on the ND (Navigation Display)?a. White waypoint symbolb. Magenta way point symbolc. Blue waypoint symbol

99. What is the FMC data base?a. A Navigation chartb. A computer information storage area that can be updated by maintenancewhich contains Navigation and Performance data.c. An unchangeable computer information storage area

100. With FLCH selected on the Mode Control Panel , What is annunciated as the engaged pitch mode of the PFD?a. V/Sb. FLCH SPDc. ALT

101. How much time is required for the IRU selected to the ATT mode to align ?a. 20 seconds of straight and level flightb. 30 seconds of straight and level flightc. 60 seconds of straight and level flight

102. How much time is required for alignment to complete?a. Approximately 5 minutesb. Approximately 10 minutesc. Approximately 15 minutes

AIRWAY MANUAL103. Which of these is transition altitude?a. The altitude in the vicinity of an airport at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes (MSL)b. The initial level-off altitude after takeoff from an airportc. The altitude above which the altimeter is changed to 29.92 HPa

104. Which of these is transitionlevel?a. The initial level-off altitude after takeoff from an airportb. The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitudec. The altitude beyond which altitudes are called 'flight levels'

105. What SID and STAR for?a. Short Cut to join Airways and Avoidance Weatherb. Fly and join the Airwayc. Airspace management, Noise abatement, terrain and obstacle avoidance

106. What is Visual Approach?a. Flight /approach conducted on IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport at all timesb. Condition where weather are reported CAVOKc. Reported weather at the airport Ceiling at or above 1000 Feet and visibility of 3 miles or greater (see ICAO term of Visual Approach)

107. Which one is correct for 'Alternate Airport'a. Airport other than destinations airportb. An airport at which an aircraft may land if a landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable (see ICAO term Alternate Aerodrome)c. Airport use incase emergency