Admission-cum-Scholarship Test...Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked...

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The

candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these

initial 10 minutes.)

2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.

3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.

4. Read each question carefully.

5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.

6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.

7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.

For Example

Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?

(Answer Sheet)

(1) Old gold Q.12. � � � �

(2) Petroleum

(3) Silver

(4) Coal

Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball

point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If

more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.

8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once

marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that

Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.

9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.

10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet

are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,

he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can

leave the examination hall before half time.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)

(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)

(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)

Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360

Test Booklet Code : A

Space For Rough Work

- 1 -

Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper

SCIENCE

Choose the correct answer :

1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a

certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,

placed between them, attains equilibrium at a

distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance

from the larger mass will be

(1) r (2) 2 r

(3) 2r (4) 4r

2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not

possible physically?

(1)

t

v

(2)

t

v

(3) t

v

(4) t

v

3. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth

is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity

on the surface of a planet having same mass and

diameter half as that of earth?

(1)2

g(2)

4

g

(3) 4g (4) 2g

4. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of

10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes.

Work done by the brakes is

(1) –250 J (2) –500 J

(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J

5. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite

directions. Which of the following quantities will be

conserved?

(1) Kinetic energy only

(2) Momentum only

(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy

(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy

6. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.

(1) Sound waves (2) X-rays

(3) -rays (4) -rays7. According to Archimedes principle when a body is

immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it

experiences an upward force that is equal to

(1) Weight of the body

(2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed

(3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it

(4) Weight of the part of body not immersed

8. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its

frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is

(1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s

(3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s

9. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated

motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have

their usual meaning]

(1)–

2

v u

(2)2

v u

(3)

2 2

2

v u(4)

2 2–

2

v u

10. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz

travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of

the sound is

(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m

(3) 150 m (4) 6 m

11. The distance and displacement of a moving object

are equal only when it

(1) Moves in a circle

(2) Slows down

(3) Speeds up

(4) Moves straight without turning back

12. The momentum of a body is always in the

direction of

(1) Its motion (2) Its acceleration

(3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight


- 2 -

Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018

13. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at

rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is

(1) 72 m (2) 36 m

(3) 24 m (4) 12 m

14. Universal gravitational constant is measured in

(1) N kg2/m2 (2) (Nm)2/kg2

(3)

2

2

Nm

kg(4)

22

Nkg

m

15. Maximum acceleration that can act on a 2.5 kg

mass under the action of a 16 N and a 4 N force is

(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4.8 m/s2

(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 6.5 m/s2

16. Which of the following has the maximum number

of moles?

(1) 112 g of Na (2) 50 g of Ne

(3) 40 g of He (4) 60 g of C

17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then

what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the

solution?

(1) 10% (2) 9%

(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%

18. Which of the following elements has the valency of 2?

(1) Sodium (2) Carbon

(3) Boron (4) Oxygen

19. Brass is an alloy of

(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc

(3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc

20. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are

Salt +Sand+Ammoniumchloride

Process ‘X’Salt +Sand

+ Ammonium chloride

Dissolu-tion inwater

Sand +Salt +Water

Salt +Water

Process ‘Y’Process ‘Z’Puresaltcrystals +

Sand

(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation

(2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration

(3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation

(4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation

21. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at

a temperature slightly above room temperature?

(1) Boron (2) Gallium

(3) Germanium (4) Bromine

22. Read the following statements carefully

(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms

and one oxygen atom.

(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in

0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01.

(C) The charge on the particle which was

discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.

The correct statements are/is

(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)

(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)

23. The electronic configuration of an element with

atomic number 20 is

(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2

(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8

24. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are

given as

A B C

Number of neutrons 6 8 7

Number of protons 6 6 7

Elements

Consider the following statements

(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and

mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14

(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes

(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars

Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii)

(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)


- 3 -


25. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of

solids because

(1) Particles of liquid have more forces of

attraction between them than that of solids

(2) Particles of liquid have less spaces between

them and hence they stick to each other and

move freely

(3) Particles of liquid have more inter-particle

spaces between them and they can move freely

(4) Particles of solid have more inter-particle

spaces between them as compared to liquids

26. Which of the following gases is essential for the

survival of aquatic animals and plants?

(1) Oxygen

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Carbon monoxide

(4) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide

27. Which of the following is an example of

homogeneous mixture?

(1) Cloud (2) Sugar solution

(3) Distilled water (4) Milk

28. The ratio by mass of calcium to oxygen in quick

lime is

(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 3

(3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 1

29. Find the incorrect pair.

(1) Silver – Element

(2) Steel – Mixture

(3) Sugar – Compound

(4) Blood – Suspension

30. Which of the following is not a polyatomic ion?

(1) Ammonium (2) Sulphite

(3) Sulphate (4) Sulphide

31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria

and Eubacteria?

(1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus

(3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle

32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried

by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify

'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.

(1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver

(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung

(3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney

(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain

33. Which of the following cell organelles is

responsible for storage, modification and packaging

of products in vesicles?

(1) Lysosomes

(2) Mitochondria

(3) Endoplasmic reticulum

(4) Golgi apparatus

34. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism

given in the figure.

(Housefly)Musca

(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body

(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals

(3) It has closed circulatory system

(4) It has jointed legs

35. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy

season?

(i) Paddy (ii) Wheat

(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard

(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Five (4) Four


- 4 -


36. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given

figure.

(1) It controls a voluntary actions

(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate

(3) It is also called unstriated muscle

(4) It is found in ureters and bronchi

37. Which of the following groups of diseases are

caused by bacteria?

(1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera

(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis

(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis

(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid

38. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on

our earth.

Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up

in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,

respiration, etc.

(1) Both the statements are true

(2) Both the statements are false

(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false

(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

39. Cell A Cell AAfter 1 hour

A student observed the above change in the cell

size when the cell is kept in

(1) Both isotonic and hypotonic solution

(2) Hypotonic solution

(3) Hypertonic solution

(4) Isotonic solution

40. How many character(s) is/are common in pisces

and amphibians?

a. They are cold blooded animals.

b. Heart is three chambered.

c. Respiration is through gills only.

d. They have scales.

(1) One (2) Three

(3) Two (4) Four

41. Which of the following nutrients required in large

quantities by plants?

(1) Iron, Calcium and Boron

(2) Nitrogen, Copper and Zinc

(3) Phosphorus, Manganese and Magnesium

(4) Potassium, Calcium and Sulphur

42. Which of the following tissues contains haversian canal?

(1) Adipose (2) Bone

(3) Cartilage (4) Blood

43. Identify the plant tissue on the basis of given

information.

(i) It provides strength.

(ii) It is present in the hard covering of seeds.

(1) Parenchyma

(2) Chlorenchyma

(3) Sclerenchyma

(4) Collenchyma

44. The cell organelle found in both prokaryotes and

eukaryotes is

(1) Lysosome (2) ER

(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Ribosome

45. Find the incorrect match.

(1) Sycon – Porifera

(2) Echinus – Echinodermata

(3) Antedon – Arthropoda

(4) Chiton – Mollusca


- 5 -


MATHEMATICS

46. Which of the following is not a rational number?

(1)7

11 (2) 7.232332333.....

(3) 0 (4) 18.25

47. Which of the following points is a solution of the

linear equation 2 3 4?x y

(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4)

(3) ( 3, 2) (4) ( 2, 2)

48. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral

with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is

extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of

160°

O

A B

CD E

(1) 40° (2) 80°

(3) 20° (4) 160°

49. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length

10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is

(1) 240 sq. cm

(2) 120 sq. cm

(3) 60 sq. cm

(4) 480 sq. cm

50. Which of the following angles cannot be constructed

with the help of a compass and a scale?

(1) 30° (2)1

222

(3) 165° (4) 87°

51. The difference between total surface area and

curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is

(1) 2r2

(2) 3r2

(3) r2

(4) 4r2

52. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10

green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random

from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to

be green is

(1)2

9(2)

4

9

(3)13

9(4)

7

9

53. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects

PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then

which of the following is an incorrect conclusion?

A

C

D

E

S

QP

R

U V

B

(1) ACQ + VEB = 180°

(2) ACQ = UEB

(3) RDE + VEB = 180°

(4) ACP = DEV


- 6 -


54. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles onthe same base BC such that AB = AC and

PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, thenABP is

B C

P

A

(1) 170° (2) 135°

(3) 145° (4) 180°

55. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >ADC, then

B D C

A

(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD

(3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD CAD

56. x3 + 3x2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as

(1) ( 3)( 3)( 2)x x x

(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)

(3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)

(4) ( 2)( 2)( 3)x x x

57. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface

area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and

radius of the cone is

(1) 4 2 :1 (2) 2 2 :1

(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1

58. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____

unlike terms

(1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 7 (4) 2

59. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If

PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is

PS

R

U

W

Q T

V

(1) 110° (2) 70°

(3) 120° (4) 20°

60. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers

is

(1) 10 (2) 9.75

(3) 3.625 (4) 8

61. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be

(1)1

2(2)

2

3

(3)4

3(4)

5

6

62. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis

is

(1) 8 units (2) 6 units

(3) 2 units (4) 4 units

63. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If

OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of

AB from the centre is

A C B

O

(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm

(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm


- 7 -


64. If 1

,3 2 2

x

then the value of

2

1

x

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

is

(1) 17 12 2 (2) 17 2 2

(3) 12 17 2 (4) 12 17 2

65. If p2 + 4p + q2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the

value of p + q – r is

(1) 11 (2) –1

(3) 1 (4) –11

66. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA

and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the

following is true?

3 12

4 8

6

M

PA T

7

5

Q

EN

(1)1

7 82

(2) 3 = 24

(3) 12 (4) 56

67. On putting x = 15 in x – 10 0,7

y we get

y2 – 5 as

(1) 1225 (2) 1210

(3) 1220 (4) 1230

68. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base

angle are given, then which of the following

conditions must also be given?

(1) Product of other two sides

(2) Sum of other two angles

(3) Difference of other two sides

(4) Difference of other two angles

69. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of

height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is

(1) 1540

(2) 15.4

(3) 154

(4) 1.54

70. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the

outcomes are recorded as below

Number of Tail 3 2 1 0

Frequency 255 90 125 100

Based on this information, the probability of getting

at most two tails is

(1)23

28(2)

21

38

(3)3

19(4)

15

38

71. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters

and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are

the angle bisectors of DOC and AOBrespectively, then BR is always equal to

R

A

P

OC

B

D

(1) DC (2) PC

(3) AO (4) OC

72. If the area of an equilateral triangle is2

4 3 cm ,

then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm)

(1) 16 (2) 12

(3) 14 (4) 10


- 8 -


73. ABCD is a rhombus and OP AD. If AOP = 20°,then measure of CBO is equal to

20°

D B

A

C

P

O

(1) 70° (2) 90°

(3) 20° (4) 50°

74. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If

ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to

A

P

B

Q

CD

(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units

(3)2

x

sq. units (4) 3x sq. units

75. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class

is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower

limit and upper limit of the class are respectively

(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16

(3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17

76. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can

be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal to

(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r

(2) Volume of a sphere of radius 2

r

(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r

(4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r

77. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder is

(1) 72 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 70

78. A rational number between 3 and 5 is

(1)3 5

2

(2)

3 5

2

(3) 1.9 (4) 2.5

79. The graph of y = 7 is a line

(1) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 7 units above

the origin

(2) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 7 units on

the left of the origin

(3) Making an intercept of 7 cm on the x-axis

(4) Making an intercept of 7 cm on both the axes

80. If an isosceles right triangle has an area of

32 cm2, then the length of its hypotenuse is

(1) 128 cm (2) 64 cm

(3) 96 cm (4) 160 cm

81. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is not

possible to construct an angle of

(1) 15° (2) 11.25°

(3) 18.75° (4) 20°

82. The figure obtained by joining the mid-points of all

the adjacent sides of a rectangle of sides 48 cm

and 14 cm is a

(1) Rectangle of area 336 cm2

(2) Square of area 324 cm2

(3) Rhombus of area 336 cm2

(4) Trapezium of area 330 cm2

83. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form p

q, where p

and q are integers and q 0 is

(1)21

5(2)

26

5

(3)17

5(4)

14

5


- 9 -


� � �

84. Which of the following expressions is a

polynomial?

(1)1

1 5

3 xx (2) 1 3x

(3)( 3)( 5)x x

x

(4)

7/29 2

5

x x

x

85. The coordinates of a point on the graph of the linear

equation 3x + 4y = 11, whose abscissa is 1

23

times its ordinate are

(1)7,1

3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(2)28

, 43

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(3)7 1,

6 2

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

(4)7 1,

9 3

⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠

86. If the sides of a triangle are 11 cm, 60 cm and

61 cm, then the length of its longest altitude is

(1) 60 cm (2) 10.8 cm

(3) 50 cm (4) 12.4 cm

87. In the given figure, the measure of SRQ is

50°

OQP

S

R

(1) 60° (2) 40°

(3) 100° (4) 50°

88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,

then which of the following alternatives is not true?

O

Q

SM

N

R

P

(1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)

(2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)

(3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)

(4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)

89. If S is a point on the side QR of PQR such thatPS bisects QPR, then

(1) QS = RS

(2) QP > QS

(3) QS > QP

(4) RS > RP

90. A closed cylinder of base diameter 42 cm and

height 14 cm is dipped vertically one third in a

bucket full of paint. How much area gets painted?

(1) 2002 cm2 (2) 6776 cm2

(3) 1001 cm2 (4) 4224 cm2

Answers

Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

19. (2)

20. (3)

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51. (3)

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53. (4)

54. (3)

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)

(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)

55. (2)

56. (4)

57. (2)

58. (3)

59. (1)

60. (2)

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89. (2)

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/CreateJDFFile false /Description > /Namespace [ (Adobe) (Common) (1.0) ] /OtherNamespaces [ > /FormElements false /GenerateStructure false /IncludeBookmarks false /IncludeHyperlinks false /IncludeInteractive false /IncludeLayers false /IncludeProfiles false /MultimediaHandling /UseObjectSettings /Namespace [ (Adobe) (CreativeSuite) (2.0) ] /PDFXOutputIntentProfileSelector /DocumentCMYK /PreserveEditing true /UntaggedCMYKHandling /LeaveUntagged /UntaggedRGBHandling /UseDocumentProfile /UseDocumentBleed false >> ]>> setdistillerparams> setpagedevice

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