Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS-CUMMULATIVE PART …refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The...

$: Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS-CUMMULATIVE PART …refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The angle of prism is 60o. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle$
POTENTIAL & CONCEPT EDUCATIONSMost Trusted Institute of North-East

AITS-CUMMULATIVE PART TEST (CPT) : CPT # 03(NEET PATTERN)

Target : NEET - 2019

Academic Session : 2018 - 19

Date : 03rd March, 2019 | Duration : 3 Hours | Max. Marks : 720

SET - A

Please read the last page of this booklet for the instructions.

Potential & Concept EducationsCorporate Office : 160, Rajgarh Road, Near Big Bazar, Above Vijaya Bank, 4th Floor, Guwahati - 07 (Assam)

Phone No. : +91 92070 - 46780, 96780 - 69546www. potentialcoaching.in

Note : For Answer keys and accurate Solutions please log on towww.potentialcoaching.in/aits-2018-19

Or Please scan QR code given above.

COURSE : Dropper, Fresher, DLP., AITS

Space for rough work

Cummulative Part Test # 03 (Dropper Medical) [SET-A] - 2018-19

Page. 2

PHYSICS CPT-03Medical

1. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 andradius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at thecurved surface. Now this lens has been used toform the image of an object. At what distancefrom this lens an object be placed in order tohave a real image of same size as the object(A) 60 cm (B) 30 cm(C) 20 cm (D) 80 cm

2. The ratio of resolving power of telescope usingwavelengths 3500Å and 4500Å respectively is(A) 1 : 1 (B) 9 : 7(C) 7 : 9 (D) None of these

3. A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one faceof a 90o prism and is totally internally reflectedat the glass-air interface. If the angle ofreflection is 45o, we conclude that the refractiveindex n

(A) 1n2

(B) n 2

(C) 1n2

(D) n 2

4. A telescope has an objective of focal length 100cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. Whatis the magnifying power of the telescope whenthe final image is formed at the least distanceof distinct vision?(A) 20 (B) 24(C) 28 (D) 32

5. Magnifying power of an objective of acompound microscope is 8. If the magnifyingpower of microscope is 32 then magnifyingpower of eye piece is(A) 7 (B) 5(C) 4 (D) 3

6. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beakerfilled with liquid. A ray of light from the cointravels upto the surface of the liquid and movesalong its surface. How fast is the light travellingin the liquid?

(A) 2.4 × 108 m/s (B) 3.0 × 108 m/s(C) 1.2 × 108 m/s (D) 1.8 × 108 m/s



Page. 3

7. A planoconcave lens is placed on a paper onwhich a flower is drawn. How far above itsactual position does the flower appear to be?

(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm(C) 50 cm (D) None of these

8. A thin prism having refracting angle 10o is madeof glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism iscombined with another thin prism of glass ofrefractive index 1.7. This combination producesdispersion without deviation. The refractingangle of second prism should be(A) 6o (B) 8o

(C) 10o (D) 4o

9. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at arefracting surface of a prism is 45o. The angleof prism is 60o. If the ray suffers minimumdeviation through the prism, the angle ofminimum deviation and refractive index of thematerial of the prism respectively, are :

(A) o 145 ,

2 (B) o30 , 2

(C) o45 , 2 (D) o 130 ,

210. A convex lens is made up of three different

materials as shown in the figure. For a pointobject placed on its axis, the number of imagesformed are

(A) 1 (B) 5(C) 4 (D) 3

11. An object 1 cm tall is placed in front of a mirrorat a distance of 4 cm. In order to produce anupright image of 3 cm height, one needs a(A) convex mirror of radius of curvature 12cm.(B) concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm.(C) concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm.(D) plane mirror of height 12 cm.

12. A thin convergent glass lens (ng = 1.5) has apower of +5.0 D. When this lens is immersedin a liquid of refractive index n1, it acts as adivergent lens of focal length 100 cm. The valueof n1 is(A) 4/3 (B) 5/3(C) 5/4 (D) 6/5

13. The distance between an object and the screenis 100 cm. A lens produces an image on thescreen when placed at either of the positions40 cm apart. The power of the lens is nearly(A) 3 D (B) 5 D(C) 7 D (D) 9 D

14. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with aliquid of refractive index n1 and the upper halfwith a liquid of refractive index n2. The appar-ent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is

(A) 1 2

1 2

n ndn n

(B) 1 2

1 1dn n



Page. 4

(C) 1 2

1 12dn n

(D)

1 2

12dn n

15. Figure given below shows a beam of lightconverging at point P when a convex lens offocal length 16 cm is introduced in the path ofthe beam at a place O shown by dotted linesuch that OP becomes the axis of the lens, thebeam converges at a distance x from the lens.The value x will be equal to

(A) 12 cm (B) 24 cm

(C) 487

cm (D) 48 cm

16. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are incontact and coaxial. The power of the combi-nation is

(A) 1

2

ff (B)

2

1

ff

(C) 1 2f f2

(D) 1 2

1 2

f ff f

17. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principalaxis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cmin such a way that its end closer to the pole is20 cm away from the mirror. The length of theimage is(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm(C) 2.5 cm (D) 5 cm

18. A ray of light strikes a transparent rectangularslab of refractive index 2 at an angle ofincidence of 45o. The angle between thereflected and refracted rays is(A) 75o (B) 90o

(C) 105o (D) 120o

19. A point luminous object (O) is at a distance hfrom front face of a glass slab of width d andof refractive index µ. On the back face of slabis a reflecting plane mirror. An observer seesthe image of object in mirror as shown in figure.Distance of image from front face as seen byobserver will be

(A) 2dh (B) 2h + 2d

(C) h + d (D) dh

20. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil ofrefractive index µ1 and the other half is filledwith water of refractive index µ2. The apparentdepth of the vessel when viewed from above is

(A) 1 2

1 2

x( )2 (B)

1 2

1 2

x2( )

(C) 1 2

1 2

x( )

(D) 1 2

1 2

2x( )



Page. 5

21. An air bubble in a glass sphere (µ = 1.5) issituated at a distance 3 cm from a convexsurface of diameter 10 cm. At what distancefrom the surface will the bubble appear?(A) 3.5 cm (B) 2.5 cm(C) 0.5 cm (D) 5 cm

22. The radii of curvature of the surfaces of adouble convex lens are 20 cm and 40 cmrespectively, and its focal length is 20 cm. Whatis the refractive index of the material of thelens?

(A) 52

(B) 43

(C) 53

(D) 45

23. A double convex lens, made of a material ofrefractive index µ1, is placed inside two liquids ofrefractive indices µ2 and µ3 as shown µ2 > µ1 > µ3.A wide, parallel beam of light is incident on thelens from the left. The lens will give rise to

(A) a single convergent beam(B) two different convergent beams(C) two different divergent beams(D) a convergent and a divergent beam.

24. If VA and VB denote the potentials of A and B,then the equivalent resistance between A andB in adjoint electric circuit is -

(A) 10 ohm if VA > VB

(B) 5 ohm if VA < VB

(C) 5 ohm if VA > VB

(D) 20 ohm if VA > VB

25. Two junction diodes one of germanium (Ge)and other of silicon (si) are connected as shownin figure to a battery of emf 12 V and a loadresistance 10 k. The germanium diodeconducts at 0.3 V and silicon diode at 0.7 V.when a current flows in the circuit, the potentialof terminal Y will be -

(A) 12 V (B) 11 V(C) 11.3 V (D) 11.7 V

26. The circuit shown in the figure contains twodiodes each with a forward resistance of 50ohm and with infinite reverse resistance. If thebattery voltage is 6V, find the current throughthe 100 ohm resistance -



Page. 6

(A) 0.01 A (B) 0.05 A(C) 0.02 A (D) 0.03 A

27. When P-N junction diode is forward biased,then-(A) the depletion region is reduced and barrier

height is increased.(B) the depletion region is widened and barrier

height is reduced.(C) both the depletion region and barrier height

are reduced.(D) both the depletion region and barrier height

are increased.28. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor

increases when electromagnetic radiation ofwavelength shorter than 2480 nm, is incident onit. The band gap in (eV) for the semiconductoris :(A) 1.1 eV (B) 2.5 eV(C) 0.5 eV (D) 0.7 eV

29. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamentalfrequency in the ripple would be :(A) 50 Hz (B) 25 Hz(C) 100 Hz (D) 70.7 Hz

30. In the figure shown RB = 500 K, RC = 8 K,VBB = 10.6 V and VCC = 20V. The currentamplification factor of the transistor is 100 andVBE = 0.6 volt then which of the following isfalse?

(A) IB = 20 µA(B) IC = 2 mA(C) VCB = 9.4 V

(D) Current transfer ratio () is 100101

31. In a common–base mode of transistor, thecollector current is 5.488 mA for an emiltercurrent of 5.60 mA. The value of the basecurrent amplification factor () will be :(A) 49 (B) 50(C) 51 (D) 48

32. In the circuit below, A and B represent twoinputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents(A) AND gate (B) NAND gate(C) OR gate (D) NOR gate

33. For the given combination of gates, if the logicstates of inputs A, B, C are as follows A = B =C = 0 and A = B = 1, C = 0 then the logic statesof output D are

(A) 0, 0 (B) 0, 1(C) 1, 0 (D) 1, 1



Page. 7

34. The following circuit represents :

A

B

Y

(A) OR gate (B) XOR gate(C) AND gate (D) NAND gate

35. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputsA and B and the output C. The voltage waveforms across A, B and C are as given. Thelogic circuit gate is :

(A) OR gate (B) NOR gate(C) AND gate (D) NAND gate

36. The truth table for the following combination ofgates is

(A)

A B Y0 0 00 1 01 0 11 1 1

(B)

A B Y0 0 00 1 01 0 01 1 1

(C)

A B Y0 0 10 1 11 0 11 1 0

(D)

A B Y0 0 00 1 11 0 11 1 0

37. The circuit has two oppositely connected idealdiodes in parallel. What is the current flowingin the circuit?

12 V

4

3 2

D1D2

(A) 2.31 A (B) 1.33 A(C) 1.71 A (D) 2.00 A

38. The current flowing through the zener diode infig. is -

5V

500

1K

1

10 V+-

(A) 20 mA (B) 25 mA(C) 15 mA (D) 5 mA

39. The transfer ratio of a transistor is 50. theinput resistance of the transistor when used inthe common emitter configuration is 1 k. Thepeak value of the collector AC current for anAC input voltage of 0.01 V peak is :(A) 100 µA (B) 0.01 mA(C) 0.25 mA (D) 500 µA

40. A forward biased diode is :-(A) – 4V – 3V

(B) 3V 5V

(C) –2V +2V

(D) 0V –2V



Page. 8

41. Steel and copper wires of same length arestretched by the same weight one after theother. Young’s modulus of steel and copper are2 × 1011 N/m2 and 1.2 × 1011 N/m2. The ratioof increase in length

(A) 25

(B) 35

(C) 54

(D) 52

42. A weight of 200 kg is suspended by verticalwire of length 600.5 cm. The area of cross-section of wire is 1 mm2. When the load isremoved, the wire contracts by 0.5 cm. TheYoung’s modulus of the material of wire willbe(A) 2.35 × 1012 N/m2 (B) 1.35 × 1010 N/m2

(C) 13.5 × 1011 N/m2 (D) 23.5 × 109 N/m2

43. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows0.1% decrease in its volume at the bottom.What is the bulk modulus of the material of theball (Take g = 9.8 m/s2, = 1000 kg/m3)(A) 19.6 × 108 N/m2 (B) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2

(C) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (D) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2

44. The pressure of a medium is changed from1.01 × 105 Pa to 1.165 × 105 Pa and change involume is 10% keeping temperature constant.The Bulk modulus of the medium is(A) 204.8 × 105 Pa (B) 102.4 × 105 Pa(C) 51.2 × 105 Pa (D) 1.55 × 105 Pa

45. The dimensions of four wires of the samematerial are given below. In which wire theincrease in length will be maximum when thesame tension is applied(A) Length 100 cm, Diameter 1 mm(B) Length 200 cm, Diameter 2 mm(C) Length 300 cm, Diameter 3 mm(D) Length 50 cm, Diameter 0.5 mm



Page. 9

CHEMISTRY CPT-03Medical

46. Generally transition elements form coloured saltsdue to the presence of unpaired electrons. Whichof the following compounds will be coloured insolid state ?(A) Ag2SO4 (B) CuF2

(C) ZnF2 (D) Cu2Cl2

47. Which of the following oxidation state is commonfor all lanthanoids ?(A) +2 (B) +3(C) +4 (D) +5

48. Highest oxidation state of manganese in fluorideis +4 (MnF4) but highest oxidation state in oxidesis +7 (Mn2O7) because(A) fluorine is more electronegative than

oxygen.(B) fluorine does not possess d-orbitals.(C) fluorine stabilises lower oxidation state.(D) in covalent compounds fluorine can form

single bond only while oxygen formsdouble bond.

49. In case of nitrogen, NCl3 exists but NCl5 doesnot exists while in case of phosphorus, PCl3 &PCl5 exist. It is due to(A) availability of vacant d orbitals in P but

not in N(B) lower electronegativity of P than N(C) lower tendency of H-bond for mation in

P than N

(D) occurrence of P in solid while N ingaseous state at room temperature

50. The states of hybridisation of boron and oxygenatoms in boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively(A) sp2 and sp2 (B) sp2 and sp3

(C) sp3 and sp2 (D) sp3 and sp3

51. What may be expected to happen whenphosphine gas is mixed with chlorine gas ?(A) The mixture only cools down(B) PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture

warms up(C) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture

cools down(D) PH3.Cl2 is formed with warming up

52. Glass is a(A) micro-crystalline solid(B) super-cooled liquid(C) gel(D) polymeric mixture

53. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit manyproperties which are similar. But, the twoelements differ in(A) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds(B) forming polymeric hydrides(C) forming covalent halides(D) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides



Page. 10

54. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 insolid state as well as in solution of non-polarsolvents such as benzene. When dissolved inwater, it gives(A) Al3+ + 3Cl–

(B) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl–

(C) [Al(OH)6]3+ + 3HCl(D) Al2O3 + 6HCl

55. The number of hydrogen atom(s) attached tophosphorus atom in hypophosphorous acid is(A) zero (B) two(C) one (D) three

56. Which one of the following is the correctstatement ?(A) B2H6. 2NH3 is known as ‘inorganic

benzene’(B) Boric acid is a protonic acid(C) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of

six(D) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium

have bridged chloride structures in solidphase

57. The oxidation state of sulphur in the anions2 23 2 4SO ,S O and 2

2 6S O follows the order

(A) 2 2 22 6 2 4 3S O S O SO

(B) 2 2 22 4 3 2 6S O SO S O

(C) 2 2 23 2 4 2 6SO S O S O

(D) 2 2 22 4 2 6 3S O S O SO

58. Which of the following has p – d bonding ?(A) 3NO (B) 2

3SO

(C) 33BO (D) 2

3CO

59. Which of the following statements is false foralkali metals ?(A) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent(B) Sodium is amphoteric in nature(C) Li+ is exceptionally small(D) All alkali metals give blue solution in liquid

ammonia60. The properties of lithium are similar to those of

Mg. This is because(A) Both have nearly the same size(B) The ratio of their charge to size is nearly

the same(C) Both have similar electronic configurations(D) Both are found together in nature

61. Which of the following is homopolymer ?(A) Starch (B) Polystyrenre(C) Orlon (D) A11 of these

62. When a carbohydrate reacts with NaBH4, theproduct is an :(A) alditol (B) aldaric acid(C) aldonic acid (D) aglycone

63. Zieglar-Natra catalyst is :(A) R3Al (B) TiCl4

(C) R3Al+TiCl4 (D) R3B +TiCl2



Page. 11

64. Which of the following structures is called aZwitter ion?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

65. A glycoside is the carbohydrate form of an(A) ether (B) acetal(C) aglycone (D) alcohol

66. Relation between D-Glucose and D-Fructose is:(A) C2-epimer(B) C3-epimer(C) Functional isomer(D) Positional isomer

67. A pair of diastereomers are callecl epimers ifthey differ in configuration at(A) only one asymmetric centre(B) only two asymmetric centres(C) only three asymmetric centres(D) all asymmetric centres

68. When two aldohexoses yield the same osazoneupon treatment with phenylhydrazine, then(A) enantiomeric (B) epimeric at C-2

(C) epimeric at C-3 (D) epimeric at C-569. Whish of the following is copper(I) compound ?

(A) [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (B) [Cu(CN)4]3–

(C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) All of these70. EAN of a metal carbonyl M(CO)x is 36. If atomic

number of metal M is 26, what is the value of x?(A) 4 (B) 8(C) 5 (D) 6

71. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionicconductivity ?(A) K4 [Fe(CN)6] (B) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(C) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (D) [Ni(CO)4]72. A co-ordination complex has the formula

PtCl4.2KCl. Electrical conductance measurementsindicate the presence of three ion in one formulaunit. Treatment with AgNO3 produces noprecipitate of AgCl. What is the co-ordinationnumber of Pt in this complex ?(A) 5 (B) 6(C) 4 (D) 3

73. Concentrated H2SO4 will not dehydrate thefollowing complex :(A) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O(B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl]Cl2.2H2O(C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3(D) all of these

74. The complex [Pt(NH3)4]2+ has ..... structure :(A) square planar (B) tetrahedral(C) pyamidal (D) pentagonal



Page. 12

75. Which of the following is a high spin complex ?(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]4–

(C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [FeF6]3–

76. Which of the following complexes has ageometry different from other ?(A) [Ni Cl4]2– (B) [Ni (CO)4(C) [Ni (CN)4]2– (D) [Zn (NH3)4]2+

77. All the metal ions contains t2g6 eg

0 configurations.Which of the following complex will beparamagnetic ?(A) [Fe(II)Cl(CN)4(O2)]4–

(B) K4[Fe(II)(CN)6](C) [Co(III)(NH3)6]Cl3(D) [Fe(II)(CN)5(O2)]–5

78. [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2are related to each other as : (1 )(A) geometrical isomers(B) linkage isomers(C) coordination isomers(D) ionisation isomers

79. The number of geometrical isomer of[Co(NH3)3(NO3)3] are(A) 0 (B) 2(C) 3 (D) 4

80. What is wrong about the compoundK [Pt (2– C2H4)Cl3] ?(A) It is called Zeise's salt(B) It is an organometallic complex(C) Oxidation number of Pt is +4

(D) Four ligands surround the platinum atom81. Which of the following statements is not true

about the complex ion [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+ ?(A) It has two geometrical isomers – cis and

trans(B) Both the cis and trans isomers display

optical activity(C) Only the cis isomer displays optical

activity(D) Only the cis isomer has non-

superimposable mirror image82. Among the following, metal carbonyls, the

C—O bond is strongest :(A) [Mn(CO)6]+ (B) [Cr(CO)6](C) [V(CO)6]– (D) [Ti(CO)6]2–

83. A square planar complex is formed byhybridization of which atomic orbitals ?

(A) s, Px, Py, dyz (B) 2 2x y x ys, P ,P ,d

(C) 2x y zs,P ,P ,d (D) s, Px, Py, dxy

84. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl (NO2)]Clis(A) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2

(B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2)(C) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl(D) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)].H2O

85. The complex showing a spin-only magneticmoment of 2.82 B.M. is(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [NiCl4]2–

(C) Ni(PPh3)4 (D) [Ni(CN)4]2–



Page. 13

86. CuSO4.5H2O is like a complex represented as(A) [Cu(H2O)5].SO4(B) [Cu(H2O)4].SO4.H2O(C) [Cu(H2O)3].SO4.2H2O(D) [Cu(H2O)2].SO4.3H2O

87. Potassium diammine dicyano sulphato superoxideplatinate (IV) is(A) K[Pt(CN)2(O2)(SO4)(NH3)2](B) K4[Pt(NH3)2(CN)2(SO4)(O2)](C) K3[Pt(NH3)2(CN)2(SO4)(O2)](D) K2[Pt(NH3)2(CN)2(SO4)(O2)]

88. The most soluble of the following compounds inNH3 (aq) is(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) BaSO4(C) SiO2 (D) MgCO3

89. The hypothetical complx diaquatriamminechlorocobalt (III) chloride can be represented as(A) [CoCl (NH3)3 (H2O)2]Cl2

(B) [Co (NH)3 (H2O)Cl3](C) [Co (NH3)3 (H2O)2Cl](D) [Co (NH3)3 (H2O)3Cl3]

90. Among the following ions which has the highestparamagnetism ?(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+

(C) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn(H2O)6]2+



Page. 14

BIOLOGY CPT-03Medical

91. Pick out the correct statements -I. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive

diseaseII. Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidyIII. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal

dominant gene disorderIV. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal

recessive gene disorderV. Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked

recessive gene disorder(A) I, III and V are correct(B) I and III are correct(C) II and V are correct(D) I, II and IV are correct

92. Dihybrid ratio of test cross 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 provesthat(A) F1 hybrid produces four different

progenies(B) F1 hybrid produces two different

progenies(C) Parents produce two diff'erent progenies(D) All of the above

93. Given below is representation of a kind ofchromosomal mutation. What is the kind ofmutation represented ?

(A) Deletion(B) Duplication(C) Inversion(D) Reciprocal translocation

94. Because most of the amino acids arerepresented by more than one codon, thegenetic code is(A) Overlapping (B) Wobbling(C) Degenerate (D) Generate

95. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases wouldmost probably be(A) Single stranded (B) Double stranded(C) Triple stranded (D) Four stranded

96. Which of the following pair of feature is agood example of polygenic inheritance ?(A) Human height and skin colour(B) ABO blood group in humans and flower

colour of Mirabilis jalapa(C) Coat colour of mouse and tongue rolling

in humans(D) Humans eye colour and sickle cell

anaemia



Page. 15

97. Which of the following is suitable forexperiment of linkage ?(A) AaBB × aaBB (B) AABB × aabb(C) AaBb × AaBb (D) AAbb × AaBB

98. What is meant by monocistronic mRNA(A) Which has codons for synthesizing only

one protein molecule(B) Which has only one codon(C) Which can combine with only one type

of tRNA(D) Both (A) and (C)

99. Variable number of tandem repeats (VNTRs)in the DNA molecule are highly useful in(A) Recombinant DNA technology(B) DNA finger printing(C) Monoclonal antibody production(D) Stem cell culture

100.Known sequence of DNA that is used to findcomplementary DNA strand is(A) Vector (B) Plasmid(C) DNA probe (D) Recombinant DNA

101.Human protein can not be formed in E.coliby transfering genomic DNA in E.coli because(A) Transcription and translation is simultaneous(B) Both occur in cytoplasm(C) Post transcriptional processing is not

present(D) (A) and (C) both

102. At a time t+1, the population density of aspecies in a habitat can be best explained by(A) N(t+1) = Nt + B – D(B) N(t+1) = Nt + I – E(C) N(t+1) = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)](D) N(t+1) = Nt + [(B + E) – (D + I)]

103. Mutualism may be best defined as :(A) A relationship between two species(B) A relationship between two symbionts(C) A relationship which is favourable to both

bul not obligatory(D) A relationship which is favourable to both

and obligatory104. Diapause is -

(A) Resting embryo(B) Physiological state of dormancy of an

organism(C) Suspended larval development(D) Adaptation against predators

105. According to Robert constanza and hiscolleague, which of the following ecosystemservice got highest price tag(A) Soil formation(B) Recreation and nutrient cycling(C) Climate regulation(D) Habitat for wild life

106. Which of the following is a secondarycarnivore in an aquatic ecosystem ?(A) Phyoplankton (B) Zooplankton



Page. 16

(C) Small fish (D) Large fish107.Climax stage is achieved quickly in secondary

succession as compared to primary successionas secondary succession -(A) It occurs on bare area(B) Occurs after primary succession(C) Occur on area where previously build

organic matter is present(D) Autotrophs are pioneer

108.Rate of decomposition will highest when -(A) Detritous have high amount of chitin and

lignin(B) Soil pH is 3 - 4(C) Sufficient oxygen is not available(D) Environment is warm and moist

109.Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are -I. autotrophs II. heterotrophsIII. saprotrophs IV. chemo-autotrophs.Choose the correct answer :(A) I and III (B) I and IV(C) II and III (D) I and II

110. Each trophic level has a certain mass of livingmaterial at unit area unit time in an ecosystemis called(A) Standing state(B) Standing crop(C) Net primary productivity(D) Gross primary productivity

111. Which one of the following pairs is not corectlymatched ?(A) Vivipary – Halophyes(B) Velamen – Epiphytes(C) Sunken stomata – Xerophytes(D) Pneumatophores – Hydrophytes

112. Increase in concentration of toxicants atsuccessive trophic level in aquatic food chainis called(A) Biomagnification(B) Eutrophication(C) Accelerated Eutrophication(D) Algal bloom

113. The sequence of succession in lithosere is -(A) Lichens Mosses Grass Shrubs

Trees(B) Trees Shrubs Lichens Mosses

Grass(C) Mosses Shrubs Trees Lichens

Grass(D) Lichens Trees Mosses Grass

Shrubs114. When a natural predator living being is applied

on the other pathogenic organisms to controlthem, this process is called -(A) Biological control(B) Genetic engineering(C) Confusion technique(D) Artificial control



Page. 17

115. In B.O.D. test, oxygen plays an important roleto –(A) Destroy inorganic matter(B) Destroy pollution(C) Destroy waste organic matter(D) None of these

116. A dental disease characterised by mottling ofteeth is due to presence of a certain chemicalelement in drinking water. Which is thatelement -(A) Boron (B) Chlorine(C) Fluorine (D) Mercury

117. All are insitu conservation efforts except(A) national park (B) sancturies(C) zoo (D) biosphere reserve

118. The IUCN Red list documented some recentlyextinct species in 2004. Select the countryfrom where the species of ‘dodo’ is extinct(A) India (B) Russia(C) Maurititus (D) Australia

119. According to Central Pollution Control Boardthe permissible ambient noise levels for silentzone during day time is(A) 75 dB (B) 70 dB(C) 40 dB (D) 50 dB

120.Which animal is symbol of ‘World Wide Fundfor Nature’ -(A) Red panda (B) Polar bear(C) Lion (D) None of these

121. Red-green colour blindness in humans isgoverned by a sex-linked receive gene. Anormal woman whose father was colour-blindmarries a colour blind man. What proportionof their sons is expected to be colour-blind ?

(A)34

(B)12

(C)14

(D) All of these

122. Which one of the following correctlyrepresents the manner of replication of DNA ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

123. A dominant blue-long (BBLL) of Lathyrtusplant was crossed with recessive red-round(bbll). The F1 on test crossing in couplingphase form gametes in the following ratio(A) 7 BL : 1bl : 7 Bl : 1 bL(B) 7 BL : 7 bl : 1 Bl : 1 bL(C) 1 BL : 1bl : 7 Bl : 7 bL(D) 1 BL : 7 bl : 1 Bl : 7 bL

124. Read the following statement carefully andidentify the incorrect statement -(A) N-glycosidic bond is formed between first

carbon of ribose sugar and 9th nitrogenof purine



Page. 18

(B) N-glycosidic bond is formed between firstcarbon of ribose sugar and 1st nitrogenof pyrimidine

(C) N-glycosidic bond is formed between 1st

carbon of ribose sugar and 3rd nitrogenof pyrimidine

(D) Thymine present in DNA decreases rateof mutation

125. ‘Social foresty’ aims at(A) Growing different types of plantations

together(B) Growing one type of trees on the land(C) Management of forests by village bodies(D) Management of forests by coopertative

societies126. I. Short statured body with small round head.

II. Furrowed tongue and partially openedmouth.

III. Palm is broad with characteristic palmcrease.

IV. Slow physical, psycomotor and mentaldevelopment.

These are the characters of(A) Down’s syndrome(B) Turner’s syndrome(C) Klinefelter’s syndrome(D) Edward syndrome

127. Identify the type of inheritance in the givendiagram.

(A) Dominant X-linked(B) Recessive X-linked(C) Dominant Y-linked(D) Cytoplasmic or mitochondrial inheritance

128. Study the given figure and identify A to F.

(A) A-Variable arm, B-D-loop, C-T-loop, D-Anticodon arm, E-Codon, F-Variable arm

(B) A-Amino acid arm, B-T-loop, C-Variablearm, D-Anticodon arm, E-Codon, F-D-loop

(C) A-Amino acid arm, B-T-loop, C-Anticodon loop, D-Anticodon, E-Codon,F-D-loop



Page. 19

(D) A-Amino acid arm, B-T-oop, C-Anticodon loop, D-Anticodon, E-Codon,F-Variable arm

129.Choose the incorrect pair.(A) Untranslated regions - Required for

efficient translation process.(B) Release factor - Required to terminating

translation(C) Translational unit - Sequence of RNA

with start codon only(D) Elongation phase - Ribosome moves from

codons to codons along mRNA130. Identify A, B, C and D.

(A) A Regulatory gene, B-Promoter, C-Operator, D-Structural gene

(B) A-Regulatory gene, B-Promoter, C-Structural gene, D-Operator

(C) A-Regulatory gene, B-Structural gene, C-Pormoter, D-Operator

(D) A-Regulatory gene, B-Structural gene, C-Operator gene, D-Promoter gene

131.Which of the following statement is true forHuman Genome Project (HGP) ?(A) It was launched in the year 1990 and

was called mega project

(B) Total estimated cost of the project wouldbe 9 billion US dollars

(C) It aims to identify all 20000-25000 genesin human DNA

(D) All of the above132. Steps in DNA fingerprinting are

Isolation of DNA

Digestion of DNA by (A)

Separation of DNA by (B)

Transfering of DNA to (C)

DNA hybridisation using (D)

Detecting of hybridised DNA by (E)Complete the accompanying flowchart. A, B,C, D and E in the flowchwet are(A) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-

Electrophoresis, C-Nitrocellulose or nylon,D-Labelled VNTR probe, E-Autoradiography

(B) A-Electrophoresis, B-Restriction endonuclease,C-Nitrocellulose or nylon, D-LabelledVNTR probe, E-Autoradiography

(C) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Electrophoresis, C-Labelled VNTRprobe, D-Nitrocellulose or nylon, E-Autoradiography



Page. 20

(D) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Electrophoresis, C-Nitrocellulose or nylon,D-Autoradiography, E-Labelled VNTRprobe

133.For the given DNA sequence

3TACATGGGTC CG5 .Choose the correct code of mRNA anticodon.I. UAC II. AUGIII. GGC IV. CCA(A) I, II, III and IV (B) II, III, IV and I(C) I, III, II and I (D) II, I, IV and III

134.The regulation of gene expression can becontrolled atI. transcriptional level.II. processing level.III. transport of mRNA from nucleus to

cytoplasm.IV. translational level.Choose the correct combination for givenstatements.(A) I and II (B) II and III(C) III and IV (D) All of these

135.Consider the following statements.I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis

of proteins.II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the

genetic code.III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and

initiates tanscription

IV. A segment of DNA coding forpolypeptide is called intron.

Which of the statements given above arecorrect ?(A) I and III (B) I and II(C) I, II and III (D) II and III

136. Which one of the following is commonly used intransfer of foreign DNA into crop plants ?(A) Meloidegyne incognita(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens(C) Penicillium expansum(D) Trichoderma harzianum

137. Identify A, B and C in the given figure of pBR322cloning vector and select the correct option.

A B C(A) Eco RI Pvu I tetR

(B) ori Pvu I tetR

(C) ori Eco RI tetR

(D) tetR Pvu I ori138. 95% of transgenic animals are ?

(A) Rabbit (B) Mice(C) Pig (D) Rats



Page. 21

139.Flavr savr is ?(A) Transgenic Mango(B) Transgenic Potato(C) Transgenic Tomato(D) Transgenic Brinjal

140.-lactalbumin (2.4g/litre) is produced in milk of?(A) Trangenic goat (B) Transgenic cow(C) Transgenic sheep(D) Transgenic pig

141.

The above diagram shows which type ofbioreactor.(A) Stirred tank bioreactor(B) Sparged tank bioreactor(C) Sparged-stirred tank bioreactor(D) None of these

142. Adaptive radiation refers to(A) Adaptations due to geographical isolation(B) Evolution of different species from a

common ancestor(C) Migration of members of a species to

different geographical areas(D) Power of adaptation in an individual to a

variety of environments143.Most primitive animal in evolution history of

mammals ?(A) Synapsids (B) Pelycosaurs

(C) Sauropsids (D) Therapsids144. Who finally discarded the theory of

abiogenesis ?(A) Redi (B) Halmont(C) Splannzani (D) Pasteur

145. Palynofossils are fossils of ?(A) Faeces(B) Pollen grains(C) Wooly mammoth(D) Birds

146. Which one is correct regarding industrialmelanism ?(A) It represents balancing selection(B) Biston betularia typica were more after

industrialisation(C) It is an example of directional selection(D) Biston betularia carbonaria were more

before industrialisation

147. Column-I Column-II(i) Homo erectus (A) Fossils discrovered

in Java in 1891(ii) Ice age (B) 75000 – 10,000

year ago(iii) Pre historic cave (C) 10,000 year back

art(iv) Agriculture (D) 18000 year ago(v) Neanderthal (E) 100,000 – 40,000

year backChoose the correct Answer :(A) i – E, ii – D, iii – B, iv – C, v – A(B) i – D, ii – E, iii – B, iv – C, v – A



Page. 22

(C) i – A, ii – B, iii – D, iv – C, v – E(D) i – A, ii – E, iii – C, iv – B, v – D

148. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibriumin which of the frequency of A alleles (p) is0.3, the expected frequency of Aa individualsis(A) 0.21 (B) 0.42(C) 0.63 (D) 0.18

149.When a population is small, there is a greaterchange of(A) gene flow(B) genetic drift(C) natural selection(D) mutation occurring

150.Two or more species occupying identical or overlapping areas are known as(A) Sympatric species(B) Allopatric species(C) Sibling species(D) Polytypic species

151.The most feared property of malignant tumor is(A) Loose the property of contact inhibition(B) Competiting for vital nutrient(C) Metastasis(D) All of these

152.Which among the following detectiontechnique of cancer uses non ionising radiation(A) Physical carcinogenic agent(B) Radiography

(C) Computed tomography(D) Magnetic resonance imaging

153. Vaccine against Hepatitin B (Recombivax HB)is one of the twelve recombinant therapeutics,being market in India. Recombivax HB isproduced by(A) Yeast (B) E.coli(C) Agrobacterium (D) Meloidogyne

154. Oral polio vaccine is(A) Producd by recombinant DNA technology(B) Second generation vaccine(C) Both (A) & (B)(D) First generation vaccine

155. The cell which acts against virus affected cellonly is ?(A) B cell (B) T cell(C) NK cell (D) Macrophage

156. Which of the following leads cerebral malaria ?(A) P. Ovale (B) P. Falcifarum(C) P. Vivax (D) P. Malariae

157. The receptor for opiates is present in ?(A) CNS (B) GI tract(C) Heart (D) Both A & B

158. Which of the following is a specific immuneresponse ?(A) Macrophage action(B) NK cell action(C) Plasma cell action(D) Cytokine action



Page. 23

159.Widal test is used for the detection of(A) Tuberculosis (B) Yellow fever(C) Typhoid (D) Malaria

160.Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases ?(A) Common Cold, AIDS(B) Dysentery, Common Cold(C) Typhoid, Tuberculosis(D) Ringworm, AIDS

161.Which one of the following statements is correct ?(A) Benign tumours show the property of

metastasis.(B) Heroin accelerates body functions.(C) Malignant tumours may exhibit

metastasis.(D) Patients who have undergone surgery are

given cannabinoids to relieve pain.162.Function of placenta is

(A) Supply of O2 to embryo(B) Removal of CO2 produced by the embryo(C) Produces several hormones(D) All of the above

163.The first sign of growing foetus may benoticed by(A) Listening to the heart sound carefully

through the stethoscope(B) Examine the development of limbs and

digits(C) Examine the movement of the foetus(D) All of the above

164. In human female the fertilised egg getsimplantation in uterus(A) after two months of fertilisation(B) after one month of fertilisation(C) after three weeks of fertilisation(D) after about 7 days of fertilisation

165. After the formation of spermatozoa, spermheads become embedded in the sertoli cells &are finally released from the seminiferous tubuleby the process of(A) spermiogenesis (B) spermiation(C) ejaculation (D) Insemination

166. Gastrulation is process of(A) Formation of archenetron(B) Migration of prospective endomesodermal

cells(C) Differentiation of three primary germ

layers(D) All of the above

167. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles andcause stronger uterine contractions, which(A) is secreted by the maternal pituitary(B) in turn stimulates further secretion of

oxytocin(C) leads to expulsion of the baby out of the

uterus(D) All of the above

168. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stagesleading to the formation of sperms in a maturehuman testis is de :(A) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid

- sperms



Page. 24

(B) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia- sperms

(C) spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte- sperms

(D) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid- sperms

169.A change in the amount of yolk and its distributionin the egg will affect :(A) Pattern of cleavage(B) Number of blastomeres produced(C) Fertilization(D) Formation of zygote

170.The below diagram represents the ovumsurrounded by few sperms.Identify A, B, C and D :-

171. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?(A) RCH is reproductive and child health care(B) ‘Saheli’ - a oral contraceptive was

developed by CDRI(C) Periodic abstinence is done from day 15

to 21 of the menstrual cycle(D) Coitus interruption is a method to prevent

insemination172. Most contraceptive pills contain

(A) Oestrogen and progesterone(B) Oestrogen and FSH(C) FSH and LH(D) Progestrone and LH



Page. 25

173.According to the 2011 census report, thepopulation growth rate was(A) 2.1% (B) 2.5%(C) 1.99% (D) 2.8%

174.Hormone releasing IUD is(A) Lipper loop (B) Multiload 375(C) CuT (D) LNG-20

175. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involvestransfer of which one of the following into thefallopian tube?(A) Zygote only(B) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage(C) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell

stage(D) Embryo of 32 cell stage

176. Which of the following contraceptive devicesmake uterus unsuitable for implantation(A) progestasert (B) Cu-T(C) Lippe's loop (D) Multiload

177. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animalhusbandry because it(A) Exposes harmful recessive genes that are

eliminated by selection(B) Helps in accumulation of superior genes(C) Is useful in producing pure lines of

animals.(D) Is useful in overcoming inbreeding

depression

178. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of(A) Animals within same breed without having

common ancestors(B) Two different related species(C) Superior males and females of different

breeds(D) More closely related individuals within

same breed for 4-6 generations179. Which of the following cattle do not fall under

Milch breeds ?(A) Gir (B) Sahiwal(C) Deoni (D) Sirl

180. One of these protozoans is threat to apicultureand sericulture(A) Elimeria (B) Ceratium(C) Nosema (D) Monocystis

REV

ISED

AIT

S SC

HED

ULE

AITS CUMMULATIVE PART TEST : CPT # 03(NEET PATTERN)

Target : NEET - 2019Date : 03 - 03 - 2019 SET - A

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Point Pen. Useof Pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. When you are directed, fill in the particulars of the Answer Sheet carefully.

3. The test is 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

5. There are three parts in the question paper Biology having 90 questions and Physics and

Chemistry having 45 questions each.

6. For each question, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) correspondindto the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, 1 (one)marks will be deducted.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in anyquestion will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be decuctedaccordingly as per instructions 6 above.

Filling the ORS (Optical Response Sheet) :

Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel/lnk pen as it might smudgethe ORS.

8. Write your Roll no. in the books given. Also darken the corresponding bubbles with Blackball point pen only. Also fill your roll no in the space provided.

9. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper.

10. If student does not fill his/her roll no. and paper code correctly and properly, then his/hermarks will not be displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.

11. Since it is not possible to erase and correct pen filled bubble, you are advised to be extremelycareful while darkening the bubble corresponding to your answer.

12. Neither try to erase/rub/scratch the option nor make the Cross(X) mark on the option oncefilled. Do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks orwhitener anywhere on the ORS.

13. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS thebubbled data will be taken as final.

Name of the candidate

I have read all the instructions and shall abideby them

.............................................................................Signature of the Candidate

Roll Number :

I have read all the instructions and shall abideby them

.............................................................................Signature of the Candidate

Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS-CUMMULATIVE PART …refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The...

Documents

Transcript of Academic Session : 2018 - 19 AITS-CUMMULATIVE PART …refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The...