770951 Questions

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This Test contains 17 pages and 66 questions.

2. This test has three sections that examine various abilities.Section-I has 22 questions, Section-II has 22 questions and Section-III has 22 questionsYou will be given 135 minutes to complete the test.In distributing the time over the sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate yourcompetence in all three sections.

3. All questions carry 3 marks each. Each wrong answer will attract a penalty of 1 mark.

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Test Booklet Serial Number: 7 7 0 9 5 1

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Proctored - Mock CAT 8��

SECTION – ISECTION – ISECTION – ISECTION – ISECTION – I

DATA INTERPREATIONDATA INTERPREATIONDATA INTERPREATIONDATA INTERPREATIONDATA INTERPREATION

DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for QQQQQuestions 1 to 5: uestions 1 to 5: uestions 1 to 5: uestions 1 to 5: uestions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The following bar-graph bar-graph bar-graph bar-graph bar-graph provides information about the marks obtained by six students A, B, C, D, E and Fin four different subjects P, Q, R and S. The marks obtained by each of the students in subject P is indexed tothe maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P. This holds true for the other three subjects as well.For example, if the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject P is ‘40k’, then the marks obtained insubject P by student A is 15k, by student B is 20k and so on. This holds true for the marks obtained by thestudents in the other three subjects as well.The marks obtained by A in subject P is not less than that obtained by him in subject Q or subject R, but notmore than that obtained by him in subject S. This holds true for the marks obtained by each of the other5 students as well.

15

20

8

25

20

10

16

15

25

20

15

20

10

24

18

30

25

10

32

10

30

20

12

35

40

60

50

80

0 50 100 150 200 250

S

R

Q

P

Subj

ects

Marks Indices

A B C D E F Maximum Marks

1. If the marks obtained by A in subjects Q and R is the same, then the maximum marks that can beobtained in subject Q as a percentage of the maximum marks that can be obtained in subject R is

a. 50

3b.

250

3c.

100

3d. 25

2. A student is said to have passed a given subject, if and only if he has obtained atleast 40% of themaximum marks that can be obtained in that subject. In how many of the subjects at least three of thestudents have passed?a. 2 b. 0 c. 1 d. 3

3. If the marks obtained by C in subject S is 20, then the marks obtained by F in subject P can at the mostbea. 18 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20


Additional Information for questions 4 and 5:Additional Information for questions 4 and 5:Additional Information for questions 4 and 5:Additional Information for questions 4 and 5:Additional Information for questions 4 and 5:The difference between the marks obtained by B in subjects P and Q is denoted by a variable 'X'.

4. How many students have definitely obtained lesser marks than 'X' in subject Q?a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 2

5. If the value of 'X' is 91, then which of the following is the complete list of the students who cannotobtain more than 65 marks in subject Q?a. C and F b. C and D c. B, C, D and F d. C, D and F

DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for DIRECTIONS for QQQQQuestions 6 to 9: uestions 6 to 9: uestions 6 to 9: uestions 6 to 9: uestions 6 to 9: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.The following table provides information about the cumulative claim payments made by an insurance companyfrom the year 1991 to the year 1998. The year in which the ‘Accident’ occured and a claim was made to theinsurance company is called the 'Accident Year' and the number of years until a payment is done against theclaim, by the company is called the 'Delay' or the 'Development Period’. The figures given below are cumulative,and represent total amounts paid at the end of each development period. The figures given are compiled afterthe 1998 accident year. Prior to 1991 the Development Period for all the claims was zero years.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 71991 12 18 27 45 53 67 71 871992 7 15 23 29 39 43 45 -1993 2 5 7 9 12 17 - -1994 7 17 25 31 33 - - -1995 15 19 29 33 - - - -1996 21 37 43 - - - - -1997 11 17 - - - - - -1998 39 - - - - - - -

Development Period (in years)

Acc

iden

t Y

ears

Cumulative cla im payments (in Rs. 000')

The row, containing the year 1991 shows all claim payments relating to the accidents in the calender year1991. This holds true for the other given years as well.

6. What was the total amount (in Rs.) of claims paid in the year 1997 in respect of the accidents thatoccurred in the year 1992?a. 7000 b. 4000 c. 5000 d. 43000

7. What was the total amount (in Rs.) of the claims paid during the year 1998?a. 39000 b. 73000 c. 98000 d. 80000

8. If the total amount of claims paid during the year 1999 increased by the same amount (over the amountpaid during the year 1998) as it increased in the year 1998 (over the amount paid during the year 1997),then the total amount (in Rs.) of claims paid during the year 1999 isa. 106000 b. 150000 c. 156000 d. 132000

9. In which of the following years, the total amount of claims paid in that year was more than that in theyear 1997?a. 1993 b. 1994 c. 1995 d. 1996


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for Questions 10 to 13: for Questions 10 to 13: for Questions 10 to 13: for Questions 10 to 13: for Questions 10 to 13: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Five people A, B, C, D and E went to a shop. In that shop, only five different types (P, Q, R, S and T) of penswere sold. Each of the five people purchased exactly four pens, each of a different type. Also, no two of thepeople purchased the same set of four different types of pens. The following bar graph provides informationabout the price (in Rs.) at which one pen of each of the given types is sold in the shop.

0

10

20

30

40

50

P Q R S T

Types of Pens

Pri

ce (

in R

s.)

Additional information given:Additional information given:Additional information given:Additional information given:Additional information given:

I. The price of the type of pen that was not purchased by A was Rs.10 more than the price of the pen,which was not purchased by C.

II. The price of the type of pen that was not purchased by B was Rs.10 more than the price of the pen,which was not purchased by D.

10. Which of the following could not be the type of pen that was not purchased by E?a. Q b. T c. P or T d. Cannot be determined

11. How many of the following could be the total amount (in Rs.) spent by D on purchasing the four pens?I. 120II. 110III. 100IV. 90a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3

12. If the total amount (in Rs.) spent by C in purchasing the four pens was 110, then who among thefollowing spent the maximum amount (in Rs.) in purchasing the four pens?a. D and E b. D only c. E only d. A only

13. If C spent the maximum amount (in Rs.) in purchaisng the four pens, then who among the five peoplespent the minimum amount (in Rs.) in purchasing the four pens?a. E b. B c. D d. B or E


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestionsuestionsuestionsuestionsuestions 14 to 17: 14 to 17: 14 to 17: 14 to 17: 14 to 17: In each of these questions some information is followed by threeconclusions. Select the answer from the following options.Mark a. If by using the given information, only conclusions II and III can be derived.Mark b. If by using the given information, only conclusions III and I can be derived.Mark c. If by using the given information all conclusions I, II and III can be derived.Mark d. If by using the given information, none of the three conclusions I, II and III can be derived.

14. Given that AB + CD = EFG, where AB and CD are two-digit numbers and EFG is a three-digit number.F = 0 and the other six letters are distinct numbers out of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Also, AB is a prime number.Conclusion I: D = 6Conclusion II: A + B = 7Conclusion III: E = 1

15. The prices (in Rs.) at which three horses A, B and C were bought are ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ respectively. Thethree horses A, B and C are sold at the profits of 20%, 25% and 40% respectively and the net profit onthe sale of these three horses is 30%.Conclusion I: c > bConclusion II: a > cConclusion III: a > b

16. The equations x2 – Ax + B = 0 and x2 – Bx + C = 0 have roots (1, m) and (1, n) repectively. Giventhat: ‘m’ and ‘n’ are integers and ≠ ≠1 n m.Conclusion I: 1, ‘n’ and ‘m’ are in arithmetic progression, if C = 2.Conclusion II: n < 1 < m is always true.Conclusion III: 1, ‘n’ and ‘m’ (in that order) cannot form a G.P.

17. In the figure given below, D and E are the points on the sides BC and AC respectively of the ∆ABC ,

the measure of ∠ ADB = 80° and ∠ ∠DEC = ABC = 55°. Also, BE = EC.

A

E

CDB5 5 ° 8 0 °

5 5 °

Conclusion I: AD = DC.Conclusion II: ∠ ∠ABE = ADE.

Conclusion III: ∠ BED = 45°.


DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestions 18 to 22: uestions 18 to 22: uestions 18 to 22: uestions 18 to 22: uestions 18 to 22: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Six players A, B, C, D, E and F participated in a tournament which had 3 rounds. Points received by eachplayer in a round had to be less than the maximum points for that round (see the table). A player with the leastpoints in a round was eliminated in that round.After round 3, the sum of all points received till then for eachnon-eliminated players was calculated and then the one with the maximum sum was declared as the “Champion”.

Following table provides partial information about the performance of each player during the tournament.

Round Maximum Points A B C D E F1 30 13 232 20 113 20 17 11

After the completion of the tournament following things were noticed:1. In each of the rounds 1, 2 and 3 one player got eliminated. Also, all points obtained were prime

numbers.2. No player got less than one-third of the maximum points in any of the rounds.3. Points in each column as well as each row (of the table) were distinct.4. The player who got the maximum points in round 1, got eliminated in round 3.5. In round 1, A got more points than E, who himself got more points than B.6. The player who got eliminated in round 2 had an aggregate of 24 points in rounds 1 and 2.

18. Who got eliminated in Round 1?a. A b. B c. D d. E

19. Who received the highest points in Round 1?a. A b. B c. D d. E

20. Number of points received by C in Round 2 wasa. 7 b. 13 c. 17 d. 19

21. Who received the third highest points in Round 3?a. F b. B c. E d. A

22. Who was declared as the “Champion” at the end of the tournament?a. A b. C c. D d. None of these


SECTION – II

VERBAL ABILITY

DIRECTIONS for Questions 23 to 25: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Sigmund Freud (1856-1939) developed his ideas about psychoanalytic theory from work with mental patients. He wasa medical doctor who specialized in neurology. He spent most of his years in Vienna, though he moved to London nearthe end of his career because of the Nazis’ anti-Semitism.

Freud believed that personality has three structures: the id, the ego, and the superego. The id is the Freudian structureof personality that consists of instincts, which are an individual’s reservoir of psychic energy. In Freud’s view, the id istotally unconscious; it has no contact with reality. As children experience the demands and constraints of reality, a newstructure of personality emerges- the ego, the Freudian structure of personality that deals with the demands of reality.The ego is called the executive branch of personality because it uses reasoning to make decisions. The id and the egohave no morality. They do not take into account whether something is right or wrong. The superego is the Freudianstructure of personality that is the moral branch of personality. The superego takes into account whether something isright or wrong. Think of the superego as what we often refer to as our “conscience.” You probably are beginning to sensethat both the id and the superego make life rough for the ego.

Remember that Freud considered personality to be like an iceberg; most of personality exists below our level ofawareness, just as the massive part of an iceberg is beneath the surface of the water. Freud believed that most of theimportant personality processes occur below the level of conscious awareness. In examining people’s consciousthoughts about their behaviors, we can see some reflections of the ego and the superego. Whereas the ego andsuperego are partly conscious and partly unconscious, the primitive id is the unconscious, the totally submerged partof the iceberg.

How does the ego resolve the conflict among its demands for reality, the wishes of the id, and constraints of thesuperego? Through defense mechanisms, the psychoanalytic term for unconscious methods the ego uses to distortreality, thereby protecting it from anxiety. In Freud’s view, the conflicting demands of the personality structures produceanxiety. For example, when the ego blocks the pleasurable pursuits of the id, inner anxiety is felt. This diffuse, distressedstate develops when the ego senses that the id is going to cause harm to the individual. The anxiety alerts the ego toresolve the conflict by means of defense mechanisms.

Repression is the most powerful and pervasive defense mechanism, according to Freud; it works to push unacceptableid impulses out of awareness and back into the unconscious mind. Repression is the foundation from which all otherdefense mechanisms work; the goal of every defense mechanism is to repress, or push threatening impulses out ofawareness. Freud said that our early childhood experiences are too threatening and stressful for us to deal withconsciously. We reduce the anxiety of this conflict through the defense mechanism of repression.

23. The author does not use which of the following elements in the passage ?a. Analogy b. A Conversational tone c. Question d. None of these

24. Why do the id and the superego make life rough for the ego?a. The ego has no sense of morality and is constrained by the superego which is the moral branch of personality.b. The ego is caught between the demands of pleasure by the id and the moral restrictions imposed by the

superego.c. The ego which is conscious has to distort reality to keep the unconscious id and the moralistic superego

happy.d. The ego in order to keep the id and superego under control has to use mechanisms of repression which

create anxiety and make the life of the ego very tough.


25. Which of the following represents an incorrect match between an impulse/thought and the corresponding entitywhich is the source of that impulse /thought ?a. I want to hack into my boss’s mail account to see what he thinks about me; hacking gives me unlimited thrill

- ‘id’.b. It is wrong to hack into someone’s mail account— ‘ego’.c. I think that my boss does not like me since he never appreciates me verbally- ‘ego’.d. You should do your work diligently without worrying about the rewards as it is explained in the holy scriptures.-

‘superego.’

DIRECTIONS for Question 26: The following question consists of two words that have a certain relationship with eachother followed by alternatives. Select the alternative that has the same relationship as depicted in the original pair ofwords.

26. Opulence : Pauperisma. Deportment : Demeanorb. Convalescence : Recuperationc. Anathema : Bête noired. Clemency : Mercilessness

Directions for question 27: The question consists of four sentences on a topic. These sentences when read togetherconstitute a paragraph. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicatesthe grammatically incorrect and inappropriate sentence(s).

27. 1. Who, by and large, are the men whom the gallow swallows?2. The white-collar criminals and the corporate criminals whose wilful economic and environmental crimes inflict

mass deaths or who hire assassins to murder people by a remote control?3. Rarely. With a few exceptions, they hardly fear the halter.4. The feuding villager, heady with country liquor, the striking workers desperate with defeat, the political dissenter

and sacrificing liberator intent on changing the social order from satanic misrule, the waifs and strays whomsociety has hardened by neglect into street toughs, and the poor householder-husband or wifedriven by dire necessity or burst of tantrums- it is this person who is the morning meal of the macabreexecutioner.

a. Only 4 b. Only 1 c. Both 2 and 3 d. Both 1 and 4

DIRECTIONS for Question 28: There are two blanks in the following sentence. From the pair of words given, choosethe one that fills the blanks most appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first blank.

28. Anti-plagiarism software is growing increasingly sophisticated; it is now enabling a scholar like Vickers toinvestigate the __________ of unattributed works of literature. “With this method we see the way authors useand reuse the same phrases and ________ , like chunks of fabric in a weave,” says Vickers.a. provenance, metaphorsb. authenticity, stylesc. truthfulness, metresd. plausibility, idioms


DIRECTIONS for Questions 29 to 31: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The true politician reckons only in dates. And if the abolition of the bourgeoisie is not effected by an almost calculablemoment in economic and technical development (one signalled by inflation and poison-gas warfare), then all is lost.Before the spark reaches the dynamite, the lighted fuse must be severed.

Between 1865 and 1875 a number of great anarchists each worked, without knowing of one another, on their infernalmachine. And the astonishing thing is that they independently set its clock at exactly the same hour – and forty yearslater the writings of Dostoevsky, Rimbaud, and Lautréamont all simultaneously blew up in Western Europe. One might,to be more exact, single out one episode from Dostoevsky’s entire work …: ‘Stavrogin’s Confession’ in The Possessed.This chapter … contains a justification of evil… ‘Hatred, to you I have entrusted my treasure,’ Rimbaud writes in Unesaison en enfer… Since Bakunin, Europe has lacked a radical concept of freedom.

Is this dull multitude not waiting for a disaster great enough to strike a spark from its own inner tension: a conflagrationor world-end, something that could suddenly convert this velvet thousand-voiced murmuring into a single cry, as a gustof wind suddenly exposes the scarlet lining of a cloak? For the piercing cry of terror , panic dread, is the other side ofall authentic mass celebration . In the unconscious depths of mass existence, conflagrations and celebrations are bothonly so much play, preparation for its coming of age, the hour when panic and celebration, now recognizing the other asa long-separated brother, embrace one another in the revolutionary uprising.

The course of history as represented in the concept of catastrophe has no more claim on the thinking man’s attentionthan the kaleidoscope in the hands of a child. With each new twist, everything collapses into a new order. The image isthoroughly well-grounded.. The concepts of the rulers have always been the mirrors by which the image of an ‘order’ wasestablished. – The kaleidoscope must be smashed.

Benjamin and the Red Army Faction – is the subject even worth discussing? Its background, or underground, has, it istrue, hardly been broached in the secondary literature. Yet both sides claimed that violence was needed to avertdisaster; and Benjamin underwrote an ethics which did not shrink from the ‘revolutionary killing of the oppressor’.

But a difficult question remains. Does any kind of fuse or trail lead from his words to their deeds? If so, it would mark astriking instance of the general problem: how responsible is a thinker for the fate of his/her ideas? Such questions werehardly foreign to Benjamin. He had, he wrote only a year before Hitler seized power, not yet considered what meaningmight be extracted from Nietzsche’s writings ‘in an extreme case’. But who, or what, determines, precisely when sucha case obtains? Does the trajectory of the Red Army Faction (which will here henceforth be termed the RAF) raise inretrospect the question of the political meaning that might be wrested, in an extreme case, from Benjamin’s writings –especially since such states of emergency were their common concern?

29. Which of the following would be most in line with the author’s views in the passage?a. Benjamin should be regarded as an irresponsible writer since he endorsed the ethics which supports the

‘revolutionary killing of the oppressor.’b. Benjamin’s writings could have influenced the course of action undertaken by the red army.c. A writer who does not care about the effect that his writings have on the world should be regarded as

irresponsible.d. Benjamin was fully aware of the effect that his writings would have on the populace of that time.

30. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?a. The anarchists were unaware that their writings were igniting the fuse of a future uprising.b. The anarchists were aware of each other.c. The anarchists wrote things which inspired people to fight against evil rulers.d. All of these.


31. What does the passage primarily deal with?a. The unconscious and dormant tensions in a population which result in violent movements later on.b. The responsibility of writers whose writings influence the repressed population to undertake violence as a

course of action.c. The manner of representation of history justifies the populations’ adoption of even violent and evil courses of

action.d. The futility of talking about writers who fuel violent movements by supporting evil.

Directions for question 32: Read the argument given below and answer the question that follows.

32. Labour leaders of Gurgaon have planned a protest march for tomorrow against companies working in the area.They have applied for the permission well in advance but the city administration has not taken any action on theirrequest. The request of protest march was complete and satisfied all the mandatory requirements. The lawprohibits any demonstration or protest without government permission but, the labour leaders have decided tocarry out their protest march on the pre-decided date. The labour leaders have defended their decision byclaiming that people need not refrain from actions that fail to comply with the law if they have made a whole-hearted effort to comply but are prevented from doing so by the government’s apathy.

Which of the following actions would be justified according to the claim of the labour leaders?a. A thermal power plant conducted an environmental impact assessment. The report mentioned that the power

plant releases harmful gases in the atmosphere but these emissions are within the prescribed limits. Hence,the plant took no action for the reduction of harmful gases.

b. The law requires that all individuals should submit their income return. But the authorities have failed to comeup with an effective mechanism to punish those who have not filed their returns. This has encouraged manyfor not submitting income returns.

c. A landowner wanted to construct his house. He got the map of the house prepared from a government-approved architect. The map was drawn according to the guidelines laid out by the government. After waitingfor over a year for the approval of the map, the landowner started to build his house according to the map.

d. A final year medical student waited for his results for six months. He knew his subject very well and wasconfident that he would pass the examination. After the end of six months when his result was not declared,he started treatment of people in order to support his livelihood.

Directions for Question 33: In the following question, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Beneath thesentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the alternative that produces themost effective sentence.

33. In their secret discussions they had resolved that it would need atleast three men with revolvers to make surekilling of Jackson, because none of them had so much as seen a proper revolver, and were not at all sure of theirmarkmanship.a. atleast three men with revolvers to make sure killing of Jackson, because none of them had so much as seen

a proper revolver, and were not at all sure of their markmanship.b. at least three men with revolvers to make sure killing of Jackson, because none of them had so much so

seen a proper revolver, and were not at all sure of their marksmanship.c. at least three men with revolvers to make sure of killing Jackson, because none of them had so much as

seen a proper revolver, and were not at all sure of their marksmanship.d. at least three men with revolvers to make sure of killing Jackson, because none of them had so much as

seen a proper revolver, and were not at all sure of their marksmanships.


Directions for questions 34 and 35: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the pair of wordsgiven, choose the one that fills the blanks most appropriately. The first word in the pair should fill the first blank.

34. Mahatma Gandhi, who would not allow even a pencil stub to be wasted, to be _______ with Rs 1.1 million of_________ excess is surely an act of silliness, if not worse.a. lavished, commemorative b. associated, extravagantc. symbolized, remembrance d. showered, honour

35. Power in a ___________ state seldom lies with any representative of the majority. If America is content for Mr.Karjai to squander money on clinging to power, bribing Taliban and fuelling a narco-economy, why is it so_________ about election rigging?a. dependent, complacent b. failed, crotchetyc. dysfunctional, fastidious d. troubled, sedated

Directions for Question 36: In the following question, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Beneath thesentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the alternative that produces themost effective sentence.

36. The grandest building in town for sale was the Esplanade House designed to reflect the character of the townwhich was usually hated by the locals who called it “the bottle bank”, although its architects won a major Welshhousing award in 2006.a. for sale was the Esplanade House designed to reflect the character of the town which was usually hated by

the locals who called it “the bottle bank”, although its architects won a major Welsh housing award in 2006.b. for sale was the Esplanade House designed to reflect the character of the town which was usually hated by

the locals who called it “the bottles bank”, although its architects won a major Welsh housing award in 2006.c. for sale was the Esplanade House which was usually hated by the locals who called it “the bottle bank”,

although its architects won a major Welsh housing award in 2006, and was designed to reflect the characterof the town.

d. for sale was the Esplanade House, that was most often usually hated by the locals who called it “the bottlebank”, although it’s architects won a major Welsh housing award in 2006, and was designed to reflect thecharacter of the town.

Directions for questions 37 to 39: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Breaking the promise of justice is an act peculiarly repugnant to reason. It implies a double betrayal: not only of thepromised justice but also of the justice of the promise. Nevertheless, how is it possible to do justice to the promise ofjustice? Especially when this very promise brings with it all the suffocating memories of the disappointments, andworse, that attend its history. Perhaps it is a promise better forgotten? Better not to repeat Josef K’s error in The Trialof believing and pursuing the ‘promise of justice’? Yet the prospect of a world without the hope of justice is too horribleto contemplate. The prefigurations of such a world, appearing in acts of rendition, indefinite detention and unaccountablecorporate-political governmentality, revive the force of the promise, in spite of everything.

One obvious way to do justice to the promise of justice is to realize its promise, yet this realization might be to betrayboth promise and justice. For a promise of justice can also be threat and its realization the wreaking of vengeance. Theseparation of justice from its immediate realization in vengeance is one of the legacies of ancient tragedy and prophesy,yet it is one that has recently been put into question. An emblem of this questioning is the current ‘reactivation’ of theFrench revolutionary Maximilian Robespierre by Alain Badiou and, most recently, by Slavoj •i•ek, in his collectionRobespierre: Virtue and Terror. Curiously, the ‘reactivation’ of Robespierre follows on the heels of that of Saint Paul. Thesaint who transformed the classical account of justice into the agapic feast and the theological virtues has been‘reactivated’ alongside the architect and panegyrist of revolutionary terror and republican virtue.

The reactivations of Saints Paul and Maximilian direct attention to the religious and political charges that invest the‘promise of justice’. Indeed, one of the emerging loci of debate is the meaning of the concept of ‘divine violence’introduced by Walter Benjamin in ‘The Critique of Violence’ in his discussion of the limits of revolutionary action. •i•ek


provocatively defines divine violence as ‘justice, the point of non-distinction between justice and vengeance, in which“the people” (the anonymous part of no part) imposes its terror and makes other parts pay the price – the JudgementDay for the long history of oppression, exploitation, suffering’. The enthusiasm for a realized eschatology of justice, thepromise finally kept in the wreaking of vengeance – the advent of the Kingdom or rather Republic of God – may becontrasted with the deferred eschatology of Derrida’s reading of ‘divine violence’. Feeling his courage fail before theimplications of this concept, at the end of ‘Force of Law’, Derrida confirms his consistently held view that justice canonly be promised; to realize it is to betray its promise to calculation or vengeance. For Derrida (as for Benjamin), thehesitation before the realization of justice forms part of a wider inquiry into messianicity.

The tension between regarding the ‘promise of justice’ in terms of either divine vengeance, on the one hand, or divinegrace, mercy or forgiveness, on the other, is not only an urgent legal and political issue but also an intrinsic articulationof the promise of justice itself. It reveals the character of the promise to be inseparable from the form of its realization intime, the bringing into being of a promised justice. One way to loosen this articulation of justice, being and time is toanalyse it historically, to trace the forms it has adopted (and not adopted) and to gain a sense of its current mutationsand future possibilities.

37. All of the following are hurdles in doing justice to the promise of justice except ?a. The memories associated with the promise of justice are suffocating.b. Realization of the ‘promise’ of justice can result in wreaking vengeance on a certain group.c. The prefigurations of a world appearing in acts of rendition or indefinite detention revive the disastrous implications

of the promise.d. None of the above.

38. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage ?a. The tension which arises in interpreting justice as ‘vengeance’ or ‘mercy’ is an acceptable part of articulation

of the ‘promise of justice’.b. Analysing the concepts of justice, being and time in a historical perspective can lead to the form of the

justice realized to be different from the character of the justice promised.c. Derida believed that the realization of justice leads to its betrayal.d. Both (a) and (c).

39. What is the closest meaning of the term ‘eschatology’ as used in the passage?a. Redefinition b. Initial conflicts c. Analysis d. None of these

Directions for questions 40 and 41: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that follow.

40. GP: We do not need to stop and ask for the way. We would not need to do that unless, of course, we werelost.Satya: The fact that we are lost is precisely why we need to stop.

In the dialogue above, the function of Satya’s comment is to

a. deny one of GP’s implicit premises and thereby arrive at a different conclusion.b. imply that GP’s argument is invalid by accepting the truth of its premises while rejecting its conclusion.c. contradict the conclusion of GP’s argument without offering any reason to reject any of GP’s implicit

premises.d. affirm the truth of the stated premise of GP’s argument while remaining noncommittal about its conclu-

sion.


41. Career Launcher offers uneducated workers excellent opportunities for advancement. As evidence, considerthe fact that the CEO of the company, Mr. Padhai, worked as a counselor, an entry level position requiring noeducation, when he first started at Career Launcher.

Which one of the following statements, if true, most weakens the reasoning above?

a. Mr. Padhai worked at Career Launcher for more than 10 years before he was promoted to CEO.b. Career Launcher regularly hires top graduates of universities and employs them briefly in each of a

succession of entry level positions before promoting them to management.c. Both (a) and (b)d. None of (a) and (b)

Directions for questions 42 to 44: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

If the medicalization of pregnancy is a defining aspect of modernity, it has reached a new stage with the invention ofultrasound imaging of the human fetus in the womb. The use of ultrasound imaging has become a routine aspect of theexperience of pregnancy in modern urban settings. Viewing the image of the fetus and of its organs, its postures andmovements has now become a family rite governed by the medical apparatus and its responsible agent, the doctor orother medical practitioner. Alongside the rapid development of this technological and institutional practice in the hospitalcubicle, there is a proliferation of fetal images in the public sphere. As Barbara Duden puts it, ‘we are overwhelmed withfetuses.’

The abundance of fetal images and their photographic renderings in advertising, health campaign literature and so on,in all media forms, can blind us to the fact that the ultrasound fetal image is a very specific form of image producedunder particular institutional circumstances by highly sophisticated technology. In what, then, does the specificity ofthis image consist, and what are the specific technological and institutional processes through which it is produced?What are its political and ethical implications? In this article, our perspective on the ethics and politics of ultrasoundimaging is inspired by two major theoretical sources.Employing Simmer’s concept of the medical gaze, we approach obstetrics as a biopolitical regime or discipline of thevisible and the articulable, which depends on certain institutional and technological processes and which produces anddistributes individual and social bodies. A speculative reconstruction of an alternative obstetrical regime is informed byLuce Irigaray’s understanding .

The ultrasound is a relatively recent innovation in the medical field structured by what Simmer called the ‘medical gaze’.This is not a merely neutral and scientific gaze, but a complex perceptual–linguistic formation that makes the invisiblepathological body visible and readable through the employment of a plurality of senses. The medical gaze required anew concept of pathology as well as a shift in the place of death in the medical field. Following a series of transformations,there emerged in Europe a new concept of disease conceived in terms of the complicated idea of pathological life.(rather than disease as an attack on life from the outside).

The concomitant new methods of seeing, hearing and touching attempted to read the lesional signs of disease projectively,to locate disease within the body of the patient. Signs projected an anatomico-pathological series upon the living body;the medical task was now to analyse the series and map the volume of the body. The invention of the stethoscope wasstrategic in this process. The concept of the ‘gaze’ began to refer to a multiple and complex sensorial field, whichSimmer describes as a new perceptual configuration defined by the trinity sight/touch/hearing. This new complexorganization made it possible to locate the invisible spatially. Consequently, the medical gaze is now endowed with aplurisensorial structure; a gaze that touches, hears and, moreover, not by essence or necessity, sees.

42. The term ‘lesional signs of disease’ most probably meansa. The early symptoms of a disease.b. The signs of damaged body parts resulting from a disease.c. The signs of dead elements of the body resulting from a disease.d. The advanced signs of a disease.


43. All of the following are correct descriptions of the ‘medical gaze’ except ?a. The gaze reflects a complex organization which locates the invisible in the body spatially.b. The gaze was an outcome of a new concept of pathology as well as a shift in the concept of death in the

medical field.c. The gaze leads to a perceptual organization which literally sees, touches and hears the invisible but

diseased portions of the body.d. Even the use of the sthethoscope has been made redundant by the medical gaze which works by projecting

an anatamo-pathological series on the body.

44. What is the author’s purpose in quoting the comment by Barbara Duden ‘we are overwhelmed with fetuses.’ Inthe overall development of the passage ?a. The author is taunting the media that has made the images of fetuses trite and commonplace.b. The author wants to draw attention to the implications of the creation of the images of fetuses.c. The author wants to highlight the new stage in the medicalization of pregnancy.d. The author wants to suggest that it is unethical to hype the ultrasound images of fetuses.


SECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – IIISECTION – III

QUANTITATIVE ABILITYQUANTITATIVE ABILITYQUANTITATIVE ABILITYQUANTITATIVE ABILITYQUANTITATIVE ABILITY

DIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONSDIRECTIONS for for for for for QQQQQuestions 45 and 46: uestions 45 and 46: uestions 45 and 46: uestions 45 and 46: uestions 45 and 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Two ants ‘A’ and ‘B’ are stationed at the same point. Both the ants take 3 steps each. Taking a step isequivalent to moving 3 cm eastward or 5 cm westward or 2 cm northward or 4 cm southward. It is given thatafter each step both the ants take a 90° turn.

45. How many pairs of distinct paths can be traced by the two ants?a. 136 b. 256 c. 120 d. 240

46. What could be the maximum possible distance between the two ants, if the third step taken by both theants is either eastward or westward?

a. 292 cm b. 208 cm c. 216 cm d. 180 cm

47. ‘f’ is a real function such that f(x + y) = f(xy) for all real values of x and y. If f(– 5) = 5, then the valueof f(– 25) + f(25) isa. 5 b. 10 c. 0 d. 25

48. What is the digit at the ten’s place of the number =711N 6 ?

a. 3 b. 1 c. 5 d. 9

49. In the figure given below, a circle with the centre at O and a rectangle ABCD are drawn. The circletouches side CD at E and passes through the points A and F. If AO = 3 cm, DF = 1 cm andDC = 8 cm, then the area of rectangle ABCD is

A

F

D C

B

E

O

a. 30 cm2 b. 25 cm2 c. 15 cm2 d. 40 cm2

50. If 2

x1 1 1 1

log .....infinitely many terms 22 5 9 14

+ + + + = and x > 0, then find the value of x.

a. 9

11b.

4

3c.

3

4d.

11

9


51. xy, pq, yx and qp are two-digit numbers where x, y, p and q are all numerals not necessarily distinct.Given that, (xy) × (pq) > (yx) × (qp) and [(xy) × (pq)] – [(yx) × (qp)] < 100. If last two digits of theproduct (xy) × (pq) are 8 and 3 (in ten’s and unit’s places respectively), then what are the last two digitsof the product (yx × qp)?a. 8 and 4 b. 2 and 5 c. 7 and 4 d. 5 and 5

52. Ram and Shyam share the same cycle to go to the school. They start for the school simultaneously at8 a.m. from the point ‘X’. Everyday Ram rides the cycle first at 15 km/hr, leaves it at a point A, andcovers the remaining distance to the school on foot at 4 km/hr. Shyam who follows the same routereaches the point A on foot walking at 5 km/hr, and then rides the cycle for the rest of the distance to theschool at 12 km/hr. Both of them reach the school simultaneously at 9 a.m. How far is the school fromthe point ‘X’?a. 4.25 km b. 9 km c. 10.11 km d. 6.75 km

53. Four people A, B, C and D participated in a talent show. They needed to cast a vote against one of thepersons among themselves. No one could cast a vote against himself or ‘D’. D voted against ‘A’.A person got eliminated only if he got more number of votes against him than any one else. A personis equally likely to vote against people he is allowed to vote against, e.g. A is equally likely to voteagainst B and C. What is the probability that A was eliminated?

a. 1

4b.

1

2c.

1

3d.

3

4

54. In the ∆ABC , the ratio of angles A, B and C is 3:2:1. AD is ⊥ to BC and EF || BC. EF and AD intersectat O. If EO = OD, then the ratio of OF : BC is

A

F

CDB

EO

a. ( )3 3

4 1+ 3b.

( )27 2 – 3

32c.

1

2d.

2

3

55. 'a' and 'b' are natural numbers, such that 9 < a + b < 20 and 10b divides a! completely. How manypossible sets of (a, b) exists?(a! is the product of the first 'a' natural numbers.)a. 8 b. 20 c. 19 d. 21

56. On an upward moving escalator Amit, Sanjeev and Vicky take 10 steps, 8 steps and 5 steps respectivelyto reach the top. On the same upward moving escalator Amit takes 30 steps to come down from the top.Find the ratio of the time taken by Sanjeev and Vicky to reach the top.a. 7 : 16 b. 8 : 5 c. 5 : 8 d. 7 : 10


57. N = (5p + 1) (5q + 1) (5r + 1) and M = (5p – 1) (5q + 1) (5r + 1), where p, q and r consecutive naturalnumbers. What is the remainder when (N × M) is divided by 6?a. 0 b. 1 c. 5 d. 4

58. There were two boxes A and B. Box A contained 1000 balls, consecutively numbered from 1 to 1000such that there was only one number printed on each ball. Box B was initially empty. All the balls onwhich the number printed was a multiple of 7 were transferred to the box B by Amit. After that all theballs on which the number printed was a multiple 27 were transferred to the box B by Bineet. Finally, allthe balls in the box B on which the number printed was a multiple of 37 were transferred back to thebox A by Ishu. The final count of the balls in box B wasa. 171 b. 174 c. 170 d. None of these

59. In CL club each member is on two committees and any two committees have exactly one member incommon. There are six committees. How many members does CL club have?a. 30 b. 15 c. 12 d. 24

60. For a real number y, let [y] denote the largest integer less than or equal to y and {y} denote y – [y]. Howmany solutions does the equation 11[y] + 23{y} = 250 have?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

61. PQR is a three-digit number (P, Q, R are all numerals) less than 900 such that P, Q and R are in ageometric progression and the common ratio is not equal to 1. What is the unit's digit of the product ofall such three-digit numbers?a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 4

62. The four angles of a trapezium can be arranged to form an A.P. If one of these angles is 65°, then thelargest possible angle of such a trapezium can bea. 130° b. 115° c. 165° d. None of these

63. A sequence is given such that t1 = 1 and t

n+1 – t

n = (n + 1)3 –

(n – 1)3. The value of t

101 is

a. 2030301 b. 2033001 c. 2030302 d. 2030032

64. In the figure given below, AB = 4 units, AC = 6 units, AD = 3 units, CF = 5 units, BD = DC and BF isextended till E such that BF = FE = 4 units. O is the point of intersection of AD and BF.

A

B C

E

F

O

D

Find the measure of side CE.

a. 14 cm b. 4 cm c. 3.5 cm d. 2 3 cm


65. Let there be ‘N’ people in an office. Every person is connected with every other person by a uniquetelephone line. At this stage the number of telephone lines in the office is just adequate to make thispossible. Five more people joined the office because of which the number of telephone lines had to beincreased by 75. What is the total number of people in the office and how many telephone lines arethere in the office now ?a. 20, 180 b. 15, 105 c. 18, 153 d. 13, 78

66. It is given that x and y are integers such that y = |x + 1| and y is a square of a natural number. How many

solutions are possible if ≤ ≤|x| 100, y 100?

a. 20 b. 19 c. 21 d. 18

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