734 Smart Cockpit Quizs

737 AIRCRAFT LIMITATIONS Multiple-choice exercise

1 The maximum T/O and landing tailwind component on a dry or wet runway

(non contaminated) is ?

10 kts (or 15kts as certified) not including gusts.

10 kts (or 15kts as certified) including gusts.

15 kts (not including gusts).

15 kts (including gusts).

2 The maximum speed with the MACH TRIM system inoperative is?

Classics:0.65M, NG's 250/0.74M




3 The recommended turbulent penetration airspeed is

Classics: 280Kts/0.70M, NG's: 280Kts/0.72M



4 The maximum landing weight of the B737-300 is

51,709 Kg

53,070 Kg

55,865 Kg

5 The maximum time limit for take-off thrust is

5 minutes.

10 minutes.

No Limit

6 The maximum speed for landing gear extension is

260 kt. or .80M

265 kt. or .82M

270 kt. or .82M

7 The maximum speed for landing gear retraction is

235 Kts

250 Kts

255 Kts

8 The maximum speed for landing gear extended is

300 kt. or .80M

320 kt. or .82M

320 kt. or .80M

9 The T.R. voltage range is

22 - 28 volts.

24 - 30 volts.

24 - 32 volts.

10 The maximum wind speed for airstair operation is

40 Kts

60 Kts

65 Kts

11 The runway slope limits are

+/- 2 %

+/- 4 %

+/- 5 %

12 The maximum differential pressure is

Classics: 7.45 psi, NG: 7.8 psi



13 The maximum cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is

.125 psi

-0.125 psi

0.25 psi

14 The operating differential pressure (FLT ALT set at 27,000 feet) is

7.45 psi

7.8 psi

8.65 psi

15 The APU maximum EGT is

710C

710C Garrett Only

760C Garrett Only

16 The maximum APU operating continuous EGT is

710C Garrett only

725C Sundstrand only

760C Garrett Only

17 The maximum aircraft altitude for both APU bleed and electrical load is

10,000 feet.

17,000 feet.

35,000 feet.

18

The maximum aircraft altitude for APU bleed only is

10,000 feet.

17,000 feet.

35,000 feet.

19 The maximum aircraft altitude for APU generator use is

Garrett: 37,000ft, Sundstrand: 35,000ft, NG: 41,000ft.



20 The battery voltage range is

22 - 30 volts.

22 - 32 volts.

24 - 32 volts.

21 The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature / temperature rise is

157 degrees C / 10 degrees C



22 The maximum flap extension altitude is

MSA

10,000 feet

20,000 feet

23 The maximum fuel temperature is

45 degrees C

47 degrees C

49 degrees C

24 The minimum fuel temperature is

Fuel freeze point plus 3 degrees C, or -43 degrees C, whichever is higher.



25 The min fuel required for ground operation of the hydraulic electric pumps is

456 KGS in respective wing tank



26 When should window heat switched on

Whenever icing conditions are present.

10 minutes before taxi.

10 minutes before take-off.

27

The maximum external air pressure (ground cart) is

30 PSI (at 232 degrees C).



28 The Maximum N1 RPM is

105%.

106%.

104%.

29 The Maximum N2 RPM is

104%

105%

106%

30 The maximum EGT for take-off is

895 degrees C

910 degrees C

930 degrees C

31 The maximum start engine EGT is

710 degrees C

725 degrees C

760 degrees C

32 The minimum engine oil pressure is

13 psi

14 psi

15 psi

33 The maximum continuous engine oil temperature is

160 degrees C

165 degrees C

157 degrees C

34 The minimum operating brake pressure indication is

1000 psi

2800 psi

3000 psi

35 The minimum start pressure at 2000 feet above sea level (prior to starter engagement) is

28 psi

29 psi

39 psi 36 The recommended refuelling nozzle pressure is

30 psi

50 psi

60 psi

37 Do not operate engine or wing anti-ice when the temperature is above

10 degrees C OAT.

10 degrees C SAT

10 degrees C TAT

38 The manoeuvre speed with flap 5 (gross weight of 52,000 kgs) is

190 Kts

180 Kts

170 Kts

39 Starter assist (inflight engine start) should be used when N2 is below

15%

20%

25%

40 For all revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar must be installed during

Taxy, take-off and landing.

At any time the aircraft is in motion.

At all times.

41 The maximum operating altitude of the B737 is

Classics: 35,000ft, NG's: 41,000ft



42 The maximum altitude for take-off and landing is

7,800 feet

8,400 feet

9,800 feet

43 The flight operating latitude limits of the B737-3/4/500 are

75 degrees North and 60 degrees South



44 The maximum wind allowable for airstairs to remain extended is

45 kts

60 kts

65 kts

45

When engine bleeds are ON, both air conditioning packs must be set to

AUTO or OFF for approach and landing only.

AUTO or OFF for take-off, approach or landing.

AUTO or OFF for take off only.

46 The APU bleed valve must be closed whenever the

Ground air connected and isolation valve closed. L.H engine bleed valve open (L.H. engine running above idle power) Isolation and R.H. engine bleed valves closed (with the R.H. engine running above idle power).

Ground air connected and isolation valve open only.

Ground air connected and isolation valve open. L.H. engine bleed valve open (L.H. engine running above idle power) Isolation and R.H. engine bleed valves open (with the R.H. engine running above idle power).

47 Except for ER operation, one air-cond pack may be inoperative provided altitude is limited to

FL 180.

FL 250.

FL 350.

48 Speedbrake should not be deployed in flight at radio altitudes less than

500 feet

800 feet

1000 feet

49 The duty cycle of the Alternate flap system is

Flaps 0-15; 2 minutes off.

Flaps greater than 15; 20 minutes off.





50 The autopilot must not be engaged on take-off below

Classics: 1000ftAGL - NG's: 400 feet AGL



51 For single channel operation, the autopilot shall not be engaged below

140 feet AGL

400 feet AGL

1000 feet AGL

52 During VOR approaches what must one pilot have displayed

One pilot must have raw data, from the VOR associated with the approach,

displayed in the HSI VOR/ILS mode not later than the final approach fix.

One pilot must have MAP mode selected.

One pilot must have raw data, from the VOR associated with the approach, displayed in the HSI VOR/ILS mode before he intercepts the inbound course.

53 The maximum fuel tank quantities (Classics) are

4,600 kgs in each wing tank, 7,000 kgs in the centre tank

4,828 kgs in each wing tank, 7449 kgs in the centre tank

4,728 kgs in each wing tank, 7249 kgs in the centre tank

54 The maximum lateral fuel imbalance between wing tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero and, for all phases of flight, must not exceed

453 kgs.

500 kgs.

710 kgs.

55 The wing fuel tanks must be full if the centre tank contains more than

453 kgs.

500 kgs.

710 kgs.

56 The engine Thermal Anti Ice must be on when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb or cruise when the temperature is below

-40 degrees C OAT.

-40 degrees C SAT.

-40 degrees C TAT.

57 Do not operate weather radar

During fuelling, near fuel spills or people.

On the ground.

During fuelling, near other aircraft, fuel spills or people.

58 Engine ignition must be on for

Take-off.

Approach and landing.

Take-off and landing.

59 The maximum continuous engine EGT is

895 degrees C

930 degrees C

725 degrees C

60 The maximum allowable engine oil temperature is

157 degrees C

160 degrees C

165 degrees C

61 The engine start duty cycle (normal start) is

First attempt: 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off

Second and subsequent attempts: 2 minutes on, 3 minutes off





62 Both PMCs must be

Servicable for take off.

On or Off for take-off.

On for take-off.

63 What are the max differential restrictions when ANY window in the cockpit has a cracked outer pane

No restrictions.

5psi diff / 26,000ft

2psi diff / 15,000ft

64 What is the minimum engine oil quantity (per engine) for despatch for an aircraft with EIS

66% Full

75% Full

88% Full

65 For an automatic landing the head and crosswind limits are

Headwind limit is 25 kts and the crosswind limit is 15 kts.



66 The maximum tailwind for T/O and landing on a contaminated runway is

0 kts.

10 kts.

5 kts.

67 The maximum windspeed for taxying is

45 kts.

60 kts.

65 kts.

68 The maximum depth of Dry Snow (runway contaminant) for take-off based on maximum figures available for calculation of performance is

13 mm.

15 mm.

60 mm.

69 The maximum depth of Wet Snow (runway contaminant) for take-off based on maximum figures available for calculation of performance is

13 mm.

15 mm.

60 mm.

70 The maxImum depth of Compacted Snow/Slush (runway contaminant) for take-off based on max figures available for calculation of performance is

13 mm.

15 mm.

60 mm.

71 The maximum depth of Standing Water (runway contaminant) for take-off based on maximum figures available for calculation of performance is

13 mm.

15 mm.

60 mm.

72 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and landing on a runway where braking action is reported as GOOD is

15 kts.

25 kts.

35 kts.

73 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and landing on a runway where braking action is reported as MEDIUM is

15 kts.

25 kts.

35 kts.

74 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and landing on a runway where braking action is reported as MEDIUM/POOR is

10 kts.

15 kts.

20 kts.

75 What is the category of the B737 brakes

A

B

C

AIRCRAFT GENERAL Multiple-choice exercise

1 The cockpit door

Can only be unlocked electrically.

Can only be locked with A.C. power.

Can only be locked with a key.

2 The cockpit door blow-out panels

Open into the cockpit.

Open into the cabin.

Open either way for pressure equalisation

3 To exit the cockpit with the cockpit door jammed closed

Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door

and rotate clockwise.

Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door

and push.

Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the upper part of the

door and pull forward.

4 When turning the B737-300 on the ground

The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in the tail

arc being less than the wing tip arc.


arc being greater than the wing tip arc.


arc being the same as the wing tip arc.

5 When turning the B737-300 on the ground

The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in an

inward motion of the wing tips and tail.


inward motion of the tail only


outward motion of the wing tips and tail.

6 When turning the B737-300 on the ground the minimum pavement width for an 180 degree turn is

65 feet ( 19.81 metres )



7 The cargo compartments are

Pressurised approximately equal to cabin pressure.

Not pressurised.

Pressurised to their normal differential pressure of 2.0 P.S.I.

8 In case of sudden loss of aircraft pressurisation, the pressure relief of the cargo compartments is accomplished by

Pressure relief valves set at 7.45 P.S.I.D.

Pressure relief valves set at 8.65 P.S.I.D.

Blow-out panels.

9 The aircraft water system is supplied by

Two water tanks located either side of the aft cargo compartment.

A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment.

One main water tank with separate tanks for the toilets.

10 Water tank pressurisation is supplied from

The left hand pneumatic duct only.

The right hand pneumatic duct only.

The crew oxygen bottle.

11 Water tank capacity (737-300) is

100 litres.

30 U.S. gallons.

30 Imp gallons.

12 The potable water quantity indicator is located

forward of the aft passenger entrance door

above the fwd passenger entrance door.

above the aft service door.

13 Placing the Lights Test Switch to the TEST position

Inhibits the master caution recall system.

Illuminates all amber caution lights only.

Illuminates all cockpit lighting and warning lights.

14 Failure of one main A.C. bus causes

A partial loss of cockpit and passenger lighting.

All cabin lights to extinguish.

No effect on the cockpit or passenger lighting.

15 When ARMED, the emergency exit lights will automatically come on

When the aircraft reaches a preset G-load limit.

If electrical power to DC bus 1 fails or AC power is turned off.

Upon contact with water.

16 The NO SMOKING signs when selected to AUTO

Illuminate when the landing gear is extended.

Illuminate when the flaps are extended and the landing gear is retracted.

Illuminate when the landing gear is extended and the flaps are greater than

10 degrees. 17 The FASTEN BELTS signs when selected to AUTO will

Extinguish when the flaps are extended and the landing gear is up.

Illuminate when the auto-pilot is not engaged.

Illuminate when landing gear or flaps are extended.

18 With Ground Power plugged in and the battery switch OFF, the Dim Entry Lights are powered

Only when A.C. power is connected.

By an electrical supply from the hot battery bus.

By the internal batteries of the emergency lighting.

19 The emergency exit lights and signs are powered

From separate emergency power supplies installed in the passenger cabin.

From the hot battery bus.

From the battery bus.

20 The illumination of the standby magnetic compass

Can not be controlled as it is permanently illuminated from the Battery Bus.

Is controlled by the Captain's A.F.D.S. light control.

Is controlled by a separate switch at the base of the standby magnetic

compass.

21 With the NO SMOKING & FASTEN BELTS switches in the AUTO position

The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate any time the flaps are extended.

The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate any time the gear is extended.

The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate only when gear and flaps are

extended.

22 Failure of the A.C. transfer bus NO.2 will

Automatically turn on the emergency instrument flood lights.

Automatically turn off the emergency instrument flood lights.

Have no effect on the emergency instrument flood lights.

23 With the POSITION light switch in the ON BAT position and the AC buses not powered

The position ( navigation ) lights can not be illuminated.

The position ( navigation ) lights will illuminate with the battery switch

selected OFF.

The position ( navigation ) lights will illuminate with the battery switch

selected ON.

24 With the Battery Switch ON and no AC power connected, available cockpit lighting includes

The Dim Entry lights, Dome lights, and Integral instrument lights.

White Dome lights, Standby Compass light.

The Dim Entry lights and Instrument Floods.

25 When operating the airstair from the interior control panel

The entry door must be opened to the cocked position.

The entry door must be fully open

The entry door may be open or closed

26 When operating the airstair from the interior control panel in standby mode on DC power

The STAIRS OPERATING light illuminates during extension until the

airstair is fully extended.

The STAIRS OPERATING light illuminates during retraction until the

airstair door is fully closed.

The STAIRS OPERATING light will not illuminate.

27 Operation of the airstairs in winds above

40 kts is not recommended.

45 kts is not recommended.

40 kts is not permitted.

45 kts is not permitted.

28 The fwd and aft entry doors and the galley service doors have

Three automatic slides and one manual slide at the aft galley service door.

Three manually operated slides and one automatic slide at the forward

entry door.

Automatic slides.

29 Portable EXIT lights are

Above both overwing exits.

Not fitted on the B737 aircraft

Above both overwing exits and flight deck door.

30 The emergency exit hatches can be removed from the outside by

Pushing in the exterior panel at the top, then pushing inward and lifting it

up.

Pulling out and rotating the recessed handle.

They cannot be removed from outside the aircraft.

31 Escape lines (ropes/straps) are fitted

Above the cockpit sliding windows and in overwing escape hatch

frames.(Rear escape hatches only on B737-400).

Above all doors, emergency exits and cockpit slidings.

Above the forward passenger door and cockpit sliding windows.

32 The First Officers sliding window can be

Opened from the inside only.

Opened from the outside only.

Opened from the inside and outside.

33 The passenger oxygen system is activated when the cabin reaches an altitude of

14,000 Feet.

10,000 Feet.

9,500 Feet.

34 The oxygen system on board the aircraft has

Two separate systems, one for the flight deck and one for the cabin.

One single system for all oxygen requirements

Three separate systems, one for the flight deck, one for the cabin and one

for the aft galley cabin attendants.

35 During a decompression, the passenger oxygen will automatically drop from its stowage compartment. Oxygen will flow to all masks

Immediately.

Only when any one of the masks of an oxygen generator unit is pulled

down.

When the passenger breathes, - the system is on demand.

36 In each lavatory there is

A two mask passenger oxygen unit.

A one mask passenger oxygen unit.

No passenger oxygen unit.

37 To use the passenger portable oxygen

Turn the yellow knob in an anticlockwise direction and plug the bottle into

the overhead connection.

Turn the yellow knob in a counterclockwise direction and plug the mask

into the desired bottle outlet.

Plug the mask into the desired outlet only.

38 The pre-flight inspection check of the escape slide units is

The retainer (girt) bars are fastened to the floor before passenger

boarding.

The pressure indicator reads not less than 2800 P.S.I. and not more than

3200 P.S.I.

The pressure indicator is in the green band.

39 To operate a BCF extinguisher

Hold the extinguisher upright, remove the ringed safety pin, aim the extinguisher at the base of the flames from a distance of 6 feet and press the top lever.

Twist the yellow knob in an anti-clockwise direction and depress the trigger

releasing CO2 onto the fire.

Hold the extinguisher upright, remove the ringed safety pin, twist the yellow knob in a clockwise direction, aim the extinguisher at the base of the flames from a distance of 3 feet and press the top lever.

40 Loud-hailers are located

One only in the starboard hatrack at the rear.

On the port side of the passenger cabin, one at the front, one at the rear.

On the starboard side of the aircraft, one at the front, one at the rear.

41 The passenger cabin Emergency Exit light switch is located at

The Fwd galley power panel.

The Fwd attendants panel.

The Aft attendants panel.

42 The fire axe is located in

The flight deck.

A pocket on the cockpit door.

The forward galley.

43 The lavatory fire extinguisher system operates

Both automatically and manually.

manually.

automatically.

44 The lavatory fire extinguisher system will automatically discharge when heat levels exceed

200 degrees F.

180 degrees F.

250 degrees F.

45 To check that a lavatory fire extinguisher has not discharged

Check the nozzle tips (aluminium colour after discharge) and heat sensitive

discs which discolour from the heat of the fire.

Check the Extinguisher pressure gauge.

Check the Extinguisher contents indicator

46 Each passenger oxygen unit in the cabin

Can be shut off once the flow of oxygen has started - by cabin staff action

only.

Cannot be shut off once the flow of oxygen has started.

Can be shut off by pulling any mask down a second time.

47 The B737-300 aircraft cabin equipment includes

Five portable oxygen bottles and one therapeutic oxygen set.

Four portable oxygen bottles and two therapeutic oxygen sets.

Three portable oxygen bottles and one therapeutic oxygen set.

48 The passenger oxygen system

Is supplied from the passenger oxygen bottle located in the forward cargo

compartment.

Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators, one for each

passenger.

Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators located at each

Passenger Service Unit.

49 Each passenger oxygen generator when activated

Will produce oxygen for approximately 12 minutes.

Will produce oxygen for approximately 7 minutes.

Will only produce oxygen on demand for approximately 20 minutes.

50 Passenger oxygen flowing to a mask is visually confirmed by

An amber in-line flow indicator.

A green in-line flow indicator.

A white in-line flow indicator 51 Normal pressure of the flight crew oxygen system is

1850 P.S.I.

2000 P.S.I.

1500 P.S.I.

52 Pressing the RESET/TEST slide lever at a crew member station will

Activate the oxygen flow continuously if the mask is stowed.

Activate the oxygen flow momentarily ( to test the regulator ) if the mask is

stowed.

Not activate any oxygen flow until the mask is removed.

53 The crew oxygen Flow Indicator will

Show a white cross when the oxygen mask is tested.

Show a yellow cross when oxygen is not flowing.

Show a yellow cross when oxygen is flowing.

54 The crew member oxygen EMERGENCY/TEST selector is a

Red control knob.

Green control knob.

Yellow control knob.

55 100% oxygen is supplied under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes whenever

The EMERGENCY/TEST selector is rotated anti-clockwise.

The EMERGENCY/TEST selector is pulled out.

The EMERGENCY/TEST selector is rotated clockwise.

56 With the oxygen NORMAL/100% selector in the N (normal) position

A continuous flow of 100% pure oxygen is provided irrespective of

demand.

A mixture of ambient air with oxygen is provided on demand.

A continuous flow of 100% pure oxygen is provided on demand.

57 To use a crew oxygen mask

Squeeze the red RELEASE levers with the thumb and forefinger and

remove from stowage.

Push the red RELEASE levers with the thumb and forefinger and unlatch

the retaining clip.

Push the EMERGENCY/TEST selector with the thumb and remove from

stowage.

58 If the crew oxygen mask is not stowed, then by

Opening both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide

lever, 100% oxygen under pressure is supplied to the mask.

Opening both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide

lever, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off.

Closing both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide

lever, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off.

59 As the crew oxygen harness inflates

The flow indicator will continuously show a yellow cross anytime the mask

is removed from the stowage box.

The flow indicator will remain black.

The flow indicator will momentarily show a yellow cross.

60 To check the crew oxygen

1) Mask unstowed , NORMAL/100% switch - 100%. 2) RESET/TEST slide lever - push down and hold. 3) Observe a momentary yellow cross (FLOW INDICATOR) 4) EMERGENCY/TEST selector - rotate clockwise.

1) Mask stowed , NORMAL/100% switch - 100%. 2) RESET/TEST slide lever - push down and hold. 3) Observe a momentary yellow cross (FLOW INDICATOR) 4)EMERGENCY/TEST selector - push and hold. 5) Observe a constant yellow cross (FLOW INDICATOR)

1) Mask stowed , NORMAL/100% switch - NORMAL. 2) RESET/TEST slide lever - push down and hold 3) Observe a constant yellow cross (FLOW INDICATOR) 4) EMERGENCY/TEST selector - push and hold. 5) Observe a momentary yellow cross (FLOW INDICATOR)

61 The passenger oxygen mask stowage units are activated

Automatically by a barometric pressure switch when the cabin altitude is 14,000 Feet or when the PASS OXYGEN switch on the overhead panel is positioned to NORMAL.

Automatically by a barometric pressure switch when the cabin altitude is 10,000 Feet or when the PASS OXYGEN switch on the overhead panel is positioned to ON.

Automatically by a barometric pressure switch when the cabin altitude is 14,000 Feet, or when the PASS OXYGEN switch on the overhead panel is positioned to ON.

62 Crew oxygen system pressure is correctly indicated when

The battery switch is on.

Does not require electrical power.

The battery switch is off ( Hot battery Bus ).

PNEUMATICS Multiple-choice exercise

1 APU bleed air used to start NO.1 engine is

Routed direct to the No.1 engine starter valve.

Routed via the No. 1 engine bleed air valve to the No.1

engine starter valve.

Controlled by the modulating and shut-off valve.

2 The amount of fan air that is ducted through the pre-cooler is controlled by the

Thermostatic pre-cooler valve.

Modulating and shut-off valve.

Ram air controller

3 With the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed switches ON and both Air Conditioning Pack switches selected to AUTO or HIGH

The isolation valve will be open.

The isolation valve will be closed when the flaps are

extended.

The isolation valve will be closed.

4 The DUAL BLEED light will be on

With the airconditioning panel set for a bleeds-off takeoff.

With No. 1 and No. 2 bleed valves closed and APU bleed valve open.

With No. 2 engine bleed valve open, the isolation valve open and APU bleed

valve open.

5 An engine BLEED TRIP OFF light will illuminate

Only if engine bleed air temperature exceeds a predetermined limit.

When engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit.

Only if engine bleed air pressure exceeds a predetermined limit.

6 The pneumatic duct pressure gauge

Indicates pressure in left and right pneumatic ducts.

Is DC powered.

Indicates pressure available for engine anti-icing.

7 With a ground pneumatic source connected and the isolation valve switch selected to CLOSE

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by both the left and right pointers

on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator.

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the left hand pointer on the

pneumatic duct pressure indicator.

The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the

pneumatic duct pressure indicator.

8 The sources of engine bleed are

5th and 9th stages of the compressor section.

5th and 9th stages of the turbine section.

5th and 13th stages of the fan section.

9 The 9th stage modulating and shut-off valve

Will open if the 5th stage air is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.

Will open if the APU is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.

Is open at all times irrespective of 5th stage air pressure output.

10 The engine bleed valves are

Pneumatically activated and operated.

AC activated and pneumatically operated.

DC activated and pneumatically operated.

11 Water tank pressurisation in flight is normally provided by

Bleed air from the APU.

5th and 9th stage air from the No. 2 engine.

5th and 9th stage air from the No. 1 engine.

12 Both hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by

Air from the pneumatic manifold.

Separate engine bleeds directly to the reservoirs.

5th and 9th stage air from engine No. 2 only.

13 The source air ducted through the pre-cooler is

Pressure controlled ram air.

Fan air.

5th stage bleed air.

14 The A.P.U. bleed valve is

AC controlled and pneumatically operated.

Pneumatically controlled and operated.

DC controlled and pneumatically operated.

15 The isolation valve is

AC controlled and pneumatically operated.

AC operated.

DC operated.

16 What initial action is required in the event of a WING BODY OVERHEAT light illuminating.

Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated engine bleed.

Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated air-conditioning pack.

Switch off the associated engine bleed.

17 The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated. Engine thrust

Should be limited to idle.

Should be limited to 40% N1.

Is unlimited. Dual bleed light is advisory only.

Air Conditioning and Pressurisation Multiple-choice exercise

1 To use the APU for air conditioning, on the ground/engines shut down, -

3/4/500 series aircraft, you should select?

Isolation Valve Switch AUTO APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left or Right Air Conditioning Pack Switch AUTO or HIGH

Isolation Valve Switch OPEN APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left and Right Air Conditioning Pack Switch AUTO or HIGH

Isolation Valve Switch CLOSED APU Bleed Air Switch ON Left or Right Air Conditioning Pack Switch AUTO or HIGH

2 The turbo-fan valve of an air conditioning unit opens?

When the aircraft is on the ground only.

When the aircraft is on the ground or flaps are extended.

Only when the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light is illuminated.

3 If the Left DUCT OVERHEAT light illuminates on the B737-300/500 aircraft

The cargo compartment mixer valves will automatically program to

the full hot position.

The passenger cabin mixer valves will automatically program to the

full cold position.

The control cabin mixer valves will automatically programme to the

full cold position.

4 If the Right PACK TRIP OFF light illuminates:

Select a warmer temperature on the control cabin Temperature

Selector and press the TRIP RESET switch.

Select a warmer temperature on the passenger cabin Temperature

Selector and press the TRIP RESET switch.

Press and hold the TRIP RESET switch for 30 seconds only.

5 The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights are normally illuminated.

When on the ground, during slow flight with the flaps not fully

retracted or anytime the landing gear is retracted.

Only during slow flight with the flaps not fully retracted.

When on the ground or during slow flight with the flaps not fully

retracted.

6 The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights are normally extinguished

During the cruise.

During the takeoff and climb.

Just before landing.

7 The E & E compartment is cooled by?

The equipment cooling system.

The ram air system.

The AUTO or STANDBY pressurisation systems.

8 The air supply for the Re-circulating Fan is?

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay and forward outflow valve collected in a shroud located above the aft cargo compartment.

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay

collected in a shroud located above the aft cargo compartment.

Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay

collected in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment.

9 The Re-circulating Fan air shroud is located

Forward of the E & E compartment.

Above the forward cargo compartment.

Above the aft cargo compartment.

10 The Re-circulating Fan operates with the switch in the AUTO position except.

When both packs are on and one or both pack switches are selected

to HIGH

When one pack is off.

When both pack switches are selected to AUTO.

11 The air conditioning pack switch positions are?

OFF, MANUAL, HIGH.

OFF, AUTO, HIGH.

OFF, AUTO, HI - BLEED OFF.

12 With one air conditioning pack switch selected to HIGH

That pack will regulate to LOW FLOW with flaps extended.

Flap selection has no effect on the flow rate of that pack.

The operating pack will regulate to HIGH FLOW only with flaps up.

13 The position of the forward outflow valve

Is open when the main outflow valve is closed.

Is closed when the re-circulating fan is not operating.

Is closed when the re-circulating fan is operating.

14 The Re-circulating Fan system provides?

A filtered air supply into the mix manifold.

An unfiltered air supply into the mix manifold.

An air supply directly from the mix manifold into the passenger cabin

only.

15 The forward cargo compartment is warmed

Only when the main outflow valve is in the fully open position.

At any time when more than .125 P.S.I. differential exists.

In-flight when more than 2.5 P.S.I. differential exists.

16 The Re-circulation Fan is

D.C. powered.

A.C. powered.

Pneumatically powered from APU or engine bleed air.

17 When using the Pneumatic Air Cart, the Battery switch

Must be ON to operate the Mix Manifold control valves.

May be ON or OFF when using aircraft air conditioning.

Must be ON when using aircraft air conditioning since the protective

circuits are DC.

18 The maximum differential pressure (pressure relief valve operation) is?

7.80psi

8.65psi

8.45psi

19 If the amber AUTO FAIL light illuminates on CPCS aircraft.

Positioning the Pressurisation Mode Selector to STBY will extinguish

the AUTO FAIL light.

It will automatically extinguish when the pressurisation controller

reverts to the STBY mode.

Positioning the Pressurisation Mode Selector to STBY will have no

effect on the AUTO FAIL light.

20 On CPCS aircraft on the ground, with the Pressurisation Mode Selector in the AUTO position, the FLT/GRD switch is used

To keep the cabin unpressurised by driving the main outflow valve full

open when the switch is in the FLT position.

To keep the cabin pressurised by driving the main outflow valve

towards closed with the switch in the GRD position.

To keep the cabin depressurised by driving the main outflow valve full

open when the switch is in the GRD position.

21 The cabin Altitude Warning horn will

Sounds (steady horn) when the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet

altitude.

Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet

altitude.

Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet

altitude.

22 On CPCS aircraft, the Cabin Rate selector DECR and INCR positions give a cabin altitude rate of change of:

DECR 50 ft/min. INCR 2000 ft/min.



23 The maximum cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is

0.10psi

0.25psi

0.125psi

24 The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if

The aircraft has temporarily levelled off before reaching the selected

flight altitude (as set in the FLT ALT window)

The aircraft has descended before reaching the selected flight

altitude (as set in the FLT ALT window).

The aircraft has climbed above the selected flight altitude (as set in

the FLT ALT indicator ).

25 On CPCS aircraft in STBY mode, the FLT/GRD switch when set to GRD causes

No effect on the main outflow valve.

The main outflow valve to drive full closed.

The main outflow valve to drive full open.

26 The outflow valve switch controls the main outflow valve.

Only during STBY mode of operation.

Irrespective of the FLT/GRD switch position.

Only if the FLT/GRD switch is selected to FLT.

27 The AUTO FAIL light will illuminate when there is

A loss of AUTO AC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change (+/- 1800 sea level feet/minute), or a high cabin altitude (13,875 feet).

A loss of AUTO DC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change (+/- 1800 sea level feet/minute), or a high cabin altitude (9,850 feet).

A loss of AUTO AC power, or an excessive rate of cabin pressure change (+/- 1000 sea level feet/minute), or a high cabin altitude (12,500 feet).

28 On CPCS aircraft, before takeoff the CAB ALT window should be set to

200 feet below destination field elevation when operating in AUTO

Mode.

200 feet below destination field elevation when operating in STBY

Mode.

200 feet below the take-off field elevation when operating in AUTO

Mode.

29 When in AUTO mode and during isobaric cruise, minor aircraft excursions from flight altitude may cause the differential pressure to go as high as

7.65psid

7.45psid

7.90psid

30 On CPCS aircraft, the rate of operation of the main outflow valve in MAN DC mode is?

Slower than in MAN AC mode.

Faster than in MAN AC mode.

The same as in MAN AC mode.

31 When operating the pressurisation system in Manual mode, it is recommended that

Momentary actuation (toggling) of the manual switch should be

employed.

The manual switch should be held in the Open or Closed position

continuously until the desired cabin altitude is reached.

The manual switch should be held in the Up or Down position

continuously until the disired cabin altitude is reached.

32 The aft cargo compartment is heated by

The exhaust air from the control cabin.

The exhaust air from the passenger cabin.

The exhaust air from the E & E compartment.

33 On CPCS aircraft, if the FLT/GRD switch is inadvertently moved to the GRD position while in flight the cabin altitude will:

Increase

Remain the same.

Decrease

34 On CPCS aircraft, if the pressure controller is selected to Standby Mode after takeoff and the Cabin Altitude is set at 8000 feet. The aircraft is directed to stop the climb at FL140. The cabin altitude will?

Climb to and maintain a cabin altitude corresponding to 8.65 PSID.

Climb to and maintain 8000 feet.

Remain at a constant value while the aircraft is in level flight.

35 On CPCS aircraft, when operating in Manual Pressurisation mode with both generator busses powered

The DC outflow valve actuator is available only.

The AC outflow valve actuator is available only.

Both the AC and DC outflow valve actuators are available.

36 During a climb to 35,000 ft, the aircraft is required to level at 25,000 ft. for ten minutes. When operating in the AUTO mode, the cabin altitude will.

Level off.

Continue to climb.

Level off for five minutes, then climb at 200 fpm to max diff.

37 With a single pack operating and selected to AUTO.

The pack will regulate to High Flow with flaps extended.

That pack will regulate to High Flow when inflight with the flaps

retracted.

The pack will be in High Flow at all times.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION Multiple-choice exercise

1 If the No 1 window inner pane cracks and arcing begins

No pressurisation adjustments are necessary.

The maximum cabin differential pressure must be reduced to 5 PSID.

Initiate drill for emergency descent.

2 The right No.2 window heating input is controlled by

The right SIDE window heat control system.

The right No.1 window heat control system.

The left No.1 window heat control system.

3 With any control cabin window heating inoperative, speed should be restricted to

280 Kts at altitudes below 15,000ft.



4 If a No.1 window outer pane cracks

Turn window heat off, limit IAS to 250kts below 10,000 ft.

Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 5 PSI

Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 2 PSI

5 If a window overheat light illuminates this indicates that

The associated window has reached an overheat condition and it must be selected

OFF manually to remove power before any damage takes place.

The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system and

will be re-introduced automatically when the window has cooled.

The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system.

6 With all window heaters selected ON and OVHT selected on the window heat test switch

The ON lights will not be affected but observe a rise in on the AC ammeters.

All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights will extinguish immediately.

All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights may extinguish immediately, or

remain illuminated for as long as 70 seconds.

7 The window heat switches must be

OFF to make a PWR and OVHT test only.

OFF when making an OVHT test only.

ON to make a PWR or OVHT test.

8 With all windscreen heating switches ON and the aircraft on the ground

All lights remain extinguished until the aircraft is airborne because of touchdown

relays.

If a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master

Caution light will also come ON.

If a green ON light extinguishes and an OVERHEAT light comes ON, the Master

Caution light will not come ON.

9 After the overheat lights have illuminated during OVHT test

The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to OFF to reset the

system.

No action is required as the resetting of the system is automatic.

The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to RESET to reset the

system.

10 During a flight in icing conditions with wing anti-icing selected to ON

The system will automatically select the wing anti-ice valves to closed if the

temperature in the leading edge is too high.

The associated wing anti-ice valve will automatically close if the pressure in the wing

leading edge is too high.

There is no direct control over the amount of heat supplied other than variation of

engine power.

11 With the Wing Anti-ice switch selected to ON and either VALVE OPEN light is illuminated bright blue

The valve is partially open and flight may be continued normally in icing conditions.

Avoid icing conditions.

Select both engine start switches to FLT.

12 Thermal air for wing anti-icing is obtained from

5th stage engine bleed air only.

Bleed air ducted from the main pneumatic manifold.


13 The right No.2 window heat is supplied from

Generator BUS No. 2.

Standby AC BUS

Generator BUS No. 1.

14 If the engine anti-ice switch is selected ON, and a cowl valve failed in the closed position then the COWL VALVE OPEN light

Will be extinguished.

Will be illuminated bright blue.

Will illuminate dim blue after 5 - 7 seconds.

15 The total air temperature probe

Is electrically heated.

Does not require heating.

Is not heated while on the ground.

16 Rain repellant is actuated

Automatically and momentarily when the windscreen wipers are selected ON.

By pressing one of two rain repellent buttons located on the overhead panel

By pressing the single rain repellent button located on the overhead panel.

17 Heat is applied to the alpha vanes

By switching on the pitot static heaters.

By selecting the Stall Vane heater switch on the stall warning test panel to ON.

Automatically when either generator bus is powered.

18 The wing anti-ice valves will

Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the

ground only.

Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the

ground or in flight.

Close when the pressure in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground

only.

19 The wing anti-ice control valves

Are AC motor operated.

Are DC motor operated.

Are pneumatically operated.

20 The Wing Thermal anti-ice system

Is not effective with the trailing edge flaps beyond the flaps 15 degree position.

Is effective with the slats in any position and does include the leading edge flaps.

Is effective with the slats in any position but does not include the leading edge flaps.

21 The thermal protection of the wing anti-ice ducting is

An in flight function only.

An on ground function only.

Operative at all times.

22 With the aircraft on the ground and the wing anti-ice switch selected to ON

The wing anti-ice switch will remain ON irrespective of control valve position.

The wing anti-ice switch will trip to OFF when either or both wing anti-ice valves

close.

The wing anti-ice switch will trip to OFF when either wing ducting exceeds the preset

temperature limit.

23 The source of air for engine anti-ice is



5th and 9th stage engine bleed air.

24 The COWL ANTI-ICE light is

Blue in colour and when illuminated indicates the engine cowl anti-ice valve is in

disagreement with the engine anti-ice switch.

Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature or over-pressure.

Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature only.

25 The COWL ANTI-ICE light when illuminated

Indicates an overtemperature or overpressure condition in the duct upstream of the

engine cowl anti-ice valve.

Indicates an overtemperature or overpressure condition in the duct downstream of the

engine cowl anti-ice valve.

Indicates an excessive pressure in the supply duct only.

26 The pitot static and probe heater lights are

Illuminated when heat is being supplied to the respective pitot, static and probe

heaters.

Not connected to the Master Caution system.

Amber in colour, and connected to the Master Caution system.

27 Both windshield wipers are controlled by

Their own respective lock-toggle switches.

Their own respective rotary switches.

One rotary switch.

28 Window NO.3 in the control cabin is

Electrically heated.

Is fully anti-fogged from the air conditioning system.

Not electrically heated.

29 The Window Heat ON light (green) illuminates to indicate

The associated window heat switch is positioned to ON.

The window heat controller is applying heat to the associated window.

The associated window heat switch has been selected to OVHT TEST.

30 In the event of an Engine anti-ice valve failing in the OPEN position, bleed air to the cowl can

Not be switched off while the associated engine is running.

Can be switched off by closing the Isolation valve.

Can be switched off by selecting the associated engine BLEED switch to OFF.

31 If the Master Caution light, the ANTI-ICE annunciator and the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminate, you should

Switch off the associated engine Bleed switch.

Retard the associated thrust lever until the COWL ANTI-ICE light extinguishes.

Immediately switch the associated Engine Anti-ice OFF.

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT Multiple-choice exercise

1. The STAB OUT of Trim light operated Only when the speed trim system is activated. Only when the autopilot is engaged. At any time.

2. If the autopilot disengage light is flashing amber, this indicates that The autopilot has reverted to CMD pitch or roll while in CWS. The light test switch is being held in position 2. The autopilot has reverted to CWS pitch or roll while in CMD.

3. If the autothrottle disengagement light is flashing amber, this indicates An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +15 or -15 knots of commanded speed when in flight, flaps up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD mode. The light test switch is being held in position 2. An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +10 or -5 knots of commanded speed when in flight, flaps not up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD mode.

4. VNAV mode is terminated by Selecting a different pitch mode or Glideslope capture or De-selecting LNAV or Extending the wing flaps beyond 25 degrees. Selecting a different pitch mode or Glideslope capture or Extending the wing flaps beyond 15 degrees. Selecting a different pitch mode or Localiser capture or Extending the wing flaps beyond 5 degrees.

5. If during a climb with autopilot engaged, the ALT HOLD switch is pressed, the aircraft will Continue the climb to the next 1000 feet level and level off. Stop the climb and level off. Continue the climb to the preset altitude selected, as the altitude acquire mode is now armed.

6. With autopilot A engaged, the altitude selected on the MCP is referenced to The standby altimeter. The First Officer's altimeter. The Captain's altimeter.

7. VNAV climbs and descents are

Constrained by the selected MCP altitude. Not constrained by the selected MCP altitude. Constrained by the selected cabin altitude.

8. When intercepting the ILS with APP mode armed On all airplanes, localizer must be captured prior to glideslope. On some airplanes, glideslope may be captured prior to localizer. The second autopilot can be engaged.

9. During a dual channel approach the second autopilot must be engaged in CMD by 800 feet radio altitude. 500 feet radio altitude. 1500 feet radio altitude.

10. The bank angle limit selector sets the limit of bank angle when using All roll modes. Heading select and VOR modes. LNAV and heading select modes.

11. If FLARE arm is not annunciated by approximately 350 feet radio altitude The second engaged autopilot will disengage automatically. Both autopilots will disconnect automatically. Reselect APP mode on the MCP.

12. During a dual channel approach, the autothrottle begins retarding the thrust at approximately 50 feet radio altitude. 10 feet radio altitude. 27 feet radio altitude.

13. During a dual channel go-around, the MCP IAS/Mach display will Become blank. Display the Vref speed used during the final approach. Display the flap manoeuvring speed.

14. Flight Director roll commands, from take-off mode engagement through to the take-off climbout, are To maintain the runway track. To maintain the heading selected in the heading window. To hold the wings level.

15. The conditions for engaging the flight director in go-around mode are

The F/D switches must be ON, inflight below 800 feet RA-and not in take-off mode, and the TO/GA switch pressed. The F/D switches must be ON, inflight below 2,000 feet RA-and not in take-off mode, and the TO/GA switch pressed. The F/D switches can be ON or OFF, inflight below 2,000 feet RA and not in take-off mode, and the TO/GA switch pressed.

16. The Flight Director Comparator monitors The command bar positions. The symbol generators. The IRS headings.

17. The Altitude Alerting system is inhibited whenever The wing flaps are extended past 25 or while the glideslope is captured. The wing flaps are extended past 15 or while the glideslope is captured. The glideslope is captured.

18. If an engine fails while the autothrottle is in N1 mode, the thrust lever of the failed engine Remains stationary. Advances a few degrees and returns to or below the other thrust lever position. Retracts a few degrees and returns to or above the other thrust lever position.

19. During a dual channel approach the autothrottle Automatically disengages approximately 10 seconds after the landing touchdown. Must be disengaged manually. Automatically disengages approximately 2 seconds after the landing touchdown.

20. If the MCP displayed altitude changes without altitude selector movement A warning will be given in the form of intermittent altitude alert tone, flashing altitude alert lights and the MCP displays 50,000 feet. No warnings are given. A warning will be given in the form of the aircraft climbing or descending to the new altitude.

21. The underspeed symbol in the MCP Speed window is a Flashing "8". Flashing "A". Steady "A".

22. During a dual channel autopilot approach, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red when below 800 feet. This indicates A normal condition.

Both autopilots have reverted to CWS mode. The stabilizer is out of trim.

23. During an autopilot go-around, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red. This indicates One or more autopilots have reverted to CWS mode. A normal condition. The altitude acquire mode is inhibited (Stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation).

24 If the autothrottle is engaged and an autothrottle disengage switch is pressed The autothrottle disengages.The A/T disengage lightsflash and the A/T ARM switch trips OFF. A second press and the A/T disengage lights extinguish. The autothrottle disengages.The A/T disengage lightsflash, the A/T disengage warning tone sounds and the A/T ARM switch trips OFF. A second press and the A/T disengage lights extinguish and the warning tone. The autothrottle disengages provided the button is held formore than two seconds. The A/T disengage lights flash and the A/T ARM switch trips OFF. A second press and the A/T disengage lights extinguish.

25. What is the minimum Mach number that can be selected in the IAS/MACH display of the MCP panel 0.60 M 0.50 M 0.40 M

26. The IAS/MACH display change over switch on the MCP panel will change the display between IAS and MACH when pressed. An automatic change over Occurs at approximately FL350. Does not occur. Occurs at approximately FL260.

27. During Autopilot CWS operation above 1500 feet RA, if the roll control force is released with less than 6 degrees of bank, the autopilot will Remain at the same bank angle. Roll wings level and hold existing heading. Roll wings level only.

28. The mode selector switches on the MCP panel will illuminate the letters ON to indicate that The mode can not be deactivated by pressing the mode switch a second time. The mode can be deactivated by pressing the mode switch a second time. The mode can be deactivated by selecting either F/D switch to OFF.

29. If the MCP selected Altitude is changed during ALT ACQ mode

Then V/S mode is automatically activated. The initial selected altitude is held. The pitch mode prior to ALT ACQ is automatically re-engaged.

30. LNAV mode terminates whenever Either HDG SEL, VOR or LOC mode is armed. HDG SEL mode is engaged only. HDG SEL mode is engaged or upon VOR or LOC capture.

31. A rectangle is drawn around each pitch, roll, CWS and thrust engaged mode annunciation (EFIS Flight Mode Annunciations) whenever A mode change occurs from active to armed, and the rectangle remains for 10 seconds. A mode change has occurred and the rectangle remains for 1 second. A mode change has occurred and the rectangle remains for 10 seconds.

32 An A/T LIM light when illuminated, or an A/T LIM annunciation (as installed) indicates The autothrottle computer is calculating an FMC N1 limit for the affected engine or engines. The autothrottles are positioned at their normal operating limit as calculated by the FMC. The autothrottle computer is calculating a degraded N1 limit for the affected engine or engines.

33. All AFDS modes can be disengaged by selecting another command mode or By disengaging the A/P and turning the F/Ds off. By turning the F/Ds off with the autopilot engaged. By disengaging the A/P only.

34. What criteria must be met before autopilot engagement No force is applied to the control wheel or column, the Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-Out Switch is at NORMAL and the autothrottle must be engaged. No force is applied to the control wheel or column and the Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-Out Switch is at NORMAL. The Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-Out Switch is at NORMAL only.

35. If the autopilot is engaged and either pilot's control wheel Trim Switch is activated The stabiliser will move at a slow rate with the autopilot remains engaged. The autopilot will disengage. The stabiliser will not move and the autopilot remains engaged.

36. When approaching a selected altitude in CWS P (pitch) with the autopilot engage paddle in CMD

The CWS P annunciation changes to ALT ACQ and when at the selected altitude, ALT HOLD engages. The CWS P annunciation is unaffected. The autopilot paddle automatically moves to the CWS position on reaching the selected altitude.

37. The autopilot is engaged in ALT HOLD mode. The controlcolumn is then pushed, causing the autopilot to engage in CWS P mode. After the aircraft has descended 150 feet from the initial altitude the force applied to the control column is released and CWS P remains engaged and the aircraft will maintain a constant pitch angle in the descent. CWS P mode changes to ALT ACQ mode and the A/P returns to the initial altitude and ALT HOLD engages. CWS P mode changes to ALT ACQ mode and the A/P remains atthe an altitude of 150 feet lower than the initial altitude and ALT HOLD engages.

38. During a VNAV PATH descent, VNAV remains engaged until Approach mode is armed, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended beyond 25, or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture. Glideslope capture, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended beyond 15, or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture. Glideslope capture, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended beyond 25, or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture.

39. If VOR/LOC mode is fully engaged during an ILS approach and then the master VHF NAV receiver is placed in the AUTO tuning mode The go-around is initiated automatically without pressing either TOGA switch. The VOR/LOC mode remains engaged. The VOR/LOC mode automatically disengages.

40. Dual autopilot engagement is possible At any time below 1500 feet RA. Provided that both NAV receivers are tuned to the ILS frequency, VOR/LOC mode is selected and the aircraft is above 800 feet RA. Provided that both NAV receivers are tuned to the ILS frequency, APP mode is selected and the aircraft is above 800 feet RA.

41. After LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited by Pressing the APP mode switch. Disengaging the autopilot only. Pressing a TOGA switch.

42. During a Dual Channel Autoland Approach, the autopilots were disengaged at 200 feet RA and

Forward control column force may be required to hold the desired pitch attitude. Aft control column force may be required to hold the desired pitch attitude. No additional control column force would be required to hold the desired pitch attitude.

43. If the Autothrottle is engaged during a touchdown It will automatically disengage approximately 2 seconds after touchdown. It will not automatically disengage after touchdown and should be manually disengaged. It will automatically disengage approximately 5 seconds after touchdown.

44. During a Dual Channel Autoland, the autopilots May be manually disengaged after touchdown. The landing roll-out can be executed automatically. Must be manually disengaged after touchdown. The landing roll-out is executed manually after disengaging the A/P. Must not be disengaged after touchdown until the airspeed is less than 60 knots.

45. The A/P go-around mode requires dual A/P operation and becomes armed when FLARE armed is annunciated. LOC and GS capture is annunciated. A flap setting of 15 or more is selected.

46. Upon Go-Around engagement during a fully automatic approach the autothrottles will Advance the thrust levers toward the reduced go-around N1. Advance the thrust levers toward the maximum go around N1. Disengage.

47. During an ILS approach with both flight directors ON The F/D command bars remain in view until after touchdown, giving full landing flare capability. The F/D command bars retract from view at approximately 200 feet RA. The F/D command bars retract from view at approximately 50 feet RA.

48. Both MA lights on the MCP panel are illuminated during an approach indicating Go-around mode is armed. A Flight Director malfunction. Independent Flight Director operation.

49. A takeoff is commenced with both Flight Directors selected OFF. At 100 knots IAS a TOGA switch is pressed. What will happen to the F/D ? The F/D engages in full go-around mode. The F/D command bars remain out of view. The F/D command bars automatically appear for both pilots.

50. The Altitude Alerting system consists of a momentary tone and illumination of the Altitude Alert lights when approaching the selected altitude. The alert will occur when Approaching 900 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 300 feet from the selected altitude. Approaching 750 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 100 feet from the selected altitude. Approaching 500 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 250 feet from the selected altitude.

51. Autothrottle takeoffs May be performed with both PMCs ON or both PMCs OFF. May only be performed with both PMCs ON. May be performed with any combination of PMCs.

52. The recommended Autothrottle approach speed setting is VREF + 10 knots. VREF + increments due to wind or gusty conditions. VREF + 5 knots.

53. The Automatic Flight System (AFS) provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding the following limit speeds Vmo / Mmo. Minimum speed (maximum angle of attack). Vmo / Mmo. Wing flap placard. Landing gear placards. Minimum speed (maximum angle of attack). Vmo / Mmo. Wing flap placard. Turbulence penetration. Minimum speed (maximum angle of attack).

54. Which radio altimeter provides radio altitude to the autothrottle The Captain's. Both the Captain's and the First Officer's. The First Officer's.

55. Dual channel Autopilot operation is possible When AC power is available to at least one generator bus. Without any generator busses being energised. Only when two generators are powering the busses.

56. The Autothrottle sets take-off thrust prior to 60 knots groundspeed during the take-off roll. 60 knots IAS during the take-off roll. 64 knots groundspeed during the take-off roll.

57. During a single Autopilot approach, a Go-around is initiated by pressing a TOGA

button. This causes The autothrottle to disengage. The autopilot to disengage. The autopilot to remain engaged throughout the go-around.

58. LNAV capture criteria is satisfied when The aircraft is within 3 nm of the active route segmentirrespective of heading, or The aircraft is greater than 3 nm from the active route segment but the heading is on a intercept course of 90 degrees or less and will intercept the route segment before the active waypoint. The aircraft is greater than 5 nm from the active route segment but the heading is on a intercept course of 60 degrees or less and will intercept the route segment before the active waypoint. The aircraft is within 5 nm of the active route segmentirrespective of heading, orThe aircraft is greater than 5 nm. from the active route segment but the heading is on a intercept course of 90degrees or less and will intercept the route segment before the active waypoint.

59. The Autothrottle is engaged in FMC speed mode. What is displayed in the IAS/MACH display of the MCP The FMC demanded speed. The aircraft's actual speed. Blank.

60. When operating in "ALT HOLD", the V/S mode is ARMED if the MCP altitude is changed by more than 200 feet. 100 feet. 500 feet.

61. The aircraft is climbing with the autopilot in CMD and the pilot pushes the control column forward. The autopilot will Totally disengage. Revert to CWS P and CWS R. Revert to CWS P and the Roll axis remains in CMD.

62. During a single engine F/D go-around The autothrottle will increase thrust to the full N1 limit. The autothrottle will increase thrust to the reduced thrust go-around thrust setting. The autothrottle will disengage.

COMMUNICATIONS Multiple-choice exercise

1 With the Boom/Mask switch in the MASK position, transmission of a message is

possible

By using the oxygen mask or hand microphone only.

By using the oxygen mask only.

By using the oxygen mask and headset only.

2 The VHF-1 transmitter selector switch on an audio selector panel is illuminated

The ALT/NORM switch must be in NORM to obtain reception at a comfortable volume

level.

Reception on VHF-1 is automatically provided.

Reception is achieved by pulling and rotating VHF-1 receiver switch.

3 The Service Interphone switch on the Aft overhead panel when selected ON

Deactivates external jacks sockets from the Service Interphone system.

Adds external jack sockets to the Service Interphone system.

Allows communications between the flight deck and the flight attendants when using

the Flight Interphone system.

4 Communications between the cockpit and the ground crew is possible by using the

Flight interphone system, or the Service Interphone system provided the Service

Interphone switch is ON.

Flight interphone system only.

The Service interphone system irrespective of the position of the Service Interphone

switch.

5 The GRD CALL switch on the Fwd Overhead panel when pressed

Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until released.

Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well until released.

Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until the ground crew select

the GRD CALL CANCEL switch on the External Power receptacle panel.

6 The Cockpit CALL (blue) light will illuminate along with an associated chime whenever the cockpit is being called

By the ground crew only.

By the flight attendants or the ground crew

By the flight attendants only.

7 The ATTEND (attendants call) is pressed and released in the cockpit and

A two tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.

A single tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.

A three tone chime sound will be heard in the passenger cabin.

8 The selcal system monitors selected frequencies in use on the

HF-1 and VHF-1 communications radios.

VHF-1 and VHF-2 communications radios.

HF-1 communications radio.

9 The cockpit voice recorder uses a

25 hour single cassette tape which is replaced during every daily maintenance check.

30 minute continuous loop tape.

60 minute continuous loop tape.

10 Audio warnings for Altitude Alert, The GPWS and Windshear Warnings are heard through

The speakers only at preset volumes.

The speakers and headsets at preset volumes.

The speakers at preset volumes and the headsets at variable volumes.

11 With the Alternate-Normal switch on the Captain's Audio Selector Panel selected to ALT

The VHF-1 and VHF-2 radios only are available for transmission and reception from

the Captain's station.

Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's

station.


station.

12 With the Alternate-Normal switch on the F/O's Audio Selector Panel selected to ALT

Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's

station.


station.

Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's

station.

13 When using the Passenger address system, the priority of announcements are

Cockpit, Forward attendants, Aft attendants.

There is no priority system.

Cockpit, Aft attendants, Forward attendants.

14 Is it possible for the cabin attendants to communicate with the ground personnel from their respective stations

Yes using the service interphone system.

no.

Yes using the flight interphone system with the Service Interphone switch selected

OFF.

15 With an audio selector panel selected to ALT ( degraded mode ), the only usable radio at that station is heard

At a preset volume through the headset and speaker.

At a preset volume through the headset only.

At a variable volume through the headset and speaker.

16 To test the Cockpit Voice Recorder

Plug a headset into the jack socket in the CVR panel and press the Erase switch.

Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor Indicator

rise into the red band.

Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor Indicator

rise into the green band.

17 To erase the tape of the Cockpit Voice Recorder

Press the Erase button for 1 second only when the aircraft is on the ground and the

Parking Brake is set.

Press the Erase button for 9 seconds at any time.

Press the Erase button for 14 seconds only when the aircraft is on the ground and the

Parking Brake is set.

18 The pilot control wheel push to talk switch selected to INT allows

Direct transmission from the associated boom microphone only over the flight

interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter Selector.

Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the flight interphone, provided the Audio Selector Panel Transmitter Selector is selected to FT INT.

Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the flight

interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter selector.

ELECTRICS (737-3/4/500 Only)

Multiple-choice exercise

1 The STANDBY PWR OFF light (amber) illuminated means

The Battery Bus is inactive.

The DC standby bus is inactive.

The AC standby bus is inactive.

2 Generator Drive Disconnect switch when operated

Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive

malfunction.

Disconnects the Generator Drive from the generator in the event of a Generator Drive

malfunction.

Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive

malfunction, only if the engine has been shut down first.

3 Recoupling of the Generator Drive drive shaft to the engine may be accomplished

Only on the ground.

At any time in flight provided the Generator Breaker and the Generator Control Relay

have previously been tripped.

At any time on the ground or in flight.

4 After operating the Generator Drive Disconnect switch the Generator Drive HIGH OIL TEMP (if illuminated) will

Immediately extinguish as the power to the light comes from the Generator Drive

Disconnect Switch.

Flash repeatedly indicating successful Generator Drive uncoupling.

Remain on, until the Generator Drive oil has cooled.

5 The Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE lights are

Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator

Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.

Red lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator Drive

oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.

Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will flash repeatedly when

Generator Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.

6 One of the basic principles of the electrical system is

There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power.

The AC sources of power can be connected in parallel if necessary.

The AC sources of power are always connected in parallel.

7 The AC STANDBY BUS power can be supplied from

The APU or engine generators only.

The APU or engine generators, external power or directly from the Hot Battery Bus.

The APU or engine generators, external power or the battery through the Static

Inverter.

8 A Generator Breaker can be closed

At any time the engine is running at or above idle power.

When power quality from the generator is correct.

Irrespective of power quality from the generator.

9 Should a Generator Drive develop a fault and be disconnected from the engine, before corrective action is taken by the pilots

A few non-essential electrical systems ( loads ) will be lost.

No electrical systems ( loads ) supplied by that generator will be lost as the Bus

Transfer systems supplies all the aircraft's electrical systems ( loads ).

All electrical systems ( loads ) supplied by that generator will be lost.

10 When both engines are running with external power connected then

External power must be selected OFF before the engine generators are brought on-

line.

External power will automatically disconnect when both engine generators are

brought on line.

External power will automatically disconnect when either engine generator is brought

on-line.

11 When the Generator Drive Temperature switch is selected to RISE, a higher than normal generator drive oil temperature indicates

An excessive generator load or inadequate cooling of the engine oil.

An excessive generator load or poor condition of the Generator Drive.

Inadequate cooling of the Generator Drive oil.

12 Under normal flight, if the Battery switch is selected to OFF then

The Battery Bus loses power.

The Battery Bus is automatically connected to the Hot Battery Bus.

The Battery Bus is automatically connected directly to the Battery.

13 If the No. 2 TRU fails in the cruise

The Master Caution and ELEC annunciator lights would illuminate.

There would be no immediate indication.

The Battery Ammeter would show a discharge.

14 The auxiliary 28V DC power receptacle is situated

At the AC power receptacle.

Near the Battery in the electronic compartment.

Externally, forward of the E & E bay door.

15 A fully charged battery has sufficient capacity to provide power for a minimum of

30 minutes.

45 minutes.

20 minutes.

16 The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered from

The Battery Bus whenever the Battery Switch is OFF.

The Hot Battery Bus whenever the Battery Switch is ON.

The Battery whenever the Battery switch is OFF.

17 The APU can power both Generator Busses

On the ground or in flight.

On the ground only.

In flight only.

18 The T.R. voltage range is

26 - 35 volts.

28 - 30 volts.

24 - 30 volts.

19 The battery voltage range is

26 - 28 volts.

24 - 28 volts.

22 - 30 volts.

20 The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature / temperature rise is

157C / 20C

157C / 30C

215C / 11C

21 The Transfer Buses supply

The Essential Loads.

The Non Essential and Heavy Loads.

The Non Essential Loads.

22 With the aircraft on the ground (both engine generators on-line) and external power connected up to the aircraft, momentarily positioning the Ground Power switch to ON

Will trip both engine generators and connect external power to both generator

busses.

Will trip the right engine generator only and connect external power to the right

generator bus.

Will trip the left engine generator only and connect external power to the left

generator bus.

23 If, in flight, both engine generators fail, the APU generator should be connected to

Both No. 1 and No. 2 Generator Busses.

The No. 1 Generator Bus.

The No. 2 Generator Bus.

24 The blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light when illuminated indicates

That either Generator Bus is powered by the ground power supply. Light remains

illuminated as long as ground power is connected.

That both Generator Busses are powered by the ground power supply. Light remains


That the External Power Bus is powered by the ground power supply. Light remains


25 Under normal conditions the Standby AC bus is energised from the

115-volt Transfer bus No. 2.

115-volt Transfer bus No. 1.

The Static Invertor.

26 After operating the Generator Drive Disconnect switch

The Standby Power switch should be selected to BAT.

The APU should be started and the APU generator selected on-line.

The Generator switch should be momentarily held to OFF to trip the Generator

Control Relay.

27 The first action to be taken in the event of electrical failure of a generator (BUS OFF light illuminated) is

Start the APU (if available) and select it on line.

Select the associated Generator switch to OFF.

Select the associated Generator switch to ON.

28 The normal power source for the Battery Charger is the AC Ground Service Bus, with provisions for automatic switching to

The No. 2 Main Bus.

The No. 1 Main Bus.

Either Transfer Bus.

29 Pulling up an engine fire handle will

Trip the associated Generator Control Relay and disconnects the Generator Drive.

Trip the associated Generator Control Relay and Breaker.

Trip the associated Generator Control Relay only.

30 If the Battery switch is selected OFF, the airstairs can be lowered from the outside

By using the STANDBY system.

By using the NORMAL system with ground power plugged in.

By using the STANDBY system, but can only be raised again by use of the NORMAL

system.

31 To have all three Generators (APU and engines) on-line simultaneously

Is not possible.

Is possible on the ground only.

Is possible in flight only.

32 With an engine Generator switch selected OFF and the associated engine is running, the voltage of that generator will read

115 volts.

Residual volts when the residual volts switch is pressed.

Approximately 3 volts.

33 To connect the External Ground power to the aircraft's Generator busses

The Battery switch must be ON.

The Battery switch must be OFF.

The Bus Transfer switch must be in the AUTO position.

34 Standby D.C. power is normally supplied from

The Hot Battery Bus.

DC Bus No. 1.

The Battery Bus.

35 Failure of the No. 1 Generator Bus will

Have no effect on either electric hydraulic pump.

Will cause failure of the System B Electric hydraulic pump.

Will cause failure of the System A Electric hydraulic pump.

36 Placing the BUS TRANS switch to 'OFF' inflight with both generators operating and connected

Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay and

opens the TR 3 disconnect relay only.

Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens

the TR 3 disconnect relay and prevents connection of the battery charger to its alternate power source ( Main Bus 2 ).

Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens the TR 1 and 2 disconnect relays and prevents connection of the battery to the Static Invertor.

37 Which of the following statements is correct

TR 3 backs up TR 2 only.

TR 3 normally backs up TR 1 and TR 2 provided that the BUS TRANS switch is in

OFF.

TR 3 normally backs up TR 1 and TR 2 provided that the BUS TRANS switch is in

AUTO.

38 Standby A.C. power is available on touch down after a total electrical failure providing

The Standby Power switch is selected to AUTO.

The Standby Power switch is selected to BAT.

The Battery switch is selected to ON and the Standby Power switch is selected to

AUTO.

39 The APU generator has

A Generator drive unit which will disconnect when the APU Generator drive

disconnect switch is activated from the flight deck.

No Generator drive unit since the APU itself is governed and will maintain a constant

generator speed.

A Generator drive unit which will automatically disconnect when its oil temperature is

high.

40 If ground power is available and the Ground Service switch on the forward attendant's panel is switched on, then power is supplied to

The Ground Service bus for utility outlets, cabin lighting and battery charger.

All the aircraft electrical busses.

The Ground Service bus for utility outlets and cabin lighting only.

41 An engine electrical generator is rated at

45 KVA

55 KVA

35 KVA

42 The T/R No. 3 disconnect relay automatically opens at glideslope capture to

Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both the navigation receivers and flight

control computers.

Provide backup power to the Standby DC bus.

Off-load the battery charger from the 115V AC GND SERVICE Bus.

43 After disconnecting a Generator Drive, its associated oil temperature indicator

May show an increase on the IN scale and/or the RISE scale.

Will immediately show a decrease in temperature.

Will maintain the same temperature reading.

44 The Battery Switch must be

ON or OFF for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.

OFF for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.

ON for the GRD PWR Switch to be operable.

45 The Battery Switch is ON and the GRD PWR is connected to the aircraft's Busses. If the Battery Switch is selected OFF then

The GRD PWR switch will not automatically disconnect.

The GRD PWR switch will automatically disconnect.

The GRD POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish.

POWER PLANT Multiple-choice exercise

1 The CFM International CFM56-3-B1 is

A high bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 20,000 pounds of take-off thrust.

A high bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 22,000 pounds of take-off thrust.

A low bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 20,000 pounds of take-off thrust.

2 The CFM56-3 N1 rotor section consists of

A single stage fan and a three stage booster section.

A single stage fan and a two stage booster section.

A single stage fan and a nine stage booster section.

3 The CFM56-3 N1 low pressure turbine consists of

9 stages.

3 stages.

4 stages.

4 The CFM56-3 N2 rotor section consists of

A nine stage axial flow compressor connected by a through shaft to a single

stage high pressure turbine.

A four stage axial flow compressor connected by a through shaft to a single


A nine stage axial flow compressor connected by a through shaft to a four


5 The N1 Manual Set knob

When pulled out disables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator.

When pushed in allows manual setting of the N1 indicator cursor.

When pulled out enables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator

6 The Red warning lights on the EIS or conventional Engine instruments will

Flash repeatedly until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the

limit for that parameter.

Remain illuminated until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the

limit for that parameter.

When illuminated, will also illuminate the Master Caution ENG annunciator, until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the limit for that parameter.

7 The N1 RPM indicator indicates

The engine compressor speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary

thrust setting reference.

The fan speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust setting

reference.

The engine turbine speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust

setting reference.

8 Rotating the N1 Manual Set knob (when pulled) will

Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS ).

Set the desired N1 RPM in the N1 Manual Set Indicator (EIS).

Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS )

with the N1 Manual Set Indicator blank.

9 Illuminating of the Red warning light above an EGT gauge indicates

A warning that an abnormal engine start is occurring.

The EGT for the associated engine displayed has been reached or exceeded.

The EGT for either engine has been reached or exceeded.

10 The N2 RPM indicator displays

High pressure compressor speed in percent of RPM

Low pressure compressor speed in percent of RPM

High pressure compressor speed in actual RPM

11 With the Fuel Flow switch selected to the USED position, the digital display on both fuel flow indicators

Shows the total fuel consumed per engine per hour.

Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since last reset.

Shows the total fuel consumed per engine since engine start.

12 The START VALVE OPEN light (amber) indicates

The engine starter valve is open irrespective of air being supplied to the air

driven starter.

The Engine Start switch is in GRD.

The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to the air driven

starter.

13 The minimum engine oil pressure is

20psi

13psi

25psi

14 Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS light

Illuminates the Master Caution ENG annunciator light.

Indicates the Oil Filter is being bypassed.

Indicates an impending bypass of the oil Scavenge Filter.

15 The engine oil pressure is

Regulated and is primarily a function of engine N2 speed.

Unregulated and is primarily a function of engine N1 speed.

Unregulated and is primarily a function of engine N2 speed.

16 The engine vibration indicators

Show the engine vibration level throughout all sections of the engine.

Show the engine vibration level in the turbine section of the engine.

Show the engine vibration level in the fan section of the engine.

17 During an engine shutdown, the start switch holding solenoid is held in the cutout position until

The engine speed falls below 20% N2 RPM.

The engine start lever is advanced to IDLE again.

The engine speed falls below 30% N2 RPM.

18 The engine Ignition System contains

Two high energy DC systems.

Two high energy AC systems.

One DC and one AC high energy system.

19 Placing the Engine Start Switch in the GRD position

Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the Right ( Standby AC Bus ) igniter is energised immediately when the Engine Start Lever is placed to IDLE.

Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected

igniter(s) are energised when the Engine Start Lever is placed to IDLE.

Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected

igniter(s) are energised immediately.

20 Placing the Engine Start Switch to the CONT position

Provides high energy ignition to the Left igniter when the Engine Start Lever is

in the IDLE position.

Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start

Lever is in the IDLE position.


Lever is in the IDLE or CUTOFF positions.

21 Placing the Engine Start switch to the FLT position

Provides high energy ignition to both igniters when the Engine Start Lever is

positioned to IDLE.

Opens the starter valve and provides high energy ignition to both igniters when

the Engine Start Lever is positioned to IDLE.


Lever is positioned to IDLE.

22 With the Ignition Select switch in the IGN R position

The right igniter is selected for use on both engines.

Both igniters are selected for use on the right engine.

The right igniter is selected for use on the right engine.

23 The Engine Start Lever selected to IDLE during an engine start

Energizes the ignition system, electrically opens the engine fuel shutoff valve in

the wing leading edge, and mechanically opens the MEC shutoff valve.

Energizes the ignition system, mechanically opens the engine fuel shutoff

valve in the wing leading edge, and electrically opens the MEC shutoff valve.

Energizes the ignition system, electrically opens the engine fuel and MEC

shutoff valves in the wing leading edge.

24 The PMC INOP indication is suppressed

Above starter cutout engine speed.

Below starter cutout engine speed.

30 seconds after the engine start lever is positioned to

CUTOFF.

25 The PMC INOP light

Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 only.

Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 or the

PMC is selected OFF.

Indicates the PMC is selected OFF only.

26 The PMC is

An electronic system with limited authority over the MEC.

An electronic system with total authority over the MEC.

A mechanical system with limited authority over the MEC.

27 The PMC provides

A constant thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of

the climb.

A constant EGT and Fuel Flow feature once the thrust lever is set at the

beginning of the climb.

A variable thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of

the climb.

28 For detectable failure conditions, the PMC

Illuminates the PMC INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights only.

Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the

PMC INOP light only.

Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the

PMC INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights.

29 Illumination of the LOW IDLE light indicates

The PMC has failed.

One or both Engine Start Levers is in the CUTOFF position.

Either engine is near idle and its MEC is not commanded to maintain high idle

RPM in flight, or either engine is below 25% N1 in flight.

30 With the thrust levers set at idle, the engines will be in Low Idle

When on the ground, except for the first 4 seconds after touchdown.

At all stages of flight or on the ground.

When on the ground, except for the first 30 seconds after touchdown.

31 The High Idle RPM in flight is approximately

45% N1

32% N1

22% N1

32 The Fuel Flow Transmitter is located

Inside the MEC.

Between the First and Second Stage of the engine driven fuel pump.

Downstream of the MEC Fuel Shutoff Valve.

33 The engine fuel system (not including fuel tank pumps) has

One engine driven fuel pump with two stages.

Two electrical fuel pumps.

Two single stage engine driven fuel pumps.

34 The engine fuel system contains

One fuel/oil heat exchanger only.

One fuel heater and one fuel/oil heat exchanger.

One fuel heater only.

35 Fuel anti-icing is provided for the MEC

By the fuel heater using engine oil.

By the fuel heater using bleed air.

By the fuel heater using AC electrical power from the Generator Busses.

36 The yellow band on the oil pressure indicator is only valid when

On the ground with Takeoff thrust set.

At all engine operating conditions.

After engine start, by the time the engine is stabilized at idle.

Auxiliary Power Unit Multiple-choice exercise

1 The APU may be operated with APU bleed only up to a maximum altitude of

35,000ft

17,000ft

10,000ft

2 Maximum continuous EGT for Garrett APU operation is?

760 degrees C

710 degrees C

725 degrees C

3 The APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light is

Always illuminated when the APU switch is in the OFF position.

Inhibited during APU start.

Disarmed when the APU switch is in the OFF position.

4 The APU will automatically shut-down

When the battery switch is placed OFF at any time.

When the battery switch is placed OFF in flight only.

When the battery switch is placed OFF on the ground only.

5 The overspeed light will illuminate when a start is aborted prior to the APU reaching normal operating speed and

The APU overspeed reset switch in the E & E compartment must be reset.

No further attempts should be made to start the APU.

Will extinguish when the APU switch is placed to START again.

6 Should the APU switch fail to shut-off the APU

The APU Overspeed Reset switch in the E & E compartment has been tripped

and must be reset.

Trip the APU fuel valve CB.

Pull up the APU Fire Warning Switch.

7 If the APU runs down due to fuel starvation, the Master Caution annunciation system will show

APU and services being operated by the APU.

APU only.

Services being operated by the APU only.

8 The APU fire warning system gives aural and visual warnings

In the flight deck and main wheel well.

Only in the flight deck.

In the flight deck and the APU compartment.

9 During a normal APU start

The amber LOW OIL PRESSURE light is lluminated until the APU oil pressure

is normal (approx. 35% RPM).

The starter motor is engaged as soon as the master switch is released from

START to ON.

The blue APU GEN OFF BUS bus light goes out at 95% RPM.

10 The APU fuel heater

Uses heat supplied directly from the APU oil cooler.

Is automatically operated and uses the APU compressor bleed air.

Is automatically operated and uses 5th stage bleed air from Engine No. 2.

11 If an APU fire warning is sensed

The APU will shut-down automatically.

The APU will shut-down and the extinguisher is discharged automatically.

The APU must be shut-down by pulling up the fire switch.

12 The Garrett and Sundstrand APU generators are rated at:

The same rating as an engine driven generator.

45 KVA's in-flight and 55KVA's on the ground.

55 KVA's either in-flight or on the ground.

13 How is the APU is switched onto the AC electrical system?

Automatically when the previous power source is disconnected.

Automatically if the APU generator is running.

By two APU switches individually operated.

14 Which of the following statements is correct? (737 - 1-500)

The APU can be used to power a generator bus above 37,000 feet altitude.

The APU can power Generator Bus 1 with ground power connected to

Generator Bus 2.

The APU can electrically power both Generator Buses in the air and on the

ground.

15 Maximum start EGT for Garrett APU operation is?

760 degrees C

710 degrees C

725 degrees C

16 The maximum aircraft altitude for both APU bleed and electrical load is?

10,000ft

17,000ft

35,000ft

17 The maximum aircraft altitude for APU electrical load is?

35,000ft Garrett; 37,000ft Sundstrand; 41,000 Allied Signal.



18 When does the APU fuel solenoid valve open?

When oil temperature has reached a minimum value.

When oil pressure has reached 4psi.

When oil pressure has reached 13psi.

19 The APU Electrical Generator and APU Oil Cooler are cooled by

An Oil/Fuel heat exchanger.

A gear driven fan.

Ram air pressure.

20 With an APU aborted start on the ground, another start may be attempted immediately

But 3 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a

wait of 30 minutes is required after the third start attempt.

But 3 minutes cooling is required between subsequent attempts.

But 5 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a

wait of one hour is required after the third start attempt.

21 If the APU generator is providing electrical power to the aircraft while on the ground,

The galley electrical loads will not be automatically shed.

The galley electrical loads will automatically be shed if the total electrical power

requirements exceed design limits on the B737-400 only.

The galley electrical loads will automatically be shed if the total electrical power

requirements exceed design limits.

22 Illumination of the APU DET INOP light

Activates master caution "APU".

Does not activate the master caution system.

Activates master caution "OVHT/DET".

23 APU bleed air

Is allowed to be used for wing anti-ice on the ground only.

Is allowed to be used for wing anti-ice.

Is not allowed to be used for wing anti-ice.

24 The APU oil LOW QUANTITY light

Is only armed when the APU start switch is at START.

Is only armed when the APU start switch is out of OFF.

Is Armed all the time

FIRE PROTECTION Multiple-choice exercise

1 The Engine Overheat and Fire Protection system has

Two overheat/fire detection loops, each consisting of four detector elements, installed

in each engine nacelle.

Two dual element overheat/fire detection loops installed in each engine nacelle.

Four single element overheat/fire detection loops installed in each engine nacelle.

2 An overheat or fire alert will be given with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL and both loops serviceable when

Either element of a detector signals an overheat or fire condition.

One of the detector elements of loop A and one of the detector elements of loop B

sense a fire or overheat.

Either or both elements of a detector signal an overheat or fire condition.

3 The FAULT light illuminates

If both loops sense a fault with the OVHT DET switch in the NORMAL position.

The other two answers are correct.

If the OVHT DET switch is to 'A' or 'B' and the selected loop senses a fault.

4 With the OVHT DET switch in the B position

Only the A detector loop can initiate an overheat or fire warning

Only the B detector loop can initiate an overheat or fire warning.

Either A or B detector loops can initiate an overheat or fire warning.

5 Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

Tests the fault detection circuits for both engines only.

Tests the fault detection circuits for the APU only.

Tests the fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.

6 Holding the TEST switch to the FAULT/ INOP position

Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, WHEEL WELL

and APU DET INOP lights.

Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT and APU DET

INOP lights.

Will illuminate the Master Caution, FAULT annunciator and APU DET INOP light.

7 Holding the TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE position with AC on the busses will illuminate the

Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.

ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.

WHEEL WELL light. APU DET INOP light

Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator. ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights. WHEEL WELL light.

Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.

ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.

8 The Engine Fire Extinguisher system contains

Two freon bottles in the main wheel well with individual plumbing to their respective

engine and the APU.

One freon bottle in each engine nacelle with plumbing to either engine and APU.

Two freon bottles in the main wheel well with their associated plumbing to both

engines.

9 The Engine Fire Extinguisher system contains

Two freon bottles which may be discharged into either engine.

Three freon bottles which may be discharged into both engines and the APU.

Three freon bottles which may be discharged into both engines.

10 What should be the first action in the event of a Fire Warning

Cancel the Fire bell.

Press to cancel the MASTER CAUTION light.

Confirm a Red Engine Fire Warning switch is illuminated with the other pilot, before

pulling the switch.

11 An engine fire condition is indicated by the

Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch light

and the sound of the fire horn.

Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch light

and the sound of the alarm bell.

Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, the associated engine fire switch light, both bottle discharge lights flash indicating they are primed and the sound of the alarm bell.

12 In the event of an engine fire warning, the bell may be silenced and the master FIRE WARNING lights extinguished by

Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or either bell cutout switch on the main

instrument panel.

Pressing either Master Caution light or the bell cutout switch on the fire panel.

Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or the bell cutout switch on the fire

panel.

13 During the Engine Fire drill, the pneumatic ISOLATION VALVE switch should be selected to

CLOSE.

AUTO.

OPEN.

14 Pulling an Engine Fire switch will

Close the fuel, hydraulic fluid shutoff and engine bleed air valves.

Silence the fire bell

Disable the thrust reverser.

Trip the generator control relay and breaker.

Extinguish both master FIRE WARN lights

Discharge the related fire bottle.

Deactivate the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light.

Arm one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher.

Allow the engine fire warning switch to be rotated for discharge.

15 The power source for the Engine Overheat and Fire Detection is?

Battery Bus (28V DC).

Hot Battery Bus (28V DC).

NO.1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).

16 Indication that an Engine Fire Bottle has been discharged is

An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few seconds

after fire warning switch rotation.

An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating immediately on

fire warning switch rotation.

An red BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few seconds after

fire warning switch rotation.

17 The APU Horn Cutout switch in the main wheel well

Will silence the fire alarm bell and the APU fire warning horn, and cause the APU fire

warning light (main wheel well) to stop flashing but remain illuminated.

Will silence the APU fire warning horn only, and cause the APU fire warning light

(main wheel well) to stop flashing but remain illuminated.

Will silence the fire alarm bell and the APU fire warning horn, and has no effect on the

APU fire warning light (main wheel well).

18 Pulling the APU Fire Control Handle in the main wheel well will

Close the APU fuel shutoff, bleed air valve and APU inlet door.

Cancels the APU fire warning horn.

Cause the APU fire warning light to stop flashing but remain illuminated.

Arm the APU bottle discharge switch on the APU ground control panel

Trip the generator control relay and generator breaker.

Discharges APU extinguisher.

19 The APU Ground Control Panel is located

In the main wheel well.

In the nose gear wheel well.

In the cockpit.

20 If following an overheat condition, the OVERHEAT light extinguishes after thrust lever closure

Operate that engine at reduced thrust to keep the light extinguished.

Carry out the Engine Fire, Severe Damage or Separation drill.

Perform a light test on the Overheat light before shutting that engine down.

21 The APU horn in the main wheel well can be silenced by

The Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well only.

Either the Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well or the APU Horn Cutout switch on the

fire panel (Aft Electronics Panel) in the flight deck.

Either the Horn Cutout switch in the wheel well or the Bell Cutout switch on the fire

panel (Aft Electronics Panel) in the flight deck.

22 All switches on the Fire Panel are in their normal positions. The TEST switch is then held in the OVHT/FIRE position and all normal test indications are observed. The FAULT light is also observed to be illuminated which would mean that

There is a short circuit on one of the loops.

The test circuit is operating and the fault light will extinguish after 5 seconds.

There is a open circuit on one of the loops.

23 During an OVHT/FIRE test the No 1. Fire Handle light and associated overheat light do not illuminate indicating

There is a short circuit on one of the loops for No. 1

engine.

The test circuit is operating and the overheat light will illuminate after 2 seconds,

followed by the Fire Handle light.

There is an open circuit on one of the loops for No. 1 engine.

24 The power source for the APU Fire Detection is the




25 The power source for the Wheel Well Fire Detection is the

The No. 1 Transfer Bus (115V AC).


The No. 2 Transfer Bus (115V AC).

26 The power source for the Lavatory Smoke Detector is the



DC Bus No. 1 (28V DC).

27 The power source for the APU Fire Extinguishing system is the




28 The power source for the Engine Fire Extinguishing system is the




29 When the Extinguisher Test switch is held in the 1 or 2 position, 3 lights illuminate indicating

The associated bottle discharge circuits for all engine extinguisher bottles are being

tested only.

The quantities of all extinguisher bottles are being tested.

The associated bottle discharge circuits for all 3 extinguisher bottles are being tested.

FLIGHT CONTROLS

1 A condition for the speed trim system to operate is

The flaps can be in any position.

The flaps are not up.

The flaps are up.

2 Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall is not activated)

Indicates failure of both FCC channels.

Indicates failure of the elevator feel computer.

Indicates failure of a single FCC channel.

3 Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light when Master Caution recall is activated


Indicates failure of both FCC channels and the elevator feel computer.


4 Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light when Master Caution recall is activated

Indicates failure of a single autoslat computer.


Indicates failure of a FCC channel or both autoslat computers.

5 Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall is not activated)


Indicates failure of a single autoslat computer.

Indicates failure of both autoslat computers.

6 The Feel Differential Pressure amber light is

Armed at all times.

Armed when the trailing edge flaps are up.

Armed when the trailing edge flaps are not up.

7 A single autoslat channel failure is indicated

By pressing to test the Auto Slat Fail light.

By the immediate illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light.

By the illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light on a Master Caution annunciator recall.

8 A single mach trim FCC channel failure is indicated

By pressing to test the Mach Trim Fail light.

By the immediate illumination of the Mach trim Fail light.

By the illumination of the Mach Trim Fail light on a Master Caution annunciator recall.

9 Positioning the FLT CONTROL A switch to STBY RUD

Arms the Alternate Flaps Master switch.

Arms the STANDBY HYD Low Pressure light.

Arms the STANDBY HYD Low Qantity light.

10 The Yaw Damper operation results in

No rudder pedal movement provided the autopilot is engaged.

No rudder pedal movement.

Rudder pedal movement.

11 Rudder Trim control requires

Electrical power only to trim the rudder.

Both hydraulic and electrical power to trim the rudder.

Hydraulic power only to trim the rudder.

12 Positioning the Yaw Damper switch to ON

Engages the Yaw Damper to the rudder Power Control Unit.

Engages the Yaw Damper to the autopilot Power Control Unit.

Engages the Yaw Damper to the rudder Feel Mechanism.

13 Loss of hydraulic system B pressure

Does not cause yaw damper disengagement but will illuminate the amber YAW DAMPER light.

Causes yaw damper disengagement and illumination of the YAW DAMPER light.

Does not cause yaw damper disengagement or illumination of the amber YAW DAMPER light.

14 The Yaw Damper uses

Both hydraulic systems A and B pressure.

Hydraulic system A pressure only.

Hydraulic system B pressure only.

15 Aileron trim is accomplished by

Operation of either trim switch located on the control stand.

Operation of the aileron trim knob located on the control stand.

Simultaneous operation of the trim switches located on the control stand.

16 The amount of aileron trim set by a pilot

Is indicated by the amount of control column deflection.

Is indicated on the graduated scale of the rudder/aileron trim

indicator.

Is not indicated.

17 Operation of the Rudder Trim Control switch

Hydraulically repositions the rudder feel mechanism which results in a shift in the rudder position.

Electrically repositions the rudder trim tab and centring mechanism which results in a shift in both the rudder and tab positions.

Electrically repositions the rudder feel and centring mechanism which

results in a shift in the rudder neutral position.

18 The Rudder Trim Control is

Spring-loaded to neutral and may be rotated left or right provided the autopilot is disengaged.

Spring-loaded to neutral and may be rotated left or right.

Spring-loaded to neutral and must be pushed down before rotating left or right.

19 If the speed brake lever is not ARMED prior to landing. All the spoiler panels will

Remain retracted after landing even when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.

Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.

Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust, provided the Autobrake system is in use.

20 If the speed brake lever is used in-flight (ie ARMED) and then returned to DOWN prior to landing (SPEED BRAKE ARMED light extinguished). All the spoiler panels will

Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust, provided the Autobrake system is in use.

Automatically extend after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.

Remain retracted after landing when thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.

21 The Speed Brake Test switches (if installed)

Are used as a cockpit pre-flight check of the auto brake system.

Are used for maintenance test purposes only.

Are used as a cockpit pre-flight check of the auto spoiler system.

22 The LE FLAPS TRANSIT amber light on the centre instrument panel

Is not inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.

Is inhibited during flap load relief operation.

Is inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.

23 Auto Slat operation can be monitored

By reference to the LE FLAPS TRANSIT amber light.

By reference to the LEADING EDGE DEVICES ANNUNCIATOR panel.

By reference to the Flap Position indicator.

24 The Ground Spoilers are powered by

The A hydraulic system.

Both A and B hydraulic systems.

The B hydraulic system.

25 The autoslat system is armed

At all times in flight irrespective of the flap position.

During take-off or approach to landing with the trailing edge flaps selected 1 through 5.

During take-off or approach to landing with the trailing edge flaps selected 10 through 25.

26 The Auto Slat system will move

Leading edge slats from the RETRACT to the EXTEND position and back to the RETRACT position again.

Leading edge slats from the RETRACT to the FULL EXTEND position and back to the RETRACT position again.

Leading edge slats from the EXTEND to the FULL EXTEND position and back to the EXTEND position again.

27 How many Ground Spoiler panels are there ?

Classics: 4 - NG: 4

Classics: 6 - NG: 6

Classics: 6 - NG: 4

28 The Auto Slat system is normally powered by

The Standby Hydraulic system.

System A hydraulics.

System B hydraulics.

29 An alternate source of power for Autoslat operation is

The Standby Hydraulic system.

System B hydraulics through a power transfer unit if a loss of system A pressure is sensed.

System A hydraulics through a power transfer unit if a loss of system B pressure is sensed.

30 The Flap Load Limiter (B737-300) will retract the trailing edge flaps from the 40 position to the 30 position if the airspeed exceeds

153 knots.

155 knots.

158 knots.

31 Using Main electric trim, the stabiliser trim authority is

0.25 - 12.5 units ( flaps retracted ).

2.5 - 12.5 units ( flaps extended ).

2.5 - 12.5 units ( flaps retracted ).

32 Using Autopilot trim, the stabiliser trim authority is

0.25 - 12.5 units ( flaps extended ).

0.25 - 14.0 units ( flaps retracted or extended).

2.5 - 14.0 units ( flaps retracted or extended ).

33 With the Stabilizer Trim Override Switch in the OVERRIDE position

The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are bypassed to restore power to the electric trim switch.

The control column actuated stabiliser trim cutout switches are

bypassed to restore power to the autopilot trim motor.

Cuts power to all electric trim motors and engages the trim clutch allowing manual trimming of the stabiliser.

34 A condition for speed trim operation is

N2 above 60% RPM

N1 above 45% RPM

N1 above 60% RPM

35 The maximum altitude for flap extension is

20,000 Feet.

15,000 Feet.

10,000 Feet.

36 The Speed Brake should not be deployed in flight at radio altitudes of less than

2500 Feet.

1500 Feet.

1000 Feet.

37 The maximum speed for lowering the flaps using the alternate system is

230 knots.

210 knots.

220 knots.

38 If the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated, limit mach number to

Classics: 0.65 - NG's: 0.78



39 The primary flight controls are

Ailerons, Horizontal Stabiliser, Elevators and Rudder.

Ailerons, Elevators and Rudder.

Ailerons, Spoilers, Elevators and Rudder.

40 Power for the Flight Spoilers is supplied by

Hydraulic System A for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System B for the outboard spoilers.

Hydraulic System A for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System B or the Standby hydraulic pump for the outboard spoilers.

Hydraulic System B for the inboard spoilers. Hydraulic System A for the outboard spoilers.

41 Selecting either FLT CONTROL switch to OFF will

Activate the standby pump which will supply hydraulic pressure to the ailerons, elevator and rudder.

Cause the corresponding hydraulic system pressure to be isolated from the ailerons, elevator and rudder.

Cause both hydraulic systems pressure to be isolated from the ailerons, elevator and rudder.

42 FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE amber lights indicate

Low hydraulic system pressure to rudder only, and are deactivated

when the corresponding FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD and standby rudder SOV opens.

Low hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder, and

the lights are deactivated when the corresponding FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD and standby rudder SOV opens.

Low hydraulic system pressure to corresponding ailerons, elevators and rudder.

43 The Alternate Flaps Position switch when selected to the UP position will

Electrically retract the leading and trailing edge flaps.

Hydraulically retract the trailing edge flaps.

Electrically retract the trailing edge flaps.

44 The elevator Feel Differential Pressure light illuminated indicates that there is

Normal pressure in the elevator feel computer.

Excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.

A failure of an FCC channel.

45 The stabiliser Trim switches are located on

Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim switches on the centre pedestal.

Each pilot's control wheel.

Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim levers on the centre pedestal.

46 In the event of a runaway stabilizer first

Hold the control column firmly and disengage the autopilot (if engaged).

Grasp and hold the stabilizer trim wheel.

Select the Column Activated Stabilizer trim switch to NORMAL.

47 The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is

Smaller than the auto-pilot range.

Greater than the auto-pilot range.

Greater than the manual trim range.

48 The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is

Less with flaps extended.

Unaffected by flap position.

Greater with flaps extended.

49 The STAB OUT OF TRIM amber light when illuminated

Indicates the autopilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly.

Indicates the autopilot or pilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly.

Indicates the Speed Trim system is operating.

50 In event of a jammed stabilizer

Plan for a flaps 15 landing.



51 The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light

Is green and is de-activated when the Speed Brake Lever is in the

DOWN position. Selecting the gear lever to down will extinguish the light.

Is amber and is de-activated when the Speed Brake Lever is in the DOWN position.

When illuminated indicates that the landing gear is not down with the

Speed Brake in the ARMED position.

52 The SPEED BRAKE ARMED light

Is de-activated when the Speed Brake Lever is in the UP position.

Is amber and should be illuminated when the Speed Brake is moved

to the ARMED position indicating valid automatic Speed Brake system inputs.

Is green and should be illuminated when the Speed Brake is moved

to the ARMED position indicating valid automatic Speed Brake system inputs.

53 The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light will illuminate when

The Leading Edge Annunciator Panel TEST switch has been pressed.

Any leading edge device is in transit or not in the programmed position with respect to trailing edge flaps.

Any leading edge device is in transit only.

54 In the event of total hydraulic power failure, rotation of the pilots' control wheels mechanically positions the

Ailerons

Flight Spoilers.

Aileron tabs.

55 In the event of jammed aileron system, rotation of the co-pilot's control wheel operates the

Ailerons for roll control.

Aileron tabs for roll control.

Flight Spoilers for roll control.

56 Caution should be exercised when using flight spoilers during a turn as

They greatly reduce roll rate.

They greatly increase roll rate.

They cause such a demand on the hydraulic system that the Autopilot may trip off.

57 If the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light illuminates when the speed brake lever is selected to the ARMED position

Then ensure the landing gear lever is selected DOWN before arming the speed brake again.

Then manually deploy the speed brakes immediately on touchdown.

Then the speed brake lever must be restricted to the DOWN position and not used on touchdown.

58 If an asymmetric condition develops between the right and left wing trailing edge flaps

The electric power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the normal flap drive system is in use.

The electrical power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the alternate flap drive system is in use.

The hydraulic power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit provided the normal flap drive system is in use.

59 The Flap Load Limiter

Is installed in the leading edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps

to flaps 30 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 153 knots.

Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps

to flaps 25 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 158 knots.

Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps

to flaps 30 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in excess of 158 knots

60 The Alternate Flaps switch is selected momentarily to the DOWN position (Alternate Flaps Master Switch in ARM) and the

Leading edge devices are driven to the EXTEND position.

Leading edge devices are driven to the FULL EXTEND position.

Leading edge devices are driven out to EXTEND or FULL EXTEND depending on T.E.Flaps position.

61 The rudder power control units (PCUs) are powered by

System B and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system A for the standby rudder PCU.

System A and system B for the main rudder PCU and standby pump

for the standby rudder PCU.

System A and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system B for the standby rudder PCU.

62 Elevator balance tabs

Operate continuously during normal or manual reversion operations.

Operate during manual reversion operations only.

Are not fitted to the B737.

63 When the Trailing Edge Flaps are selected from UP to the Flap 1 position

The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the Leading Edge Slats drive to the EXTEND position.

The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the Leading Edge Slats drive to the FULL EXTEND position.

The Leading Edge Flaps drive to an intermediate position and the

Leading Edge Slats drive to the EXTEND position.

64 Tabs are fitted to the

Rudder, Ailerons and Elevator.

Rudder and Elevator.

Ailerons and Elevators.

65 The Leading Edge devices are normally powered by Hydraulic system

B

A and B

A

66 At what setting(s) should the leading edge FLAPS be partially extended

The leading edge FLAPS should never be partially extended.

10 degrees of flap.

1 degree of flap.

67 The Takeoff Configuration Warning system receives signals from

The Leading Edge SLATS.

The Leading Edge FLAPS.

The Leading Edge FLAPS and SLATS.

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS Multiple-choice exercise

1 The Airspeed Cursor Control on the Captains Mach/Airspeed Indicator must

be pushed in to allow

The airspeed cursor to be manually positioned.

The airspeed cursor to be automatically positioned by the AFDS FCC.

The Vmo pointer to be automatically positioned by the AFDS FCC.

2 The Vmo flag on the Mach/Airspeed indicators

Indicates the Vmo pointer is inoperative.

Indicates the Vmo speed is being exceeded.

Indicates the Vmo pointer is operative.

3 The standby airspeed indicator utilises the

The No.1 Aux pitot and the normal static systems.

The No.2 Aux pitot and the alternate static systems.

The No.1 ADC and the alternate static systems.

4 The Vertical Speed Indicators are fed from their respective

Inertial Reference Units.

Air Data Computers

Static Vents.

5 The ILS signal to the Standby Horizon Indicator is fed from the

FMC

No. 2 ILS receiver.

No. 1 ILS receiver.

6 The Flight Recorder will operate on the ground

When either engine is operating only.

When the Test switch is selected to TEST or either engine is operating.

At all times.

7 The alternate static system provides static pressure inputs to

The Standby Airspeed indicator / Standby Altimeter and No.2 ADC.

The Standby Airspeed indicator / Standby Altimeter and No.1 ADC.

The Standby Airspeed indicator / Standby Altimeter only.

8 The Weather Radar ON / OFF selector is located on the

EFIS control panel.

Weather radar control panel.

MCP control panel.

9 The No 1 VHF NAV is agility tuning. The DME-1 indications on each RDMI

Will display the DME distance to each tuned DME.

Will display 4 dashes.

Will display a warning flag.

10 Before selecting the ILS test facility

Select an ILS frequency on the associated VHF NAV control panel.

Select an ILS frequency on the both VHF NAV control panels.

Select an ILS or VOR frequency on the associated VHF NAV control panel.

11 If the No 1 ADF mode selector is selected to TEST, the No 1 ADF needle on both RDMIs should

Rotate clockwise continuously.

Indicate 90 degrees right of the lubber line.

Indicate 45 degrees left of the lubber line.

12 The marker beacon sensitivity selector is located

On both the Captain's and First Officer's control panel.

On the First Officer's instrument panel.

On the Captains instrument panel.

13 During auto tuning the No. 1 VHF NAV radio is providing unreliable data for position updating to the FMC. The VHF NAV control panel automatic frequency window will

Display ---- (Update 4 FMC or above.)

Display 108.00 (update 4 FMC or above.)

Display the frequency of the unreliable DME station.

14 The Mach/Airspeed indicator's Mach Digital Counter shows

The aircraft's Mach number, from .25 to .99 Mach, in digital form

The aircraft's Mach number, from .50 to .99 Mach, in digital form and is

masked below .50 Mach.

The aircraft's Mach number, from .40 to .99 Mach, in digital form and is

masked below .40 Mach.

15 The Mach/Airspeed indicator's MACH warning flag will be in view when

The mach number is at or below .35 Mach.

The mach number is at or below .40 Mach.

The mach digital counter display is unreliable.

16 The Mach/Airspeed indicator's A/S warning flag will be in view when

The Airspeed Digital counter is unreliable only.

The Airspeed Pointer and Airspeed Digital counter are unreliable.

The airspeed pointer exceeds the Vmo pointer.

17 The Altimeter OFF warning flag is in view when

The indicated altitude is below zero feet.

The Reference Altitude Marker control knob is pulled.

The ADC signal is lost or a malfunction exists.

18 The standby altimeter indicator utilises the

The alternate static source.

The normal static source.

The No.1 ADC and the alternate static source.

19 The Vertical Speed pointer on the VSI indicates zero with the OFF flag in view

When the associated static source is blocked.

When the associated IRS vertical speed is unreliable.

When the alternate static source is selected.

20 The Standby Horizon is

Normally powered when any one or more generators are on line.

Normally powered at all times even with the loss of all AC generators.

Only powered from the No2 AC Transfer Bus.

21 On aircraft fitted with a Air Temp/True airspeed indicator, the displays are derived from data from

ADC No. 1.

ADC No. 2.

Standby ADC.

22 How many Air Data Computers are fitted to the B737

2 (1 AC powered and 1 DC powered).

3 (2 AC powered and 1 DC powered).

2 (both AC powered).

23 On the ground the TAT indication is approximately the outside air temperature

Provided the pitot heat is OFF.

Provided the pitot heat is ON.

Irrespective of the pitot heat being ON or OFF.

24 The Standby Horizon ILS selector when selected to OFF

Retracts the ILS pointers and ILS failure flags from view.

Retracts the ILS pointers only from view.

Retracts the ILS failure flags from view only.

NAVIGATION Multiple-choice exercise

1 The No 1. VHF NAV is agility tuning. The DME-1 indications on each RDMI

Will display a warning flag.

Will display 4 dashes.

Will display the DME distance to each tuned DME.

2 Before selecting the ILS test facility

Select an ILS frequency on the associated VHF NAV control panel.

Select an ILS or VOR frequency on the associated VHF NAV control panel.

Select an ILS frequency on the both VHF NAV control panels.

3 If the No. 1 ADF mode selector is selected to TEST, the No. 1 ADF needle on both RDMIs should

Classics: Indicate 45 degrees left of the lubber line.

NG's: Pointer slews to 135 degrees relative bearing.

All series: Rotate clockwise continuously.

All series: Indicate 90 degrees right of the lubber line.

4 A marker beacon sensitivity selector is located

On the Captains instrument panel.

On the First Officer's instrument panel.

On both the Captain's and First Officer's control panel.

5 The Weather radar WX/TURB mode displays detected turbulence within

160 Nm.

80 Nm.

40 Nm.

6 A WXR DSPY warning on an EHSI indicates

Weather radar calibration fault.

Loss of display unit cooling or an overheat condition of the EHSI.

Weather radar has failed.

7 Selecting an IRS mode selector from OFF to ALIGN will initiate

The 10 minute alignment cycle.

The 7 minute alignment cycle.

The 30 second fast alignment cycle.

8 A flashing IRS ALIGN light indicates

Alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of airplane movement (on some 3/4/500's only), significant difference between previous and entered positions or no present position entry.

Alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of airplane movement.

Normal alignment cycle.

9 With all AC busses powered, the IRSs are selected from OFF to ALIGN. The ON DC light momentarily illuminates indicating

A fast align is in progress.

A short DC power test with no action required.

Impending DC power problems, check with the maintenance engineers.

10 Fast alignment of an IRS is possible

On the ground or in flight provided one IRS is fully aligned for cross-reference

purposes.

Any time the air/ground sensor is in ground mode.

On the ground and stationary only.

11 During auto tuning the No. 1 VHF NAV radio is providing unreliable data for position updating to the FMC. The VHF NAV control panel automatic frequency window will

Display the frequency of the unreliable DME station.

Display 108.00 (Update 4 FMC or above.)

Display ---- (Update 4 FMC or above.)

12 The Altenate Nav System (if installed) uses

IRS, VOR/DME and ADF information.

IRS information only.

IRS and VOR/DME information only.

13 The AN/CDU is limited to

Unlimited waypoints.

25 waypoints.

20 waypoints.

14 During Alternate Nav System operation an IRS fails. The IRS Transfer switch

Can transfer navigation inputs from the No. 2 IRS to the Captains AN/CDU only.

Can transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.

Cannot transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.

15 To define the origin airport on the FMC Route page

No input is necessary as the FMC always knows where it is.

Use the airfield 3 character identifier.

Use the airfield 4 character ICAO identifier.

16 You observe an altitude restriction on ACT RTE LEGS page of 6000B. This indicates that the aircraft should

Be at 6000 feet (QNH) or below at this point.

Be at or between +/- 500 of this altitude (6000 feet QNH) at this point.

Be at FL060 or below at this point.

17 The SUPP NAV DATA pages are accessible

At any time.

On the ground only.

In flight only.

18 The REF NAV DATA pages allow the crew to inhibit

One VOR or DME from being used for FMC position updating.

Up to 2 VORs or DMEs from being used for FMC position updating.

Up to 5 VORs or DMEs from being used for FMC position updating.

19 All waypoints in the AN/CDU flight plan

May be defined in terms of latitude and longitude or

radial/distance from navigation beacons.

Must be defined as navigation beacons or radial/distance from navigation beacons.

Must be defined in terms of latitude and longitude.

20 The AC busses have failed in flight. The IRSs will

Continue to operate on DC power for 5 minutes only.

Continue to operate on DC power but the Right IRS is limited to 5 minutes only.

Continue to operate on DC power but the LEFT IRS is limited to 5 minutes only.

21 While in flight the right IRS DC FAIL amber light (only) illuminates indicating that

The IRS is operating normally on AC power.

The IRS has totally failed.

The IRS will fail after 5 minutes.

22 You have just entered the aircraft's present position into the IRS Display unit ( aircraft stationary ) and the integral cue lights in the CLR key have illuminated indicating

The IRS self test determines the data to be of an unreasonable value and the entry is

not accepted by the IRS.

The Centre, Left and Right (CLR) function of the IRS is fully operational.

The IRS self test determines the data to be of an unreasonable value but the entry is

accepted by the IRS.

23 The IRS store magnetic variation data between the

73 degrees North and 60 degrees South latitudes.



24 The left IRS requires a full alignment so it is selected OFF. All electrical power is

Removed from the system after a 30 seconds shutdown cycle.

Removed from the system after a 10 seconds shutdown cycle.

Removed immediately.

25 During IRS alignment the right hand window of the IRS Display unit can display the minutes remaining until the alignment is completed, provided the Display Selector is in the

TK/GS position.

HDG/STS position.

PPOS position.

26 The IRS provides.

Attitude and heading information while in ATT mode.

Attitude, heading and groundspeed information while in ATT mode.

Attitude, heading and wind information while in ATT mode.

27 During FMC CDU pre-flight setting up, a VERIFY POSITION message is observed. This could be caused by

The CDU setting up must be performed from the Left (Captain's) position and not the

Right (F/O's) position.

The difference between the entered IRS Present Position and the origin airport is

greater than 10 NM.

The difference between the entered IRS Present Position and the origin airport is

greater than 4 NM.

28 The FMC CRZ page displays a TURB N1 value which is a reference display of the N1% for turbulance penetration and it

Cannot be commanded by the autothrottle.

Can be commanded by the autothrottle.

Can be modified by manual input on the CDU to drive the autothrottle.

29 The IRS NAV ONLY message is displayed in flight on the FMC CDU indicating

No radio updating has occurred within the last 4 minutes.

No radio updating has occurred within the last 12 minutes.

AN/CDU operation is required immediately.

30 The IRS MOTION message is displayed on the FMC CDU during alignment indicating

The IRS has automatically frozen the alignment due to detection of excessive motion.

The IRS has automatically restarted the alignment due to detection of excessive

motion.

A IRS Laser gyro platform has failed to move during alignment and maintenance

action is required immediately.

31 The DRAG REQUIRED message on the FMC CDU indicates

The airspeed is 15 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 15 Knots of

Vmo/Vmmo.


Vmo/Vmmo.


Vmo/Vmmo.

HYDRAULICS Multiple-choice exercise

1 Complete loss of system 'B' pressure will deactivate

The outboard flight spoilers.

The inboard flight spoilers.

The ground spoilers.

2 If an electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light comes on

The pump will be automatically switched off and the OVERHEAT LIGHT

extinguished.

Turn the associated system electric and engine hydraulic pumps OFF.

Turn the associated system electric hydraulic pump OFF.

3 A leak in the hydraulic system B engine driven pump or its associated lines would be indicated by

System B contents falling to one quarter full (conventional engine

instruments) or 25% (EIS).

System B contents falling to half full (conventional engine instruments) or

40% (EIS).

System B contents falling to three quarters full (conventional engine


4 The standby system LOW PRESSURE light is armed

Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or automatic

standby function is activated.

At all times.

Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or either Spoiler

switch has been selected to OFF.

5 The standby hydraulic pump only supplies pressure to the

Standby rudder and leading edge slats.

Standby rudder actuator, leading edge devices and thrust reversers.

Standby rudder, leading edge devices and brakes.

6 If either Flight Control switch is moved to the STBY RUD position

The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW

QUANTITY light will be armed.

The standby pump will be de-activated allowing system A pressure to power

the rudder and the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light will be armed.

The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW

PRESSURE light will be armed.

7 Low fluid quantity in the A system reservoir can be indicated by one of the

following

Mechanical indication on the reservoir.

LOW QUANTITY light on the centre instrument panel.

LOW QUANTITY light on the centre instrument panel along with a Master

Caution ENG annunciator light.

8 If a total failure of both pumps supplying system B pressure occurs, which of the primary flight controls will be totally inoperative

None.

Aileron and elevator.

Rudder only.

9 The A and B hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by

Air from the 14th stage only.

Air from the pneumatic manifold.

Hydraulic fluid from the standby reservoir.

10 Selecting an engine driven hydraulic pump switch to OFF will

Electrically close the fluid supply valve at the reservoir.

De-activate the solenoid-held blocking valve and isolate fluid from the using

unit.

Activate the solenoid-held blocking valve and isolate fluid from the using

unit.

11 The normal and maximum readings on the hydraulic system pressure indicator are

3000 : 3500psi

2500 : 3200psi

3000 : 3750psi

12 The Standby hydraulic reservoir is kept topped up from

Oil containers used by engineers before each flight.

The system A reservoir.

The system B reservoir.

13 Hydraulic system A power sources are

One engine driven pump (ENG 1) and one electrical motor pump (ELECT

1).

One engine driven pump (ENG 1) and one electrical motor pump (ELECT

2).

One engine driven pump (ENG 1), one electrical motor pump (ELECT 1)

and one standby electric pump.

14 Illumination of a Hydraulic Electric Pump OVERHEAT light indicates

An overheat condition in the hydraulic reservoir.

An overheat condition of the pump hydraulic supply line.

An overheat condition in the case drain line or the pump housing.

15 Illumination of a electric hydraulic pump OVERHEAT light will

Automatically shut down the associated pump.

Not shut down the associated pump.

Automatically arm the LOW PRESSURE light for the associated pump.

16 The maximum hydraulic system A or B pressure is

3000psi

3250psi

3500psi

17 Loss of the A hydraulic system will result in the complete loss of the following

Ground spoilers. Inboard flight spoilers. Alternate brakes. Autopilot A.

Ground spoilers. Inboard flight spoilers. Normal brakes. Nose wheel

steering.

Ground spoilers. Outboard flight spoilers. Elevator feel system. Alternate

brakes. Autoslat system.

18 Loss of the B hydraulic system will result in the complete loss of the following

Outboard flight spoilers. Autopilot B. No. 2 thrust reverser. Yaw damper.

Outboard flight spoilers. Autopilot B. Normal brakes. Yaw damper.

Outboard flight spoilers. Autoslats. Autopilot B.

19 The standby hydraulic pump is automatically activated on the loss of system A or B hydraulic pressure

During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts and

the wing flaps extended.

During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 90 Kts and

wing flaps extended.

During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts

irrespective of the wing flaps position.

20 The indications of a leak in the standby reservoir are

Illumination of the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light and the B system reservoir quantity decreasing and stabilising between 3/4 and the RFL indications (conventional engine instruments) or approximately 64% full (EIS).

Illumination of the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light and the A

system reservoir quantity decreasing and stabilising between 3/4 and the RFL indications (conventional engine instruments) or approximately 44% full (EIS).

Illumination of the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light and the B system reservoir quantity decreasing and stabilising between 1/2 and the RFL indications (conventional engine instruments) or approximately 64% full (EIS).

21 A leak in the hydraulic system A engine driven pump or its associated lines would be indicated by

System A contents falling to three quarters full (conventional engine


System A contents falling to one quarter full (conventional engine


System A contents falling to one quarter full (conventional engine


22 The 'B' system reservoir has

One standpipe.

Two standpipes.

One standpipe used for reservoir pressurisation of the standby reservoir.

23 Placing the A Flt Control switch to STBY RUD position will

Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light, close the A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and the A system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens.

Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light, close the A and B system Flight Control Shutoff valves and the A system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens.

Start the standby pump, close the A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and the A system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens.

24 Using the Standby Hydraulic power for thrust reverser deployment will cause

Deployment time not to be affected.

Deployment time to increase.

Deployment time to decrease.

25 The standby system low quantity light is

Armed at all times and will illuminate whenever the reservoir is

approximately half empty.

Armed at all times and will illuminate whenever the reservoir is

approximately three quarters empty.

Armed only when either Flt Control switch is placed to the STBY RUD

position.

26 The Standby hydraulic fluid

Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO. 2 tank.

Is cooled by a heat exchanger located in NO. 1 tank.

Is not cooled.

27 Pulling NO.1 Engine Fire switch will

Stop the fluid to the No.1 Engine Driven and electric hydraulic pump by closing the Hydraulic Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low pressure light.

Stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven hydraulic pump by closing the

Hydraulic Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low pressure light.

Only stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic pump by closing the

Hydraulic Shutoff valve.

28 The engine driven hydraulic pump switch

In the OFF position will de-activate the hydraulic LOW PRESS light.

Is left in the ON position on shutdown to prolong the life of the blocking

valve solenoid.

Should be switched OFF in the event of the electric hydraulic pump

OVERHEAT light illuminating.

FUEL Multiple-choice exercise

1 Classics only: When both Centre Tank Fuel pump switches are turned OFF, the fuel

scavenge shut-off valve

Opens allowing pressure from the No. 1 tank forward pump to operate the Centre Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre tank fuel to the No. 2 tank.

Closes for 20 minutes allowing fuel pressure from the No. 2 tank forward pump to operate the Centre Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre tank fuel to the No. 2 tank.

Opens for 20 minutes allowing fuel pressure from the No. 1 tank forward pump to operate the Centre Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre tank fuel to the No. 1 tank.

2 A shut-off system is used during refuelling to

Automatically close the fuelling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.

Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi.

Automatically close the Manual Defuelling Valve when the wing tanks are full.

3 Fuel Quantity indicators will display

An 88888 reading if a malfunction occurs.

Blank if a malfunction occurs.

An ERR symbol if a malfunction occurs.

4 To defuel No. 1 tank

Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve CLOSED and the

Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.

Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the

Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.

Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and

the Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.

5 The Fuel Temperature Indicator reads the temperature of the fuel in

The No. 1 tank.

The No. 2 tank.

The Centre tank.

6 The manual De-fuelling valve is located

Inboard of the No. 2 engine.

Outboard of the No. 1 engine.

Outboard of the No. 2 engine.

7 Dripsticks (or Floatsticks) are installed in

Classics: 5 in each main tank.

NG's: 6 in each main tank and 4 in the centre tank.





8 The Fuelling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate (blue) when

The respective fuelling valve is in transit.

The respective fuelling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank.

The respective fuelling valve is OPEN.

9 When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refuelling can be accomplished as follows

Battery switch OFF Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will operate normally.

Battery switch ON Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will operate normally.

Battery switch ON Standby Power switch BAT The entire fuel system will operate normally, except for the fuel shut-off system.

10 To defuel No. 2 tank only,

Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the

Manual Defueling valve OPEN.

Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON and the Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.

Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and

the Manual Defueling valve OPEN.

11 Fuel for the APU is

Is recorded on the fuel flowmeters.

Approximately 164 kg/hr with electrics & bleeds at sea level, decreasing to 17 kg/hr at

high altitude and low loads.

Not heated.

12 The Fuel Specification for the CFM56 and APU is

DTD 585 and 588.

DERD 2494.

DERD 2488 only.

13 The Crossfeed valve when OPEN

Allows fuel transfer from any tank to either engine or APU.

Allows transfer of fuel between wing tanks only.

Closes the Bypass valve in each wing tank.

14 With failure of all generators, the centre tank fuel

Will be fed to the main tanks by the centre tank scavenge jet pump.

Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve.

Cannot be used.

15 With no pressure refuelling system available, the aircraft (737 - 1-500 only) can be refuelled by

Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 tank only.

The No.2 tank can then be filled using the fuel transfer pumps.

Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 and No.

2 and centre tanks.

Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 and No.

2 tanks only.

16 The maximum allowable lateral fuel imbalance between No. 1 and No. 2 tanks is

453 Kgs for takeoff only.

453 Kgs for all stages of flight.

746 Kgs for all stages of flight.

17 Should the indicated fuel quantity in any main tank be 454 Kgs or less

Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and close the crossfeed valve.

Switch off the associated fuel pump if both pump LOW

Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and open the crossfeed valve.

18 The Crossfeed Selector in the OPEN position

Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed

valve.

Extinguishes the blue VALVE OPEN light.

Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed and

fuel shut-off valves.

19 The Centre Tank Fuelling Valve Position light on the External Fuelling Panel is

Blue and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.

Blue and is illuminated when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.

Red and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.

20 The External Fuelling Panel is located

On the opposite wing to the De-fuelling panel.

At the Right wing leading edge.

At the Left wing leading edge.

21 Each fuel tank contains

1 AC powered fuel pumps which is fuel cooled and lubricated, and 1 DC fuel pump.

2 AC powered fuel pumps which are fuel cooled and lubricated.

2 DC powered fuel pumps.

22 Which valve connects the fuel (engine) manifold to the fuelling manifold

The Manual Defuelling valve.

The Fuelling valve.

The Crossfeed valve.

23 For a FUEL annunciator and the MASTER CAUTION lights to illuminate, two fuel LOW PRESSURE lights must be illuminated for the

FWD pump in each wing tank.

Same tank.

AFT pump in each wing tank.

24 The Fuel Quantity Indicators display

Amount of fuel (usuable and unusable) in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of

full scale reading.

Amount of usable fuel in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of actual reading.

Amount of usable fuel in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of full scale reading.

25 A digital fuel quantity indicator has an accuracy of

+/- 2.5% of full scale reading.

+/- 2% of full scale reading.

+/- 3% of full scale reading.

26 The fuel quantity indicators require

Standby DC power.

Standby AC power.

Switched Hot battery Bus power.

27 If the centre tank is scheduled to contain more than 453 Kgs then

All tanks may be filled together.

Main tanks 1 & 2 must be filled first.

Load the centre tank first.

28 For the centre tank Scavenge Jet Pump to operate

Classics: The centre tank pumps must remain OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump

must be ON. NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.

Classics: The centre tank pumps must be turned OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON. NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.

Classics: The centre tank pumps must be cycled OFF then ON and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON. NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.

29 The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves

Are AC operated to OPEN, and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire

switch.

Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.

Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the

respective engine fire switch.

LANDING GEAR Multiple-choice exercise

1 The alternate anti-skid system has

One alternate brake metering valve connected to all alternate antiskid valves.

Two anti-skid valves.

Four anti-skid valves.

2 The accumulator isolation valve is closed by

Brake accumulator pressure whenever system B is lost.

System A pressure whenever system B pressure is lost.

System B pressure whenever system A pressure is lost.

3 The alternate brake source selector valve

Isolates accumulator pressure.

Prevents hydraulic system B from powering the alternate brake system when

hydraulic system A is operating normally.

Prevents hydraulic system A from powering the alternate brake system when

hydraulic system B is operating normally.

4 The landing gear is normally operated

By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility and system A

hydraulic power as back-ups.

By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.

By system A hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.

5 When using manual extension to extend the landing gear

Pull the middle handle approximately 12 inches to unlock the nose gear and pull the

other handles approximately 10 inches to unlock each main gear.





6 While the landing gear is being extended manually, the landing gear lever must be selected to

OFF and then selected to DOWN after extension.

OFF and remain OFF after extension.

DOWN and remain DOWN after extension.

7 If the landing gear lever will not move up after takeoff, and the configuration warning does not sound on flap retraction

Pull the Landing Gear Override trigger and select landing ear OFF.

Reset the Landing Gear CB on P18-1.

Pull the Landing Gear Override trigger and select landing gear UP, then OFF.

8 Classics only - With any landing gear not locked down and the flaps greater than 15 degrees

A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out

switch.

A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out

switch, but can be silenced if either thrust lever is in a high forward thrust position.

A steady horn will sound which can be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out switch.

9 Classics only - With either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, the landing gear not down and locked and the flaps are up

Red warning lights will illuminate and intermittent horn will sound.

Red warning lights will illuminate.

Red warning lights will illuminate and a steady horn will sound.

10 Classics only - The main gear viewer is (normally) located

Opposite the 2nd window behind the aft overwing exit and in the centre of the aisle.

Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot left (port) of

centre.

Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot right (starboard) of

centre.

11 If the nose gear lockout pin is not installed

Pushback must be with System A Elec. pump OFF.

Pushback must be with both System A hydraulic pumps OFF.

Pushback must be with both System A hydraulic pumps ON.

12 Rudder pedal steering is

Active at all times irrespective of the gear position, as it can only demand +/- 7

degrees of nose wheel movement.

Deactivated as the nose gear strut extends after takeoff.

Deactivated whenever the gear is up and locked.

13 Rudder pedal steering

Can be overridden by the nose wheel steering wheel.

Is activated anytime the nose gear strut is extended.

Is available up to +/- 7 degrees on the captain's rudder pedals only.

14 Classics only - Indications that the landing gear is down and locked, when looking through the gear viewers are

Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.

Nose gear - two red arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.

Main gear - yellow painted stripes lining up on down lock and side struts.

Nose gear - two yellow arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.

Main gear - red painted stripes lining up on oleo and side struts.

Nose gear - two yellow arrow heads on the down lock strut are in contact.

15 Should the ANTISKID INOP light illuminate

Select the Autobrake Select switch to OFF and brake with caution.

Select the Antiskid control switch to OFF.

No action is required.

16 During landing with the autobrake system armed the brakes will be automatically applied

When the nose oleo is compressed.

When the main wheels spin up only.

When the main wheels spin up and the thrust levers are at or near idle.

17 Hydraulic power for the normal brakes is supplied by

System A to outboard and system B to the inboard brakes.

System B.

System A.

18 The autobrake system is armed

When the aircraft is on the ground, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the

autobrake select switch is in the 1,-2, 3 or MAX positions.

When the main wheels spin up on landing.

When the aircraft is in flight, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the autobrake

select switch is in the 1,2, 3 or MAX positions.

19 After manual extension of the landing gear, the indication on the flight deck that the correct procedure has been carried out is

3 red lights.

3 green lights.

3 green lights and 3 red lights.

20 The alternate brake system is powered by

Accumulator pressure.

System A hydraulics.

System B hydraulics.

21 The nose wheel steering lockout pin

Limits the nose wheel steering to +/- 7 degrees.

Is installed in the steering depressurisation valve to bypass hydraulic system

pressure.

Prevents inadvertent retraction of the nose gear.

22 The nose wheel steering lockout pin when installed

Limits the nose wheel steering to +/- 7 degrees.

Allows pushback with hydraulic system A pressurised.

Locks the nosewheel in the central position.

23 The precharge pressure in the brake accumulator is

3000psi

1500psi

1000psi

24 The 737 brake system has

One hydraulic brake accumulator.

Two hydraulic brake accumulators.

No hydraulic brake accumulators.

25 If system A hydraulic power has failed

Autobrake is not available.

Autobrake is available but anti-skid is unserviceable.

The alternative anti-skid system is inoperative.

26 On loss of system B hydraulic power

Locked wheel and touchdown protection is available.

Autobrake is operative.

Locked wheel and touchdown protection is not available.

27 The autobrake RTO mode was selected prior to takeoff and

The autobrake select switch will remain in the RTO position after take-off until placed

in the OFF position.

The autobrake DISARM light will illuminate after take-off until the autobrake select

switch is placed to the OFF position.

The autobrake select switch will automatically return to the OFF position after take-

off.

28 When the autobrake RTO mode is selected on the ground

The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light should not illuminate. After 2 seconds the light will

extinguish.

The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will illuminate for approximately 2 seconds to

indicate self test initiation. After 2 seconds the light will extinguish.

The speedbrake lever must be armed to initiate the automatic self test.

29 On an aborted take-off with autobrake RTO mode selected

Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is more

than 90 knots.

Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be appliedif the groundspeed is less

than 90 knots but greater than 60 knots.

Braking, equivalent to the MAX autobrake setting, will be applied if the groundspeed

is more than 90 knots.

30 If a landing is made with RTO left selected

Full automatic RTO braking occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light would not

illuminate.

No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will

illuminate 2 seconds after landing.

No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will

illuminate two minutes after landing.

31 Selecting Nose Wheel Steering switch on the Captain's Instrument panel to ALT provides the

A hydraulic system pressure for steering.

B hydraulic system pressure for steering.

Standby hydraulic system pressure for steering.

32 The HYD Brake Pressure indicator reads zero, but both hydraulic system pressures are normal

The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, normal braking is

not available but alternate braking is unaffected.

The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, accumulator braking

is not available but normal braking is unaffected.

The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out and alternate brakes

will not be available in the event of system B failure.

33 Classics only - With Flap 5 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Forward Thrust Levers are retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever angle. The gear warning horn sounds and

Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.

Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.

Can be cancelled by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to approximately the 30

degrees thrust lever angle.

34 With Flap 15 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Forward Thrust Levers are retarded to the idle position. The gear warning horn sounds and

Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers

remaining at idle).

Can not be cancelled even by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to

approximately the 30 degrees thrust lever angle.

Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers remaining

at idle).

35 With Flap 25 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Thrust Levers are retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever angle. The gear warning horn sounds and

Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch or by any position of

the Thrust levers.

Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.

Can be cancelled by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to approximately the 30

degrees thrust lever angle.

36 The normal pressure for the Hydraulic Brake pressure indicator is

1000psi

2800psi

3000psi

WARNING SYSTEMS Multiple-choice exercise

1 NGs only: With flap 15 selected and landing gear UP, the landing gear warning horn

cannot be silenced with the HORN CUTOUT switch if

Both thrust levers are below approx 30 degrees

Either thrust lever is below 20 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust

lever is less than 34 degrees.

Either thrust lever is below 10 degrees or an engine not running and the other thrust

lever is less than 30 degrees.

2 Classics: The Take-off configuration warning is armed when on the ground and either or both Forward Thrust levers are advanced for takeoff. The Take-off warning horn sounds when

Stab trim is NOT in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are NOT in the Flaps 1 through 15 take-off range, or the leading edge FLAPS are NOT in the correct position for take-off or the speed brake is NOT in the DOWN position or the Parking Brake is set.

Stab trim is NOT in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are NOT in the

Flaps 1 through 15 take-off range, or the Parking Brake is NOT set.

Stab trim is in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are in the Flaps 1 through 15 take-off range, or the leading edge SLATS are not in the correct position for take-off or the speed brake is NOT in the DOWN position or the Parking Brake is set.

3 Classics: The landing gear warning horn will sound if either or both thrust levers are approximately in the idle position and the flaps are in the

Up through 40 position provided the aircraft in not on the ground.

1 through 10 position.

Up position.

4 Classics: The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced by the Horn Cut-Out switch, regardless of Forward Thrust lever position, when the flaps are

In the 15 position.

Greater than the 15 position.

In the 15 position or greater than the 15 position.

5 The Mach/Airspeed Aural Warning will sound when the Mach number or IAS exceeds

0.82M or 340 Knots whichever is reached first.

0.84M above 24,000 feet or 340 knots below 24,000 feet whichever is reached first.

0.84M or 320 Knots whichever is reached first.

6 The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) light illuminates

If a fault is detected in the PSEU at any time.

If an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded at any time.

Is inhibited from thrust lever advance for take-off until 30 seconds after landing.

7 EGPWS terrain display changes from dotted to solid yellow

40 - 60 seconds from impact.



8 The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when:

In flight below 2500ft RA.



734 Smart Cockpit Quizs

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Transcript of 734 Smart Cockpit Quizs