PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

1. Hookworms can cause iron deficiency anemia which is characterized as:A. Hypochromic, microcyticB. Hypochromic macrocyticC. Hyperchromic macrocyticD. Normochromic microcytic

2. Ancylostoma duodenale is characterized by the following, EXCEPT :A. the infective filariform larvae penetrates skin.B. larvae migrate through the lungs and are swallowedC. iron deficiency anemia occurs in chronic casesD. the most prevalent soil-transmitted helminth in the Philippines

3. All cestodes (tapeworms) have the following structures, EXCEPT:A. ProglottidsB. ScolexC. NeckD. Spicules

4. This tapeworm may complete its life cycle in man without the need of an intermediate host:A. Taenia soliumB. Taenia saginataC. Hymenolepis nanaD. Echinococcus granulosus

5. This tapeworm may cause cysticercosis when its eggs are ingested by man.A. Taenia soliumB. Taenia saginataC. Hymenolepis nanaD. Echinococcus granulosus

6. This tapeworm may cause a hydatid cyst in man: A. Taenia soliumB. Taenia saginataC. Hymenolepis nanaD. Echinococcus granulosus

7. A 10 year old female from Samar presents with hepatosplenomegaly. You would want to run diagnostic tests to rule out A. AscariasisB. Hydatid CystC. SchistosomiasisD. Amebiasis

8. The following areas are endemic for schistosomiasis, EXCEPT:A. Leyte, Mindoro, SamarB. Davao, Sorsogon, BukidnonC. Cebu, Pampanga, D. None of the above

9. The COPT is a diagnostic test which demonstrates the presence of antibodies against:A. Entamoeba histolyticaB. Strongyloides stercoralisC. Schistosoma japonicumD. Plasmodium spp.

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

10. A 10 year old girl from Samar presented with an enlarged abodmen. Splenomegaly was apparent and a Kato Thick Smear showed eggs with laterla knobs. This child is probably infected with: A. Taenia saginata, B. Ascaris lumbricoidesC. Trichuris trichiuraD. Schistosoma japonicum

11. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis and most trematode (fluke) infections is:A. MetronidazoleB. AlbendazoleC. NiclosamideD. Praziquantel

12. The drug of choice for taeniasis and most cestode (tapeworm) infections is:A. MetronidazoleB. AlbendazoleC. NiclosamideD. Praziquantel

13. The drug of choice for invasive amebiasis, giardiasis, and trichomoniasis is:A. MetronidazoleB. AlbendazoleC. NiclosamideD. Praziquantel

14. The recommended diagnostic test for Enterobius vermicularis (seatworm/pinworm) is :A. direct fecal smearB. Kato-Katz or Kato Thick SmearC. Formol Ether Concentration TestD. Peri-anal or Cellulose Tape Swab

15. Which of the following laboratory examinations would be the BEST step in identifying parasites responsible for chronic diarrhea:A. direct fecal smearB. examination of concentrated stools using formol-ether concentration techniqueC. examination of concentrated stools using Kato-Katz techniqueD. serology for antibody titers

16. Giardiasis can be diagnosed with the following methods, EXCEPTA. Formol Ether Concentration TestB. The string test where a ball of weighted string is ingested and pulled out to examine

trophozoitesC. ImmunofluroescenceD. Kato-Katz Smear

17. Trypanosoma cruzi is endemic in:A. East AfricaB. West AfricaC. South AsiaD. South America

18. The tse-tse flies, Glossina sp., are the vectors for A. Trypanosoma cruzi : B. Leishmania donovani : C. Leishmania spp. : D. Trypanosoma brucei

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

19. Romanas sign, a swelling of the periorbital area, may be seen in :A. Trypanosoma cruzi: B. Trypanosoma brucei : C. Leishmania donovani : D Leishmania braziliense

20. In cases of chronic diarrhea in communities where raw or inadequately cooked fish is traditionally eaten, which parasite would most likely be implicated? A. Cryptosporidium parvumB. Giardia lambliaC. Capillaria philippinensisD. Ascaris lumbricoides

21. Which of these parasites is fish-borne and causes chronic diarrhea?A. Paragonimus westermaniB. Heterophyes heterophyesC. Cryptosporidium parvumD. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

22. Which of these parasites is snail-borne and causes diarrhea?A. Angiostrongylus cantonensisB. Paragonimus westermaniC. Echinostoma ilocanumD. Capillaria philippinensis

23. In cases of chronic diarrhea with an underlying HIV infection, which parasite is most likely to be involved?A. Cryptosporidium parvumB. Giardia lambliaC. Entamoeba histolyticaD. hookworm infection

24. For which parasitic infections are repeated (periodic) chemotherapy of population groups a valid preventive and control measure?A. Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lambliaB. Taenia and EchinostomaC. Ascaris, Trichuris, Hookworms, and SchistosomaD. Capillaria philippinensis and heterophyid flukes

25. Why would Schistosoma japonicum persist despite identifying and treating all infected individuals in a community?A. Ineffective drugB. Farm and domestic animals are reservoir hosts of Schistosoma japonicumC. latent / quiescent stages are harbored in man and are eventually reactivatedD. Drug resistance

26. Autoinfection occurs in the following, EXCEPT:A. Capillaria philippinensisB. Strongyloides stercoralisC. Enterobius vermicularisD. Schistosoma japonicum

27. Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar are best differentiated by:A. stool microscopyB. stool ELISAC. stool cultureD. None of the above

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

28. Bloody diarrheea can be due to this parasitic infection:A. AscariasisB. Entamoeba histolyticaC. Giardia lambliaD. Cryptosporidium parvum

29. The following can be acquired by drinking fecally-contaminated water, EXCEPT:A. Entamoeba histolyticaB. Giardia lambliaC. Capillaria philippinensisD. Cryptosporidium parvum

30. Intestinal obstruction is a complication of :A. AscarisB. HookwormC. TrichurisD. Schistosoma

31. Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:A. AscarisB. HookwormC. TrichurisD. Taenia

32. Erratic migration into the bile duct occurs in:A. AscarisB. SchistosomaC. TrichurisD. Echinostoma

33. The stage of Enterobius vermicularis that is infective to man is :A. embryonated eggB. larvaC. adultD. cyst

34. The stages of development of Plasmodium which are responsible for malaria transmission :

A. schizontsB. ring formsC. gametocytesD. merozoites

35. The following provinces are endemic for malaria, EXCEPT:

A. PalawanB. MindoroC. SuluD. Cebu

36. As a malaria preventive measure, chemoprophylaxis is indicated for the following high risk groups EXCEPT:A. pregnant womenB. touristsC. occupationally exposed groupsD. permanent residents

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

37. As a malaria control measure, the use of Permethrin-treated mosquito nets is effective, EXCEPT:

A. in killing the larval stages of AnophelesB. in killing the adult stagesC. in repelling the adult stagesD. in preventing man-vector contact

38. The drug of choice for severe and complicated malaria is:

A. ChloroquineB. QuinineC. PrimaquineD. none of the above

39. The presence of schizonts in a P. falciparum smear indicates the following:

A. good prognosisB. bad prognosisC. no bearing in prognosisD. none of the above

40. Malabsorption and steattorhea (fatty stools) may be a clinical feature of this infection:A. Giardia lambliaB. Entamoeba histolyticaC. CryptosporidiumD. Balantidium coli

41. Strawberry cervix may be a clinical feature of this infection:

A. Giardia lambliaB. Entamoeba histolyticaC. CryptosporidiumD. Trichomonas vaginalis

42. Tse-tse fly is the vector for:A. Trypanosoma bruceiB. Trypanosoma cruziC. Leishmania donovaniD. Leishmania tropica

43. Skin penetration is the mode of infection of:A. EchinostomaB. SchistosomaC. TrichurisD. Paragonimus

44. The natural mode of transmission of Plasmodium is

A. blood transfusionB. congenital transmissionC. mosquito biteD. inoculation through contaminated needles

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

45. The predominant species of Plasmodium in the Philippines is

A. Plasmodium ovaleB. Plasmodium knowlesiC. Plasmodium falciparumD. Plasmodium malariae

46. The species which causes cerebral malaria is

A. P. vivaxB. P. falciparum C. P. malariaeD. P. ovale

47. The most common site in extra-intestinal amoebiasis isA. lungB. cerebral hemisphere C. Right lobe of the liverD. Left lobe of liver

48. The infective stage of this nematode is a larval stage, EXCEPT:

A. hookwormsB. Capillaria philippinensisC. Strongyloides stercoralisD. Trichuris trichiura

49. The following statements are true regarding Capillaria philippinensis, EXCEPT:A. The intermediate host is a fishB. The natural definitive host is most probably migratory birdsC. Diarrhea, abdominal pain and borborygmi compose the clinical triad of capillariasis.D. The infective stage is the embryonated egg

50. The main pathology in schistosomiasis is:

A. obstruction of blood vesselsB. liver failureC. granuloma formation around eggsD. toxemia

51. The habitat of the adult Schistosoma japonicum is the:

A. liverB. brainC. mesenteric veinsD. small intestines

52. Most common cause of death in chronic schistosomiasis is:

A. anoxiaB. bleeding esophageal varicesC. liver failureD. sepsis

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

53. The following statements are true regarding paragonimiasis and TB:

A. Chest X-ray can differentiate one from the otherB. Ziehl Neilsen smear can diagnose both paragonimiasis and TBC. Clinical manifestations (chronic cough, hemoptysis) are similarD. The drugs of choice are similar

54. The following statements are true regarding transmission of Paragonimus, EXCEPT:A. The infective stage is found in the muscles and gills of the mountain crab.B. The crab is commonly eaten inadequately cookedC. The ova are expelled only in fecesD. Snails serve as first intermediate hosts.

55. Cholangiocarcinoma is associated with:

A. Opistorchis spp.B. Fasciola hepaticaC. Fasciolopsis buskiD. Echinostoma ilocanum

56. The best time to collect blood to diagnose bancroftian filariasis:

A. between 10 am and 2 pmB. between 10 pm and 2 amC. between 10 am and 2 amD. between 10 pm and 2 pm

57. The pathology caused by adult Ascaris include the following EXCEPT:

A. intestinal obstructionB. cholecystitisC. volvulusD. pneumonitis

58. Clinical manifestations of angiostrongylosis may be any of the following EXCEPT:

A. asthmaB. impairment of memoryC. disorientationD. incoherence

59. Which of the following preventive measures are specific for strongyloidiasis and hookworm infection?A. avoidance of eating raw meatB. use of protective shoes and glovesC. hygienic personal habitD. boiling water

60. One of the following is not true about the seatworm (Enterobius):

A. eggs undergo development in the soilB. eggs can infect man via inhalationC. parasite exhibits familial tendencyD. parasite may cause eczematous perianal lesions

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

61. Respiratory symptoms can be observed in the following conditions, EXCEPT:A. AscariasisB. NecatoriasisC. StrongyloidiasisD. Trichuriasis

62. The trematode which is transmitted by skin penetration of infective cercariaA. Fasciola hepaticaB. Clonorchis sinensisC. Echinostoma ilocanumD. Schistosoma japonicum

63. Granuloma formation and subsequent fibrosis around schistosome eggs result in the following EXCEPT:A. portal hypertensionB. hepatosplenomegalyC. portosystemic collateral circulationD. intestinal fistulas

64. Relapse which is caused by reactivation of hypnozoites is present in the following Plasmodial species:

A. P. falciparumB. P. malariaeC. P. vivaxD. P. cynomolgi

65. Malignant tertian fever is present in the following Plasmodial species:

A. P. vivaxB. P. falciparumC. P. malariaeD. P. ovale

66. The following mechanisms cause severe malarial anemia EXCEPT:

A. post - schizogonic mechanical destruction of RBCsB. complement- mediated lysis of RBCsC. immune-mediated depression of erythropoiesisD. severe blood loss

67. The vector for malaria in the Philippines:A. Aedes aegyptiB. Anopheles flavoristrisC. Culex sp.D. Mansonnia sp.

68. Quartan malaria is characterized by a 72-hour (3-day) cycle of fever, chills and sweating. This is caused by:A. Plasmodium ovaleB. Plasmodium malariaeC. Plasmodium falciparumD. Plasmodium vivax

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

69. The flask-shaped ulcer is the characteristic lesion of this protozoan:

A. Giardia lambliaB. Entameba histolyitcaC. Blastocystis hominisD. Cryptosporidium parvum

70. The species of ameba which causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is:A. AcanthamebaB. NaegleriaC. Entameba histolyticaD. Endolimax nana

71. In communities of high socio- economic status, food borne amebiasis is transmitted through:

A. inadequate cooking of foodB. mechanical vectorsC. food handlers who are asymptomatic cyst passersD. inadequate washing of fruits and vegetables

72. Barbers-pole is one of the diagnostic features of:

A. Trichinella spiralisB. Capillaria philippinensisC. Angiostrongylus cantonensisD. Strongyloides stercoralis

73. Man acquires infection with Trichinella spiralis by:

A. ingestion of half-cooked meat containing encysted larvaeB. ingestion of green leafy vegetables contaminated with human fecesC. ingestion of fresh water fish, raw or half cookedD. skin penetration by filariform larvae

74. Trichinosis in man can be diagnosed by the following EXCEPT:

A. stool examinationB. biopsy of superficial skeletal muscleC. Bentonite flocculation test (BFT)D. Fluorescent antibody test

75. Chicleros ulcer, usually found in the ear lobe, may be seen in :A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma brucei C. Leishmania donovani D. Leishmania braziliense

76. Winterbottoms sign, a swelling of posterior cervical nodes, may be seen in :A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma brucei C. Leishmania donovani D. Leishmania braziliense

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

77. Espundia, a form of mucocutaneous ulcer, may be seen in :A. Trypanosoma cruziB. Trypanosoma brucei C. Leishmania donovani D. Leishmania braziliense

78. Kala azar is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the skin and splenomegaly with amastigotes found in the involved organs. The protozoan that causes this is: A. Leishmania mexicanusB. Leishmania tropicanaC. Leishmania braziliensisD. Leishmania donovani

79. Hydrocoele is most likely caused by : A. Wuchereria bancroftiB. Brugia malayiC. Onchocerca volvulusD. Mansonella sp.

80. Nocturial periodicity is demonstrated by : A. Wuchereria bancroftiB. Brugia malayiC. Onchocerca volvulusD. Mansonella sp.

81. Confluent body nuclei is characterstic of : A. Wuchereria bancroftiB. Brugia malayiC. Onchocerca volvulusD. Mansonella sp.

82. The large intestine is the natural habitat of this adult worm : A. Ascaris lumbricoidesB. Trichuris trichiuraC. Ancylostoma duodenaleD. Necator americanus

83. Which is true concerning cutaneous larva migrans:A. Man is the natural definitive hostB. Man is an accidental hostC. Man is a paratenic hostD. Man is a reservoir host

84. Rectal prolapse can occur with this infection : A. Ascaris lumbricoidesB. Trichuris trichiuraC. Ancylostoma duodenaleD. Necator americanus

85. Perianal itching is a manifestation of infection with : A. Enterobius vermicularisB. Trichuris trichiuraC. Ascaris lumbricoidesD. Necator americanus

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

86. The lungs are the natural habitat of this adult worm : A. Paragonimus westermaniB. Echinostoma ilocanumC. Heterophyes D. Opistorchis

87. Larvae pass through the lungs for all of these worms, EXCEPT : A. Ascaris lumbricoidesB. Trichuris trichiuraC. Ancylostoma duodenaleD. Necator americanus

88. These parasites can all cause significant anemia, EXCEPT: A. Ascaris lumbricoidesB. Trichuris trichiuraC. Ancylostoma duodenaleD. Plasmodium falciparum

89. These parasites can involve the heart, EXCEPT : A. HeterophyesB. Trypanosoma cruziC. Trypanosoma bruceiD. Haplorchis sp.

90. These parasites have obligate intracellular stages, EXCEPT : A. Entamoeba histolyticaB. Cryptosporidium parvumC. Plasmodium falciparumD. Leishmania sp.

91. The species of ameba which can cause keratitis is:A. AcanthamebaB. NaegleriaC. Entameba histolyticaD. Endolimax nana

92. The following molecules are associated with the virulence of E. histolytica, EXCEPT:A. lectinB. cystein proteaseC. amebaporeD. excretions / secretions

93. In the circumoval precipitin test (COPT), the specimen to be collected from the patient is:A. fecesB. urineC. whole bloodD. anticoagulated blood

94. The stage of the filaria parasite which is responsible for chronic deforming disease is:A. AdultB. microfilariaC. L1D. L3

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PARASITOLOGYPhysicians Licensure ExaminationJune 3, 2009; 1:00pm- 5:00pm

95. Man is an accidental host of the following parasites, EXCEPT:A. Raillietina garissoniB. Dipylidium caninumC. Hymenolepis nanaD. Taenia sagniata

96. The following statements are true of animal hookworms, EXCEPT:A. They do not develop into adult stage in manB. They produce respiratory symptoms in manC. They produce serpiginous lesions on human skinD. They are provided with definite dentition

97. A 4-year old boy had skin lesions which showed burrowing tracks in the skin and intense itching in the affected area. Application of lindane resulted in improvement. The lesions were most probably due to: A. dermatophytosisB. sporotrichosisC. tinea versicolorD. scabies

98. The infective stage of Ascaris and Trichuris is the :A. rhabditiform larvaB. filariform larvaC. embryonated eggD. feritilized egg.

99. An 18 year old female complained of vaginal discharge. A smear of the discharge showed a pear-shaped, flagellated organism. This pathogen is: A. Neisseria gonorhea, B. Trichomonas vaginalisC. Chlamydia trachomatisD. Candida albicans

100.The reduviid or kissing bugs are vectors for :A. American trypanosomiasisB. African trypanosomiasisC. Visceral leishmaniasisD. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

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