2004 Biology NQE Questions

5/24/2018 2004 Biology NQE Questions

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BIOLOGY

2004 National Qualifying Examination

Time Allowed:

Reading Time: 15 minutesExamination Time: 120 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS

Apportion your time for answering the questions appropriately.

SECTION A Answer all questions.Use the Multiple Choice answer sheet provided.

You may use a pencil or pen to mark the answer sheet provided.

SECTION B Answer all questions.Use the Multiple Choice answer sheet provided.

You may use a pencil or pen to mark the answer sheet provided.

SECTION C Q76 is to be answered on the supplied answer sheet.Q77, Q78, Q79 and Q80 are to be answered on your own ruled paper.

Use a black or blue pen do notuse a pencil.

Ensure that your name and school appears on each page of your answers.

You are not permitted to refer to books or notes during the examination. The only permitted aid is anon-programmable calculator.

Secure your answers with a paper clip.

DO NOT STAPLE OR FOLD THE MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWER SHEETS.

v

MARKS

SECTION A 50 multiple choice questions 75 marks

SECTION B 25 multiple choice statements 20 marks

SECTION C 5 questions 25 marks

Total marks for the paper 120 marks

Australian Science Olympiads Incorporated 2004


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Australian Science Olympiads BIOLOGY 2004 National Qualifying Examination

SECTION AUse the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Provided

Q1Consider a cell that has a nucleus and a chitin cell wall but has no chloroplasts. The cell is most likelyto be

A. a bacterial cell.

B. an algal cell.

C. an animal cell.

D. a fungal cell.

E. a cell from a vascular plant.

Q2 Animals and plants compete for resources in order to survive and reproduce. Which of the following is

NOTa resource?

A. Food.B. Nesting sites.

C. Water.

D. Space.

E. Temperature.

Q3 Food vesicles formed from phagocytosis fuse with

A. ribosomes.

B. lysosomes.

C. the Golgi apparatus.

D. the nucleus.

E. mitochondria.

Q4 Which of the following is NOTa function of the animal skeleton?

A. Mineral storage.

B. Support.

C. Protection of vital organs.

D. Production of blood cells.

E. Detoxification of poisons.

Q5 Which of the following adaptations would be most the beneficial for a mammal living in an extremely

cold environment?

A. Small surface area to volume ratio.

B. Nocturnal feeding patterns.

C. Highly vascularised ears.

D. Long, flexible tail.

E. Sparse, dark fur.

Q6 Which of the following elements is common to all proteins and nucleic acids?

A. Sulphur.

B. Iron.

C. Magnesium.D. Nitrogen.

E. Phosphorus.

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Q7 The production of vinegar, wine and beer relies on which of the following microorganisms?

A. Bacteria.

B. Viruses.

C. Protists.

D. Algae.

E. Yeast.

Q8 Motion of which of the following is NOTcontrolled by smooth muscle?

A. Eye ball.

B. Arteriole.

C. Small intestine.

D. Stomach.

E. Bile duct.

Q9 Which of the following organs or systems of flowering plants is closest in function to the mammalian

bloodstream?

A. Roots.

B. Xylem.

C. Phloem.

D. Seed.

E. Leaf.

Q10 Which of the following is NOTfound in both plant and animal cells?

A. Plastids.

B. Vesicles.

C. Golgi apparatus.D. Cytoskeleton.

E. Ribosomes.

Q11 Consider the following experiment: A developing wheat grain was cut into thin sections, stained with

iodine and viewed under a microscope. Structures that stained black with the iodine were then clearly

visible. These structures were most likely to be

A. protein bodies.

B. starch granules.

C. oil bodies.

D. nuclei.

E. mitochondria.

Q12 Which of the following is NOTa distinguishing feature of mammals?

A. Mammary glands.

B. Hairs and sweat glands.

C. Endothermy.

D. Enlarged sternum (breast bone).

E. A four-chambered heart.

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Q13 What type of lipid does this diagram represent?

OH

OH

A. Phospholipid.

B. Triacylglyceride.

C. Steroid.

D. Fatty acid.

E. Lipoprotein.

Q14 Which of the following is a genetically inherited disorder?

A. Malaria.

B. HIV-AIDS.

C. Meningitis.

D. Cystic fibrosis.

E. Influenza.

Q15 Which of the following groups are all Monocotyledon plants?

A. Lily, rose, daisy.

B. Oak, maple, pine tree.

C. Tomato, apple, cherry.

D. Wheat, corn, rice.E. Coconut, banana, apple.

Q16 Mimicry is used by some insects to

A. blend into their environments.

B. trick predators into thinking that they are unpalatable or poisonous.

C. lure and then kill their prey.

D. appear attractive to mates.

E. prevent infection by parasites.

Q17 Which of the following does NOTaffect enzyme activity?

A. pH.

B. Temperature.

C. Solute concentration.

D. Substrate concentration.

E. All of the options above affect enzyme activity.

Q18 Which of the following is NOTa function that is typically performed by proteins?

A. Transportation of molecules.

B. Structural support for the cell.

C. Storage of excess sugar in the diet.D. Increasing the rate of biochemical reactions.

E. Identification and destruction of foreign particles.

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Q19 The diagram below represents an animal cell in the first stage of meiosis.

What is the diploid (2n) number of this animal?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

E. 16

Q20 Which of the following stimulates contraction in a muscle cell?

A. Release of water from the cell.

B. An increase in the cytoplasmic Ca2+

concentration.

C. High concentrations of ATP.

D. An influx of H+into the endoplasmic reticulum.

E. A decrease in the lactic acid concentration of the cell.

Q21 The platypus and the echidna both belong to the order Monotremata. This means that they belong to

the same

A. species.B. family.

C. genus.

D. class.

E. race.

Q22 Which of the following best facilitates the absorptive nutrition of multicellular fungi?

A. Production of spores.

B. Parasitic relationship with hosts.

C. Large surface area to volume ratio.

D. Chitin cell wall.

E. Multinucleated cells.

Q23 Which of the following correctly matches the types of RNA molecules with their descriptions?

Carries the information for the

synthesis of one or more proteins

Binds to an amino acid and guides it to

the correct position on the ribosome

A. transfer RNA messenger RNA

B. ribosomal RNA messenger RNA

C. messenger RNA transfer RNA

D. messenger RNA ribosomal RNA

E. ribosomal RNA transfer RNA

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Q24 In order to test the fertility of his soil, a farmer set up the following experiment: One paddock of wheat

was grown without fertiliser (control), one with nitrogen fertiliser added (+ N), one with phosphorus

fertiliser added (+ P) and one with nitrogen and phosphorus fertilisers added (+ N and + P). The graph

below shows the biomass of the wheat paddocks at four points during the growing season.

250Control

+ N200

Which of the following is true for this experiment?

A. Neither nitrogen nor phosphorus were limiting in the soil.

B. Phosphorus was the first limiting nutrient followed by nitrogen.

C. Nitrogen was the first limiting nutrient followed by phosphorus.

D. Nitrogen was limiting but phosphorus was not limiting.

E. Phosphorus was limiting but nitrogen was not limiting.

Q25 The removal of the apical bud from a plant often results in the growth of two or more nearby lateralbuds. Which of the following plant hormones is produced by the apical bud and is responsible for the

inhibition of lateral bud growth?

A. Auxin.

B. Cytokinin.

C. Gibberellin.

D. Abscisic acid.

E. Ethylene.

Q26 Which of the following symptoms would be shown bya person who could NOTproduce the hormone

glucagon?

A. Low blood sugar level; frequent dizzy spells and fainting.

B. High blood sugar level; sugar found in the urine.

C. Low blood sugar level; damage to eyes, kidneys and peripheral tissues.

D. Normal blood sugar level; lethargy and tiredness.

E. High blood sugar level; damage to liver and kidneys.

Q27 Cells in the G2phase of the cell cycle

A. have undergone DNA replication and cell division.

B. have undergone DNA replication but not cell division.

C. have undergone cell division but not DNA replication.D. will divide uncontrollably.

E. will never undergo cell division.

0

50

100

150

August September October November

TotalBiomass

(tonnesperhectare)

+ P

+ N and + P

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Q28 The following pedigree shows the inheritance of a genetically inherited muscle disorder. Coloured

shapes represent affected individuals.

What is the most likely mode of inheritance of this disorder?

A. Autosomal dominant.

B. Autosomal recessive.

C. X-linked dominant.D. X-linked recessive.

E. Maternal inheritance.

Q29 Commensalism is a relationship between two different species where one member benefits and the

other is unaffected. Which of the following is an example of commensalism?

A. Nitrogen fixing bacteria living in the root nodules of a legume plant.

B. A caterpillar feeding on a leaf.

C. A tapeworm living in the intestine of a pig.

D. An epiphyte, such as an orchid, growing on the branch of a tree.

E. A pollinating insect visiting a flower.

Q30 In a good experiment, there is a control sample and there are test samples which have different

treatments applied to them. In an experiment that only requires one control sample, this control would

have

A. the same conditions as the test samples except only one of the treatments is applied.

B. the same conditions as the test samples and all of the treatments applied.

C. different treatments to the test samples but otherwise the same conditions.

D. the same conditions as the test samples except none of the treatments are applied.

E. the same treatments as the test samples but using the full range of values of each treatment.

Q31 A segment of a template DNA strand is shown below:

5 CGCGTAAACAGT 3

The corresponding mRNA strand would be

A. 5 GCGCAUUUGUCA 3.

B. 5 ACUGUUUACGCG 3.

C. 5 TGACAAATGCGC 3.

D. 5 CGCGTAAACAGT 3.

E. None of the above are correct.

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For questions 32 and 33, refer to the following information.

Consider two microbial strains,AandB, that were isolated from a wetland region in Victoria and later

cultured in a laboratory. The following information is an extract from the laboratorys fact sheet:

Microbe A Microbe B

Nucleic acid: RNA and DNA

Nucleus: Absent

Mitochondria: Absent

Outer surface: Thin cell wall

Replication: Binary fission

Nucleic acid: RNA and DNA

Nucleus: Present

Mitochondria: Present

Outer surface: Cell membrane

Replication: Mitosis

Q32 Which of the following accurately classifiesMicrobe AandMicrobe B?

Microbe A Microbe B

A. Bacterium Protist

B. Virus Bacterium

C. Bacterium Bacterium

D. Yeast Protist

E. Virus Yeast

Q33 An antimicrobial substance was tested on the microbes and found to inhibit the growth of cultures of

bothMicrobe AandMicrobe B. Which of the following is the most likely target of the anti-microbial

substance?

A. Centromeres.

B. Peptidoglycan cell walls.

C. RNA.D. Mitochondria.

E. The cytoskeleton.

Q34 Several butterfly species found in southern Australia have dusky black and brown patches on their

wings. This feature is most likely to be an adaptation to

A. confuse potential predators as to the location of the head.

B. attract mates.

C. increase the butterflys field of vision.

D. focus light and heat on the flight muscles.

E. act as camouflage on mottled surfaces.

Q35 Which of the following statements about neurons is/are true?

I Neurotransmitters are chemicals released by dendrites.

II Neurons can only make connections with one or two other neurons.

III Nerve impulses rely on the opening and closing of ion channels.

IV Within a neuron, information moves from the dendrite to the cell body to the axon.

A. I only.

B. I and III only.

C. III and IV only.

D. I, II and III only.

E. II, III and IV only.

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Q36 The following graph shows the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen at three different pH levels.

100

Oxygensaturationofhaemo

globin(%)

90

80

706050

40 pH 7.3

pH 7.430

pH 7.520

100

0 20 40 60 80 100 Relative oxygen concentration (%)

During periods of rigorous exercise, lactic acid is produced by the muscles. What effect will this have on

haemoglobin in the muscles compared to normal physiological conditions (pH 7.4)?

A. Haemoglobin will have a higher affinity for oxygen.

B. Haemoglobin will have a lower affinity for oxygen.

C. Haemoglobin will have the same affinity for oxygen.

D. Haemoglobin will have a higher affinity for oxygen at very low and very high oxygen

concentrations only.

E. Haemoglobin will have a lower affinity for oxygen at very low and very high oxygen

concentrations only.

Q37 Complete the following: When DNA molecules are analysed by gel electrophoresis, they will migratetowards the ______ electrode. Small DNA molecules will migrate ______ large DNA molecules.

A. positive; slower than

B. positive; faster than

C. negative; slower than

D. negative; faster than

E. negative; at the same speed as

Q38 Leaf structures typically found in C4plants but NOTin C3plants are

A. cells packed in sheaths around leaf vascular bundles.

B. stomata.

C. palisade mesophyll.

D. sharp spines.

E. epidermal cells covered by a waxy cuticle.

Q39 Which of the following is the correct path of water through a plant?

A. Root hairs xylem phloem endodermis.

B. Cuticle xylem endodermis root hairs.

C. Root hairs cuticle xylem stomata.

D. Root hairs phloem stomata xylem.

E. Root hairs endodermis xylem stomata.

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Q40 A longitudinal section of a plant stem was examined under the microscope and found to contain

hollow cells with thickened cell walls. These cells are most likely to be

A. companion cells.

B. parenchyma cells.

C. epithelial cells.

D. xylem vessels.

E. mesophyll cells.

Q41 Pepsin is an enzyme found in the acidic environment of the stomach. It cleaves polypeptides into

smaller peptides by hydrolysing (adding H2O to) peptide bonds, the bond formed between a carboxyl

group and an amino group. Below are structural formulas of a generic amino acid and a segment of a

polypeptide.

C

C

N

H

O OH

RH

H

Carboxyl

group

1 2 3 4 5

CCN

O

R

H

H

N C C N C C

H

R

H

R

O O

H HAmino

group

Structural formula of a

polypeptide segmentStructural formula of

an amino acid

Which bond in the polypeptide (1, 2, 3, 4, or 5) does pepsin hydrolyse?

A. 1B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q42 The sodium-potassium (Na+/K

+) pump is an important component of all animal cells. In each cycle, it

pumps 3 Na+out of the cell and 2 K

+into the cell.

Na+/K+pump

Extracellular fluidIntracellular fluid

3 Na+

2 K+

If the Na+/K

+pumps of the above cell are hyperactive, which of the following is/are true?

I. More Na+will diffuse out of the cell than K+.

II. The intracellular K+concentration would increase.

III. The intracellular side of the cell membrane will become less positive.

A. I only.

B. II only.

C. I and II only.D. II and III only.

E. I, II and III.

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Q43 The following graph shows the rabbit density and annual rainfall in a region of Southern Queensland

from 1958 to 1972. The rabbit myxoma virus was introduced in this region in 1960.

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

1958 1960 1962 1964 1966 1968 1970 1972

Year

Rabbitdensity(no.

/km

2)

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

900

Annualrainfall(mm)

rainfall

rabbit density

Myxoma virus

introduced

What is the most likely explanation for the change in rabbit density over this period?

A. Drought killed most of the rabbits between 1960 and 1964 after which the environmental

conditions improved.

B. The fox population increased due to years of high rainfall, killing most of the rabbits. As the

rabbit numbers decreased, the foxes began to starve and the rabbit population increased again.

C. The myxoma virus killed most of the rabbits but a small number of individual rabbits acquired

resistance to the virus and passed this trait on to their offspring.

D. The myxoma virus killed most of the rabbits but a small number were naturally resistant and

passed this trait on to their offspring.

E. The myxoma virus initially killed most of the rabbits but lost its potency over the years due to an

accumulation of deleterious mutations.

Q44 Which of the following could result in negative feedback of enzyme activity?

A. A substrate molecule binding to the active site on the enzyme.

B. A lack of substrate available for catalysis.

C. A product molecule binding to an allosteric site on the enzyme.

D. The product of a reaction destroying the enzyme.

E. The binding of a cofactor to the enzymes active site.

Q45 Diatomic oxygen (O2) is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis. What is the source of

these oxygen atoms?

A. Carbon dioxide molecules (CO2).

B. Water molecules (H2O).

C. Glucose molecules (C6H12O6).

D. Nitrate ions (NO32-

).

E. Ozone molecules (O3).

Q46 Which of the following statements about ATP is NOTtrue?

A. An ATP molecule consists of an adenine base, a ribose sugar and three phosphate groups.

B. Removal of the third phosphate group by hydrolysis results in the release of energy.

C. ATP is formed during the light reactions of photosynthesis.D. ATP is required for muscle contraction in animals.

E. ATP synthesis always requires oxygen.

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Q47 Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is correct?

A. Spores are produced by the fusion of two haploid gametes.

B. Progeny are genetically identical to their parents.

C. Diploid gametes are produced by mitosis.

D. Fertilisation results in the formation of a diploid zygote.

E. Both male and female gametes are diploid.

Q48 Consider three independently-assorting genes in humans: A, B and C. What is the probability that a

mother of genotype AaBBCc and a father of genotype AAbbCc will produce a child of genotype

AABbcc?

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 1/8

D. 1/16

E. 1/64

For questions 49 and 50, refer to the following information.

Presented below is a set of graphs, which illustrate the relationships between blood pressure and the factors

that can influence it. Analyse the graphs to answer the following questions.

Blood Pressure vs Cardiac Output Cardiac Output vs Peripheral Resistance Blood Flow vs Peripheral Resistance

Card iac Output

Blo

odPressure

Peripheral Resistance

Ca

rdiacOutput

Peripheral Resistance

B

loodFlow

Q49 According to graphs, which of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure?

A. Decrease in cardiac output.

B. Increase in peripheral resistance.

C. Decrease in blood flow.

D. Increase in peripheral resistance and decrease in blood flow.

E. Decrease in peripheral resistance.

Q50 From the graphs, which of the following is correct if blood flow is increased?

Peripheral Resistance Cardiac Output Blood Pressure

A. Decrease Decrease Decrease

B. Increase Increase Increase

C. Decrease Increase Increase

D. Increase Decrease Increase

E. Decrease Increase Decrease

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SECTION BUse the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Provided

Complete each statement with option A, B or C on the answer sheet provided. For each statement, 0.8 marks

are provided for a correct answer. No marks are deducted for an incorrect answer.

Statement

A.appears to have a 4 mm diameter.

B.appears to have a 4 cm diameter.Q51. At 400x magnification, a cell with a 10 m diameter

C.appears to have a 40 cm diameter.

A.above pH 7.

B.at pH 7.Q52. Bacteria isolated from a human small intestine grow best

C.below pH 7.

A.increase internode growth.

B.decrease internode growth.Q53. The addition of gibberellic acid to seedlings will

C.have no affect on internode growth.

A. increase in number.

B. decrease in number.Q54.In the lag phase of bacterial culture growth, live cells

C.do not change in number.

A.increase the resolution of the image.

B.decrease the resolution of the image.Q55. Increasing the magnification of a microscope will

C.have no affect on the resolution.

A. 15 g of lysine is added to 1 L water.

B. 37.5 g of lysine is added to 1 L water.Q56. To make a 200 mM solution of lysine (Mw = 75)

C. 75 g of lysine is added to 1 L water.

A.where the species are evolving.

B.with the greatest number of individuals.Q57. A community with the greatest diversity is the one

C.with the greatest number of species.

A.a higher degree of water retention.

B.a lower degree of water retention.Q58.Compared to clay-based soils, sandy soils have

C.the same degree of water retention

A.hydrophobic regions.

B. charged regions.Q59.Detergents are able to dissolve fats because they have

C.both hydrophobic and charged regions.

A. as bunches of spherical cells.

B.as strings of spherical cells.Q60.Viewed under a microscope, staphylococci bacteria appear

C.as individual spherical cells.

A. towards the light.

B.away from the light.Q61.A coleoptile (seedling) with its tip removed will grow

C.independently of the light direction.

A.2 106m

-1.

B.3 106m

-1.

Q62.A cuboidal cell whose side length is 3 m will have a

surface area to volume ratio of

C. 4 106m-1.

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Statement

A.right ventricle of the heart.

B.left atrium of the heart.Q63.After leaving the lungs capillaries, blood next enters the

C.aorta.

A. accumulate radioactivity in proteins.B.accumulate radioactivity in lipids.Q64. Plants grown in a solution containing radiolabeled

35SO4

2-

C.do not accumulate radioactivity.

A. stain violet.

B.stain red.Q65.At the completion of Gram staining, Gram negative bacteria

C.do not stain.

A.fish.

B.mammals.Q66.Uric acid is the main metabolic waste secreted by

C.birds.

A.has the same specificity as the 1st

stain.B.is a different colour to the 1

ststain.Q67.One feature of a useful counter-stain is that it

C.binds to the 1ststain.

A.more energy than sugars.

B.less energy than sugars.Q68. On a weight for weight basis, fats contain

C.the same amount of energy as sugars.

A. acts as a negative control.

B.acts as a positive control.Q69. In the testing of a new pharmaceutical, the placebo group

C.is not a control.

A. increase oxygen levels.B.decrease oxygen levels.Q70. A blue-green algae bloom in a river system would

C.not affect oxygen levels.

A.only grow in the host species.

B.be found in all diseased individuals.Q71.According to Kochs postulates, the pathogen must

C.be a bacteria.

A. 180 mg per l.

B.180 g per l.Q72. A 1 mM solution of glucose (Mw = 180) is equivalent to

C.180 g per ml.

A.the Biuret test.

B.Ninhydrin reagent.Q73.The presence of proteins can be determined using

C.Benedicts solution.

A. is typically lower than in a C3plant.

B.is typically higher at than in C3plant.Q74.At high temperatures, the rate of transpiration in a C4plant

C.is the same as a C3plant.

A.binding to bacterial DNA.

B.punching holes in the cell membrane.Q75.Penicillin acts to inhibit bacterial growth by

C.inhibiting cell wall synthesis.

(20 marks)

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SECTION CQuestion 76 - Use the Answer Sheet Provided

Questions 77, 78, 79 and 80 - Use your own ruled paper

Q76 Mammals possess a variety of specific and non-specific defences to protect them from infection by

pathogenic bacteria and viruses. These defences can be classified into three general categories:

First line of defence:physical barriers and secretions that prevent pathogens from entering thebodys tissues.

Second line of defence: non-specific internal defence mechanisms.

Third line of defence: specific defence mechanisms of the immune system.

Categorise each of the following components according to the scheme below (A, B, C or D).

Component Defence category

B lymphocyte (B cell)

Nasal hair

Serum albumin

Histamine

Red blood cell

Neutrophil cell

Skin

T lymphocyte (T cell)

Lysozyme

Antibody

List of defence categories

A. First line of defence

B. Second line of defence

C. Third line of defence

D. Unrelated to defence

(5 marks)

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Q77 In field mice, there exists three separate alleles for the coat colour gene. The black colour allele (CB) is

dominant to the grey colour allele (CG). Both the black and the grey colour alleles are dominant to the

white colour allele (CW

). There is a second, unlinked gene that controls the length of the tail. For this

gene, the long tail allele (TL) is dominant to the short tail allele (T

S).

IMPORTANT: Show all workings/steps used to derive your answers. Use the nomenclature

(symbols) used the in the question in your answer.

(a) Using the symbols provided above, write all possible genotypesfor a grey mouse with a short

tail.

(1 mark)

(b) What is the phenotype(s)of the offspring from a cross between a true-breeding black, long

tailed mouse (CBC

BT

LT

L) and a true breeding white, short tailed mouse (C

WC

WT

ST

S)?

(1 mark)

(c) When a white mouse with a long tail (parent 1) is crossed with a black mouse with a short tail

(parent 2), half the offspring have black fur and half have white fur. What is the genotypeof

parent 2?(1 marks)

(d) What is the phenotypicratio of offspring from a cross between parent 2 and a grey mouse with

a long tail that is heterozygous for both genes?

(2 marks)

Q78 Describe the differences in the dentition (teeth type) and digestive tract between herbivores and

carnivores and how these differences reflect their diets.

(5 marks)

Q79 Briefly describe the structure of mitochondria and how this structure facilitates the production of

chemical energy.

(5 marks)

Q80 Briefly describe the advantages and disadvantages of r-rate (high reproductive rate) and K-rate (high

nurture) reproductive strategies. Describe an animal that uses an r-rate strategy and another animal that

uses a K-rate strategy.

(5 marks)

END OF EXAMINATION

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