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pk

1. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?(a) Wheat(b) Barley(c) Jute(d) RapeseedAns. (c)2. Blue Revolution is associated with(a) Fish(b) Milk(c) flower(d) LitmusAns. (a)3. Study the following features of farming in India:1. The farmers voluntarily pool their land together cultivation.2. They divide the produce in proportion to the land pooled.3. They forego their proprietary rights in the land.

4. They cannot withdraw their land from the pool after due notice and paying for the improvements.Which of these features belong to cooperative farming?(a) 1 and 2(b) 1 and 3(c) 2 and 4(d) 3 and 4Ans. (a)4. Which of the following states is the main producer of Tendu Leaves?(a) Orissa(b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Maharashtra(c) Uttar PradeshAns. (b)5. The largest food crop of India is(a) wheat(b) rice

(c) maize(d) gramAns. (b)6. The maximum edible oil in India is produced from(a) Rapeseed and mustard(b) Til(c) Sunflower(d) GroundnutAns. (d)7. Tobacco cultivated in Gujarat is mostly used for the manufacture of(a) beedi(b) cigarette(c) zarda(d) snuff powderAns. (a)

8. India is the largest producer of(a) tobacco(b) sugar(c) tea(d) riceAns. (c)9. Rubber plantations are located mostly in(a) Kerala and Karnataka(b) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu(c) Maharashtra and Kerala(4) West Bengal and KeralaAns. (a)

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10. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of(a) 120(b) 150(c) 200(d) 280Ans. (c)11. Self sufficiency in food, in the true sense of freedom from hunger, has not been achieved in India inspite of a more thanthree-fold rise in food grains production over 1950-1990. Which of the following are reason for it?

1. The Green Revolution has been restricted to small pockets of the country.2. The cost of food is too high compared to the earnings of the poor.3. Too much emphasis is laid on what and paddy compared to the coarse grains.4. The gains of the green revolution have largely accrued to the cash crop rather than food crops.(a) 1, 2 and 3(c) l, 3 and 4(b) 1, 2 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4Ans. (a)12. The state which is known as the Granary of India is (a) Kerala(b) U.P(c) Haryana(d) PunjabAns. (d)

13. Which of the following states is the Leading producer of tobacco?(a) Tamil Nadu(b) Karnataka(c) Maharashtra(d) Andhra PradeshAns. (c)14. Which of the following is the most important cash crop of West Bengal?(a) Tea(b) Jute(c) Arecanut(d) Coffee(e) None of theseAns. (b)15. Sowing season for kharif crop is(a) February-March(b) June -July

(c) AugustSeptember(d) October -DecemberAns. (b)16. Which one of the following crop combinations is characteristic of the upper Bhramaputra Valley?(a) Rice, Jute, Oilseeds(b) Rice, Pulses, Oilseeds(c) Rice, Tea, Oilseeds(d) Tea, Gram, JuteAns. (c)17. Which irrigation canal irrigates the portion of Thar Desert?(a) Indira Gandhi canal(b) Nangal canal(c) Western Yamuna canal(d) None of theseAns. (c)18. Which region in India is known as the Rice Bowl of India?(a) North-east region(b) Indo Gangetic plain(c) Krishna -Godavari delta(d) Kerala and Tamil NaduAns. (c)19. The highest milk producing breed of goat in India is(a) Barbari(b) Beetal(c) Jamnapari(d) Black BengalAns. (b)

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20. Which state produces maximum wheat in the country?(a) Punjab(b) U.P(c) M.P(d) RajasthanAns. (b)21. Which one of the following is not a part of the green revolution strategy?(a) Irrigation

(b) Fertilizer(c) High yielding varieties of seeds(d) Crop insuranceAns. (d)22. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?(a) Rice(b) Wheat(c) Linseed(d) BarleyAns. (a)23. Which of the following states ranks first in the production of cotton in the country?(a) Maharashtra(b) West Bengal(c Punjab(d) Gujarat

Ans. (d)24. In India, the greatest variety of flowers is found in(a) Assam(b) Kerala(c) U.P. hills(d) SikkimAns. (d)25. Bangladesh has become a leading competitor of India in the world in the field of(a) cotton(b) jute(c) tea(d) riceAns. (b)26. Which of the following is the largest livestock ( in number) in India?(a) Sheep(b) Goats

(c) Buffaloes(d) Horses and PoniesAns. (b)27. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?1. It is largely practised in Assam2 It is referred to as slash and burn technique3 in it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years(a) l, 2 and 3(b) l and 2(c) 2 and 3(d) 1 and 3Ans. (a)28. The most widely consumed cereal in India is(a) barley(b) wheat(c) rice(d) sorghumAns. (c)29. Terrace farming is widely practised in(a) Malabar coast(b) Mountain areas(c) Deserts(d) Deccan plateauAns. (b)30. Which of the following oilseed crops is grown most extensively in India?(a) Mustard(b) Linseed

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(c) Sunflower(d) GroundnutAns. (d)31. Which of the following canals is not used for irrigation?(a) Indira Gandhi Canal(b) Buckingham Canal(c) Western Yamuna Canal(d) Upper Ganga Canal

Ans. (b)32. In India, what percentage of area is covered by wheat growing regions?(a) 10%(b) 13.5%(c) l7.8%(d) 19.5%Ans. (b)33. The density of cattle population per 100 hectares of gross cropped area is the highest in(a) Uttar Pradesh(b) Bihar(c) Madhya Pradesh(d) HaryanaAns. (d)34 The maximum density of canals lies in which of the following states?(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Andhra Pradesh(c) Punjab(d) Uttar PradeshAns. (d)35. Kerala is famous for the cultivation of1. Coconut2.Black pepper3, Rubber4. Groundnut(a) l, 2 and 4(b) 2, 3 ant 4(c) l and 4(d) l, 2, and 3Ans. (d)36. In the Northern Plains of India, rice is the main crop from Bengal to eastern Uttar Pradesh, whereas inwestern Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab, wheat is the main produce. This is because

(a) in the eastern region, fine clayey soil is avail able(b) the western region remains cold during the winter season.(c) the average rainfall decreases towards the west.(d) the cultivation of rice requires cheap labour forceAns. (b)37. Jute is grown on a large scale in the delta of(a) Ganges(b) Sutlej(c) Damodar(d) IndusAns. (c)38. Indian farmers insurance against crop failure is the process of one of the major methods of risk coverage by Indianfarmers in(a) Dry farming(b) Share cropping(c) Mixed cropping(d) Relay croppingAns. (c)39. Consider the following statements:I. The Green Revolution has been limited in its spatial coverage in India.II. It has been confined mainly to Punjab, Haryana and western UttarPradesh.Of these statements,(a) both I and II are true.(b) I is true but II is false.(c) Both I and II are false.(d) I is false but II is true.Ans. (b)

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40. India has attained self sufficiency in the production of(a) coal(b) iron(c) nickel(d) manganeseAns. (d)41. The largest coal deposit in India is in(a) Godavari Valley

(b) Brahmani Valley(c) Damodar Valley(d) Satpura ValleyAns. (c)42. The headquarters of ONGC is situated at(a) Bombay(b) Delhi(c) Dehradun(d) VadodaraAns. (c)43. Numaligarh in Assam is associated with which industry(a) Oil refinery(b) Automobile(c) Cofee(4) Cooperative farming

Ans. (a)44. Mathura refinery receives crude oil from(a) Cauvery basin(b) Vadodara(c) Kandla(d) None of theseAns. (d)45. Which of the following power systems provides the highest quantity of energy in India?(a) Hydroelectric(b) Nuclear(c) Thermal(d) Wind and tidalAns. (a)46. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because(a) it has extensive dry coast(b) its coastal waters are very saline

(c) it has extensive shallow seas(d) besides producing salt from saline water it has reserves of rock saltAns. (c)47. Coking coal is found in(a) Rajasthan(b) Madhya Pradesh(c) Bihar(d) OrissaAns. (c)48. The new oil refinery in North India is going to be set up at(a) Bhatinda(b) Panipat(c) Udaipur(d) Mathura(e) UdhampurAns. (b)49. Manganese ore is abundantly found in(a) Karnataka(b) Rajasthan(c) Madhya Pradesh(d) OrissaAns. (c)50. Bombay High is famous for(a) atomic reactor(b) steel plant(c) chemical industry

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(d) petroleum depositsAns. ( d)

SAIL English paper for MT ExamFill in the Blanks with appropriate Words1. Please and Thank you are the little courtesies by which we keep the.. of life oiled and runningsmoothly.(a) river(b) garden(c) path(d) machine2. The bright colour of this shirt has. away.(a) gone(b) disappeared(c) faded(d) paled3. One major .between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to thepowers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an electionisheld.(a) conflict (b) pain(c) irritant (d) culprit4.Even a glance will reveal the mystery(a)crude(b)cursory(c) critical(d) curious5. His standard of living has. since his son joined service. (a) lifted(b) increased(c) risen

(d) heightened6. The passengers were afraid but the captain .them that there was nodanger.(a) instructed(b) advised(c) promised(d) assured7. His first failure did not him from making another attempt. (a) interfere(b) forbid(c) frighten(d) deter8. No one will .. you for having been rude to your teacher.

(a) exclaim(b) admire(c) advise(d) recommend9.The doctor .. the patient from taking certain medicines. (a) banned(b) prohibited(c) prescribed(d) proscribed10.I ..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.

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(a) think(b)regard(c) consider(d) agree

11. He didnt have the.. idea of villagers problems.(a) smallest(b)finest(c) faintest(d) feeblest12. This is a translation of the speech.(a) verbatim(b)verbal(c) literal(d) literary13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.(a) discovered(b) disclosed(c)leaked out(d) divulged

14. No man had a more ..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than Samuel Johnson.(a)arduous(b) ardent(c) animated(d) adroit15.I have often why he went to live abroad.(a) puzzled(b) wondered(c) thought(d) surprised16.He lives near a lonely of countryside.(a) piece

(b) length(c) stretch(d) section17. To nobody else did the story seem (a) contingent(b) credible(c) credulous(d) creditable18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ..the findings of the Commission.(a) objected(b) questioned(c)rejected

(d) disputed19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected .to block off the streets.(a) dykes(b) barrages(c) barricades(d) barracks20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully. the books they had been reading.(a) despised

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(b) neglected(c) shelve(d)overthrow

Answers

1D

2 C3 A4 B5 C6 D7 D8 B9 B10 c11 c12 c13 c14 b

15 b16 c17 b18 d19 c20 b

Mechanical-Engineering MT 2009A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known asA thermodynamic system B thermodynamic cycleC thermodynamic process D thermodynamic law

2. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?A volume B TemperatureC mass D energy

3. Temperature at which the volume of the gas becomes 0 is calledA absolute scale of temperature B absolute 0 temperatureC absolute temperature D none of these

4. The unit of energy in SI units is

A joule B joule metreC watt D joule/metre

5. 1 joule is equal toA 1 Nm B kNmC 10 Nm/s D 10 kNm/s

6. In an irreversible process there is aA loss of heat B no loss of heatC gain of heat D no gain of heat

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21 Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustionReciprocating engine isA higher B lowerC same D unpredictable

22 For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the rangeA 2 to 3 B 3 to 5C 16 to 18 D 18 to 22

23 Thermal efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine plant increases byA reheating B intercoolingC regenerator D all of the above

24With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbinePlant with fixed turbine inlet temperatureA decreases B increasesC first increases and then decreases D first decreases and then increases

25In two stage turbine plant, reheating after first stageA increases work ratio B decreases work ratioC does not affect work ratio D none of the above

26For a jet propulsion unit , ideally the compressor work and turbine work are

A equal B unequalC not related to each other D unpredictable27 Various kinematic pairs are given below.choose the lower pairA ball bearings B tooth gears in meshC camm and follower D crank shaft and bearing

28The relation between the number of pairs forming a kinematic chain and theNumber of links isA l=2p-2 B l=2p-3C l=2P-4 D l=2p-5

29In a reciprocating engineA crankshaft and flywheel form 2 kinematic linksB crankshaft and flywheel form 1 kinematics linksC crankshaft and flywheel do not form kinematic links

D flywheel and crankshaft separately form kinematic links

30A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism whenA none of the link is fixedB one of the links is fixedC two of the links are fixedD all of the links are fixed31 Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain?A beam engineB watts indicator mechanismC elliptical trammelsD whitworth quick return motion mechanism

32 control volumes refer to

A a fixed region in spaceB a specified massC an isolated systemD a closed system

33An isentropic process is alwaysA irreversible and adiabaticB reversible and isothermalC friction less and irreversibleD reversible and adiabatic

34Work done in a free expansion process is

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A 0B minimumC maximumD positive

35.The figure shows a pin-jointed plane truss loaded at the point M by hanging a mass of 100 kg. Themember LN of the truss is subjected to a load of?

(a) 0 Newton(b)490 Newtons in compression(c)981 Newtons in compression(d) 981 Newtons in tension36.In terms of.Poissons ratio (v) the ratio of Youngs Modulus (E) to Shear Modulus (G) of elastic materials is ?(a)2(1 + v)(b) 2(1 v)(c)(1 + v)/2(d)(1 v)/237. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 2O N. m. The torque transmitted by the gear is(a) 6.6 Nm(b) 20 Nm

(c) 40 Nm(d) 60 Nm38. The figure shows the state of stress at a certain point in a stressed body. The magnitudes of normal stresses in the xand y direction are 100 MPa and 20 MPa respectively. The radius of Mohrs stress circle representing this state of stress is

(a)120(b)80(c)60(d)40

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39.For a mechanism shown below, the mechanical advantage for the given configuration is?

(a)0(b) 0.5(c)1.0

(d)Infinity40.A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency of vibration of machine tothe natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, the transmissibility of ratio of isolation is(a)1/2(b)3/4(c)4/3(d)241. A torque of 10 Nm is transmitted through a stepped shaft as shown in figure.

The torsional stiffnesses of individual sections of lengths MN, NO and OP are 20 Nm/rad 30 Nm/rad and 60 Nmrespectively. The angular deflection between the ends M and P of the shaft is?(a) 0.5 rad

(b) 1.0 rad(c) 5.0 rad(d) 10.0 rad42.

43. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at(a)10 3 cycles(b) 10 4 cycles(c)10 6 cycles(d) 10 9 cycles44. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is(a)capillary tube(b) thermostatic expansion valve(c)automatic expansion valve(d) float valve45. During chemical de-humidification process of air(a) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity decrease(b) dry bulb temperature increases and specific humidity decreases

(c) dry bulb temperature decreases and specific humidity increases(d) dry bulb temperature and specific humidity increase46.An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2 /s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. Ifthe top.plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 rn/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocityprofile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is ?(a)0.651 x 10 -3(b) 0.651(c)6.51(d) 0.651 x 10347.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is ?(a)CH ClF2

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(b) C2 Cl 3F3(c)C2 Cl 2F4(d) C2 H2F448.

(a)x2y=0(b) 2x+y=0(c)2xy=0(d) x+2y=049. A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed, the work required for compression being 5000 kJ. During the process, heatinteraction of 2000 kJ causes the surroundings to the heated. The change in internal energy of the gas during the process is(a)7000kJ(b) 3000kJ(c)+ 3000 kJ(d) + 7000 kJ50.The compression ratio of a gas power plant cycle corresponding to maximum work output for the given temperature limitsof Tmin and Tmax will be

51.(a)10 microns(b) 20 microns(c)30 microns(d) 60 microns51.

(a) circular Interpolation clockwise(b) circular Interpolation counterclockwise(c) linear Interpolation(d) rapid feed52. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is(a) Melting and Evaporation(b) Melting and Corrosion(c) Erosion and Cavitation

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(d) Cavitation and Evaporation53. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000 A. Assuming, effective resistance to be 200micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be(a)0.2 Joule(b) 1 Joule(c)5 Joule(d) 1000 Joules54. In PERT analysis a critical activity has

(a)maximum Float(b) zero Float(c)maximum Cost(d) minimum Cost55. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively. If the exponentialsmoothing constant (a) is taken as 0.2, the forecast sales for January 2003 would be ?(a)21(b)23(c)24(d) 2756. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to(a) very high pouring temperature of the metal(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks

57. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of(a)0.25 to 0.75 percent(b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent(c)3 to 4 percent(d) 8 to 10 percent58.In the figure shown,

the relative velocity of link1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/sec. Link 2 rotates at a constant speed of 120 rpm. The magnitudeof Coriolis component of aceeleration of link 1 is(a)302 m/s2

(b)604 m/s2(c)906 m/s2(d) 1208 m/s259. The figure below shows a planar mechanism with single degree of freedom.

The instant center 24 for the given configuration is located at a position ?(a) L(b) M(c) N

(d)Infinity60.A uniform stiff rod of length 200 mm and having a weight of 300 N is pivoted at one end and connected to a spring at theother end.

For keeping the rod vertical in a stable position the minimum value of spring constant K needed is ?

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(a) 300 N/m(b) 400 N/m(c) 500 N/m(d) 1000 N/m61. In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200 N.

If the bolt used has metric threads of 4 mm pitch, the torque required for achieving the tightening force is?(a)0.7Nm(b)1.0 Nm(c)1.4 Nm(d) 2.8 Nm

GENERAL AWARENESS85. Which of the following Vedas is the oldest?

1. Samveda2. Yaju veda3. Atharva veda4. Rig veda

86. Who wrote Panchtantra?1. Bhavbhuti2. Vishnu Sharma3. Kalidasa4. Shri Harsha

87. Who was the last Guru of the Sikhs?1. Guru Govind Singh2. Guru Tegh Bahadur3. Guru Nanak Dev4. Guru Harkishan

88. Who said, Man is a social animal.1. Aristotle2. Rosseau3. Plato4. Laski

89. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling the time of Alexanders invasion?1. The Nanda Dynasty2. The Maurya Dynasty3. The Kanva Dynasty4. The Sunga Dynasty

90. The Census was introduced for the first time in India during the tenure of1. Lord Cornwallis2. Lord William Bentinck

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3. Lord Rippon4. Lord Clive

91. Who designed the National Flag of India?1. Pingly Venkaiyya2. Vallabh Bhai Patel

3. B.R. Ambedkar4. Aurobindo Ghosh

92. From which of the following state does the Tropic of cancer not pass? 1. Rajasthan2. Jharkhand3. Tripura4. Manipur

93. Which among the following is the smallest state area-wise?1. Nagaland2. Mizoram

3. Meghalaya4. Manipur

94. As per Census 2001, which one of the following states recorded the lowest growth rates of population during the periodof 1991 to 2001.

1. Andhra Pradesh2. Karnataka3. Kerala4. Tamil Nadu

95. Which of the following rivers does not form a delta?1. Ganges

2. Narmada3. Mandavi4. Mahanadi

96. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at:1. The North Pole2. The South Pole3. The Equator4. The Center of the Earth

97. Which one of the following is a land-locked country?1. Cambodia2. Thailand3. Vietnam4. Laos

98. Earthquake travels fastest in-1. Soil2. Molten Rock3. Water4. Flexible Rock

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99. Joint sitting of both the houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by1. The President of India2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha3. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha4. The Prime Minister

100. To who is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?1. The President2. The Prime Minister3. The Lok Sabha4. The Rajya Sabha

101. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:1. only the elected members of both Houses of Parliament2. only Rajya Sabha members3. all members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies4. all members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

102. Centre-State financial distribution takes place following the recommendations made by the1. Inter-State Council2. Finance Commission3. Planning Commission4. Parliament

103. Sellers market denotes a situation where1. Commodities are available at competitive rates2. Demand exceeds supply3. Supply exceeds demand4. Supply and demand are equal

104. Development means economic growth plus1. Inflation2. Deflation3. Price Stability4. Social change

105. Which of the following ports of India has a free trade zone?1. Cochin2. Mumbai3. Kandla4. Diu

106. Dual pricing implies1. Wholesale price and Retail price2. Pricing of agents and Pricing of retailer3. Price fixed by Government and Price in the open market4. Daily prices and Weekly prices

107. Sudden Death rule is associated with:

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1. Wrestling2. Hockey3. Water Polo4. Football

108. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of1. Tin2. Lead3. Zinc4. Chromium

109. The Principle on which a Jet Engine is base is:1. Theory of Angular Momentum2. Newtons third Law3. Theory of Friction4. Theory of Kinetic Energy

110. The different colours of different stars are due to the variations in -1. temperature2. pressure3. density4. radiation from them

111. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through1. glass2. vacuum3. air4. water

112. Which of the following tennis tournaments is played on Clay court?1. Australian Open2. French Open3. Wimbledon4. U.S. open

113. The instrument that measures and record the purity of milk is called:1. Hydrometer2. Hygrometer3. Lactometer4. Barometer

114. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located? 1. Tip2. Back3. Sides4. Middle

115. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing1. Cotton2. Banana3. Jute

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4. Sugar Cane

116. Which one of the following human nutrients plays an important role in the coagulation of blood?1. Calcium2. Iron3. Potassium

4. Sodium

117. Which of the following is known as first line defense for the body? 1. Antibodies2. WBC3. Nails4. Skin

118. In the case of a test tube baby1. Fertilisation takes place inside the test tube2. Development of the baby takes place inside the test tube3. Fertilization takes place outside the mothers body

4. Unfertilized egg develops inside the test tube

119. Which of the following cell organelles is the site for Protein synthesis?o Ribosomeo Mitochondriao Chloroplasto Golgi Complex

VERBAL ABILTYIn questions 120-123, the word which is opposite in meaning to the word given on the top is:

120. SPURIOUS

1. genuine2. angry3. glorious4. antique

121. ENUNCIATE1. pray2. deliver3. request4. mumble

122. RESILIENT1. pungent2. worthy3. unyielding4. insolent

123. EXPEDITE1. explore

2. obstruct3. prompt4. disburse

Instructions for Questions 124-128: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. Differentiation of the two kinds of socialization is to some extent explained by reference to the complex manpowerrequirements of the modern state. The social learning acquired through upbringing often needs to the extended because itdoes not provided for the national need in many countries for trained personnel like clerical workers technician, civil servantsand so on. In this respect secondary socialization can be regarded as complementary to primary socialization. The former,we might say, provides the individual with skills which allow him to take on specialist employment and to have a role in alarger social environment, whereas the latter allows him to be integrated into the particular social group into which he is

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born. Thus we might argue that primary socialization defined the individuals role in a small social group and enables him to identify himself as a member of his family and his local community. Secondary socialization, on the other hand provides forthe individuals role in society as a whole and enables him to identify himself as a citizen of the state. In Short, and tooversimplify, we might say that the first kind of socialization provides a sense of security and social interaction, whereas thesecond provides opportunity and the possibility of social mobility.

124. Which of the following is NOT possible through primary socialization?

1. defining individuals role in a small social group2. identifying oneself with ones family3. identifying oneself as a citizen of the state4. integrating into the local community

125. The modern state very much requires:1. primary socialization of its citizens2. many unskilled workers3. a large social environment4. specialist manpower

126. The opportunity to go up in ones profession and society is:1. derived from ones upbringing2. derived form secondary socialization3. availed through complex manpower requirements4. availed by identifying oneself with ones state

127. Secondary socialization is important in ones life because it helps one to:1. take one specialized employment

2. identify oneself with ones family3. define his role in his social group4. integrate with his community

128. Complex manpower requirements means1. man requires complex powers2. highly trained personnel are required3. acquiring power in a complex process4. power of man is required to be complex

Instructions for questions 129-133: Read the following passage and answer the questions after it. Nowadays the fine old simplicities are lost. Physicists assure us that there is no such thing as matte r and psychologistsassure us that there is no such thing as mind. This is an unprecedented occurrence.To begin with the latter some of them attempt to reduce everything that seems to the mental activity to an activity of thebody. There are however various difficulties in the way of reducing mental activity to physical activity.What we can really say on the basis of Physics itself is that what we have hitherto called out body is really as elaborate

scientific construction, not corresponding to any physical reality. The modern would be materialist, thus finds himself in acurious conceptual dilemma. Evidently we have to look for something that is neither body nor mind, out of which both canspring.The common man however thinks that material objects must certainly exist since they are evident to the senses. Thephysicists disagree as matter in motion which in motion which used to seem so unquestionable turns out to be a conceptquite inadequate for the needs of physics.

129. In the sentence To begin with the latter, some of them.. latter refers to : 1. physicists2. matter3. psychologists4. mind

130. But the philosopher was apt to reduce it usually to . Here it refers to :

o his analysis of mano the human body

o the mind of the mano idea in the mind

131. A plain man thinks that material objects exist because-1. they constitute the metaphysics2. they are real in his through process3. certain electrons and protons form them4. he can perceive them

132. Psychologists mentioned in the passage1. believe that mental activities get manifested in abnormal physical activities2. try to equate mental activity to physical activity

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3. do not accept the distinction between body and soul4. support the physicists perception of a body

133. Which of the following does the modern science support according to the passage?1. Mind the matter are necessary to organize events2. Metaphysical division of events3. The discovery of equally important mind and matter4. Mind and Soul do not exist as an entity

In questions 134-138, then word which is nearest in meaning to the word given on the top is:

134. ATROCITY1. endurance2. hatred3. brutality4. aversion

135. FORTITUDE1. enthusiasm2. bravery3. cleverness4. excitement

136. GARRULOUS1. sociable2. showy3. gourmet4. talkative

137. RESPERCUSSION1. reaction2. resistance3. repetition4. repulsion

138. SYCOPHANT1. fun-loving2. self-controlled3. benevolent4. flatterer

In questions 139-143, the key word is used in four different ways. Choose the options in which the usage of theword is NOT correct.

139. COVER1. The light was so bright that I had to cover my eyes.2. Did you see the cover of the college magazine this year?3. We took cover from the rain in a bus shelter.4. People try to avoid tax by setting up a cover to donate money to charity.

140. PUSH1. The manufacturers are really pushing this new shampoo.2. He has difficulty pushing his feelings into words.3. We should be able to move this table if we push it together.4. She pushed through the crowd saying that she was a doctor.

141. FLASH1. Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium.2. The news on Tsunami flashed around the world within minutes.3. Violence flashed in many areas of the town last night.

4. A strange through flashed through her mind.142. OPENING

1. The audience could hardly hear the opening remarks.2. I like to get out in the opening air on weekends.3. The films opening night was a huge success.4. the opening of the novel is by far its best part

143. ISSUE1. The problem came to a successful issue.2. My article appeared in the August issue of the magazine.3. The government issued a special stamp on World Health Day.4. There were problems of property as he died without any issue.

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In questions 144-146, each statement has a part missing. Choose the best option to complete the statement.

144. Of the many technological advances that took place during the 19th Century none was to have _____________ ofthe steam engine.

1. quite such enormous impact as inventing2. quite such an enormous impact as the invention3. quite such enormous an impact like inventing

4. quite such an enormous impact like invention145. One of the most ___________ which holds that America is a highly materialistic nation, a nation which exalts themoney-grubber and has a minimum of respect for things of the mind and spirit.

1. fashionable of the clichs is the one2. fashionable clichs is the one3. fashionable clich is the one4. fashionable of the clich is that

146. ____________who watch a great deal of television and also among children, who view television shortly beforebed time.

1. Among children more common sleep disturbances are2. More common sleep disturbances among children are3. sleep disturbance among children are more common4. sleep disturbance are more common among children

In questions 147-149, a sentence with two blanks is given. From the alternative pairs, select the words of whichbest completes the given sentence.

147. State hospitality extended to a visiting foreign dignitary is often used symbolically to convey ________ messages,and very often pomp and ceremony serve to _________ sharp differences.

1. subtle..mask2. loud..camouflage3. sharp..hide4. important.....accentuate

148. A number of journalist and cameramen were ______ questioned by the police when they went to cover the___________ drive of the state government.

1. deliberately..constitute2. mistakenly..discover3. inadvertently..install4. wantonly..create

149. It is _________ to try to destroy pests completely with chemical poisons, for as each new chemical pesticides isintroduced, the insects gradually become __________ to it .

Quantitative Aptitude

150. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 30minutes. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. In how much total time, the tank will be full.

o 36 minuteso 42 minuteso 46 minuteso 45 minutes

A toy was sold at a loss for Rs. 60. Had it been sold for Rs. 81, the gain would have been 3/4th of the former loss.The cost of the toy is -

o Rs. 65o Rs. 70o Rs. 81o Rs. 72

Vijay invested Rs. 50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 20%. His total income after a year was Rs. 6000. How muchdid he invest at the rate of 10%?

o Rs. 30,000o Rs. 40,000o Rs. 12,000o Rs. 20,000

Two alloys A and B contain iron in the ration 7:3. IF 25 kg of alloy A and 25 kg of alloy B are mixed to form a newalloy which contains 35% of iron, find the amount of iron in alloy B.

o 15 kg

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o 7.8 kgo 8.7 kgo 18.2 kg

Two trains 121 m and 99 m long, are running in opposite directions at speeds of 40 km/hr and 32 kg/hrrespectively. In what time will they completely clear each other form the moment they meet?

o 7 secondso 9 seconds

o 10 secondso 11 seconds

The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first two years, 6% per annum for the next 4 yearsand 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 year. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of 9 years is Rs.1120, what is the sum?

o Rs. 1500o Rs. 2000o Rs. 2500o Rs. 4000

A soldier ascends a greased pole 36 meters high. He ascends 3 metres in first minute and descends 1 metre insecond minute. He again ascends 3 meters in third minute and descends 1 metre in fourth minute and so on. In how muchtime will he reach to top?

o 36 minuteso 33 minutes

o minutes

o minutesThe current of a stream runs at 1 km.hr. A motor boat goes 35km upstream and is back again to the starting point

in 12 hours. The speed of motorboat in still water is:

o 6 km/hro 7 km/hro 8 km/hro 8.5 km/hr

The average age of a couple (a husband and wife) was 23 years when they were married 5 years ago. Theaverage age of the husband, the wife and a child, who was born during the interim period, is 20 years now. What is thepresent age of the child?

Kripal, Vinay and Apoorva went for lunch to a restaurant. Kripal had Rs. 100 with him, Vinay had Rs. 104 and

decided to give a tip of Rs. 16. They further decided to share to total expenses in the ratio of the amounts of money eachcarried. The amount of money which Kripal paid more than what Apporva paid is

o Rs. 120o Rs. 200o Rs. 60o Rs. 36

Two merchants each sell an article for Rs. 1000. If merchants A computes his profit on cost price, while merchantB computes his profit on selling price, they end up making profits of 25% respectively. By how much is the profit made bymerchant B greater than that of merchant A?

o Rs. 66.67o Rs. 50o Rs. 125o Rs. 200

What is the greatest value of a positive integer n such that 3n is a factor of 1818?

o 15o 18o 30o 33

If x+y=5; x+z=7 and y+z=12, then the value of x+y+z=?

o 12o 2o 5o 24

What is the remainder when 3x22x2y-13xy2+10y3 is divided by (x-2y)?

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o 0o yo x+yo x+2y

At a certain ice cream parlor, customers can choose from among five different ice cream flavors and can chooseeither a sugar cone or a waffle cone. Considering both ice cream flavor and cone types, how many distinct triple-scoopcones with three different ice cream flavors are available?

o 12o 16o 20o 24

If a straight line y = ax+b passes through (2,1) and (-1,0), then ordered pair (a,b) is:

o (3, -1)

oo (-1,3)o (3,3)

If ABCD is a quadrilateral such that its diagonals AC and BC intersect at O to form four triangles equal in area .Then ABCD must be a:

o parallelogramo Rectangleo Squareo All of the above

The chords AP and AQ of a circle of radius 6 cm are at a distance 3cm and respectively from the centre Oof the circle, then the area of the smaller sector POQ is :

o 24 p cm2o 21 p cm2o 15 p cm2o 12 p cm2

On the xy-coordinate plane, points A and B both lie on the circumference of a circle whose center is O, and thelength of AB equals the circles diameter. If the (x,y) coordinates of O are (2,1) and the (x,y) coordinates of B are (4,6), whatare the (x,y) coordinates of A?

o

o

o

oABCD is a square, each of side of which is 2 cm. Taking AB and AD as axes, the equation of the circle

circumscribing the square is :

o x2+y2 = (x+y)o x2+y2 = 2(x+y)o x2+y2 = 4o x2+y2 = 16

If a is the length of the base and b the height of a right angled triangle hypotenuse of which is h and if the valuesof a and b are positive integers, which of the following cannot be a value of the square of the hypotenuse?

o 13o 23o 37o 41

The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 30 ft long and that of the back wheel is 36 ft long. What is thedistance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?

200 ft

250 ft

750 ft

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900 ft

172. Four circular card-board pieces; each of radius 7 cm are placed in such a way that each piece touches two otherpieces. The are of the space enclosed by the four pieces is:

o 21 cm2o 42 cm2o 84 cm2o 168 cm2

The circumcircle of an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is drawn. Find the area that is inside the circle but outsidethe triangle?

o 22.21o 19.78o 22.11o 18.76

A spherical lead ball of radius 10 cm is melted and small lead balls of radius 5mm are made. The total number ofpossible small lead balls is:

o 800o 125o 400o 8000

A rectangle, having a 72 cm perimeter, is divided into 9 congruent rectangles and two congruent squares. The

edge of square is the same as one of the edges of the smaller rectangle. What is the perimeter and area of the smallerrectangle?

o 24 cm, 36 cm2o 24 cm, 32 cm2o 12 cm, 32 cm2o 12 cm, 36 cm2

In a triangle ABC, the sum of the exterior angles at B and C is equal to:

o 180o - BACo 180o + BACo 180o - 2BACo 180o + 2BAC

If x = sin0+cos0 and y = sin 20, then which of the following is true?

o x2-y=1o x2 =1-yo y=x2+1o y2=x+1

The angle of elevation of the top of a 30 m high tower, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are45 degrees and 60 degrees. What is the distance between the two points?

o 30o 51.96o 47.32o 81.96

A person aims at a bird on top of a 5m high pole with the elevation of 30 degree. If a bullet is fired, it will travel P mbefore reaching the bird. The a value of P (in m) is :

oo 10

o

o

Of the two boxes, Box 1 contains 2 Pink and 5 White chalks while Box 2 contains 4 Blue and 3 Green chalks. Fourchalks are taken out, two from Box 1 and remaining from Box 2. What is the probability of getting four different colourchalks?

o

o

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o

o

A problem is given to three students x,y,z whose chances of solving the problem are and respectively.What is the probability that the problem will be solved?

o

o

o

o

In questions 182-183, a series is given. Which one of the number or letter-number clusters in the givenseries is wrong.

G 4 T, J 10 R, M 20 P, P 43 N, S 90 L

o G 4 To J 10 Ro M 20 Po P 43 N

5, 12,19,33,47,75,104.

o 33o 47o 75o 101

In questions 183 to 185, a number-series is given. Which one of the alternatives will ensure the sequentialcontinuity of the series?

3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9,..

o 54o 60o 66o 72

0, 2, 8, 14, 24, .

o 34o 35o 36o 42

In question 186-187, a series is given with a blank shown by a question mark. Which one of thealternatives can correctly fill-in the question mark?

6, 15, 3, (?), 143, 221

o 63o 77o 90o 56

7T19, 9Q16, 11N13, 13K10, 15H7, (?)

o 17 E 4

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o 18 F 5o 17 E 3o 18 D 4

In questions 188-189, a letter series is given, in which some letters are missing. The missing letters aregiven in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.

aa _ ab _ aaa _ a

o aaabo aabbo ababo baaa

mnonopqopqrs _ _ _ _ _ _

o mnopqo oqrsto pqrsto qrstu

The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?

o GTSHo BYXCo ETUFo LONM

The arrangement of letters of which of the given clusters is different from the rest?

o BDo CIo EYo AC

In a certain code MANISH is written as 415918. How will PRASHANT be written in the same code?

o 79181152o 79181125o 79118125o 79118152

If in an cricket season, Mumbai defeated Hyderabad twice. Bangalore defeated Mumbai twice, Hyderabaddefeated Bangalore twice, Mumbai defeated Kolkata twice and Bangalore defeated Kolkata twice. Which of the teams lostthe largest number of matches?

o Mumbaio Hyderabado Bangaloreo Kolkata

194. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bushad already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk givethis information to the passenger?

1. 10:05 a.m.2. 9:55 a.m.3. 10:35 a.m.4. 10:15 a.m.

195.As a Lion is to Cub, a Camel is to:1. Signet2. Stag

3. Calf4. Foal

196. Identify the correct deduction.

Statements: All labourers are wrestlers. All grocers are labourers.Conclusions:

1. All grocers are wrestlers2. Some wrestlers are grocers.3. Some wrestler are labourers.

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4. Some labourers are grocers.1. All conclusions are correct2. Only 1 and 4 conclusions are correct3. Only 4 conclusion is correct4. Only 2 and 3 conclusions are correct

197. Identify the correct deduction.

Statements: All fruits are sweets.All sweets are chocolates.Conclusions:

1. All sweets are fruits.2. All fruits are chocolates3. Some chocolates are sweets.4. No chocolate is sweet.

1. Only conclusion 1 is correct2. All conclusions are correct3. Only conclusion 2 and 3 are correct4. Only conclusion 3 and 4 are correct

198. In the question, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 are given on the top. Which among the figures marked a,b,c,dgiven below it would continue the series 1-2-3-4-5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

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In each of the questions 199 to 200, five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 continuous a continuous series witha gap marked (?) are given. Which figure from among the figures marked a,b,c,d given below them wouldaccurately fill-in the place marked with the questions mark.

199. Answer the Question:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

o

o

o

o

Answer the Question:

1.

2.

3.

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4.

5.

1.

2.

3.

4.

In each of the questions 201 to 203, the figure marked as X is incomplete. Which of the figuresmarked as a, b, c, and d would accurately complete the given figure?

1.

2.

3.

4.

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1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

In each of the questions 204 to 206, a figure drawn on a transparent paper is given on the lefthand side. Which (from among the given four figures given on the right hand side marked asabcd) will this figure take if its is folded along the dotted lines.

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1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.

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In each of the questions 207 to 209, figure 1 and 2 as also 3 and 4 (?) have a certain relationship. From among thegiven figures a, b, c and d which one, when placed at the position of the question mark, would establish the samerelationship.

207.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

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4.208.

1.

2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.209.

1.

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2.

3.

4.

1.

2.

3.

4.