1551_questionpaper

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1551VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM

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Q.1

Consider the following statements.

1. Andhra Pradesh was the First state to establish PRI in India

2. Elections to PRIs are conducted by ECI on the recommendation of Governor.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None

Q.2

Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to Elections?

1. The Model Code of conduct comes into force as soon as the schedule of the elections is announced by theElection Commission.

2. Delimitation Commission is appointed by Election Commission to determine the geographical size of theconstituencies based on their population.

3. Seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for Scheduled Caste(SC), Scheduled Tribes(ST) and Other BackwardCastes(OBC)State wise on the basis of their population ratio.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both 1&2 (b) Only 1

(c) Only 2 (d) 1 2,& 3

Q.3

Consider the following statements regarding the views of Supreme court regarding section 6A of DPSE Act

1. Section 6A violates of Article 14 of constitution.

2. The protection under Section 6A has propensity of shielding the corrupt

Which of these is/are correct?


(c) 1 and 2 (d) None

Q.4

Consider the following statements regarding the 74th amendment act -

1. It gave statutory status to the municipalities.

2. The act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a municipality should be elected by the elected membersof the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves.

3. District Planning Committee is voluntary under the Act.


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4. Metropolitan Planning Committee is mandatory under the Act.

Which of the given statements are true-

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 3 (d) None

Q.5

Consider the following statements regarding the removal of chairperson of UPSC-

1. President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry.

2. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is notbinding on the president.

3. During the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the president has to suspend the chairman or themember of UPSC.

Which of the above statements are correct-

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) All (d) None

Q.6


1. The office of Solicitor General is a constitutional one.

2. The Attorney General of India is a member of central cabinet.




Q.7

Assertion (A): Multiplicity of Authorities in urban Areas has added to the problems of Citizens.

Reason (R): New special purpose agencies have been created for urban functions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Q.8


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Which of the following functions are performed by Gram Sabha?

1. A vigilance Commission is constituted in order to keep a watch on the Panchayats.

2. Beneficiaries of various Government Programmes are identified.

3. Budget and programmes of village are framed.

4. Public related problems are discussed.

Select the correct answer using the Codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4

Q.9

Consider the following statements-

1. Centre can delegate its legislative powers to the states.

2. A single state cannot request the Parliament to make a law on a state subject.

Which of the given statements are correct-

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both (d) None

Q.10


1. The original jurisdiction of SC is confined to federal dispute cases.

2. Appellate jurisdiction of SC includes only civil and constitutional matters.




Q.11

Consider the following statements regarding CAG.

1. He is appointed by the president for a term of 5 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier.

2. The CAG has no control over the issue of money from the consolidated fund of India.

3. The salary and service condition of CAG shall be determined by the president.

4. The CAG can be removed only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Which of the statements is/are correct?


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(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.12

Which of the following is not correct about the Estimates Committee of the parliament?

1. It has been described as ‘continuous economy committee’

2. A minister cannot be elected as the member of the committee

3. Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee

4. The chairman of the committee is invariably from the ruling party

Codes:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4

(c) All of the above (d) None of the above

Q.13

Which of these statements regarding the Parliament is correct:

(a) Lok Sabha elects its speaker and deputy speaker while Rajya Sabha elects its chairman and deputychairman.

(b) It can regulate the organization and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts.

(c) Parliament can impeach the president for his/her misconduct.

(d) Defeat of the money bill in the parliament leads to the resignation of the government.

Q.14

Consider the following statements related to Finance commission:

1. It is a statutory body.

2. Finance Commission also has a advisory role which is not binding on the government.

3. It is expected to be quasi-judicial in nature.

4. Vijay Kelkar is the chairman of 14th Finance commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

Q.15

What among these shall be considered part of the state as per the definition of state under article 12?


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1. Statutory and not statutory authorities like SAIL, ONGC, and LIC etc.

2. Supreme court of India.

3. Municipalities, Panchayats.

4. District boards, improvement trusts

5. Private body or an agency working as an instrument of state

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Q.16

Appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner is recommended by a committee consisting of:

(a) Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha, Home Minister, Leader ofOpposition in both the houses of parliament

(b) Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

(c) Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

(d) Prime Minister, Chairperson of Rajya Sabha, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India

Q.17

Consider the following statements regarding qualification and disqualification criteria of municipality elections -

1. In some states, persons having more than two children are disqualified from contesting elections.

2. Licensed planners and architects have been disqualified from contesting elections in some states.

3. In some states contesting for more than two seats is not allowed.

4. A person holding office of Profit is not allowed for contesting elections.

Which of the above statements are true-

(a) Only 1 and 4 (b) Only 1, 3 and 4

(c) Only 2 and 4 (d) All

Q.18

Which of the following statements is/are correct about asymmetries found in Indian federal system?

1. Universal asymmetry can be seen wherein on a common factor, different states are considered different

2. Specific asymmetry can be seen wherein a certain state has been adopted and has been given some flavourwhich is unique to that state

3. Administrative asymmetry can be seen wherein two specific group of states have been given uniqueconsideration in the federation


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4. Special asymmetry can be seen as the case where in a federal system we have Union Territories and even inthose UT, we have special UT of Delhi and Puducherry

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 4 (d) 1 only

Q.19


1. If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on amatter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter.

2. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds members of the total strength of the house.

3. The resolution transfers the powers in the hands of Centre permanently.

4. This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter.

Which of the above statements are correct-

(a) Only 1 , 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 4

(c) Only 1 , 3 and 4 (d) All

Q.20

Consider the following statements relating to the recent move of Supreme Court to constitute ‘Social JusticeBench’.

1. Social Justice Bench to exclusively hear cases related to women, children and underprivileged.

2. The apex court set up the special bench in lieu of the specialized approach needed for dealing with suchsocial issues.

3. Given the huge pendency in cases, the Social Justice Bench will take only pending cases to ensure just &quick disposal of cases .

Select the correct statement from the codes given below.

(a) 1&2 (b) 2&3

(c) 1&3 (d) 1,2&3.

Q.21

Consider the following statements with respect to national emergency.

1. The centre can give executive directions to a state on certain matters

2. The constitution becomes unitary rather than federal, in action

3. Parliament can make permanent laws on subjects in the state list

4. All the fundamental rights stay suspended.

Which of following statements are incorrect?


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(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

Q.22

Consider the following statements related to the advisory jurisdiction of supreme court of India.

1. If asked, Supreme Court must provide its opinion on law or fact of public importance which has arisen or likelyto arise.

2. SC opinion on advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.

3. ‘2G spectrum case verdict and the mandatory auctioning of natural resources across all sectors in 2012’ willcome under advisory jurisdiction.

Which of the following statements are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) None

Q.23

Consider the following statements with reference to anti-Hijacking Bill 2014

1. Draft bill proposes to amend the Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982

2. Bill seeking stringent punishment including death penalty for hijackers

3. According to the bill, A hostile plane could also be shot down if there is evidence that it could be used as amissile to hit a vital installation.


(a) 1and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.24

Which of the followings are the powers of the Election commission of India?

1. To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment ofelection symbols to them.

2. To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of election.

3. To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president’s rule in order to extend theperiod of emergency after one year.

4. To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state partieson the basis of their poll performance.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


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(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.25

Consider the following statements regarding lapsing of the bill on dissolution of Lok Sabha

1. A bill passed by the Lok-Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.

2. A bill not passed by the two houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of thejoint sitting before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

3. A bill passed by both houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

4. A bill passed by both the houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse.

Which of these statement/s is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

Q.26

Consider the following Statements regarding the working of Federal & Unitary System of Indian Political System.

Which one of them is incorrect ?

(a) Dual Polity i.e. Union at Centre & States at the periphery( regional & local level) represent a Federal systemin India.

(b) Power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies only with the Centre is a testimony to the fact thatIndia has a Strong Centre.

(c) Rigid Constitution makes way for both Centre & State Govt. to amend those provisions which are concernedwith the federal structure.

(d) There is single constitution for the Centre & all the States in India

Q.27

Which of the following features are a necessary characteristic of a parliamentary form of government?

(a) Membership of Legislature of the ministers, Universal Suffrage, Judiciary as a guarantor of Citizens’ rights,Independent election body

(b) Membership of legislature of the ministers, An integrated and independent judiciary, Sovereign parliament,Independent Supreme audit institution(SAI), Constitutionally guaranteed citizens’ rights

(c) Membership of legislature of the ministers, Dual executive, More than two political parties, Collectiveresponsibility

(d) None of the above.

Q.28

Which of the following statements are correct?


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1. The Estimates committee consists exclusively of the Members of the House of People.2. A Cut Motion cannot raise a matter of privilege.3. The payments from the Public Account of India do not require legislative appropriation.4. The CAG certifies the net proceeds of any tax.

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.29

Which one of the Following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax iscorrect?

1. The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of Income Tax between itself and the States.

2. The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax to itself.

3. The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are distributed among the States.



(c) 3 only (d) None of these

Q.30

Who among the following are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal-

1. CAG

2. Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities

3. Members of National Commission for STs

4. Members of National Commission for SCs

Which is the correct option-

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 2 only (d) All

Q.31

Consider the following statement with respect to parliamentary form of government

1. It ensures harmonious relationship between the legislative and executive organs of government

2. It is against the principle of separation of powers

3. Generally parliamentary form of government is more stable than presidential form of government.


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2


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(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.32

Consider the following statements about the nature of Federalism in India:

1. Federalism is not a part of ‘basic structure ‘ of the Indian Constitution.

2. Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’ & not Federation

3. India cannot be considered a Federation in a true sense because the States don’t enjoy the right to secede .

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.33

As per the anti defection law, a member of a house belonging to any political party does not get disqualifiedfrom being a member of the house if:

(a) If a nominated member of the house joins any political party after expiry of six months from his date ofjoining the house.

(b) If he abstains from voting in such house contrary to any direction issued by the party

(c) If a member after being elected as the presiding officer of the house, voluntarily gives up the membership ofhis party or rejoins it.

(d) If an independent member joins a political party after such elections.

Q.34

Consider the following statements related to residuary powers:

1. It means all matters which are not in any of the three lists i.e. concurrent list, state list and union list.

2. Both the centre and states have the residuary powers. However in case of conflict law of centre willsupersede the state laws.

3. Cyber laws are an example of residuary power.

4. Article 253 deals with residuary powers.

Which of the following statements are correct:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

Q.35

Which of the following are statutory bodies?

1. Planning commission(Now Disbanded)


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2. National Development Council

3. CBI

4. National Human Rights Commission

Choose the answer from the codes below:

(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 4 only

Q.36

consider the following statements regarding the election commission.

1. Chief election commissioner can be removed from the office in the similar manner as the judge of theSupreme court.

2. The constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by thegovernment.

3. The budget of Election Commission is drawn on the consolidated fund of India.

4. The condition of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners is determined by the Parliament.

Choose the correct option

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.37

Which of the following states has no Panchayati Raj institution at all ?

(a) Assam (b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland (d) Kerela

Q.38

Consider the following statements regarding ad-hoc judges in Supreme Court-

1. President can appoint ad-hoc judge with the consultation of Chief justice of India, for a temporary period.

2. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?


(c) Both (d) None

Q.39



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1. Laws of the Parliament are applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.

2. The laws made by a state legislature are never applicable outside the state.



(c) Both (d) None

Q.40

Which of the Following are the provisions of 73rd constitution amendment Act with respect to Panchayati Raj?

1. Indirect election of chairperson at the Intermediate Level and District level

2. Direct elections of members at all level.

3. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level.


(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1and 3

Q.41

Mandal Panchayats were recommended by-

(a) Ashok Mehta Committee

(b) Vengal Rao Committee

(c) Balwantrai Mehta Committee

(d) Narasimhan Committee

Q.42


1. The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the high court.

2. Appointment of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of a state are made by the governorof the state after consultation with the State Public Service Commission.

3. The expression ‘judicial service’ means a service consisting exclusively of persons intended to fill the post ofother civil judicial posts inferior to the post of district judge, but not the district judge.

4. The control over district courts and other subordinate courts including the posting, promotion and leave ofpersons belonging to the judicial service of a state and holding any post inferior to the post of district judge isvested in the high court.


(a) Only 1, 3 and 4 (b) Only 2 and 3


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(c) Only 4 (d) All of the above

Q.43

Consider the following statements:

1. When the president’s rule is imposed in a state the parliament becomes empowered to make laws withrespect to any matter in the state list in relation to that state.

2. These laws become inoperative on the expiration of six months after emergency has ceased to operate.

3. Such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature.

Which of these statements are correct?


(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3

Q.44

Consider the following statement with respect to National Judicial appointment commission bill:

1. It provides for the procedure to be followed by the NJAC for recommending persons for appointment of Judgesof the Supreme Court, High Courts and subordinate courts.

2. It shall recommend the senior most judge of the Supreme Court for appointment as Chief Justice of India.

3. It shall not recommend a person for appointment if any of its members do not agree to suchrecommendation.

4. NJAC has no role in transfer of Chief Justices and other judges of the High Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 3

Q.45

Which of the following statements is incorrect:

(a) During national emergency centre can make a law on state matter.

(b) Centre can make laws on any state matter if Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution.

(c) To implement international agreements centre can make a law on state matter however states must beconsulted before such agreements.

(d) When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws withrespect to any matter in the State List and such laws continues to be operative even after the president’s rule.

Q.46

Which of the following reports are presented by the President in the Parliament-


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1. Report by National Commission for SCs

2. Report by National Commission for STs

3. Report by National Commission for linguistic minorities

4. Audit reports by CAG

Which option is correct in this regard-

(a) Only 1 , 2 and 4 (b) Only 3 and 4

(c) All (d) Only 4

Q.47

Consider the statements regarding the current position /status of NRI Voters in India during elections.

1. An overseas elector(NRI) is a person who is a citizen of India , eligible to be a registered voter but who hasnot acquired citizenship of any other country .

2. An NRI settled in foreign land can become an elector in electoral roll in India.

3. NRI's can vote during elections in India provided they are physically present at the time of voting.

4. In the recent 2014 elections, the NRIs voted for the first time through ‘Proxy Voting’ mechanism.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1,2&4 (b) 1,2 &3

(c) 1&4 (d) 3&4

Q.48

Consider following two statements related to removal of UPSC chairman:

1. President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for misbehaviour only after an enquiry bySupreme Court.

2. The term misbehaviour is not defined in the constitution and is the discretion of the SC enquiry committee.

Which if the statements given above is/are correct?


(c) Both (d) None

Q.49

The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties,agreements or conventions only if-

(a) State legislature passes a resolution with absolute majority.

(b) President recommends the same.

(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with simple majority.


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(d) No permission is required from states

Q.50

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to child labour?

(a) There is complete legal prohibition on child labour in India.

(b) majority of child labour Is employed in agriculture.

(c) adolescents aged 14-18 years can work in hazardous occupations.

(d) India has largest number of child labour in the world.

Q.51


1. Large size of country

2. Socio-cultural diversity

3. Efficient Governance

4. National Unity

5. Curbing of regional autonomy

Which of the above are the reasons for selecting a federal structure in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

Q.52

Which of the following statements is/are true under Indian Constitution?

1. Parliament can impose restriction on the freedom of trade and commerce between the states.

2. Parliament can impose restriction on the freedom of trade and commerce within a state.

3. The state legislature can impose tax on goods imported from a particular state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Q.53

Consider the following statements

1. The Election Commission of India revises the election expenditure ceiling for candidates for parliamentaryelections.


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2. Tribunals for the adjudication of election disputes established under Art. 323B are excluded from thejurisdiction of all courts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct-


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None is correct

Q.54


1. The right to make ‘extra-territorial legislation’ lies with the Parliament only.

2. The laws of the Parliament are not applicable to Indian citizens and their property abroad.




Q.55

Which of the following statements are correct

1) Part XI of the Indian constitution defines the power distribution between the federal government (the Centre)and the States in India

2) This part is divided between legislative, administrative powers & financial powers

3) Residual residual powers remain with the Centre in Indian Constitution, as with the Canadian federalgovernment.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 & 3

(c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3

Q.56

Which of these government schemes have been implemented to tackle the problems of malnutrition?

1. Udisha

2. Mission Indradhanush

3. National Charter for Children

4. Kishori Shakti Yojana

5. Mid day meal scheme

6. Working women’s hostel scheme

7. Integrated child development services scheme.

8. Mission Poorna Shakti


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Chose from the following options

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 (b) 3, 5 and 7

(c) 2, 5, 7 and 8 (d) 4, 5, 6,7and 8

Q.57

CIC ruled that 6 national political parties come under RTI Act because

1. Bringing political parties under RTI will reduce corruption in political system

2. They have been substantially financed by the Central government.



(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None

Q.58

Consider the following two statements related to Joint state public service commission:

1. The Constitution has no provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) fortwo or more states.

2. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act ofParliament on the request of the state legislatures concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(c) Both (d) None

Q.59

Which of the following are Federal features?

1. Dual Polity

2. Integrated Judiciary

3. Single citizenship

4. Written Constitution


(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

Q.60

Which of the following provisions are indicator of a strong central government in India:


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1. The Parliament is empowered to ‘form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting twoor more States.

2. Emergency provisions

3. Central government has many revenue sources and the States are mostly dependent on the grants andfinancial assistance from the centre.

4. States cannot remove officers belonging to the All India services.

Articles 33 and 34 authorise the Parliament to protect persons in the service of the union or a state in respect ofany action taken by them during martial law to maintain or restore order Select the correct answer from thecodes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.61

Consider the following statements with respect to the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities.

1. He/she is appointed by the President of India.

2. At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs.




Q.62

The “Doctrine of Immunity of Instrumentalities” refers to:

(a) the immunity enjoyed by the Election Commission through Constitutional Provisions.

(b) the administrative relations between the Centre & the States in the federal set-up.

(c) State and Central Governments have immunity from paying taxes imposed by the other.

(d) the independence being enjoyed by CAG through Constitutional provisions.

Q.63

Which of the following features of Indian constitution is not an aberration to its federal nature?

(a) Absence of dual citizenship

(b) Independent judiciary

(c) All India services

(d) Unequal representation of states in council of state

Q.64


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With regards to different form of election systems, which of the following are correctly matched to theirdescription?

1. Party List Proportional Representation System – entire country is considered as single constituency withpeople voting by political parties and candidates elected in ratio of votes polled for each party

2. List system – some members of house are elected by single transferrable voting system and some byparty list proportional representation system

3. Single transferrable voting system – A person for getting elected essentially gets more than half of thevotes and top two candidates contest again in case of condition not getting fulfilled

4. Two ballot system – order of choice system where a candidate should get more than half of the votes infirst preference for being elected

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3

Q.65

Which of the following are compulsory provisions under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both theHouses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

2. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats.

3. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.

4. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at all the threelevels.

5. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government.

Which of the given statements are correct

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) All (d) 1, 4 and 5

Q.66

Consider the following statements about Appeals by Special Leave in the Supreme Court:

1. The Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal from a judgement by any court or tribunal in thecountry

2. It is a discretionary power.

3. It must be related to constitutional matters only

Which of these is/are true?

(a) 2 Only (b) 3 Only

(c) 1 and 2 Only (d) 2 and 3 Only


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Q.67

Consider the following statements regarding Article 323 A and 323 B:

1. While 323A contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, Article 323Bcontemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters such as taxation,land reforms etc.

2. While Tribunals under 323A can be established both by parliament and state legislatures, tribunals under323B can be established only by the Parliament.

3. Under article 323A , only one tribunal for the centre and one for each state or two or more states may beestablished i.e. there is no hierarchy of tribunals, whereas under article 323B, a hierarchy of tribunals may becreated.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.68

Which of the following features are a necessary characteristic of a federal polity?

(a) Citizens’ rights, Supremacy of the constitution, Independent judiciary, Residuary powers in states, Equality ofrepresentation in the council of states

(b) Distribution of powers, Written constitution, Judicial Supremacy, Due process of law, Indestructibility ofstates

(c) Dual Government, Distribution of powers, Bicameralism, Independent judiciary, Role of States inConstitutional amendment

(d) None of the above

Q.69

Grants in aid is provided to the states for:

(a) Improving the Centre-State relationship

(b) Improving the development of rural area

(c) Reducing the regional imbalance

(d) Implementing various development programmes and rehabilitation

Q.70

Which is there in constitution with respect to election commission?

(a) the qualification of members of election commission

(b) The term of member of election commission

(c) The President has to provide staff to election commission staff, as may be necessary for the discharge of the


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functions conferred on the Election Commission

(d) Election of judges of Supreme court come under jurisdiction of election commission

Q.71

Who among the following is not a member of the Panchayat Samiti?

(a) Members of the Union Parliament belonging to that area

(b) Elected members of the State Legislative belonging to that area

(c) Sarpanchas of all the Panchayats

(d) All of the above are members

Q.72

Consider the following statements about Election Commission in India.

1. Election Commission of India is a non-permanent Constitutional Body.

2. The Secretariat of the Commission has an independent budget, which is finalised by the Cabinet.

3. The Commission ensures inner party democracy in the functioning of registered political parties by insistingupon them to hold their organizational elections at periodic intervals.

4. The decisions of the Commission cannot be challenged in the High Court and the Supreme Court of the Indiaby virtue of it being a Constitutional body.

Select the incorrect statements from the codes given below:


(c) 3 and 4. (d) 1, 2 and 4

Q.73

Which of the following are the aims of the Panchayati Raj System?

1. To instil a sense of self confidence among the rural People

2. To develop the habit of democratic living

3. To secure the foundations of Indian Democracy

4. To infuse the regional feeling among the people

Select the correct answer using the codes given below-

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3

(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4

Q.74

Which of the following statements about the election commission are not correct:


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1. Qualifications of the election commissioner are not prescribed in the constitution.

2. Term of the office of the election commissioner are not specified in the constitution

3. Election commissioner is not debarred from taking any roles after retirement from this position.

4. Constitution prescribes that election commission should be a three member body

Chose from the following options:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2 only (d) 4 only

Q.75

Which of the following is/ are true with respect to Electioneering

1. A proposer of any candidate can also be a candidate for the same constituency

2. The nomination of a candidate cannot be rejected by the Returning Officer for suppressing or giving falseinformation in the affidavit

3. Even if a candidate is contesting from two constituencies, one oath is sufficient.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.76

Assertion (A): The Directorates of local bodies in States supervise the working of municipal corporations.

Reason(R): The State Governments need to exercise control over all the local bodies.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Q.77

Which of the following is not in the list of the 29 functional items placed in the purview of panchayats-

1. Fuel & Fodder

2. PDS

3. Libraries

4. Education

(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3


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(c) 3 & 4 (d) None of the above

Q.78


1. High court can issue the writs for both fundamental rights and legal rights.

2. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for issuing the writs is wider than HC.




Q.79

Public Accounts committee has been in news recently. Which of the following is/are correct about PublicAccounts committee?

1. It strength is of not more than 22 members from Lok Sabha

2. As per the current convention, the chairman is appointed from the opposition

3. One of the 22 members shall be a minister in the government

4. Its recommendations are binding on the ministries

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3 (d) 2 only

Q.80

Which of the following are voluntary provisions under the PRI Act?

1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

2. Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both theHouses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.

3. Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at anylevel.

4. Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government (in brief, making them autonomous bodies).

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

Q.81

Consider the following statements regarding FIRST PAST THE POST SYSTEM (FPTP) in India.

1. In this method every party gets seat in the legislature in the proportion to the percentage of votes that it


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gets.

2. In this system voters vote for the candidate & not for the Party.

3. In this election method the winning candidate is one who gets majority of the votes.


(a) ONLY 1 (b) ONLY 2

(c) 1&2 (d) 2&3.

Q.82

In 42nd amendment act, which of the following subject was transferred from state to concurrent list-

(a) Education

(b) Local Self Government

(c) Agriculture

(d) Irrigation

Q.83

Consider the following statements with reference to Lok Adalats:

1. No appeal lies against the order of the Lok Adalat

2. Resolution of disputes by settlement by the Lok Adalats has been given statutory recognition by the LegalServices Act, 1987.

3. The procedural laws and the Evidence Act are not strictly followed while assessing the merits of the claim bythe Lok Adalat

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3

(c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3

Q.84

Which of the following statements are correct with regards to Political Parties?

1. The word ‘political party’ is not mentioned in the Constitution.

2. A political party shall be treated as recognised political party in a State if it has more than 6% polled validvotes or the party has either returned at least one MP to every 25 members or one MLA to every 30 members ofassembly elections or any fraction of that number from the state.

3. Aam Admi Party(AAP) is latest

4. National Party recognised by Election Commission after the December 2013 Delhi election.



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(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 1

(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.85

Which of the given below electoral reforms were made prior to 1996?

1. The minimum gap between the last day of withdrawl and the polling date has been reduced to 14 days.

2. The facility to opt to vote through proxy was provided to the service voters belonging to the armed forces.

3. Provision was made to facilitate the use of electronic voting machines in elections.

Which of the above is/are correct?


(c) only 3 (d) 2 and 3

Q.86

According to supreme court ruling on freebies which of the following statement is correct

1. Freebies promised by political parties in their election manifestos shake the roots of free and fair polls

2. The promise of freebies in election manifestos by political parties do not come under “corrupt practices” and“electoral offences” defined in the Representation of the People Act

3. Freebies are directly related to the Directive Principles.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.87

Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller & Auditor General In India. Which of the following are incorrect?

(a) CAG doesn’t have powers to audit any private sector companies under Companies act.

(b) Supreme Court of India has expanded the scope of jurisdiction of CAG recently where he got the right toaudit the receipts of private sector companies that share revenue with the government for use of spectrum.

(c) The CAG is removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of either High Court orSupreme Court of India.

(d) CAG is appointed by the President of India.

Q.88

Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats ?

(a) Income Tax (b) Sales Tax


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(c) Professional Tax (d) Levy Duties

Q.89

Consider the following statements about Joint Sitting of the parliament -

1. Provision of joint sitting is not applicable to Money bill and Constitutional Amendment Bill as in both cases LokSabha has overriding powers

2. Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not member of either House ofParliament

3. No new amendments can be proposed at a joint sitting.

Which of the above statements is/are correct -

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Q.90

With reference to membership of the Finance Commission, consider the following statements:

1. State Finance commission is appointed every five years or at such earlier time when the governor considersnecessary.

2 The reports of State Finance Commissions are submitted to National Finance Commission so that it maysuggest ways to augment the consolidated fund of state.

3. Chairman of 13th National Finance Commission was Vijay Kelkar.


(a) 1, 2 only (b) 1, 3 only

(c) 3 only (d) 1 only

Q.91

Gerrymandering is a term generally used for:

(a) Situations when event of one country have a ripple effect on the surrounding countries

(b) Falsifying the result of elections in any manner, for example booth capturing or ballot rigging

(c) Deliberate change in the boundaries of a constituency in a manner such that a political advantage forparticular party gets established

(d) None of the above

Q.92

The Supreme Court hears appeals against the judgement in a criminal proceeding of a high court if the highcourt—

1. has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death;


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2. has taken before itself any case from any subordinate court and convicted the accused person and sentencedhim to death

3. certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.93

Which among the following statements are incorrect?

1. The office of the CAG is modeled upon that of the Auditor-General under the Government of India Act,1919.

2. CAG, being a civil servant is subject to the provision of Pleasure doctrine under Article 310 in thematters of his removal.

3. The independence of the CAG is ensured by making the tenure of his office amendable only by specialmajority.

4. Article 74 endows the Prime Minister with the power to advise the President.

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.94

Inter State Council enshrined in article 263 of constitution consists of following:

(a) Prime Minister, Chief Ministers of all the states and UT with legislatures, administrators of other UTs, sixcentral ministers including Home Minister nominated by PM

(b) Prime Minister, Chief Ministers of all the states and UT with legislatures, administrators of other UTs, twominsters from each state, six central ministers including Home Minister nominated by PM

(c) Prime Minister, Chief Ministers of all the states and UT with legislatures, administrators of other UTs,members of Planning Commission, six central ministers including Home Minister nominated by PM

(d) Prime Minister, Chief Ministers of all the states and UT with legislatures, administrators of other UTs,members of Planning commission, Home Minister of every state, six central ministers including Home Ministernominated by PM

Q.95


1. The Chief Justice of HC is appointed after consulting CJI and Governor of the state concerned.

2. Order of impeachment for the removal of SC judge is passed by President on his/her discretion.





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Q.96

Consider the following statements in the context of judicial review:

1. The phrase ‘judicial review’ is nowhere mentioned in the Indian Constitution

2. Scope of judicial review in India is equivalent to what exists in USA.

3. It shows the judicial supremacy in our country.

4. Judicial review and judicial activism are mutually exclusive.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect:

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3

Q.97

1. The chief election commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers but in case ofdifference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, thematter is decided by chief election commissioner.

2. They hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Which of the given statements are NOT correct-


(c) Both (d) None

Q.98

Consider the following statements

1. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to appoint any other seat/seats of the Supreme Court in additionto Delhi.

2. Supreme Court has power to punish for contempt of high courts as well.

3. The Indian Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’.

Identify the correct statements from the options below

(a) 3 Only (b) 1 and 2 Only

(c) 2 Only (d) 1 and 3 Only

Q.99

Administrative accountability is established in government organizations by:

(a) Executive (b) Legislature

(c) Judiciary (d) All of the above


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Q.100

Read the following two statements about municipalities in the context of 74th amendment:

1. Reservation of SCs and STs in the proportion of their population in the municipal area

2. One third of the seats will be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and STwomen

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


(c) Both (d) None


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