1354017934327-quesion bank

MODEL QUESTION BANK ON ESTABLISHMENT MATTERS

INDEX

BILLS____________________________________________________________________________3

D&A Rules_______________________________________________________________________17

MAN POWER PLANNING_________________________________________________________22

SUITABILITY TEST_______________________________________________________________27

SELECTION_____________________________________________________________________30

PAY FIXATION___________________________________________________________________33

ADVANCES______________________________________________________________________38

APPOINTMENT ON COMPASSIONATE GROUND____________________________________40

INDENTS/RECRUITMENTS_______________________________________________________47

PASS RULES_____________________________________________________________________53

NEW PENSION SCHEME__________________________________________________________57

SAFETY RELATED RETIREMENT SCHEME_________________________________________59

COMPULSORY RETIREMENT_____________________________________________________61

SC/ST/OBC RESERVATION POLICY________________________________________________65

TRAINING_______________________________________________________________________78

D&A RULES_____________________________________________________________________86

LEAVE RULES__________________________________________________________________108

PASS RULES____________________________________________________________________117

STAFF WELFARE & EDUCATIONAL FACILITIES____________________________________123

BILLS

Model Questions (Multiple choice type: correct answers underlined)

Q1 The period of one month for which monthly salary is drawn is called –

a) Monthly salaryb) Wage period c) Assumed Attendanced) Monthly period

Q2 Allowance granted to compensate high cost of living based on the rise of price index is called –

a) Interim Reliefb) Dearness Payc) Dearness Allowance (R 1303) d) Special Compensatory Allowance

Q3 Which is currently the base year for granting dearness allowance –

a) 1982 b) 1960c) 1996d) 1986

Q4 To draw monthly salary, which attendance is taken into account –

a) Actual attendanceb) Assumed attendancec) Both the above d) None of the above

Q5 During suspension, dearness allowance is drawn on the basis of –

a) Subsistence allowance b) Substantive payc) No dearness allowance is drawnd) Half of the original DA rate

Q6 Dearness Pay has been introduced in 5th CPC scale w.e.f. –

a) 1.1.2004b) 1.4.2004 c) 1.3.2004d) 1.6.2004

Q7 What percentage of existing DA rated is converted to Dearness Pay –

a) 55%b) 52%c) 49%d) 50%

Q8 What is the allowance called which is granted to Railway employees to enable them to meet the high cost of living in certain especially costly cities in India –

a) HRA (House Rent Allowance)b) CCA (City Compensatory Allowance) c) SCA (Special Compensatory Allowance)d) Transport Allowance

Q9 What is the maximum rate of CCA in an A1 Class City –

a) Rs.100/-b) Rs.200/-c) Rs.300/- (RBE 140/97) d) Rs.400/-

Q10 What is the maximum and minimum rate of CCA in ‘A’ Class Cities –

a) 240 and 65 respectively (RBE 140/97) b) 200 and 90 respectivelyc) 150 and 50 respectivelyd) 250 and 80 respectively

Q11 What is the amount of CCA for an employee having basic pay below Rs.3000/- in an ‘A1’ Class City –

a) Rs.90/- (RBE 140/97) b) Rs.75/-c) Rs.100/-d) Rs.80/-

Q12 What is the amount of CCA for an employee whose basic pay and D.Pay is from Rs.3000/- p.m. to Rs.4499/- p.m. –


Q13 What percentage of Dearness Pay is included for drawal of other allowances -

a) 50%b) 100% c) 75%d) 40%

Q14 What is the amount of CCA for the range of basic pay and D.Pay from Rs.4500/- p.m. to Rs.5999/- p.m. in an ‘A1’ Class City –

a) Rs.250/-b) Rs.230/-c) Rs.175/-d) Rs.200/- (RBE 140/97)

Q15 What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a ‘A’ Class City where basic pay & D.Pay does not cross Rs.3000/-

a) Rs.60/-b) Rs.70/-c) Rs.65/- d) Rs.55/-

Q16 What is the rate of CCA in an ‘A’ class city where pay and D.Pay is from 3000-4499 p.m. –

a) Rs.95/- b) Rs.100/-c) Rs.90/-d) Rs.110/-

Q17 What is the rate of CCA in an ‘A’ class city where pay and D.Pay is from 4500-5999 p.m. –

a) Rs.140/-b) Rs.160/-c) Rs.150/- d) Rs.175/-

Q18 What is the rate of CCA in an ‘A’ class city where pay and D.Pay is above Rs.6000/- p.m. –

a) Rs.250/-b) Rs.240/- c) Rs.230/-d) Rs.220/-

Q19 What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a ‘B’ Class City where basic pay & D.Pay is less than Rs.3000/- p.m. –

a) Rs.50/-b) Rs.45/- c) Rs.40/-d) Rs.60/-

Q20 What is the rate of CCA in a ‘B1’ class city where pay and D.Pay is between Rs.3000/- and Rs.4499/- p.m.

a) Rs.65/- b) Rs.60/-c) Rs.70/-d) Rs.75/-

Q21 What is the rate of CCA in a ‘B1’ class city where pay and D.Pay is in between Rs.4500/- and Rs.5999/- p.m.


Q22 What is the rate of CCA in a ‘B1’ class city where pay and D.Pay is above Rs.6000/- p.m. –


Q23 What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a ‘B2’ Class City where basic pay & D.Pay is less than Rs.3000/- p.m. –

a) Rs.30/-b) Rs.25/- (RBE 140/97) c) Rs.35/-d) Rs.20/-

Q24 What is the rate of CCA of an employee in a ‘B2’ Class City where basic pay and D.Pay is between Rs.3000/- and Rs.4500/- p.m. –

a) Rs.40/-b) Rs.45/-c) Rs.30/-d) Rs.35/- (RBE 140/97)

Q25 What is the rate of CCA in a ‘B2’ class city where pay and D.Pay is in between Rs.4500/- and Rs.5999/- p.m.

a) Rs.60/-b) Rs.65/- (RBE 140/97) c) Rs.70/-d) Rs.75/-

Q26 What is the rate of CCA in a ‘B2’ class city where pay and D.Pay is more than Rs.6000/- p.m.


Q27 What is the name of allowances given to a railway employee to meet the higher rent they have to pay for private accommodation for non-availability of railway accommodation –

a) Special Allowanceb) House Rent Allowance c) Special Compensatory Allowanced) Marginalized Rent Allowance

Q28 What is the condition for drawing HRA in favour of employees who are living in their own house -

a) They are not eligible to get HRAb) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying income taxc) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying/contributing

towards house/property tax (R II – 1706)d) They are living in a house which is at least 25 km away from his

working place

Q29 What is the rate of CCA to an employee in an unclassified city –

a) 5% of Pay and D.Payb) 5% of pay onlyc) No CCA is given (RBE 140/97) d) 2% of Pay and D.Pay

Q30 What is the rate of HRA in an ‘A-1’ class city –

a) 25% of Pay and D.Payb) 20% of Pay and D.Payc) 35% of Pay and D.Payd) 30% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97)

Q31 What is the rate of HRA in an ‘A’ class city –

a) 20% of Pay and D.Payb) 15% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) c) 25% of Pay and D.Payd) 22.5% of Pay and D.Pay

Q32 What is the rate of HRA in ‘B-1’ and ‘B-2’ class cities –

a) 15% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) b) 12.5% of Pay and D.Pay c) 10% of Pay and D.Payd) 7.5% of Pay and D.Pay

Q33 What is the rate of HRA in a ‘C’ class city –

a) 10% of Pay and D.Pay b) 7.5% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) c) 12.5% of Pay and D.Payd) 8% of Pay and D.Pay

Q34 What is the rate of HRA to an employee in an unclassified city –

a) 7% of Pay and D.Payb) No HRA is drawnc) 5% of Pay and D.Pay (RBE 140/97) d) 6% of Pay and D.Pay

Q35 During leave without pay, how many days’ HRA and CCA can be drawn in favour of an employee –

a) 120 days’b) 150 days’c) 160 days’d) 180 days’ (RB’s lr.No.E(P&A)II 89/HRA/48 dt.07.08.92)

Q36 When a railway employee is on extraordinary leave, for how many days HRA and CCA can be drawn in favour of him –

a) 180 days’ b) 135 days’c) 160 days’d) 120 days’

Q37 In which of the following circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of an employee –

a) He/she lives in his/her daughter’s accommodation allotted by Govt but he incurs payment for rent

b) He/she lives in his/her own house but does not incur any expenditure on house or property tax

c) He/she lives in his/her brother’s accommodation provided by Govt. and incurs expenditure for rent (RB’s lr.No.E(P&A)II/89/HRA/1 dt.02.02.90)

d) He/she lives in his/her son’s accommodation provided by Govt.

Q38 Which element does not constitute leave salary on retirement

a) D.Payb) HRA & CCA c) D.A.d) Pay

Q39 At what rate can HRA and CCA be drawn when an employee is on suspension –

a) At the rate of subsistence allowanceb) At the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on

suspensionc) No HRA and CCA is admissibled) 75% of the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on

suspension

Q40 For how many days an employee is entitled to draw HRA & CCA during study leave –

a) 180 daysb) 150 daysc) 135 daysd) 120 days (RB’s lr.No.E(P&A)II/90/CCA-1 dt. 01.03.90)

Q41 What is the rate of Transport Allowance in a A-1/A Class City in scale Rs.8000-13500/- and above –

a) Rs.1000/-b) Rs.800/- c) Rs.600/-d) Rs.400/-

Q42 What is the rate of Transport Allowance in other than A-1/A Class City in scale Rs.8000-13500/- and above –

a) Rs.400/- b) Rs.600/-c) Rs.500/-d) Rs.300/-

Q43 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in scale Rs.6500-10500/- or above but below Rs.8000-13500/- in A-1/A class city -

a) Rs.600/-

b) Rs.500/-c) Rs.400/- d) Rs.300/-

Q44 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in scale Rs.6500-10500/- or above but below Rs.8000-13500/- in other places

a) Rs.200/- b) Rs.250/-c) Rs.300/-d) Rs.150/-

Q45 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay below scale Rs.6500-10500/- in A-1/A class city -

a) Rs.150/-b) Rs.175/-c) Rs.100/- d) Rs.125/-

Q46 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay below scale Rs.6500-10500/- in other cities than A-1/A class city -

a) Rs.100/-b) Rs.90/-c) Rs.60/-d) Rs.75/-

Q47 What is the rate of Transport Allowance to the handicapped railway employees who does not use railway vehicles -

a) Rs.10% of pay b) Double the normal rate of Transport allowance c) No changesd) Rs.1000/- to all

Q48 To be eligible for drawal of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work ?

a) 12 kmsb) 10 kmsc) 8 kms d) 9 kms

Q49 To get minimum rate of TA, i.e. 100%, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ

a) 14 hrsb) 12 hrs c) 10 hrsd) 7 hrs

Q50 To get 70% of TA, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ

a) 7 hrsb) 5 hrs

c) 6 hrs d) 4 hrs

Q51 The daily allowance/TA for continuous halt at a place may be drawn at full rate upto how many days –

a) 120 daysb) 150 daysc) 135 daysd) 180 days

Q52 The total amount of conveyance charge for a particular day shall not exceed what –

a) One day’s TA rate b) Rs.500c) Rs.100d) One months’ Transport allowance rate

Q53 What is the maximum no. of months for which HRA can be drawn in favour of a Govt. servant on transfer to another station who has been permitted to retain Govt. accommodation in the old station –

a) 4 monthsb) 8 months c) 6 monthsd) 12 months

Q54 In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport or the concerned State, what is the rate of taxi hire charges per km –

a) Rs.8 per km b) Rs.7 per kmc) Rs.7.50 per kmd) Rs.6 per km

Q55 In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport or the concerned State, what is the rate of auto rickshaw hire charges per km –

a) Rs.6 per kmb) Rs.5 per kmc) Rs.4 per km d) Rs.3 per km

Q56 What is the maximum days for which TA/DA can be drawn on a temporary transfer –

a) 150 daysb) 180 days c) 200 daysd) 170 days

Q57 What is the percentage of TA/DA eligible to a staff deputed to attend a training course where the course fee includes the cost of boarding and

lodging or the boarding and lodging is borne by the railway administration –

a) 100% of normal TA/DA rateb) 50% of normal TA/DA ratec) 20% of normal TA/DA rate d) 40% of normal TA/DA rate

Q58 What is the name of allowance drawn in favour of a railway employee on transfer to meet the expenses for shifting of luggage and family members –

a) Transfer and Packing Allowanceb) Transfer Advancec) Composite Transfer Grant (CTG) d) Transportation charges

Q59 What is the maximum amount of composite transfer grant that can be sanctioned in case of transfer from one station to another where the distance is beyond 20 kms –

a) Rs.10000/-b) One months’ gross salaryc) One months’ payd) One months’ pay and D.Pay

Q60 What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings including a car on transfer –

a) 75% of pay and D.Payb) 60% of pay and D.Payc) 50% of pay and D.Payd) 80% of pay and D.Pay

Q61 What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings but no car is carried –

a) 75% of pay and D.Pay b) 60% of pay and D.Payc) 50% of pay and D.Payd) 90% of pay and D.Pay

Q62 What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services prior to 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal effects on transfer –?

a) 85% of pay and D.Payb) 90% of pay and D.Payc) 80% of pay and D.Pay d) 75% of pay and D.Pay

Q63 What is the rate of CTG admissible for transfer within the same city/short distance transfer within the distance of 20 kms –

a) ½ of Pay and D.Pay

b) ¼ th of pay and D.Payc) 75% of Pay and D.Payd) 1/3 rd of Pay and D.Pay

Q64 Amongst the following categories, who are not eligible for Night Duty Allowance –

a) Excluded b) Intensivec) Continuousd) Essentially Intermittent

Q65 What is the rate of weightage for every hour of night duty –

a) 20 minutesb) 10 minutes c) 15 minutesd) 5 minutes

Q66 Working between which hours shall qualify for payment of Night Duty Allownace –

a) 22 to 06 hrs b) 24 to 06 hrsc) 23 to 06 hrsd) 01 to 06 hrs

Q67 Nursing staff of railway hospitals are not eligible to get which of the following allowances –

a) Nursing allowanceb) Washing allowancec) Night Duty allowance d) Uniform allowance

Q68 What is the rate of Nursing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –

a) Rs.1500/- p.m.b) Rs.1000/- p.m.c) Rs.1700/- p.m.d) Rs.1600/- p.m.

Q69 What is the rate of the uniform allowance admissible to a nursing staff –

a) Rs.2500/- p.m.b) Rs.3000/- p.m. c) Rs.2000/- p.m.d) Rs.2300/- p.m.

Q70 What is the rate of Washing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –

a) Rs.175/- p.m.b) Rs.200/- p.m.c) Rs.150/- p.m. d) Rs.125/- p.m.

Q71 What is the allowance given to a railway officer holding a permanent post taking charge of another post in addition to his own post –

a) Charge allowanceb) Dual Charge allowance c) Additional allowanced) Extra Duty allowance

Q72 What is the rate of dual charge allowance –

a) 20% of existing pay, DP, DAb) 30% of pay onlyc) 10% of pay, DP, DA d) 25% of pay and DA

Q73 What is the minimum days for which a dual charge allowance can be granted –


Q74 What is the allowance given to Telegraph Signaller when they clear 100 messages and for Teleprinter Operators 200 messages –

a) Telegraph allowanceb) Outturn allowance c) Teleprinter allowanced) Extra Duty allowance

Q75 What is the allowance drawn in favour of Railway Doctors to compensate for not practicing privately –

a) Doctor Allowanceb) Special Medical Allowancec) Non-practicing Allowance d) Extra Facility Allowance

Q76 What is the quantum of non-practicing allowance drawn in favour of Doctors –

a) 25% of Basic Pay and other allowances depending on pay (RB’s lr.No.F(E) Spl-89-Adv dt.05.10.89)

b) 25% if Pay & DA onlyc) Rs.2000/- p.m.d) 25% of Pay, D.Pay and DA only

Q77 Non-gazetted rly.servant who do not enjoy public holidays are granted –

a) Special Holiday Allowanceb) Compensatory Holiday Allowancec) National Holiday Allowance d) No allowance is given

Q78 What is the maximum basic pay upto which National Holiday Allowance can be drawn –

a) Rs.10000/- p.m.b) Rs.9750/- p.m.c) Rs.10300/- p.m.d) Rs.10500/- p.m. (RBE 151/98)

Q79 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get Night Duty Allowance –

a) Group C Workshop staffb) Group D Workshop staffc) Supervisory workshop staff working on regular shift dutyd) All the above

Q80 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get washing allowance –

a) All Group D staffb) Group D staff who are provided with uniform c) Group C staff provided with uniformd) None of the above

Q81 Project allowance is given for fulfilling which of the following conditions –

a) The project should be a large scale projectb) The construction is spread over a number of yearsc) The staff who are employed in the project must reside within the

project area or nearby localityd) All of the above

Q82 Which allowance is sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in a development block in Tribal plan area of some specific state –

a) Special Area Allowanceb) Tribal Area Allowance c) Development Area Allowanced) Extra Duty Allowance

Q83 What is the name of the allowance sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in remote areas in different states and Union Territories listed as per a, b, c & d –

a) Special Compensatory (Remote Locality) Allowance b) Far Area Allowancec) Extraordinary Allowanced) Extra Compensatory Allowance

Q84 What are the elements taken into account for drawal of overtime allowance for the railway employees who are governed by the Factories Act –

a) Pay + D.Pay + DA + HRA + CCA b) Pay + D.Pay + DA + CCAc) Pay + DA + HRA + CCAd) Pay + D.Pay + DA + HRA

Q85 Which of the following elements is not taken into account for drawal of overtime allowance for a railway employee governed by HOER –?

a) D.Payb) DAc) HRA d) CCA

Q86 When a rly.servant works on a temporary basis in other Govt. Department, Company, Corporation, provided the transfer is outside the normal field of deployment, he is entitled to get –

a) Extra Duty Allowanceb) Charge Allowancec) Dual Charge Allowanced) Deputation Allowance

Q87 The rate of deputation allowance as admissible when the transfer is within the same station is –

a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/-b) 5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/- c) 7.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-d) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-

Q88 The rate of deputation allowance when the transfer is outside the same station is –

a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/- b) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-c) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1500/-d) 12.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1250/-

Q89 Which scheme is intended to provide substantial motivation towards achievement of higher productivity –

a) Awardsb) PLB c) Honorariumd) Special benefits

Q90 How many days a casual labour or an employee having temporary status or substitute has to work to qualify for PLB –

a) 180 daysb) 150 daysc) 120 days d) 90 days

Q91 What is the maximum wage taken into account for drawal of PLB –

a) Rs.1600/- p.m.b) Rs.2000/- p.m.c) Rs.2500/- p.m. d) Rs.2800/- p.m.

Q92 Under what circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of a transferred railway servant who is still in occupation of railway accommodation in his earlier station of posting –

a) If he has permission to retain the said quarter b) He is eligible to get HRA irrespective of any permissionc) He is paying the rent for quarter in market rated) He is not eligible to get any HRA

Q93 What is the rate of HRA admissible to a transferred railway servant who is in occupation of a railway quarter in his old station but no permission has been taken for retention of the said quarters –

a) 50% of HRA admissible in the new stationb) No HRA is admissible in this case c) Rs.500/- p.m.d) None of the above

Q94 What is the name of the document issued by the salary bill compiling officer in favour of the staff transferred from the jurisdiction of one account to another and for those who retire from railway service showing details of the salary drawn and amount recovered in the last month of service –

a) Pay Certificateb) Salary particularsc) Last Pay Certificate (LPC) d) CO7

Q95 What is the new computerised package introduced in South Eastern Railway for drawal of salary –

a) AFRESb) COBOLc) PRIME d) LINUX

Q96 What is the full form of PRIME –

a) Pay Related Independent Module b) Pay Rate Insertion Modulec) Practical Relationship of Individual Moduled) None of the above

Q97 What is the allowance drawn in favour of a Gazetted Officer when he is posted to look after duties of his Senior Scale –

a) Gazetted Officer Allowanceb) Extra Duty Allowancec) Special Duty Allowanced) Charge Allowance

Q98 What is the amount of Charge Allowance –

a) Rs.1000/- p.m.b) The amount he should get if he is posted in the higher scale in

regular post subject to Rs.700/- as maximumc) 20% of payd) 15% of pay

Q99 What are the other allowances admissible on Charge Allowance –

a) All the other allowances b) DA and D.Pay onlyc) No other allowanced) HRA and CCA only

D&A Rules

RS(D&A) RULES

1) Which of the following Rules of D& A R’’1968 does specify the Penalties?

a) Rule 9b) Rule 11c) Rule 6d) Rule 5

2) Rule 9 of the R.S.(D &A) Rules’ 68 deals with the procedure for….

a) Suspensionb) Imposing of minor penaltiesc) Imposing of Major penaltiesd) Appeal

3) Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of Deemed Suspension?

a) S.F-1b) S.F.-3c) S.F-2d) S.F-5

4) Which of the following is not a penalty under S (D & A) Rules’ 68?

a) Censureb) Withholding of promotionc) Compulsory retirementd) Suspension

5) Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?

a) House rentb) Court attachmentc) Income Taxd) Station debits

6) Whether withholding of passes and PTOs should be for a specific period or for a number of set?

a) For a specific periodb) For number of setsc) Bothd) None of these

(Bd’s No. E (D&A) 61 –RG-6-34 Dt. 27-7-61 & E (D&A) 67 –RG-6-57 Dt. 14-12-66.

7) Minimum period of withholding of increment ……a) 2 monthsb) 3 monthsc) 4 monthsd) 6 months(CPO/GRC’s E.S.No.282/89)

8) A serving Rly. Servant can act as defense council in …..

a) 5 cases b) 3 casesc) 2 casesd) 4 cases

9) A retired railway servant is allowed to act as defense counsel in D&A proceedings for not more than –

a) 3 casesb) 5 casesc) 7 casesd) None(ES No. 80/03)

10) What is the relevant rule in RS(D&A) ules 1968 for common proceedings ?

a) Rule 9 b) Rule 11c) Rule 13 d) Rule 14

11) Who is the appointing authority when the records are not available in respect of actual appointing authority ?

a) Rly. Board b) GM c) PHODd) DRM/CWM (ES No.188/82)

12) Who will impose Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissal from service ?

a) Controlling officerb) Disciplinary authorityc) Appointing authorityd) None(ES: 34/86)

13) Reduction to a lower stage in a time-scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years without cumulative effect and not adversely effecting his pension comes under –

a) Major penaltyb) Minor penaltyc) Neither Major not Minor penaltyd) None(ES: 03/91)

14) Delinquent employee should be informed if charge sheet is dropped within a period of

a) 45 days b) 01 year

c) 02 monthsd) 03 months (ES: 213/66)

15) Disciplinary authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass –

a) Order for penaltyb) Speaking orderc) Order of the Enquiring Officer impose a penaltyd) None (ES: 90/92)

16) Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS(D&A) Rules 1968 ?

a) President of Indiab) Ministry of Railwaysc) Director Establishmentd) Secretary Railway Board

17) The Railway Servants D&A rules 1968 came into force w.e.from –

a) 01.10.1968b) 01.01.1968c) 01.11.1968d) 01.04.1968 (Rule 1 of DAR 1968)

18) Under the provisions of which article of the commission of India RS(D&A) rules have been amended from time to time ?

a) Article 310b) Article 311c) Article 309d) Article 421

19) Casual labour can be governed under D&A Rules –

a) After 4 months from engagement dateb) After 6 months from engagement datec) After attaining temporary statusd) After regular absorption (RB’s No.E/NG/60/CL/13 dated 13.5.1965)

20) Who is competent to sign the notice of final penalty?

a) Controlling Officerb) Enquiry Officer c) Disciplinary authority d) Appointing authority (ES: 11/68)

21) What is the time limit for submission of appeal under D&A Rules 1968?

a) 45 days b) 35 daysc) 25 days

d) 55 days (Rule 20 of RS(D&A) Rules 1968)

22) Consideration of appeal is governed by ____ of RS(D&A) Rules 1968.

a) Rule 25b) Rule 10c) Rule 22d) Rule 24

23) Which are the following authorities is empowered to order for cut in pension to a retired railway servant as a measure of penalty followed by DAR proceedings?

a) President b) GM c) Prime Ministerd) DRM/CWM (ES No. 38/2003)

24) How many numbers of Annexures are there in a major penalty charge memorandum ?

a) 2b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

25) While DAR is normally applicable to every railway servant, certain class of persons working on railways is expressly exempted which one of the following is not exempted?

a) A member of RPF as defined in RPF Act, 1957 b) A member of all India service c) A person in casual employment d) A casual labour with temporary status working on railways.

26) Forwarding of inquiry officer’s report is a must where an enquiry has been held before imposing penalty.

a) Nob) Reasonable opportunity has already been givenc) Yesd) None (E S: No. 289/89)

27) Suspension is not a punishment. However, suspension visits employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension?

a) All the privilege passes cannot be availedb) During the period, he cannot leave head quarter without permission of the DAc) He need not sign the attendance register d) No increment is drawn during the suspension period

(ES: No. 119/83)

28) What for S F-7 is issued?

a) To issue major charge sheetb) For placing an employee under suspensionc) For revocation of suspension d) For Appointment of inquiry officer.

29) In a disciplinary case while under suspension, the railway servant after a disciplinary inquiry is awarded a minor penalty only, the period of suspension is to be treated as …

a) Suspension onlyb) Leave at his creditc) Duty d) none (ES: 90/86)

30) How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against a railway employee under DAR’68?

a) One b) Fivec) elevend) Twelve

MAN POWER PLANNING

1. Q. What is vacancy Bank?(a) Where vacancies are kept.(b) International Bank of United Nations.(c) Money value of surrendered post.

Ans:(c) Authority: E(MPP)96/1/15 dated 26.06.96.

2. Q. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted Divisional Control posts.

(a) PHOD (b) HOD (c) DRM

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98

3. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted HQ Control & Workshop’s posts.

(a) PHOD (b) CWM (c) GM

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98, RBE NO. 172/98

4. Q. What is the surrender value for creation of Division controlled posts?(a) 50% more (b) 25% more (c) 100% more

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE NO. 172/98

5. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Board’s vacancy Bank for creation of HQ controlled and Workshops posts?

(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 25%

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE NO. 172/98

6. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Board’s vacancy Bank for creation of Divl. controlled posts?

(a) 25% (b) 75% (c) 50%

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98, Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE NO. 172/98

7. Q. What is the method of calculation for surrender and creation of posts?

(a) Pay(b) Pay + DA(c) Mean Pay+DP+DA

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)96/1/15/Pt. dated 30.09.2004, Estt. No. 225/04, RBE No. 214/2004

8. Q. Who is empowered to create operational posts, posts required to meet statutory requirement as also required for Security and Vigilance Department?

(a) GM (b) DRM (c) Rly. Board, subject to the approval of GM.

Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/91/PO/Genl/ 2 dated 24.06.91, Estt. No. 126/91.

9. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, who will provide the matching surrender for the said creation?

(a) From HQ Staff Bank(b) Railway revenue(c) Private party.

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92.

10. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, the surrender value can be utilised for creation of posts by the Railways?

(a) Yes(b) Crediting in the Staff Bank.(c) No

Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92.

11. Q. What is the intake ratio of manpower?(a) ½ of the retirement(b) 1/4th of the retirement(c) 1/3rd of the retirement

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/200312. Q. Which intake of manpower cannot be counted as a part of normal attrition for calculation of 1/3rd of retirement?

(a) Appointment through RRB.(b) Appointment on Sports Quota.(c) Compassionate appointment.

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/200313. Q. Whether the intake of manpower can be taken for Gr.-‘C’ & ‘D’?

(a) Only Gr.-‘C’(b) Only Gr.-‘D’(c) Together for Gr.-‘C’ & ‘D’

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/200314. Q. Whether resignation and transfer will be considered while calculating 1/3rd of retirement for intake?

(a) Only resignation will be counted.(b) Only transfer will be counted.(c) Both transfer & resignation will be counted.

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 15.03.2005, Estt. No.51/05.

15. Q. Which categories are exempted from the purview of rightsizing?(a) Ministerial Categories.(b) Group-‘D’ categories.(c) RPF categories

Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 Pt. dated 02.09.03, Estt. Srl. No.144/03

16. Q. Except RPF Category, which categories are exempted from the purview of rightsizing?

(a) Group-‘D’ categories.

(b) Ministerial Categories.(c) Safety categories

Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 10.09.03, Estt. Srl. No. 149/03.

17. Q. How surplus Staff are identified?(a) The senior most of the employees (b) The employee who retired shortly.(c) The junior most of the employees

Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91

18. Q. What is the procedure for dealing with vacant surplus posts having DR quota?

(a) Kept frozen(b) Transfer to other Units.(c) Surrendered

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No. 221/00

19. Q. What is the procedure for dealing with manned surplus posts?(a) Transfer to other Units.(b) Surrender(c) Staff profile and redeployment plan should be drawn

Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00

20. Q. What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff retiring shortly?

(a) At the other station in any deptt. (b) At the other station.(c) At the same station in any deptt.


21. Q. Staff who retiring shortly and can not be redeployed at same station what procedure will be followed?

(a) Posts should be frozen.(b) Posts should be transferred to other Units.(c) Staff should be placed against Special Supernumerary posts.


22. Q. What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff in grade Rs.2550-3200/-

(a) Within any grade of group-‘D’ in accepting department. (b) In the next higher grade of the accepting department. (c) In the same grade of the accepting department.


23. Q. What is the procedure for training of surplus staff other than in grade Rs.2550-3200/-?

(a) Not to be retrained before redeployment(b) Retrained after redeployment(c) Retrained before redeployment


24. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff against posts having element of DRQ other than the grade Rs.2550-3200/-?

(a) Posted in any grade (b) Posted in the net higher grade (c) Posted in the same grade


25. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff where direct recruitment vacancies in the same grade are not available?

(a) After creation of the special supernumerary post(b) Redeployed against DPQ.(c) Accepting deptt. along with the post


26. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of re-deployment of surplus staff in the case of grades having element of DRQ.

(a) Two months (b) Six months (c) Four months


27. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff working in intermediate grades.

(a) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post before training (b) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post without training (c) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post after training


28. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of re-deployment in the case of surplus staff in intermediate grades?

(a) Four months(b) Two months(c) Six months


29. Q. What is the procedure to be followed for dealing with surplus staff found unfit for re-deployment after training?

(a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training (b) Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post. (c) Placed against special supernumerary posts


30. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment in case of small number of staff?

(a) Merged with bottom seniority(b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment(c) Merged with full seniority


31. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to new Units in case of large number of staff?

(a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training (b) Merged with bottom seniority(c) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification


32. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to existing Units in case of large number of staff?

(a) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification(b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment(c) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training


33. Q. Whether pay and allowances will be admissible to surplus staff undergoing re-deployment training

(a) NO(b) Only pay(c) Yes


34. Q. What is the procedure to accommodate the staff rendered surplus where vacant posts are not available?

(a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training (b) Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post. (c) To create special supernumerary posts


35. Q. Fixation of pay of RRB recruited staff rendered Surplus appointed from a higher grade to lower grade or equivalent alternative posts.

(a) Pay will be fixed as per normal rule.(b) Personal pay equal to the appropriate number of increment.(c) Increments equal to the number of years


36. Q. Fixation of pay of the RRB recruited staff appointed to an alternative post carrying an identical time scale

(a) Increments equal to the number of years(b) Completed years of service in the higher posts.(c) Pay should be fixed under the normal rules.


SUITABILITY TEST

Q 1. Who is the competent authority to decide the classification of posts as Non-selection in each Department?

a) GMb) HODc) Rly. Boardd) DRM

Ans: c) (para 210-212 of IREM 1989)

Q2. A suitability test should held at the interval which should not be less then:-

a) 4 monthsb) 6 monthsc) 12 monthsd) 15 months.

Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No. 16/64)

Q3. The period of 6 months for holding a fresh suitability test is reckoned from :-

a) The date of assessment of vacancy b) The date of announcement of the previous resultc) After completion of promotion orderd) None of these

Ans: b) (Para 5 of IREM ’89)

Q4. How many Officers are required for holding a departmental suitability test?

a)1b)2c)3d)4

Ans: a)

Q5. In case of suitability test, the vacancies are to calculated on the basis of :-

a) Existing vacancyb) Anticipated vacancyc) Resultant vacancy d) All of the above

Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No. 51/98)

Q6. In case of suitability test, anticipated vacancies will be taken into account for the:-

a) Next 4 monthsb) Next 6 monthsc) Next 12 monthsd) Next 15 months


Q7. In case of Trade test, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the :-


Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No. 144/96)

Q8. What is the number of staff to be called for appearing in Suitability/Trade test for Promotion to non-selection post in Gr.’C’ category?

a) 3 times the number of vacanciesb) 5 times the number of vacanciesc) Equal to the number of vacancies d) None of the above

Ans: c) (Estt. Srl.No. 51/98)

Q9. Non selection posts are filled by promotion of staff on the basis of:-

a) Seniorityb) Suitabilityc) Seniority-cum-Suitabilityd) None of these

Ans: c)

Q10. Continuity suitability test will be done within:-

a) 4 monthsb) 6 monthsc) 12 monthsd)15 months


Q11. What period of service in the lower grade is required for promotion in Gr.’C’ post (Non-safety Category) ?

a) 1 yearb) 2 yearsc) 3 yearsd) 4 years


Q12. The condition of 2 years service should stand fulfilled a)At the time of actual promotionb)At the stage of considerationc)At the stage of appearing the suitability testd)None of these


Q13. Modified suitability will be held on the basis of

a) Written testb) Viva-vocec)Written test and Viva-voced)Service record and confidential reports/working report


Q14. How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against an unreserved vacancy ?

a) 40 %b) 50%c) 60%d) 80%


Q15. How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against a reserved vacancy?

a) 40 %b) 50%c) 60%d) 80%


SELECTION

Q1. Who is the authority to declare a post as selection or non-selection?

a)GMb)PHODc)Rly.Boardd)DRM

Ans: c) para 212 of IREM’89

Q2. How many members will be there in a Selection Board for forming a panel in selection posts?

a)5b)3c)4d)1

Ans: b) Para 218(a) of IREM

Q3. In case of selection post, the vacancy will be calculated on the basis of

a) Existing vacancyb) Anticipated vacancyc) Resultant vacancyd) All of the above

Ans: d) Para 215 (f) of IREM’89

Q4. In case of selection, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the:-


Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No.160/97)

Q5. What number of staff are to be called in a selection of Gr ’C’ post?

a) Equal to the number of vacancyb) 3 times the number of vacancyc) 5 times the number of vacancyd) None of the above

Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No.290/76)

Q6. Modified selection will be held on the basis of:-

a) Written testb) Viva-vocec) Written test and Viva-voced) Service record and confidential report


-2-

Q7. An employee belonging to general community must secure how many marks for becoming eligible to be empanelled?

a) 30 marks out of 50 for professional abilityb) Over all 50 marks out of 100c) Over all 40 marks out of 100d) 60% in overall aggregate including 60% in professional ability and viva-voce

Ans: d)

Q8. Second supplementary selection may be held with the personal approval of :-

a) CPOb) DRMc) GMd) Rly.Board

Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No.181/86)

Q9. A panel once approved may be cancelled after obtaining the approval of:-

a) Selection Boardb) Authority who approved the panelc) Authority next higher than one who approved the paneld) GM

Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No.32/69)

Q10. What percentages of marks are to be obtained in the selection for being declared “outstanding”?

a) 50%b) 60%c) 80%d) 70%

Ans: c)

Q11. An employee belonging to reserved community must secure how many marks for becoming eligible to be empanelled against reserved vacancy?

a) 25 marks out of 50 for professional abilityb) Over all 60 marks out of 100c) Over all 40 marks out of 100d) 50% in overall aggregate

Ans: d)

Q12. The life of a selection panel is:-

a) 6 monthsb) 1 yearc) 2 years

d) None of these

Ans: c) para 220 of IREM’89

Q13. In selection posts if the required number of staff of reserved community against reserved posts is not available even by applying relaxed standards of examination, the best among the failed candidates, who secure only ____ % of the marks under each of items of judging the suitability of the candidates, will be promoted on ad-hoc basis with in-service training.

a) 10%b) 15%c) 20%d) 25%

Ans : c) (Estt.Srl.No.230/85)

PAY FIXATION

Q1. How many pay commission have been getting to Central Govt. employee.a) 1b) 2c) 4d) 5

Ans: d)

Q2. When a staff is appointed in as clerk in scale Rs.3050-4590 which rate of pay will be given as general case?

a) Rs.3050/-b) Rs.3200/-c) Rs.3350/-d) Rs.3875/-

Ans: a)

Q3. A Rly. Employee is working in scale Rs.3050-4590 and drawing pay @ Rs.4430/- subsequently he promoted in scale Rs.4500-7000/- what pay will be fixed in normal procedure.

a) Rs.4625/-b) Rs.4500/-c) Rs.5000/-d) Rs.4825/-

Ans: a)

Q4. For fixation of pay on promotion how many days are required for completion of service?

a) 30 daysb) 20 daysc) 22 daysd)15 days

Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 267/69)

Q5. What % of pay will be added to the basic pay of a running staff parentally posted in a Non- running post?

a) 30%b) 40%c) 20%d) None of these

Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No. 133/87 & 45/64)

Q.6 How many Rs.(minimum) to be added to pay in the lower grade before fixing the pay in the higher post on promotion :

a) Rs.75/-b) Rs.100/-c) Rs.80/-d) None of these

Ans. b) (Estt.Srl.No. 264/99)

Q7. A Rly. Employee submitted an option for fixation of pay on promotion from the date of increment in the lower grade. This will be applicable w.e.f.

a) 1.2.81

b) 1.5.81c) 1.1.82d) None of these


Q8. Senior employee will get stepping up of pay vis-a-vis junior so promoted if the junior: -

a) Promoted on regular post on regular measureb) Promoted on ad-hoc basisc) Promoted in an ex-cadre postd) None of these

Ans: a)

Q9. If a junior employee promoted to higher post and submitted an option for fixation of pay w.e.f the date of increment, senior employee will be given

a) Stepping up of payb) Antedatec) Neither stepping up nor antedate

Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 118/82)

Q10. Stagnation increment should be taken into account for purpose of fixation of pay on promotion w.e.f.

a) 30.9.92b) 30.9.93c) 30.9.94d) 30.9.95

Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No. 143/93,206/93 & 2/94)

Q11. A employee is working in a cadre post; subsequently he is transferred on promotion against Ex-cadre post. Thereafter he has been promoted further in higher grade against ex-cadre Post his pay will be fixed on the basis of :

a) From ex-cadre to ex-cadreb) From cadre to ex-cadrec) None of these

Ans; b) (Estt.Srl.No. 14/86)

Q.12. Senior was promoted without Spl. pay of Rs.70/- but junior was promoted with Spl. pay of Rs.70/- senior will given

a) Stepping of payb) Same pay at per with juniorc) None of these

Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 274/88,158/90)

Q13. The stagnation increment for an employee will count for a) DA,HRA & CCAb) Pensionery benefitsc) Fixation of pay on promotiond) All of the above


Q14. No Rly. Servant will become eligible for the 1st stagnation increment in the revised scale (RSRPR’97) of pay before:

a) 1.1.96b) 1.1.97c) 1.1.98d) 1.1.99

Ans: c)

Q15. A person is appointed in sports quota in scale Rs.2550-55-3200/-in maximum pay. His pay will be fixed in:

a) Rs.3200/-b) Rs.3145/-c) Rs.3090/-d) Rs.2960/-

Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No.128/2000)

Q16. A person is appointed against sports quota in scale Rs.3050-75-3890-80-4590/-in maximum pay. His pay will be fixed in:

a) Rs.4590/-b) Rs.4430/-c) Rs.4270/-d) Rs.3875/-

Ans: d) Estt.Srl.No.128/2000)

Q17. Benefits of 2nd pay commission of Central Govt Employee were implemented from:

a)1.1.58b)1.7.59c)1.7.58d)1.1.59

Ans: b)

Q18. Initial yearly increment in the grade of Rs.2550-3200/- is:

a) Rs.45/-b) Rs.50/-c) Rs.55/-d) Rs.60/-

Ans: c) (RSRPR’97)-4-Q19. What is the initial yearly increment in the grade Rs.2610-3540/- ?

a) Rs.50/-b) Rs.60/-c) Rs.65/-d) Rs.70/-

Ans. b) (RSRPR’97)

Q20. Which of the following amount is the initial yearly increment in the grade 2650-4000?

a) Rs.65/-b) Rs.70/-c) Rs.75/-d) Rs.80/-

Ans: a) (RSRPR’97)

Q21. In the grade of Rs.2750-4400/- initial yearly increment is:

a) Rs.65/-b) Rs.70/-c) Rs.80/-d) Rs.75/-

Ans: b) (RSRPR’97)

Q22. RSRPR’97 took effect from:

a) 1.1.97b) 1.7.97c) 1.1.96d) 1.7.96

Ans c)

Q23. Which is the highest basic pay emphasized in RSRPR’97?

a) Rs.30,000/-b) Rs.28,800/-c) Rs.28,000/-d) Rs.26,000/-

Ans: d) (RSRPR’97)

Q24. What is the initial increment in scale Rs.3050-4590/- ?

a) Rs.55/-b) Rs.65/-c) Rs.75/-d) Rs.80/-

Ans: c) (RSRPR’97)

Q25. A person appointed in Sports Quota having gold medal winning performance in Senior National Level in scale Rs.3050-4590/-. His pay will be fixed in: -

a) Rs.4590/-b) Rs.5000/-c) Rs.3875/-d) Rs.4350/-

Ans: c) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q.26. What will be the fixation of pay of a person having medal winning performance in Olympic games and appointed in scale Rs.6500-10500/-?

a) Rs.6500/-b) Rs.8100/-c) Rs.9500/-d) Rs.10500/-

Ans: b) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q27. In Scale Rs.4500-7000/- in Talent Scouting recruitment for outstanding performance, fixation of pay permitted upto maximum of:

a) Rs.4625/-b) Rs.4750/-c) Rs.4875/-d) Rs.5000/-


Q28. How many increment(s) will be given to an employee for gold medal winning performance during the National Championship?

a) 7b) 5c) 4d) 2

Ans: d) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

Q29. Who is the advising authority for granting increment for Excellence at National Level?

a) GMb) Finance Commissionerc) Railway Boardd) None of the above


Q30. What will be the fixation of pay at initial recruitment in scale Rs.5500-9000/- of a person having consistent gold medal winning performance in Senior International meets on more than two occasions and also consistent gold medal winning performance at Senior National Level?

a) Rs.9000/-b) Rs.8125/-c) Rs.7075/-d) Rs.6375/-

Ans: d) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)

ADVANCES

1. Who is the authority to grant the advance for purchase of convenience?

a) HOD b) JAG Office c) Sr. Scale Officerd) Jr. Scale/Gr. BAnswer: a) HOD (ES No.57/2000)

2. Which Ministry does control the House Building Advance?

a) Railwaysb) Urban affairs and employmentc) Pensioners and Public welfared) Rural developmentAnswer: (b) Urban affairs and employment (ES No.57/2000)

3. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of bicycle?a) 4.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 7.5%Answer: b) 5.5% (ES No.186/2004)

4. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor car?a) 11.5% b) 8.5% c) 9.5% d) 7.5%Answer: a) 11.5% (ES No.186/2004)

5. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of House Building Advance for amount upto Rs.1, 50,000/- ?a) 4.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 7.5%Answer: c) 6.5% (ES No.85/2003)

6. Final withdrawal of PF Advance is granted to an employee whose basic pay is _______a) Rs.8300/- b) Rs.10000/- c) Rs.10500/- d) Rs.12000/-Answer: c) Rs.10500/- (ES No.90/98)

7. For drawal of composite transfer grant 50% of dearness pay has been merged with basic pay w.e.from _____ a) 01.01.1996 b) 01.01.2004 c) 01.04.2004 d) 01.12.2004Answer: c) 01.04.2004

8. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor cycle / scooter / moped?a) 7.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5%

d) 8%Answer: d) 8% (ES No.186/2004)

9. What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a motor car?a) Rs.10500 & Rs.180000 b) Rs.11500 & Rs.160000 c) Rs.12000/- & Rs.170000 d) Rs.12500 & Rs.190000

Answer: a) Rs.10500 & Rs.180000 (ES No. ________)

10.Store advance is required to be debited to _____a) Miscellaneous head b) Advance head c) Salary head d) NoneAnswer: c) Salary head (Chapter XI of IRPM)

11.Rate of interest for SRPF for the year 2004-05 is _____a) 7.5% b) 5.5% c) 6.5% d) 8%Answer: d) 8% (ES No.202/2004)

12.What amount of advance will be granted to a Gr.B Officer in the event of natural calamity?

a) Rs.5000 b) b) Rs.6000 c) c) Rs.10000 d) d) None

Answer: d) None (ES No.84/98)

13.How much quantum of natural calamity advance is admissible to a non-gazetted railway employee?

a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.4500 c) Rs.5500 d) Rs.6000

Answer: a) Rs. 5000 (ES No.________)

14.Non-gazetted who are in receipt of basic pay not exceeding Rs…….is eligible for festival advance.

15.What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a cycle?a) Rs.1400 & Rs.4500 b) Rs.1600 & Rs.5500 c) Rs.1800/- d) Rs.1500 & Rs.5000

Answer: c) Rs.10500/- (ES No.90/98)

APPOINTMENT ON COMPASSIONATE GROUND

Qn.1. The rule governing employment assistance on compassionate ground has framed w.e.f.

a) 30.4.1993b) 30.4.1948c) 30.4.1979d) 30.4.1980

Ans. 1.(c) [Authority: Board’s letter No.E(NG)III/78/RC-1/1 dated:30.4.1979,(SER-Esstt.Srl.No.163/79)]

Qn.2. First consolidated instruction regarding appointment on compassionate ground was issued under Estt.Srl.No.

a) 163/79b) 120/83c) 12/85d) 202/80

Ans. 2. ( b ) [Authority: Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/78/RC-1/1 dated:7.4.1983]

Qn.3. The existing orders/circulates were consolidated into one Master Circular on the subject of appointment on compassionate ground was issued under:-

a) Master Circular No.13b) Master Circular No.14c) Master Circular No.15d) Master Circular No.16

Ans. 3. (d) Master Circular No.16 [Authority: Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/90/RC-1/117 dated:12.12.1990]

Qn.4. For over looking the priority list, who is empower for appointment in Gr.’D’ post.

a) ADRMb) DRMc) CPOd) GM

Ans. 4. ( c ), [Authority: Board’s letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated: 7.4.1983 (SER-Esstt.Srl. No. 120/83)]

Qn.5. In case of appointment to Gr.C post sanction of which authority must be obtain to depart from the priority list.

a) DRMb) CPOc) Departmental PHODd) GM

Ans. 5. (d ), [Authority: Board’s letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated: 7.4.1983 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)]

Qn.6. Initially 5 yrs. time limit were to be relaxed up to 10 yrs. in death cases, with the approval of ---

a) DRMb) CPOc) Departmental PHODd) GM

Ans. 6. (d), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.106/85)]

Qn.7. Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment of 1st son/1st daughter, where request has been made after a period of

5 yrs. from the date of medical invalidation, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)?

a) DRMb) CPOc) AGMd) GM

Ans. 7. (d) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-1/64 dated:28.7.2000 (SER- Estt.Srl. No.144/2000)]

Qn.8. Who is empowered for compassionate appointment of other than 1st

son/1st daughter, where request has been made after a period of 5 yrs. from the date of death, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)?

a) GMb) DRMc) AGMd) CPO

Ans. 8. (a) [Authority: Board’s letter No. dated: (SER-Estt.Srl. No.146/2000)]

Qn.9. Consideration of application submitted more than 2 yrs. after the candidate becoming major is done by ----

a) Railway Boardb) GMc) CPOd) DRM

Ans. 9. (b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. dated: (SER-Estt. Srl. No. 146/2000)]

Qn.10 For recruitment to Gr.D post in the Railways, minimum educational qualification prescribed as Class-VIII pass has been effective from ---

a) 4.10.98b) 4.11.98.c) 4.12.98d) 4.12.99

Ans. 10.(c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RR-1/107 dated: 4.12.98.(RBE No. 277/98) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 18/99)]

Qn.11 Which of the persons have been exempted from processing the educational qualification as Class-VIII pass for compassionate appointment in Gr.’D’ post?

a) Son of the ex-employeeb) Daughter of the ex-employeec) Brother of the ex-employeed) Widow of the ex-employee

Ans. 11. (b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-1/139 dated:4.3.99. (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 68/99)]

Qn.12 What is the upper age limit for recruitment in a Gr.C post?a) 25 yrs.b) 26 yrs.c) 28 yrs.d) 30 yrs.

Ans. 12. (d)] Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004

Qn.13 The maximum age limit for appointment of Gr.D employees belonging to general community --

a) 28 yrs.

b) 30 yrs.c) 33 yrs.d) 35 yrs.

Ans. 13. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated: 9.9.2004, ( RBE No.199/2004), (SER-Estt.Srl. No. 221/2004)]

Qn.14 What is the Lower age limit for recruitment of a general candidate in Gr.C/D Category?

a) 18 yrs.b) 20 yrs.c) 25 yrs.d) 30 yrs.

Ans. 14. (a) IREM provision.

Qn.15 Relaxation of lower age limits upto 1 yr. (i.e. 17 yrs.)for appointment in compassionate ground can be considered by ----

a) GMb) CPOc) Railway Boardd) DRM

Ans. 15. (a) [Authority: Board’s letter No. dated: (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 120/83)]

Qn.16 Relaxation of lower age limit beyond 1 yr. for appointment in compassionate ground will require the approval of ---

a) DRMb) GMc) Ministry of Railwaysd) CPO

Ans. 16. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. dated: ( SER.Estt.Srl. No. 120/83)]

Qn.17 In making appointment on compassionate ground, who may relax age limit in case of appointment to Gr.D post?

a) ADRMb) DRMc) CPOd) GM

Ans. 17. (b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/90/RC-1/117 dated: 12.12.1990, ( MG- 16 )]

Qn.18 The candidate shall acquire the requisite qualification within a prescribed time limit of 2 yrs to get compassionate appointment, with the permission of

a) CPOb) Deptt.HODc) GMd) Railway Board

Ans. 18. (d) (SER. Estt.Srl. No. 57/89)]

Qn.19 While the employee, who is medically incapacitated or decategorised and retired from service, and has no son or daughter or son/daughter is minor, wife can get compassionate appointment with the approval of --

a) DRMb) CPO

c) Deptt.HODd) GM

Ans. 19. (b) (SER. Estt.Srl. No.228/84)]

Qn.20 Married daughter can be given compassionate appointment as a matter of discretion and satisfaction that she would be act as a bread winner of the family by --

a) DRMb) CPOc) GMd) Railway board

Ans. 20. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/85/RC-1/10 dated:16.4.1987(SER-Estt.Srl. No.115/87)]

Qn.21 Compassionate appointment to a dependant brother / sister of a railway employee dying as a bachelor/spinster can be offered by --


Ans. 21.(b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/88/RC-1/Policy dated:4.9.96. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.5/97)]

Qn.22 Wards / widows of the missing railway employees can get compassionate appointment with the permission of --

a) GMb) Deptt. HODc) CPOd) DRM

Ans. 22.(a) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/210 dated:26.7.98 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.289/98)]

Qn.23 Adopted son / daughter can be considered for compassionate appointment with the approval of ---

a) Railway Boardb) GMc) DRMd) CPO

Ans. 23.( b ) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/96/RC-1/1/Policy, dated: 21.5.85 (SER- Estt.Srl. No.141/88)]

Qn.24 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to Dependent divorced/widowed daughter, (similar to the case of married daughter) --

a) CPOb) GMc) DRMd) Railway Board

Ans. 24.(b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/ER/5, dated:21.11.01 ( RBE No.224/2001), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.157/01)]

Qn.25 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to the wards of missing railway employees up to 20 yrs. old case –

a) DRMb) GMc) CPOd) Railway board

Ans. 25.(b) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/99/RC-1/SC/12 dated: 7.3.01. (SER-Estt.Srl. No.51/2001)]

Qn.26 How many chances are given by GM to the widow to appear in the suitability test in case of compassionate appointment-

a) 1st

b) 2nd

c) 3rdd) 4th

Ans. 26. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/Genl/II, dated:21.9.01.(RBE No.192/01), (SER Estt.Srl. No.128/2001)]

Qn.27 Compassionate appointment in favour of wife/eligible wards of the ex-employee who are medically decategorised between 29.4.99 and 18.1.2000 but were retired after 18.1.2000 can be granted by --

a) GMb) CPOc) DRMd) Railway Board

Ans. 27. (a) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/2000/RC-1/Gen/17 dated:26.5.04. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.125/04)

Qn.28 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment in the clerical category?

a) CPOb) Ministry of Railwaysc) GMd) DRM

Ans. 28. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/91/RR-1/20 dated: 10.3.92. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.60/92)]

Qn.29 Compassionate appointment to the wards of CPC as Casual Staff as Casual Labour (fresh face) or as Substitute can be granted by –

a) Railway Boardb) CPOc) DRMd) GM

Ans. 29. (d) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/22 dated: 01.4.97.(SER- Estt.Srl. No.91/97)]

Qn.30 Which one of the following would not come within the categories of person eligible for compassionate appointment

a) Brother-in-lawb) Daughterc) Sond) Wife

Ans. 30. (a) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/87/RC-1/152 dated: 19.10.87. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.73/91)]

Qn.31 Compassionate appointment case will be considered to the wards of the missing employee before how many years of scheduled date of retirement from which he has been missing --

a) Less than 1 year to retireb) Less than 2 year to retirec) Less than 3 year to retired) Less than 4 year to retire

Ans. 31. ( b )

Qn.32 Who is competent authority to exercise powers in regard to appointment of dependents of Gazetted Officers on compassionate grounds in Gr.’C’ and ‘D’ in the initial grade?

a) CPOb) Railway Boardc) DRMd) GM

Ans. 32. (d ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)]

Qn.33 In case of Gr.D post the power to make compassionate appointment is vested to

a) DRMb) GMc) CPOd) Railway Board

Ans. 33. (a ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.163/79)

Qn.34 Wards/Widow of a Casual Labour with temporary status can be considered for compassionate appointment at the discretion of --

a) CPOb) Railway Boardc) DRMd) GM

Ans. 34. ( d ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No.94/87)

Qn.35 Minimum educational qualification for compassionate appointment to the NTPC Category is --

a) Graduate Degreeb) Matriculation with 50% marksc) Passed in Matriculationd) Passed Class-VIII

Ans. 35. ( c ) (CPO’s letter dtd:23.10.92)

Qn.36 Who is the competent authority to grant higher fixation of pay to a compassionate appointee?

a) DRMb) GMc) CPOd) Railway Board

Ans. 36. (d) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.266/83)

Qn.37 The candidates applying for appointment on compassionate ground in a Gr.C post, suitability test should be adjudged by Sr. Scale Officers consists of--

a) 1 members b) 2 membersc) 3 membersd) 4 members

Ans. 37.( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 274/89)

Qn.38 The minimum qualification to the post of Skilled Artisan for the compassionate appointee is prescribed as --

a) Class X pass with 3 yrs. training

b) Class VIII pass with 3 yrs. training c) Dip. Holder with 3 yrs. training d) Class XII pass with 3 yrs. training

Ans. 38.( a) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.127/2000)

Qn.39 The 2nd wife and her child is considered for compassionate appointment on the following stipulation --

a) 2nd marriage has been done by own decisionb) 2nd marriage done with the consent of 1st wifec) Administration have given permission for 2nd marriaged) 2nd marriage done without intimation of the Admn.

Ans. 39. ( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 20/92)

Qn.40 Find the odd man out from the following in connection with the compassionate appointment: -

a) A declaration is necessary to maintain the family member b) A declaration is not necessary to maintain the family memberc) Dependent family member kept on recordd) Service will be terminated if the family members are neglected

Ans. 40. ( b ) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.200/2000)

Qn.41 Who is the competent authority to terminate the service of a compassionate appointee after giving ‘Show Cause Notice’ for non-compliance of any condition of properly maintaining the dependent family member?

a) Sr. DPOsb) Any JAG Officerc) GM/CPOd) Any Sr. Scale OfficerAns. 41.(c) (Esstt.Srl.No.47/2002, 20/2000)

Qn.42 Who is the competent authority to monitor to set right the difficulties/delays in providing appointment on compassionate grounds at Divisional level

a) DRMsb) ADRMsc) Sr.DPOsd) APOsAns. 42. (c) [Authority: Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-I/64/17 dt:30.7.02)

( P/Comp/Poly/Pt.VI, dtd: 26.12.2002)

Qn.43 By whom, the difficulties/delays in providing appointment on compassionate grounds will be monitored at Hd.Qrts. level to set right?

a) AGMb) DGMc) CPOd) CPO(A)Ans. 43.(d)

Indents/Recruitment

1. Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are Placed on :-

(a)Chief Personnel Officer(b)General Manager(c)Railway Recruitment Board(d) Divisional Railway Manager

Answer: 1(c)S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.95/2001)

2. How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway Recruitment Board in a year:-

(a)Two (b)three(c)four(d)five

Answer: 2(a) RBE No.136/2001&S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.95/2001)

3. Currency of relaxation of 3 years upper age limit extended upto:

(a) 03.8.2005(b) 03.8.2004(c) 03.8.2003(d) 03.8.2002

Answer: 3(a) (RBE No.199/2004&S,.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No 221/2004)

4. Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC :-

(a)15%(b)10%(c)7.5%(d)27%

Answer: 4(d) (RBE No.234/2002 & S.E.Rly’s Estt Srl.No.44/2003).

5. Educational Qualification for recruitment of Prob. Assistant Station Master against Direct Recruitment Quota is:-

(a) Graduate(b) Diploma(c) Degree(d) Higher Secondary

Answer: 5(a) Estt.Srl.No.41/2001)

6. What is the percentage for Direct Recruitment Quota of ASM:-(a)25%(b)40%(c)60%(d)20%

Answer: 5(a) S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.41/2001

7. Designation of Diesel/Electric Assistant in scale Rs.3050-4590 has been re-designated as:

(a)Assistant Driver(Diesel/Elect)(b)Asstt.Loco Pilot(Diesel/Elect)(c)Technician, Gr.III(d)Motorman

Answer: 7(b) (RBE No.29/2004 & S.E.Rly’s .48/2004)

8. Currency of Group-C panels supplied by RRBs is:-

(a)One year(b)Two year(c)Six month(d)Three month

Answer: 8(a) (RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.79/2002).

9. Education Qualification for recruitment of Group-D posts is:-

(a)Class X(b)Class IX(c)Class V(d)Class VIII

Answer: 9(d) (RBE NO.237/99 & SE.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No. 274/99)

10. Training period of Diesel/Electric Assistant is:-

(a) 39 weeks(b) 45 days(c) 6 months(d) 12 months

Answer: 10(a) (RBE No.254/98 & S.E.Rly’s Estt. Srl.No.281/98)

11. Switchman is now re-designated as :(a) Trackman(b) Gangman(c) Cabin Master(d) Messenger

Answer: 11(c)(RBE No.nil & S.E.Rly.Estt. Srl No.288/99)

12. Indent for CKP & RNC Division are placed with:-

(a) RRB/KOL(b) RRB/RNC(c) RRB/BBS(d) RRB/SC

Ans: 12 (b) Authority: RRCB No. 12/2004

13. Indent for HQ, KGP & ADA Divisions are placed with:-

(a)RRB/KOL

(b)RRB/RNC(c)RRB/BBS(d)RRB/SC

Ans.: 13(a)Authority : RRCB No. 12/2004.

14. Physically Efficiency Test(PET) is made for recruitment of :-(a)Group-C post(b)Group-D post(c)Group-A post(d)Group-B post Ans: 14(d) & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.112/2002)

15. Currency of Group-D panels formed by RRB is:-(a)One year(b)Two year(c)Six month(d)three month

Ans: 15(b) S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.251/2004)

16. Quota Reserved for Ex.Serviceman for Group-C posts:-(a)20%(b)3%(c)10%(d)15%

Ans: 16(c) S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81)

17. Quota Reserved for Ex. Serviceman for Group-D posts is:-(a) 10%(b) 20%(c) 15%(d) 27%

Ans: 17(b)(S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81)

18. D.R.Quota for O.S.Gr.II after restructuring:-

(a) 10%(b) 20%(c) 50%(d) 13.1/3%

Ans: 18(b)(RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)

19. What is the percentage for Personnel Inspector, Gr.I against D.R. Quota after restructuring:-

Ans: 19(b) (RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)

20. Direct Recruitment Quota for Depot Material SupdtIn scale Rs.6500-10500 after restructuring:-(a) 10%(b) 20%(c) 30%

(d) 50%Ans: 20(b) (RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)

21. What is the compulsory test for the candidates who qualify in the written examination for the posts of Switchman, ASM, Diesel/Elect Asstt., Goods Driver & Motorman:-(a) Physical Test(b) Psychological Test(c) Interview Test(d) Merit Test

Ans: 21(b) (RBENo.144/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.151/2003)

22. What is the D.R.Quota for the categories of TNC, TC, CC,Shroff,& Office Clerk:-(a)25%(b)30%(c)50%(d)20%

Ans: 22(c)(RBE No.165/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.145/2003)

23. Direct Recruitment Quota for filling up vacancies of ESM-III/MSM-III, TCM-III & WTM-III of S&T Deptt. is:-(a)50%(b)30%(c)25%(d)20%

Ans: 23(a) (RBE No.10/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.41/2003)

24. Calculation of vacancies in safety categories is made on the basis of:-

(a) Existing vacancies only(b) Anticipated vacancies upto two years only (c) Existing vacancies plus anticipated vacancies including Training period

upto two years(d) Vacancies against non-materialisation only

Ans: 24(c)(RBE No Nil & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.171/2003)

25. What is the D.R.Quota for the posts of Field Worker(Male/Female),Extension Educator & Health Visitor (Multipurpose):-(a) 20%(b) 30%(c) 25%(d) 50%

Ans: 25(d)(RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)

26. Qualification for Field Worker(Male/Female) in scale Rs.3050-4590 against D.R.Quota is:-(a)Matriculation or equivalent(b)Matriculation with 50% marks in aggregate(c)Graduate(d)Post Graduate

Ans: 26(a) (RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)

27. What is the percentage for D.R.Quota for selection of Group-C In GDCE:-(a) 25%(b) 30%(c) 50%(d) 20%

Ans: 27(a)(RBE No.165/2001 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.103/2001)

28. Skilled Artisan,Gr.III(Trade) is now re-designated as :-(a) Artisan,Gr.III(b) Technician,Gr.III(Trade)(c) Technician(d) None above

Ans: 28(b)RBE No.97/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.174/2003)

29. Which of the post belongs to Safety Category:-(a) Clerk(b) Staff Nurse(c) Asstt.Station Master(d) Stenographer

Ans: 29(c)(RBE No.25/2002& S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.33/2002)

30. Which of the candidates are required Examination Fees while submitting application to Railway Recruitment Board:-(a) UR(b) SC(c) ST(d) Ex.SM

Ans: 30(a)(RBE No.Nil & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.87/2003)

31. Who is the competent authority to extend the life of RRB Group-C Panels(a) CPO(b) GM(c) DRM(d) DPO

Ans: 31(b)(RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rly’s Estt.Srl.No.79/2002).

32. Medical classification for the posts of ASM, Goods Guard, Traffic Apprentice & Cabin Master is:-(a) A-1(b) A-2(c) A-3(d) B-1

Ans: 32(b) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V

33. Medical Classification for the posts of Commercial Clerk, Enqy- cum- Resv. Clerk & Commercial Apprentice :-(a) A-1(b) B-1(c) C-1

(d) C-2

Ans: (C)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V

34 Medical Classification for the post of Assistant Driver(Elect/Diesel):-(a) A-1(b) B-1(c) C-1(d) A-2

Ans: (a) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V

34. Medical Classification for the post of Trains Clerk is:-(a) C-2(b) B-2(c) C-1(d) A-3Ans: (d)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V

35. Educational Qualification for the post of Trains Clerk is:-(a) Matriculation or its equivalent with not less that 50% marks in

aggregate.(b) Matriculation or its equivalent(c) Class X pass(d) Class VIII pass

Ans: (a). Authority: IREM

36. Educational Qualification for Section Engineer(P.Way):-(a) Degree in Civil Engineering(b) Degree in Mechanical Engineering(c) Degree in Electrical Engineering(d) Degree in Automobile Engineering

Ans: (a)Authority: IREM

37. Medical Classification for the post of Ticket Collector is:-(a) C-2(b) B-2(c) A-2(d) B-1

Ans; (b)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V

38. Educational Qualification for the post of Cabin Master(earlier Switchman) is:-(a) Matriculation or its equivalent(b) A pass in 10+2 System(c) Class VIII pass(d) Class IX pass

Ans: (a) (RBE No.136/99& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.151/99)

39. Educational Qualification for the post of J.E-II(C&W)/TXR:-(a) Degree in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering(b) Diploma in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering

(c) Bachelor’s Degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry with a minimum of 45% marks

(d) Diploma in Civil or Mechanical Engineering

Ans: (b)(RBE No152/2001& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.99/2001)

PASS RULES

1. Gazetted staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of

a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annumd) none

Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

2. Gazetted staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of


Answer:- c) 3 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

3. Group ‘C’ staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annumd) none

Answer:- a) 1 set per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

4. Group ‘C’ staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of


Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

5. Group ‘D’ staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of a) 1 set per annum b) 2 sets per annum c) 3 sets per annumd) nil

Answer:- d) nil (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

6. Group ‘D’ staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of


Answer:- a) 1 set per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)

7. The widowed mother of the retired employee shall be included in the post retirement complimentary passes as any other family member of the retired railway employees.

a) No b) Yes c) I don’t knowd) none

Answer:- b) Yes (Estt. Srl. No. /96)

8. Widow complementary passes may be issued to a widow whose husband was a railway employee and

a) Expired b) Missing c) Either expired or missingd) Retired

Answer:- c) either expired or missing (Estt. Srl. No. 118/98)

9. Revised pay limit for issue of I st class pass for non gazetted Group B & C appointed prior to 1.8.69 is………

a) Drawing pay of Rs. 5000/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 7000/-b) Drawing pay of Rs. 5375/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 7000/-c) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 6000/-d) none of the above

Answer:- (c ) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be Rs. 6000/- (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99)

10. Employees appointed after 1.2.99 serving in pay scale of Rs. 5000-8000/- & Rs. 5500-9000/- and drawing pay of Rs. 7250/- or above but less than Rs. 7600/- shall be entitled to

a) II nd class ‘A’ b) I class

c) II nd classd) none of the above

Answer:- (a ) II nd class ‘A’ (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99)

11. J A Grade officer can travel in ACC 1 st class when

a) They are put in J A Grade b) They are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above c) Restriction to availability of berth d) None of the above.

Answer:- (b ) When they are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above (Estt.Srl. No. 167/99)

12. In residential card passes a person can be accompanied as:

a) Attendant b) Companion c) Both d) None is allowed

Answer : d) No Attendant is allowed. (Estt. Srl No: )

13. Licensed potters are allowed :

a) One set complimentary cheque pass for self only b) One set of Privilege order per year for self and spouse c) Both A & B d) None.

Answer: (c) Both A & B (CPO’s Letter dated 07.07.1997 & ES. No: 88/99) (RB. No: 55/99)

14. Facility of a companion will be provided on the post retirement complimentary pass holders of:

a) First and 1A Pass b) First, 1A & 2A Passes c) All classes passes d) First Class Only.

Answer (a) First & 1A Pass (Rule No: 31/99 & 18/2000)

15. Attendant as defined in pass rules means

(a) Any relative of the employee (b) A person employed in house hold works of an employee (c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway Servant (d) None of the Above

Answer: (c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway Servant (RB. No: E(W)93 PS 5 – ½ of 17.05.1993

16. One post retirement complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part thereof above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter.

(a) False (b) True (c) Can’t Say (d)

Answer: (b) True (ES No: 295/99)

17. One Widow complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part thereof above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter

(a) False (b) True (c) Can’t Say (d)

Answer: (a) False (ES No: 295/99)

18. Inclusion of divorced and widow daughter in post retirement complimentary passes is:

(a) Allowed(b) Disallowed(c) Under consideration (d) both B & C

Answer: (a) Allowed (ES. No: 109/2003-RB No: 63/2003)

19. What will be the colour of “II Class” ‘A’ Pass?

(a) Pink (b) Green(c) Yellow(d) Red

Answer: (c) Yellow (ES No: 37/99 & 111/2003, RB No: 17/99 & 88/2003)

20. A Guardian can be included in the school pass for (a) A boy under 18 yrs. (b) A Girl of any age (c) A Physically Handicapped boy above 18 Years. (d) All the Three

Answer: (d) All the three. (ES No: 88/2004)

21. Widow complimentary pass can be issued to the widows of Railway Employees:

(a) Who were in service on or after 12.03.87(b) Who were in service prior to 12.03.87(c) Who make one time payment of Rs. 250/-(d) All the above

Answer: (d) All the above (ES. No: 26/2001, RBE No: 174/87 & 52/2001)

NEW PENSION SCHEME

Q1. New pension scheme is effective froma) 01.01.2004 b) 01.07.2004 c) 01.04.2004 d) None of these.

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 RBE No.225/03, SER No.2/04)

Q2. New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme

a) Automaticallyb) By optionc) On Administrative optiond) None of these.


Q3. New Pension Scheme is

a) Contributoryb) Non contributoryc) Noned) All are correct.


Q4. New Pension Scheme is

a) Single tire systemb) Two tire systemc) Three tire systemd) None of these

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04)

Q5. The contribution payable by the employee

a) Monthly basisb) Quarterly basisc) Half yearly basisd) Yearly basis


Q6. Permanent Pension Account Number will consist of

a) 12 digitsb) 14 digitsc) 16 digits

d) 20 digits

Ans: c) (Authority: Board’s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04)

Q7. The Nodal Officer for each Railway is

a) GMb) CPOc) Dy. GMd) FA&CAO

Ans: d) (Authority: Board’s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER No.66/04)

Q8. The Officer-in-charge at HQ Office is

a) FA&CAOb) FA&CAO(HQ)c) Dy.CAO(G)d) SAO(Pension)


Q9. The contribution towards New Pension Scheme is

a) @ 8% of payb) @ 9% of payc) @ 10% of payd) @ 12% of pay


Q10. Dearness Allowance is to be taken with pay for contribution.a) Yesb) Noc) Partly trued) Partly wrong.


SAFETY RELATED RETIREMENT SCHEME

Q11. This Scheme covers 2 safety categories, viz.

a) Drivers & Gangmenb) Drivers & Guardsc) Drivers & Signallersd) Guards & Gangmen

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04, SER No.03/04)

Q12. The age limit for this scheme is

a) 50-55 yearsb) 55-60 yearsc) 50-57 yearsd) 52-60 years

Ans: c) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04, SER No.03/04)

Q13. Minimum years of service for this scheme is

a) 25 yearsb) 30 yearsc) 33 yearsd) 28 years


Q14. Under this scheme Employment Assistance will be provided to

a) One wardb) No wardc) Son onlyd) None is true


Q15. The ward will be considered for appointment

a) As per his choiceb) Respective categoryc) Administrative choiced) None is true

Ans: b) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04, SER No.03/04)

Q16. Eligibility condition of wards for appointment is

a) At per with DR Quotab) Matriculation in each case.

c) No instructionsd) Nothing is true


Q17. Retiring employee will get weight age towards qualifying service under this scheme.

a) Partly trueb) Truec) Falsed) Partly false


Q18. Residential accommodation to the wards will be treated

a) At per with DRb) Father and son rulec) No Railway accommodation will be providedd) Either (a) or (b) is correct


Q19. This scheme is effective from

a) 01.01.2004b) 02.01.2004c) 31.01.2004d) 01.04.2004

Ans: b) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04, SER No.03/04)

Q20. Recruitment of ward will be made through

a) RRBb) GMc) HOD Committeed) Railway Board.

Ans: c) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/RT-2/(KW) dt.15.04.05 RBE No.064/05, SER No.81/05)

COMPULSORY RETIREMENT

Q21. Every Railway servant shall retire from service

a) On the last date of the monthb) On the day he attains 60 yearsc) 1st day of the monthd) As desired by administration

Ans: a) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

Q22. The retirement age becomes 60 years w.e.f.

a) 01.01.96b) 01.07.96c) 01.07.97d) 13.05.98

Ans: d) (Authority: Board’s letter No. E(P&A)I-98/RT-6 dt.14.05.98 RBE No.103/98, SER No.108/98)

Q23. Premature retirement can be made by the

a) GMb) Railway Boardc) HOD concernedd) Appointing authority

Ans: d) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

Q24. A railway employee in group ‘A’/’B’ service or posts may be retired on attaining the age of


Ans: a) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)

Q25. A group-‘C’ railway employee may be retired on attaining the age of


Ans: b) (Authority: Rule 1803 R-II)

Q26. Review of service in case of a Railway employee is to be done when he-

a) Complete 30 years of serviceb) Attain 55 years of agec) Which ever is earlierd) All are correct

Ans: c) (Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q27. Provisions exists in the relevant rules which provide reciprocal right on railway employee to seek vol. retirement after

a) 30 years of serviceb) 30 years of qualifying servicec) On attaining of 50/55 years of aged) Both (a) & (c) are correct

Ans: d)(Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q28. Review Committees in Divisional Level to consider cases will consists of

a) 1 Memberb) 2 Membersc) 3 Membersd) 1 Chairman & 2 Members

Ans: d)(Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q29. A railway employee must retire

a) If the integrity is doubtfulb) If the appointing authority so desiresc) If he request sod) None of the above

Ans: A)(Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q30. Review Committees are to be set up

a) Department-wiseb) Division-wisec) Both (a) & (b)d) None of the above

Ans: c)(Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q31. No railway employee should ordinarily be retired, if he would be retiring on superannuation

a) Within 6 monthsb) Within 10 monthsc) Within 1 yeard) None of the above


Q32. The group-‘C’ railway employee may be retired under

a) Rule 1803 R-IIb) Rule 1803 R-II read with para 620(ii) MRPRc) Only 620(ii) MRPRd) All are correct

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s D.O. letter No. dt. SER Estt. No. 95/92)

Q33. Premature retirement Rules

a) May be used as Disciplinary proceedingsb) May not be used as Disciplinary proceedingsc) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Both are correct

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q34. These rules may be used

a) For reduction of surplus staffb) As a major of effecting general economyc) Both are correctd) Both are wrong

Ans: d) (Authority: Board’s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)

Q35. Review should be based on

a) An assessment of the entire service recordb) Only CRsc) None is correctd) As desired by appointing authority


Q36. A retired employee may submit a representation

a) Within 7 daysb) Within 10 daysc) Within 3 weeksd) None of the above


Q37. The representation to be submitted to

a) HODs concernedb) Dy. GMc) DRMsd) Representation committee


Q38. The representation committee will consider each case

a) Within 1 weekb) Within 2 weeksc) Within 3 weeksd) None of the above


Q39. Next stage of the representation committee is

a) AGMb) GMc) DRMd) Sr. DGM


Q40. If any retired railway employee, subsequently re-instated the non dutyPeriod may be adjusted

a) Against leave dueb) Dies nonc) Dutyd) Any of the above

Ans: a) (Authority: Board’s letter No. F(E)III/77PW-1/4 dt.06.05.81 SER Estt. Srl. No. 114/81)

SC/ST/OBC RESERVATION POLICY

1) Article 16 of Indian Constitution placed under the heading of “Right to Equality” a part of which indicates the provision of reservation in favour of any backward class of citizen.

A) Article 16(1)

B) Article 16(2)

C) Article 16(3)

D) Article 16(4)

Ans : D – Article 16(4)Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) ’85, Page-1.

2) When SC/ST Reservation provided first in Direct Recruitment ?

A) 13.09.49B) 13.09.50C) 13.09.51D) 13.09.52

Ans: B- 13.09.50Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-4

3) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by selection in Gr.’C’ & ‘D’ posts provided?

A) 1957B) 1963C) 1972D) 1976

Ans : B – 1963 Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5

4) When Reservation percentage increased from 12% to 15% for SC and 5% to 7-1/2% for ST ?

A) 13.09.50B) 13.09.51C) 13.09.63D) 25.03.70

Ans : D- 25.03.70Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, page 4

5) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by seniority-cum-suitability in Gr. ‘C” & ‘D’ posts provided?

A) 1957.B) 1963C) 1972D) 1976

Ans: C- 1972Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5

6) When 27% reservation provided for OBC candidates in Civil posts and services under the Govt. of India?

A) 13.08.90B) 25.09.91C) 10.10.91D) 08.09.93

Ans : D- 08.09.93. Authority: Railway Board’s letter No. 90-E(SCT)I/71/1 dated 14/15.10.93, Estt.Srl. No.262/93.

7) Who is the Appellate Authority to issue SC/ST Caste Certificate in the State of West Bengal?

A) TashilderB) Gazetted

Officer

C) Local MP/MLA

D) SDO, DM etc.

Ans : D- SDPO, DM etc. Authority: Railway Board’s letter No. 94-E(SCT)I/31/2 dated 29.11.94, Estt.Srl. No.45/95.

8) Delay Submission of SC/ST Caste certificate may be accepted from the date of :-

A) SubmissionB) IssueC) None of

these.

Ans : A – SubmissionEstt.Srl. No.250/83

9) If a candidate belonging to SC/ST/OBC Community is unable to produce his caste certificate in time, he may be considered for offer of :-

A) AppointmentB) Temporary

Apptt.C) Provisional

Apptt.D) None of

these.

Ans : C- Provisional AppointmentEstt.Srl. No.185/95.

10)

On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate produced by SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would be :-

A) Terminated.B) SuspendedC) Punished

under D&A rules

D) None of these.

Ans : A- Terminated Authority : Estt.Srl. No.185/95.

11)

Home town posting facility may be considered to the candidates who are belonging to :-

A) PHP Community

B) UR Community

C) OBC Community

D) SC/ST Community

Ans : D-SC/ST CommunityAuthority : Estt.Srl. No.22/86

12)

10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of Quarter where total numbers of Quarter are 50 or more.

A) Type-I onlyB) Type-II onlyC) Both Type I &

II

D) None of these.

Ans : C- Both Type I & IIAuthority : RBE No.148/99, Estt. Srl. No. 191/99.

13)

15% for SC, 7-1/2 % for ST and 27% for OBC are to be maintained to the Post based Roster System in Gr. ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts for :-

A) Local Recruitment

B) All India Basis recruitment

C) Other than open market recruitment.

D) All kinds of recruitment.

Ans : D- All kinds of recruitmentRBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97.

14)

When Post Based Roster is applicable in recruitment ? A) 10.02.95.B) 21.08.97C) 27.08.97.D) 15.12.97.

Ans : B- 21.08.97RBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97.

15)

When Post-based Roster is applicable in promotion? A) 10.02.95B) 09.04.97C) 21.08.97D) 27.08.97

Ans : A- 10.02.95Authority : RBE No.114/97, Estt.Srl. No.135/97.

16)

“L” Shape Roster is applicable in both Recruitment and promotional categories separately where the total cadre is less than: -

A) 13.B) 14.C) 15D) 16

Ans C- Less than 15.Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15.

17.

What points of Roster are applicable both in Recruitment and promotional categories where the total no. of posts in a cadre is more than 15 :

A) 100 pointB) 200 point

(separately)C) 14 Point (L

Shape)D) None of this

Ans : B- 200 point Roster (Separately)Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15.

18.

“L” Shape Roster is operated: - A) Based on post.

B) Based on

vacancyC) Based on

percentageD) Based on

Rotation.

Ans : D – Based on rotation.Authority: As referred at item No.14 & 15.

19)

Total reservation of SC/ST/OBC should in no case exceed: -

A) 50% of total cadre

B) 50 % of total vacancy

C) 50% of total Reserved vacancy

D) None of these.

Ans : A- 50% of total cadreAuthority: As referred at item No.14 & 15.

20)

In a small cadre i.e. up to 14 posts, if a SC/ST incumbent promoted to higher grade post this vacancy will be treated as :-

A) Reserved vacancy

B) ConsumedC) UR VacancyD) None of

these.

Ans B- Consumed by SC/STAuthority : As referred at item No.14 & 15.

21)

Reservation is applicable to fill up: - A) Ex cadre post

B) Sports QuotaC) Cultural

QuotaD) Compassiona

te apptt.

Ans : A- Ex Cadre post. Authority : Estt. Srl. No.63/97.

22)

Reservation is applicable to fill up vacancy: - A) Raised on transferB) Raised on deputation C) Raised on PH QuotaE) None of

these.

Ans : C- Raised on PH Quota.Authority :Rly. Bd’s Lr. No. 90-E(SCT)I/71/1 dated 02.12.94, Circular No.P/R&R/Physical Handicapped /Poly /II/1158 dated 19.04.95.

23 Pre-selection coaching should be imparted to SC/ST A) 2- weeks.

) candidates in selection for a period of :-

B) 15- daysC) 2-3 weeksD) 3-4 weeks

Ans : D- 3-4 weeks.Authority: Rly. Bd’s letter No. 88-E(SCT)I/42/II dated 08/11/04.91, Estt. Srl. No.81/91.

24)

Pre-selection coaching need not require where no SC/ST vacancy is available in: -

A) All selectionsB) All non-

selectionsC) Selection to

safety category only.

D) None of these.

Ans : A- All selections. Authority: Railway Board’s letter No. 83-E(SCT)42/1 dated 14.4.83. Brochure (3rd Edition)’85 page 482.

25)

Best among the failed candidates may be given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written test minimum: -

A) 10% marksB) 20% marksC) 30% marksD) 35% marks

Ans : B- 20% marksAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No. 88-E(SCT)I/23/1 dated 22.11.94. Estt. Srl. No.2/95.

26.

Best among the failed SC/ST candidates may be included in the final select list on completion of his service training for the period of :-

A) 3 months.B) 4 monthsC) 6 monthsD) 1 year

Ans : C- 6 monthsAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No. 2002-E(SCT)I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No. 192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002.

27.

At the end of 6 months period, the case of best among the failed SC/ST candidates is forwarded to the competent authority and the competent authority decides for not including him in the final select list, then the case may also be reviewed by the:-

A) SPO(RP)B) CPO(A)C) CPOD) HOD, if the appointing authority is lower than the HOD, otherwise GM.

Ans : D- HOD, Authority : Railway Board’s letter No.2002-E(SCT) I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No. 192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002.

28 Examination charges incurred for open market A) SC/ST

) recruitment through RRB is required to be paid by all applicants except: -

B) OBCC) P.H.P., Ex

S/M.D) SC/ST, PHP,

Ex. S/M.

Ans : D- SC/ST, PHP, Ex. SM.Authority: Railway Board’s Letterr.No.98-E/RRB/25/52 dated 07.04.99,RBE No.67/99.Estt.Srl No. 176/2002.

29)

The marks relaxation / lesser standard of evaluation of SC/St candidates in the case of promotion was withdrawn and subsequently restored back and applicable w.e.f. :-

A) 27.03.99.B) 27.03.2000C) 03.10.2000D) None of

these.

Ans : C- 03.10.2000.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/49/14 dated 12.12.2000, RBE No. 215/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 225/2000.

30)

Age relaxation of SC/ST for recruitment in govt. services: -

A) 3 yearsB) 5 yearsC) None of

these.

Ans : B- 5 years.Authority : Railway Board’s letter No .E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dt.9.9.04,RBENo.199/04, Estt.Srl.No 221/04.

31 Age relaxation of OBC for recruitment in Govt. Services: - A) 3 yearsB) 5 years C) None of

these.Ans: A- 3 years.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No 90-E(SCT)I/71/1dt 02.2/3.95, Estt. Srl. No. 77/95

32.

The period of upper age limit of SC/ST/OBC for recruitment in Gr. ‘C’ & “D’ categories has been extended up to

A) 03.08.2005B) 03.09.2005C) 03.10.2005D) 31.12.2005.

Ans : A – 03.08.2005.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.04, RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl No.221/2004

33)

At present upper age limit of SC/ST in Group ‘C’ category is :-

A) 30 yearsB) 33 yearsC) 34 yearsD) 35 years

Ans : D – 35 years.

Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004.

34)

At present upper age limit of OBC in Group ‘C’ category is :-

A) 30 yearsB) 33 yearsC) 34 yearsD) None of

these.

Ans : B- 33 yearsAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004.

35)

Marks relaxation for SC/St candidates in Direct Recruitment Quota is :-

A) 10%B) 20%C) 30%D) 40%

Ans : A- 10%Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/25 dated 13.03.2000, RBE No. 43/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2000.

36)

SC/ST candidates are eligible to be called for interview in Direct Recruitment, if he secured minimum :-

A) 10% marksB) 20% marksC) 30 marksD) 40% marks

Ans : B- 20% marks.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/90/RRB/53 dated 15.04.91.Estt. Srl.No.90/91.

37)

Minimum qualifying marks is prescribed for SC/ST candidates in selection posts :-

A) 30%B) 40%C) 50%D) 60%

Ans : C- 50%Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Board’s letter No. E(NG)I-98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99

38)

Minimum Qualifying marks for SC/ST candidates in non-selection post is :-

A) 30%B) 40%C) 50%D) 60%

Ans : B- 40%Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Board’s letter No. E(NG)I-98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99.

39)

At present upper age limit of SC/ST is Gr. D category is :- A) 33 years.B) 36 yearsC) 38 yearsD) 40 years.

Ans : C- 38 years.Authority :Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-I/29 dated 9.9.2004, RBE No. 199/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004.

40)

At present upper age limit of OBC in Gr’D’ category is :- A) 33 yearsB) 36 yearsC) 38 yearsD) None of

these.

Ans : B- 36 years.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No. 41/70 & Rly. Board’s letter No. E(NG)I-98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99.

41)

If a point in a Roster is earmarked for SC/ST in single cadre post, it may be filled up :-

A) On regular basis.

B) On ad-hoc basis

C) On tenure basis

D) None of these.

Ans : B- On Ad-hoc basisAuthority :Railway Board’s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/4 dated 11.02.2001 RBE No. 6/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 11/2002.

42)

In promotion to the posts of Gr.B and lowest rank of Gr. A, the carry forward in case of single vacancy is permissible for :-

A) 1 selection year.

B) 2 selection years

C) 3 selection years

D) None of these.

Ans : A- One selection/recruitment year.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E (SCT)I/25/26 dated 16.03.2001, RBE No. 58/2001, Estt. Srl. No. 08/2002

43)

SC vacancy cannot be exchanged by ST candidate or vis-à-vis in the case of :-

A) Gr. D post only

B) Gr. C post only

C) Gr. B Post only

D) Gr. D, C & B posts

Ans : D- Gr. D, C & B posts.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004

44 SC/ST/OBC carry-forward vacancies can be filled up in subsequent selection/recruitment year for :-

A) More than 50%

B) Not more than 50%

C) No restrictionD) None of

these.

Ans : C- No restriction/bar to fill up all vacancies at a time.Authority :Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04, RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004

45)

50% limitation for filling up of SC/ST vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is applicable: -

A) On total back-log vacancy

B) On current vacancy

C) Both backlog & current vacancies.

D) None of these.

Ans : B- On current vacancy Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 ,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004

46)

After 3 recruitment/selection years, the carried forward SC/ST vacancies in the limited cadre will be treated as :-

A) De-reservedB) LapsedC) Carry

forward to 4th

yearsD) None of

theseAns : B- LapsedAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 ,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004

47)

Ad-hoc promotion may be made by following :-

A) Without Reservation

B) SC/ST Reservation

C) General Seniority

D) None of these.

Ans : B- SC/ST Reservation.Authority: IREM(Vol-.I) 1989, Estt. Srl. No. 130/98.

48)

Who is the Chief Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST

A) SPO(RP)B) CPO(A)C) CPOD) GM

Ans : C – CPO. Brochure (3rd Edition) ’85 Page 545

49)

Who is the Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST

A) SPO(RP)B) Dy.CPO(HQ)C) CPO(A)D) CPO

Ans :A – SPO(RP). Brochure (3rd Edition) ’85 Page 546

50)

For promotion to the Higher Grade post, the qualifying service of SC/ST/UR in the immediate lower grade is minimum :

A) 1 year.B) 2 yearsC) 3 yearsD) None of

these.Ans : B- 2 years.Authority :Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)I/2002/PM-1/21 dated 21.4.2003, RBE No. 64/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 91/2003

51)

For higher grade promotion of SC/ST in Gr. ‘ C’, 2 years service criteria may be relaxed to 1 year with the approval of :-

A) GMB) CPOC) CPO(A)D) SPO(RP)

Ans : A – GMAuthority :Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.3.2003, RBE No.51/2003,Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003,

52)

Can SC/ST post be filled up by UR without de-reservation?

A) YesB) NoC)

Ans : B – NoAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1-Pt.1 dated 10.10.96,Estt. Srl. No. 142/96.

53)

Is SC/ST reservation applicable in restructuring of cadre? A) YesB) No

Ans : A- YesAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.PC-III/03/CRC/6 dated 9/10/2003 ,RBE No. 90/2002, Estt. Srl. 152/2003.

54)

In the case of engagement of Casual Labour/Substitutes, the reservation is also applicable for determining: -

A) SCB) STC) SC/ST/OBCD) None of

theseAns : C – SC/ST/OBCAuthority :Railway Board’s letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1/Pt.I dated 12.01.95, Estt. Srl. No. 63/95.

55)

In a selection where the SC/ST vacancies are available, the selection Committee is constituted with the officers, one of the officers should be :-

A) SC Community only

B) ST Community only

C) OBC Community only

D) SC/ST Community

Ans : D- SC/ST CommunityAuthority :Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99

56)

In a selection where the SC/ST vacancy is not available but SC/ST candidates are coming within the zone of consideration against the UR vacancies, in such cases, is the SC/ST officer required to be included in the Selection Committee?

A) YesB) No

Ans : A – YesAuthority :Railway Board’s letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99, Estt. Srl. No. 266/99.

57)

Due to non-availability of SC/ST candidates, the promotional post which is not involved in Direct Recruitment Category, can temporarily be diverted into D.R Quota to make good the same by respective community of reserved candidates from open market?

A) CorrectB) IncorrectC) Partially

correct

Ans : A- CorrectAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No. 51/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003

58)

Due to want of SC/ST candidates in a category where D.R is not permissible, the shortfall vacancies may be down graded to make good the same by SC/.ST candidates from next lower grade

A) YesB) No

Ans: A – YesAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No. 51/2003,Estt. Srl. No.

65/2003

59)

SC/ST candidates promoted on their own merit will be adjusted against un-reserved post, this principle is applicable in the case of :-

A) Selection post

B) Non-selection post

C) None of these

Ans : A- Selection PostAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/13/dated 6.5.2005,Estt.Srl. No. 95/2005

60)

Any serving SC/ST Railway Employees can be a member of SC/ST Railway Employees Association including the person: -

A) Retired from Rly. service.

B) Under suspension

C) Remove from service

D) All of these.Ans : D – All A,B & CAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/625 dt.17.03.2003.

61)

Co-option of Office bearers from other than SC/ST to be member of SC/ST Rly. Employees Association is not accepted:-

A) CorrectB) IncorrectC) Partially

correctD) None of

theseAns : A- CorrectAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular No.P/RP/SCt/NG/Poly/625 dated 17.03.2003.

62)

The list of Office bearers of SC/ST Railway Employees Association at Zonal Level is circulated with the approval of :-

A) Railway Board

B) GMC) CPOD) CEC with the

Joint Signature of President/Working President and Secretary

Ans : D- CEC with the Joint Signature of President/Working President and SecretaryAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.93 –E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 ,Circular no. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV/2514 dated 5.7.1994.

63)

In case of malpractice, dishonesty and incapability found to run any executive committee at Zonal /Divisional level, it may be suspended/dismissed by the: -

A) GMB) CPOC) CECD) None of

these

Ans : C- CECAuthority: As per Bye-laws of SC/ST Association.

64)

Who may act as Election Officer for conducting Election of SC/ST Railway Employees Association in absence of outgoing President?

A) Outgoing President

B) Outgoing General Secy.

C) Outgoing Vice-President

D) None of these.

Ans : C- Outgoing Vice President.Authority: As per Bye-Laws of SC/ST Association.

65)

There is a provision for holding informal meeting between Railway Administration and SC/ST Railway Employees Association at least: -

A) Once in a year

B) Twice in a year

C) Thrice in a year

D) No bar

Ans : B- Twice in a year.Authority: Railway Board’s letter No.88-E(SCT)I/80/2 dated 12.7.97 , Circular No. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.V/3283 dated 30.7.96.

66)

SC/ST Railway Employees may be spared as on duty as and when they are summoned by the National Commission for hearing in connection with their representations on service matter/court cases are entitled to get benefit of: -

A) DutyB) PassC) Accommodat

ionD) All of these

Ans : D- All benefits of A, B & CAuthority: Railway Board’s letter No.2000-E(SCT)I/25/17 dated 29.6.2001, Estt. Srl. No. 97/2001

67)

How many office bearers of SC/ST Association allowed for attending informal meeting at Divisional Level :-

A) 30 MembersB) 15 MembersC) 20 membersD) None of

these

Ans : C- 20 members Authority : Railway Board’s letter No.97- E(SCT)I/22/12/

dated 18.08.98 ,Estt. Srl. No. 236/98

68)

Railway Board is the competent authority for circulation of the list of office bearer of CEC.

A) CorrectB) Incorrect

Ans : A- CorrectAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No.93 –E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 Circular No. P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV-2514 dated 5.7.1994.

69)

STD/Inter-Divisional Telephone is provided to the President, Working President & Secretary both the SC/ST Association and OBC Federation at: -

A) Branch LevelB) Unit LevelC) Zonal LevelD) None of

these

Ans :C- Zonal LevelAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/27/Pt.VII dated 14.7.2004, Estt. Srl. No. 176/2004.

70)

All facilities are given to the All India OBC Railway Employees Federation as given to the :-

A) AIRF.B) NFIR.C) SC/ST

Association.D) None of

these.

Ans : C- SC/ST AssociationAuthority : Railway Board’s letter No. 2000-E(SCT)I/71/16 dated 26.6.2003, Circular No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/1517 dated 10.07.2003.

TRAINING

Q.1. The Probationers recruited to the 9 organized Railway services shall undergo sandwich type of training (except Medical Service) for a period of ….

a) One year b) Two years

c) Three years d) Four years

Ans. Two years (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.2. The probationers recruited to Medical Service shall undergo sandwich type of training for pa period of ….

a) Three weeks b) Three days

c) Three months d) Three years

Ans. Three months (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.3. The Probationers of all the services other than Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo Foundational Course for a period of …..

a) 6 weeks b) 7 weeks

c) 8 weeks d) 9 weeks

Ans. 8 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.4. Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo Induction Course at Railway Staff College, Vadodara for period of …...

a) 6 weeks b) 7weeks

c) 8 weeks d) 9 weeks

Ans. 6 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.5. Probationers of IRTS, IRSS, IRAS and IRPS services shall undergo Induction Course during….

a) Three years probationary training

b) One year probationary training

c) Two years probationary training

d) Four years probationary training

Ans. During two years probationary training (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.6. The probationers of IRSME, IRSSE, IRSEE shall undergo Induction Course from ……

a) Working post in the 1st year of their probation

b) Working post in 2nd year of their probation

c) Working post in the 3rd year of their probation

d) Working post in the 4th year of their probation

Ans. Working post in the 3rd year of their probation(Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.7. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE) situated at

a) Pune b) Vadodara

c) Nasik d) Secunderabad

Ans. Pune (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.8. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Electrical Engineering (IRSEE) situated at….

a) Pune b) Vadodara


Ans. Nasik (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.9. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Signal Engineers (IRSSE) situated at……

a) Pune b) Vadodara


Ans. Secunderabad (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.10. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Mechanical Engineer (IRSME) (both Engineering Graduates recruited as pro-bationers and Special Class Railway Apprentices) situated at……..

a) Jamalpur & Kharagpur b) Jamalpur & Katni

c) Jamalpur & Kolkata d) Jamalpur & Kurla

Ans. Jamalpur & Kharagpur (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.11. Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Services (IRMS) shall undergo two years Probationary training as per schedules of training laid down by the…..

a) UPSC b) Training Centre

c) Staff College,Vadodara d) Ministry of Railways

Ans. Ministry of Railways (Para-103 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.12. During the two years period of probationary training probationers shall maintain a Diary to indicate their….

a) Opinion on the Training b) Day-to-day activity

c) Opinion on the Professors d) Day-to-day Tours

Ans. Day-to-day activity (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I)

Q.13. Diary maintained by the probationers during the probationary training shall be checked periodically by the…….

a) Principal b) Chairman, Rly. Board

c) Training Director d) UPSC

Ans. Training Director (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I)

Q.14. Probationer shall be confirmed in junior scale only after their passing the examination prescribed after completion of ….

a) Institutional training & all departmental examinations.

b) UPSC & Training Centres

c) UPSC & Training Director d) UPSC & Principal of Training Centre

Ans. Institutional training & all departmental examinations.(Para-105 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.15. The inter-se-seniority of Group 'A' probationers of particular examination batch and of a particular service on their confirmation to junior scale, will be decided on the basis of marks obtained by them during…..

a) UPSC b) Probation

c) Probation & UPSC d) Training & Probation

Ans. Probation & UPSC (Para-106 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.16. Departmental Examinations I, II & III of the Group ‘A’ probationer for I.R.S.M.E. cadre conducted by…..

a) Railway Board b) UPSC

c) Training Centre d) South Eastern Railway

Ans. South Eastern Railway (Para-107 of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.17. The Departmental Examinations for probationers will consist of…..

a) Written test and Viva voce b) Written test

c) Viva-voce d) None

Ans. Written test and Viva voce (Para-107 of IREM, Vol.-I)

Q.18. The Training period for the post of Asstt.Station Master will be …..

a) 12 months b) 8 months

c) 9 months d) 1 Year 6 months

Ans. 9 months (Para-122(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.19. The Training period for the post of Traffic Inspectors will be…..


c) 9 months d) Three years

Ans. Two years (Para-125(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.20. The Training period for the post of Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerks (ECRC) will be……..

a) Three months b) Four months

c) Five months d) Six months

Ans. Three months (Para-129(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.21. The Training period for the post of Commercial Apprentice will be…..


c) 9 months d) Three years

Ans. Two years (Para-130(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)

Q.22. The initial Training period for Trainee Draftsman in Mechanical, Electrical & Signal Telecommunication departments will be…..

a) 6 months b) 12 months

c) 18 months d) 24 months

Ans. 18 months (RBE No.61/2004 SER No.12/05)

Q.23. The Training period in respect of “Diploma Holders” being appointed as Skilled Artisans on compassionate ground may be ……

a) 3 years b) 2 years

c) 1 year d) 6 months

Ans. 2 years (RBE No.266/2004 SER No.17/2005)

Q.24. Pass marks in the examination conducted by Training Centres at the end of the course for non-safety category should be….

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

Ans. 50% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)

Q.25. The total marks as objective type question in the question papers for initial and promotional courses should contain….

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

Ans. 40% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)

Q.26. The total marks as objective type questions in the question paper for refresher courses should have

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

Ans. 70% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)

Q.27. Pass marks for SC/ST candidate in the examination conducted by training centers at the end of the course for safety categories including running staff should be

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

Ans. 60% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)

Q.28. The nomenclature of Zonal Training Centres renamed as……

a) Zonal Railway Training Centre

b) Zonal Railway Training Institute

c) Zonal Railway Training School

d) Zonal Railway Training College

Ans. Zonal Railway Training Institute (RBE No.198/2003 SER No.13/2004)

Q.29. Signal Supervisors promotional course is mandatory while promoting ……

a) JE-II to JE-I b) JE-III to JE-II

c) JE-I to SE d) SE to SSE

Ans. JE-II to JE-I (RBE No.193/2003 SER No.24/2004)

Q.30. The maximum limit of honorarium payable to an Instructor per annum for conducting Yoga Training is…..

a) Rs.10000/- b) Rs.5000/-

c) Rs.15000/- d) Rs.20000/-

Ans. Rs.5000/- (RBE No.95/2004 SER No.102/2004)

Q.31. The Railway Staff College, Vadodara is headed by the Director General in the rank of ……

a) GM b) AGM

c) PHOD d) HOD

Ans. GM (RBE No.219/2001 SER No.01/2002)

Q.32. The performance of the trainers and availability of infrastructure and training aids of all the training centers/institutions on the railway will personally monitor by….

a) Principal b) GM

c) AGM d) Railway Board

Ans. AGM (Board’s No.E(MPP)2001/19/3-Recomm-36 dated 29.06.2001 RBE No.126/01)

Q.33. Probationary Training of Group ’A’ officers of Railway Protection Force is centrally co-ordinated and monitored by…..

a) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Lucknow

b) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Sasaram

c) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Patna

d) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Muri

Ans. Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Lucknow (Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training)

Q.34. Probationary Training of Group’A’ officers of Medical department is controlled and monitored by the …..

a) Railway Board b) GM of Zonal Railway

c) CMD of Zonal Railway d) MD of Zonal Railway

Ans. CMD of Zonal Railway(Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training)

Q.35. The nominated departmental Training Managers for Personnel Branch at Zonal level is ….

a) AGM b) CPO

c) CPO(A) d) Dy.CPO

Ans. CPO(A) (Para-8.2.3 of Manual on Management of Training)

Q.36. Induction Training to Group ‘D’ staff of Personnel Department as per approved modules for ……

a) 5 days b) 4 days

c) 3 days d) 2 days

Ans. 3 days (Course No.PERS-1 Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department)

Q.37. Induction Training to Clerks/Sr. Clerks of Personnel Department as per approved modules for ……

a) 15 days b) 12 days

c) 10 days d) 9 days


Q.38. Refresher Training for Clerks/Sr. Clerks/head Clerks of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….


c) 7 days d) 5 days


Q.39. Training for promotion to Sr. Clerk of Personnel Department as per approved modules for…..

a) 6 days b) 7 days

c) 8 days d) 9 days

Ans. 6 days (Course No.PERS-4 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department)

Q.40. Training for promotion to OS-II of Personnel Department as per approved modules for…..

a) 6 ½ days b) 7 ½ days

c) 8 ½ days d) 9 ½ days

Ans. 6 ½ days (Course No.PERS-5 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel Department)

Q.41. Refresher Training for OS-II/OS-I with 2 years service in the grade of Personnel Department as per approved modules for……


c) 8 days d) 7 days


Q.42. Induction Training for PI/WI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….


c) 8 days d) 6 days


Q.43. Refresher Training for CPI/CWI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….

a) 7 days b) 6 days

c) 5 days d) 4 days


Q.44. Induction Training for Law Assistant of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….

a) 8 days b) 7 days

c) 6 days d) 5 days


Q.45. Basic Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at….

a) Adra b) Kharagpur

c) Tatanagar d) Ranchi

Ans. Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

Q.46. Diesel Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …a) Rourkela b) Bokaro

c) Bondamunda d) Ranchi

Ans. Rourkela (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

Q.47. Engineering Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …

a) Adra & Chakradharpur b) Chakradharpur & Kharagpur

c) Chakradharpur & Bokaro d) Khargpur & Adra

Ans. Adra & Chakradharpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

Q.48. C&W Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …

a) Adra ,Chakradharpur & Kharagpur

b) Chakradharpur, Kharagpur, Muri

c) Chakradharpur, Bokaro & Ranchi

d) Khargpur, Adra, Bokaro

Ans. Adra ,Chakradharpur & Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

Q.49. Supervisors’ Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at ….

a) Adra b) Kharagpur

c) Chakradharpur d) Ranchi

Ans. Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

Q.50. Electrical Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at

a) Rourkela b) Tatanagar

c) Bokaro d) Muri

Ans. Tatanagar (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)

D&A RULES

Qn.1. Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in Railways?

(a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968(b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966(c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968 (d) None of these

Ans. (C)

Qn.2. What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came into force ?

(a) On the first day of January, 1968(b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968(c) On the first day of October, 1968(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Qn.3 Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on disciplinary proceedings?

(a) SF-11(b) SF-5(c) SF-5(d) None of these

Ans. (C)

Qn.4 Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?

(a) Rule-9(b) Rule-11(c) Rule-6(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

Qn.5 Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority?

(a) Not more than 5 members(b) Not less than 2 members(c) Not less than 3 members(d) Not more than 4 members

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s Ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-24 dt. 20.2.01.

Qn.6 Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing authority?

(a) Controlling Officer(b) DRM(c) GM(d) CPO

Ans. (C) Reference: Rly. Board’s No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23 dt.21.02.64.

Qn.7 Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass?

(a) Orders for penalty(b) Speaking order(c) None

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)91/RG 122 dt. 21.2.92.

Qn. 8 Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?

(a) President of India(b) Ministry of Railways(c) Member(Staff)(d) Secretary Rly.Bd.

Ans. (a)

Qn.9 When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules?

(a) After 4 months from engagement date(b) After 6 months from engagement date(c) After attaining temporary status(d) After regular absorption

Ans. (C) Rly.Board’s No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65.

Qn.10. Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases in

(a) 2 Nos. of cases(b) 3 Nos. of cases

(c) 5 Nos. of cases(d) Any number of cases

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92.

Qn.11. (a) Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings?

(a) Rule 9(b) Rules 11(c) Rule 13(d) Rule 20

Ans. (c)

Qn.12. If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this case should dealt with by the

(a) Disciplinary Authority(b) Revising Authority(c) The next higher authority(d) None

Ans. (C) Ref: Rly. Board’s No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt. 09.11.90.

Qn.13. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules, subsequently he is expired his case should be

(a) Continue and finalised(b) Sent to Rly.Board(c) Sent to GM(d) Closed

Ans. (d) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-26 dt. 19.6.2000.

Qn.14 What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires modification/addition

(a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons(b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued(c) Continue the proceedings (d) None of these

Ans.(a) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.15 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed suspension?

(a) SF-1(b) SF-3(c) SF-2(d) SF-4

Ans. (c)

Qn.16 How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?

(a) 2(b) 3(c) 5(d) 4

Ans. (d)

Qn.17 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going promotion to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the

(a) Promotion of the grade for same period(b) But not result in greater monetary loss(c) Retrospective effect

Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-13 dt. 8.10.01.

Qn.18 A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduced by way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held before?

(a) Yes(b) No(c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected (d) None

Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A)89 RG6-17 dt. 7.3.89.

Qn.19. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel?

(a) 2 No. of cases(b) 3 No. of cases(c) 4 No. of cases(d) 5 No. of cases

Ans. (a)

Qn. 20. How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense assistant at a time?

(a) 5(b) 7(c) 3

Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. E(D&A)2002 RG-6-13 dt. 14.5.03 (RBE 83/13)

Qn.21 Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made? (a) House Rent(b) P.F.subscription(c) Income Tax(d) None

Ans. (b)Ref. RB’s No. F(P)62 PF1/14 dt. 12.7.73.

Qn.22 Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?

(a) House Rent(b) Income Tax(c) Court attachment(d) Station debits

Ans. (C)

Qn.23 Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits employee with various disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of suspension?

(a) During the period he can not leave Hq. Without permission(b) He need not sign attendance register(c) Privilege passes cannot be availed(d) No increment is drawn during suspension

Ans. (b)Ref.Rly. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 13.5.83.

Qn.24 When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor penalty is imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as(a) Dies non(b) Non duty(c) Duty(d) None

Ans. (C)

Qn.25 If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is competent to sign the charge sheet?

a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd.a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GMb) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the

date of retirementc) President of India

Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.26 Stiff major penalty namely.

(a) Compulsory retirement(b) Stoppage of increment(c) Reduction to the lower stage(d) None

Ans. (a)

Qn.27 A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to

(a) Leave his head qrs.(b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM

(c) Act as defence counsel(d) None

Ans. (C)

Qn. 28 An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written examination required for selection to the promotion?

a) May be called to appear during suspensionb May be called after suspension is overc)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority.d)None of these

Ans. (a)

Qn.29 Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under

(a) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993(b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993(c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993(d) None

Ans. (C)

Qn. 30 An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for grant of sick leave?

a) Grant of sick leaveb) Grant of extraordinary leavec) Grant of Half pay leaved) Not grant of sick leave

Ans. (d)

Qn. 31 How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against any Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968.

(a) One(b) Five(c) Eleven(d) Seven

Ans. (C) Ref. Rule No. 5 of DAR 1968.

Qn.32 A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a specified period and becomes due for promotion he should be promoted

(a) Immediate effect(b) After expiry of the penalty(c) With the approval of GM

Ans. (a)

Qn.33 A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he has been put in police custody for a period?

(a) exceeding 24 hours(b) exceeding 48 hours(c) immediate effect(d) none

Ans. (b) Ref. RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

Qn.34 50% of subsistence allowance granted under?

(a) Rule 1342 R-II(b) Rule 1343 R-II(c) Rule 1345 R-II(d) None

Ans. (a)

Qn.35 Review of suspension cases is done

(a) After 4 months(b) After 3 months(c) After 2 months(d) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.36 What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence allowance in case of running staff?

(a) 40% of basic pay(b) 30% of basic pay(c) 50% of basic pay(d) 60% of basic pay

Ans. (b)

Qn.37 When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law?

(a) Full pay and allowance are granted(b) Half pay and allowance for granted(c) 75% pay and allowance are granted(d) No payment

Ans. (a) Ref.1343 IREC R-II

Qn. 38 Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance?

(a) PF subscription(b) LIC premia(c) House rent(d) Court attachment

Ans. (c)

Qn.39 ‘Gr C’ and ‘Gr.D’ employees under suspension may be given

(a) 3 sets of pass per calender year (b) 2 sets of pass(c) one set of pass(d) None of these

Ans. (C)

Qn. 40 Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence helper?

(a)A Railway servant act as a defence helper(b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority(c) Decided by GM(e) None of these

Ans. (a) Ref.E(D&A) 74 RG6-31 dt. 11.11.74

Qn.41 The limitation period of revocation of suspension of non-gazetted employee caught red handed while accepting bribe in trap cases?

(a) 18 months(b) 6 months(c) 3 months(d) none

Ans. (b) Ref.88/V-1/CBI/5/3 dt. 30.9.99.

Qn.42 Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule

(a) Rule 5(b) Rule 14(ii)(c) Rule (13)(d) None

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 85 RG-6-72 dt. 16.5.86.

Qn.43 D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to

(a) Permanent employee(b) Apprentice(c) Casual lab our with temporary status(d) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.44 Whether Sr.Section Engineer are empowered to suspend a Jr.clerk in scale RS.3050-4050 (RSRP) working under his control?

(a) Sr.Section Engineer is Competent Authority(b) Depends upon offence(c) Office Supdt. is competent authority(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Ref. As per DOP in schedule II.

Qn.45 Inquiry officer’s report is to be supplied to

(a) Presenting officer(b) Controlling officer(c) Charged officer(d) None

Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) RG 6-151 dt. 10.11.89

Qn.46 On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary action?

(a) GM(b) D&A Authority at new place(c) D&A authority at old place(d) None

Ans. (2) Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.69.

Qn.47 The notice of final penalty should be signed by

(a) Enquiry officer(b) Controlling officer(c) Disciplinary authority(d) None

Ans. (C) Rly.Bd’s No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67.

Qn.48 What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff working under the administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule or safety rules?

(a) DCM/Sr.DCM(b) DSO/Sr.DSO(c) DOM/Sr.DOM(d) DPO/Sr.DPO

Ans. (C) E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn.49 All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the Rly.Board.

(a) 202 days(b) 300 days(c) 150 days

Ans. (c) 150 days

Qn.50 Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate authority can act as revising authority?

(a) Rule-25(b) Rule - 25 A(c) Rule-22(d) Rule-21

Ans. (a)

Qn.51 A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway employee (DC). However certain classes of employees are based as DC’s which one of the following classes are barred?

(a) Vigilance inspector(b) Law Assistant(c) Railway servants under suspension(d) None the above

Ans. (d) Ref.Bd’s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-175 dt. 18/12/92.

Qn.52 Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from service may be considered by the

(a) Revising authority(b) Disciplinary authority(c) Higher than the Revising authority(d) None of the these

Ans. (c)

Qn.53 Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years without calculation effect and not adversely affecting his pension is

(a) Major penalty(b) Minor penalty(c) None(d) Both of these

Ans. (b) Ref. Bd’s No. E(D&A) 90 RG 6-12 dt. 16.11.90.

Qn. 54 Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service should be imposed only by

(a) controlling officer(b) disciplinary authority(c) appointing authority(d) none

Ans. (c) Ref.RB’s No. E(D&A) 80/RG-25 dt. 20.1.86.

Qn.55 The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules?

(a) Censure(b) Warning(c) Stoppage of pass(d) The recovery from pay of any pensionary loss

Ans. (b)

Qn.56 Whether ad-hoc promotee officers are competent to initiate disciplinary proceedings?

Ans. No.

Qn.57 Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet?

(a) Stoppage of increment(b) Stoppage of passes(c) Warning (d) Censure(e) None

Ans. (C)

Qn. 58. While forwarding appeals under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate authority should confirm its comments to (a) the points raised in the appeal only(b) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged official has had no opportunity to explain his position(c) discuss past cases(d) comments on his personality

Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000.

Qn.59 Whether Divisional safety officer can act as disciplinary authority in the case of misconduct of Dy.S.S.Working under D.O.M?(a) Division Safety Officer is competent(b) Divisional Safety Officer is not competent(c) Divisional Personnel Officer is competent(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-69 dt. 4.8.97.

Qn.60 Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can constitute a penalty under D&A Rule?(a) is a penalty under D&A Rules(b) is not a penalty under D&A Rules(c) All are penalty under D&A Rule(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 77 RG 6-20 dt. 10.5.77.

Qn.61 Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under Rule 6 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of issuance of order or from date of next increment due.

(a) effect from the date of issue of order(b) effect from date of next increment date(c) from the retrospective effect(d) none of these

Ans. (b) Qn.62 What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the

revising Authority?

(a) 60 days(b) 45 days(c) 90 days(d) none

Ans. (b)

Qn.63 Which Rules comes under when revision petition is not prefer within the time limit?

(a) Rule 25(b) Rule 27(c) None(d) Rule 22

Ans. (b)Qn.64 Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held?

(a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion.(b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO(c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO(d )None of these.

Ans. (a)Qn.65 Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants

(D&A)Rules be imposed with retrospective effect?

(a) With retrospective effect(b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissibleS(c) Always be prospective effect(d) None of these

Ans. (b)Qn.66 During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether

promotion of a Railway staff will be affected.

(a) promotion will be affected(b) promotion will not be affected(c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

Qn.67 When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?

(a) Rule 6(b) Rule 14(ii)(c) Rule 13(d) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.68 What is the correct Rule under R.S.Rules (D&A)for common proceeding?

(a) Rule 14(b) Rule 18(c) Rule 13(d) None

Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.D&A Rules, 1968.

Qn.69 Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM the case should be refer to RRT for advice.

(a) Rule 14(i)

(b) Rule 31(c) Rule 24

Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968.

Qn.70 Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank to the charged official?(a) Always IO should be senior(b) IO may be junior(c) IO may be equal in rank with CO(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01.

Qn.71 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25 (i) (iv)?

(a) The officer not below the rank of DRM(b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer(c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD

Ans. (a) E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37 dt. 13.2.04.

Qn.72 Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defence counsel engaged by the charged official in each hearing?(a) IO should inform DC(b) IO should not inform DC(c) DA should inform DC(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Qn.73 What is the current Rule for granting compassionate allowance to Railway employees who are removed or dismissal from service?

(a) Rule 64 of R.S.(Pension) Rules(b) Rule 65 of R.S.(Pension) Rules(c) Rule 60 of R.S.(Pension) Rules

Ans. (b)

Qn.74 Fresh appointment/Re-appointment under D&A Rule can be consider in terms of Rule

(a) 502 IREC Vol-I(b) 402 IREC Vol-1(c) 302 IREC Vol-1(d) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.75 How many total number of Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, do contain and how many parts are they divided.

(a) 31 Rule in IV parts(b) 25 Rule in VI parts(c) 31 Rule in VII parts

Ans. (C)

Qn.76 Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for

(a) Suspension(b) Major penalty proceedings(c) Appeal cases(d) Minor penalty proceeding

Ans. (d)

Qn. 77 Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968?

(a) Censure(b) Withdrawing of promotion(c) Suspension(d) None

Ans. (C)

Qn.78 Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel?

(a) A serving Rly. Employee(b) A retired Rly. Employee(c) A legal petitioner(d) A trade union official

Ans. (c)

Qn.79 Removal from service of Mr.X. Hd.Clerk, CPO’s office, who had absented himself by overstaying his leave without giving him an opportunity of showing cause why he should not be removed.

(a) No show cause is necessary(b) No opportunity against article 311 of the constitution of India(c) Approval of PHOD(d) None of these.

Ans. (b)

Qn.80 While forwarding appeals under Rules 21(3) of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules to the Appellate Authority should ?

(a) Confine its comments to the points raised in the appeal only(b) Can comments on any extraneous circumstances on which the

charged employee had had no opportunity to explain his position(c) Confine its comments with the approval of Revising Authority(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Ref.RB”s No. E(D&A)99 RG6-40 dt. 13.1.2000 (RBE 7/2000)

Qn.81 Who is the competent to review under Rule 25 A the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968?

(a) General Manager

(b) PHOD(c) Railway Board(d) The President of India

Ans. (d)

Qn.82 Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without restriction of time limit?

(a) PHOD(b) GM(c) DRM(d) HOD

Ans. (b)

Qn.83 When it is no practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?

(a) Rule 9(b) Rule 13(c) Rule 14(ii)(d) None of these

Ans. (C)

Qn.84 Who would be competent to issue Govt’s displeasure to a retd. Railway employee whose case has been dropped after retirement but initiated before retirement?

(a) Railway Board(b) HOD/PHOD(c) AGM/GM(d) None of these.

Ans. (C) Ref.Bd’s No.E(D&A)2001 RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02

Qn.85 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of Rule 25(i) (iv)?

(a) DCM(b) SrDPO(c) DRM(d) None of these.

Ans. (C) Ref. In RB’s No. E(D&A)2003/RG-6/37 dt. 13.2.04.

Qn.86 Which authority to cut in pensionary benefit

(a) GM(b) Rly.Board(c) President of India(d) None

Ans. (C) Ref. Rule 9 of RS(Pension) Rules 1993.

Qn.87 Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalsied before retirement of the Railway employees can be initiated after his retirement with a view to impose a cut in his pensionary benefits?

(a) Can be initiated.(b) Cannot be initiated.

(c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM.(d) None of these.

Ans. (b) Rly.Board’s ref. E(D&A)93 RG 6-61 dt. 11.1.2000.

Qn.88 Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a railway servant?

(a) Pension is payble.(b) Pension is not payable.(c) Compassionate allowance can be considered.(d) None of these.

Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A)2003-RG6-2 dt. 13.1.04.

Qn.89 Under which Rule is permissible for consideration of appeal

(a) Rule 20(b) Rule 22(c) Rule 25(d) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.90 Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies?

(a) An order of suspension(b) An order for enhancement of penalty(c) Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry(d) None of these.

Ans (C)

Qn.91 Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to constable of the Railway protection force?(a) are applicable.(b) are not applicable.(c) are applicable in certain cases.(d) None of these.

Ans. (b)

Qn.92 Who is the competent to initiate & finalise the D&A proceedings against a Comml. Superintendent.

a) Sr. DPOb) DEEc) SCMd) None of these.

Ans (C)

Qn. 93 Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay cannot affect promotion during penalty.

a) Not affect promotionb) Affect promotionc) Affect promotion after expiry of punishmentd) None of these.

Ans (A)

Qn. 94 What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

a) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued.b) Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable to

hold inquiry in a normal manner.c) Compulsory retirement without any inquiry.d) Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction.

Ans. (B)

Qn. 95 A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment period either minor or major? Which one of the following is an exception to the above provisions?

(a) Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to the Govt.(b) Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay(c) Withholding of increment(d) Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post

Ans. (a)

Qn.96 Which one of the penalties cannot be imposed on a retired Railway service?

(a) Cut in pension(b) Cut in DCRG(c) Cut in pension/DCRG(d) Cut in retirement complementary passes

Ans (d)

Qn.97 A suspended Rly Employee issued a major penalty C/sheet but finally imposed a minor penalty. The treatment of suspension period.

(a) Non duty(b) Duty(c) Dies non(d) None of these.

Ans. (b) Rly.Bd.Ref.E(D&A) 86 RG 6-19 dt. 21.3.86.

Q.98. Before forwarding the mercy appeal to Rly.Board the mercy appeal may be examined by the

(a) Controlling officer(b) Disciplinary authority(c) Prescribed authority

(d) Revising authority

Ans. (C) Rly.Bd’s ref. E(D&A)99 RG 6-25 dt. 11.10.99.

Q.99. Which is not applicable to treatment of the suspension period?

(a) Duty(b) Suspension(c) Leave due(d) Dis-non

Ans. (d)

Q.100 After retirement a charge sheet can be issued only by the

(a) GM(a) Controlling officer(b) President of India (c) Chief Personnel Officer Justice of Supreme Court

Ans. (c) Ref. Rule 9 of R.S.(Pension) Rules 1993

Qn.101 Rely to the charge memorandum by the C.O

(a) 15 days(a) 10 days(b) 20 days(c) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.102 When inquiry is not necessary?

(a) Charges admitted by CO(a) Charges not admitted by CO(b) Charges prepared by DA.(c) None of these.

Ans. (a) Ref. E(D&A)57 RG 6-6 dt. 26.4.57.

Qn. 103 Arising out of investigation by the CBI, the charge sheet may be dropped by the Disciplinary Authority, the matter should be consulted with

(a) GM(a) Railway Board(b) CBI(c) Supreme Court

Ans. (c) E(D&A) 81 RG 6-28 dt. 27.6.81.

Qn.104 Appointment of presenting officer is mandatory(a) In all cases(a) CBI vigilance investigation(b) Canteen(c) None

Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 78 RG 6-3 DT. 20/22/1/79.

Qn. 105. Allegation against inquiry officer as bias, the case should be put up for suitable orders to.

(a) Disciplinary authority(a) Appellate authority(b) Revising authority(c) None

Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A) 70 RG-6-14 (i) dt. 19.6.74.

Qn.106 Daily order sheet maintain by (a) Disciplinary authority(a) Inquiry officer(b) Charged officer(c) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.107. Which penalty does not effect for promotion?(a) Stoppage of pass/PTO’s(a) Reduction in post(b) Dismissed from service(c) None

Ans. (a)Qn.108. Exparte inquiry may be held when

(a) CO does not appear(a) I.O does not appear(b) Defence counsel does not appear(c) None

Ans. (a)Qn. 109. When did De-novo proceedings may be ordered by the competent authority?

(a) Irregularity or proceedings(a) Correctly proceedings(b) CO does not appear(c) None

Ans. (a)

Qn.110 In case of Noc-CVC vigilance case, before imposition of penalty the matter should be consult with

(a) GM(a) Vo (T)(b) CPO(c) CAT

Ans. (b) Ref.E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-30 dt. 16.5.01.

Qn.111 Inquiry is not necessary when an employee

(a) Intoxication of Alcohol

(a) Conviction of criminal charge(b) Misuse of Rly.property(c) Misbehavior with supervisor

Ans. (b) Ref.Rule 14(i) of RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.

Qn.112. Under which Rule that Disciplinary authority does not issue a formal charge sheet for imposition of penalty.

(a) Rule 13(a) Rule 25(b) Rule 14(ii)(c) Rule 22

Ans. (c)

Qn.113. For retd. Gr’A’ officer of SA grade is to be communicated Govt’s displeasure by

(a) President of India(a) Rly.Board(b) Supreme Court(c) None

Ans. (b)

Qn.114 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment for 2years in scale rs.4500-125-7000 on pay Rsd.4625/- p.m. with cumulative effect. Date of increment 1.8.05. After expiry of punishment his pay will be fixed.

(a) Rs.4875(a) Rs.4750(b) Rs.4775(c) None of these.

Ans. (b)

Qn.115. Reduction of pay by two stages to the lower stages of Rs.5850/- in the scale 5500-175-9000 for period 2 year without cumulative effect. Date of effect penalty 1.3.2000 and date of increment 1.6.2000. After expiry of punishment his pay will fixed on 1.6.2002.

(a) 6550(a) 6725(b) 6900(c) None of these.

Ans. (b)

Qn. 116 Minimum period of with holding of increment

(a) 3 months(a) One year(b) Six months(c) 2 months

Ans. (d) 282/89

Qn.117 . A retd. Employee may be granted pension before finalisation of the D&A case.

(a) Full pension(a) Half pension(b) Provisional pension(c) None

Ans. (C)

Qn.118. A Gr ‘C’ staff in pay scales of up to and including Rs.(5000-8000) placed under suspension? Who is the actual competent authority in his grade.

(a) Assistant officer(a) JA Grade officer(b) Assistant officer(Jr.Scale and and Group ‘B’ holding independent charge) and Sr.Scale officer(c) None

Ans. (b) Ref. DOP, Rly.Board’s letter No. E(D&A) 2002-RG 6-1 dt. 10.3.03.

Qn.119.. Who is the competent authority to issue a ‘Govt. displeasure notice for retd. Employee upto and including selection Grade of JA grade in respect of D&A proceedings had already been initiated before retirement but such proceedings are to be dropped?

(a) JA Grade officer(a) Rly.Board(b) President of India(c) GM

Ans. (d) Ref. Rl;y.Board No. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02.

Qn. 120. In any case, ADRM is the disciplinary authority who will be acting as Appellate authority?

(a) DRM(a) PHOD(b) GM(c) Rly.Board

Ans. (b) Ref. Schedule II of DOP.

Qn.121. In any case PHOD as Revising authority enhanced the penalty then CO

(a) May prefer further appeal(a) May not prefer further appeal(b) May prefer an appeal to Rly.Board.(c) None of these.

Ans. (a) Ref. Rly.Bd. No. E(D&A)94/RG 6-11 dt. 31.8.94.

Qn.122 Re-appointment under Rule 402-RI. A railway employee may be given full benefit of past service.

(a) Full benefit of past service(a) Forfeiture of past service(b) Half benefit of the past service.(c) None of these.

Ans. (b)

Qn.123 Imposition of enhanced punishment by the competent authority within

(a) 12 months(a) 6 months(b) 4 months(c) 3 months

Ans. (b)

Qn.124. Reduce penalty or upheld the penalty imposed by the a competent authority within

(a) 1 year(b) 2years(c) 6 months(d) None

Ans.(a)

Qn.125.Show cause notice is necessary when the

(a) Upheld the punishment(b) Reduce the punishment (c) Propose to enhance punishment(d) None

Ans. (C)

Qn. 126. In any case an employee preferred a revision petition, in the meantime he has died, his petition may be considered by the

(a) GM(b) Rly.Board(c) President of India(d) Revising authority

Ans. (d) Ref. E(D&A)85 RG 6-46 dt. 11.11.85.

127. In very special circumstances, which authority can revert an officiating employee in relaxation of the time of 18months.

(a) PHOD(b) DRM(c) GM(d) Rly.Board

Ans. GM Ref. E(D&A) 85 RG 6-9 dt. 20.4.85.

128. Which one of the following penalties are recognised?

(a) Warning(b) Censure(c) Counseling(d) Govt. displeasure.

Ans. (b)

LEAVE RULESLEVEL-I

1. How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway servant shall be entitled to get?


Ans:- (c) 30 days in a calendar year; (Para-523 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

2. How many days of LAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?.

a) 30 daysb) 10 days c) 20 daysd) 12 days

Ans:- (c ) 20 days in a year; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol.-I,1995 edition)

3. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for

a) 135 daysb) 120daysc) 90 daysd) 130 days

Ans:- (a) 135 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & Para-551 of IREC-Vol.I,1995 edition)

4. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity leave may be granted?.

a) 6 weeksb) 45 daysc) 7 weeksd) 43 days.

Ans:- (b) 45 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 72/97 )

5. Paternity leave is admissible with less than two surviving children for a period of


Ans:- (c ) 15 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & 154/97)

6. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is

a) 120b) 180c) 190d) 300 days

Ans:- (d) 300 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 172/97 )

7. LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of

a) 2 ½ days per monthb) 3 days per monthc) 2 days per monthd) 1 ½ days per month

Ans:- (a) 2 ½ days per month; (Para-524 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

8. How many days of LAP per year can be credited to a school staff ?

a) 10 daysb) 5 daysc) 7daysd) 8 days

Ans:- (a) 10 days; (Para-525 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

9. How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employeet in his service life?

a) 300 daysb) 450 daysc) 600 daysd) Un limited

Ans:- (d) Unlimited; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)

10. A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children

a) Less than twob) Onec) Fourd) Three

Ans:- (a) Less than two surviving children; (Para-551(A) R-I)

11. Up to what limit, maternity leave may be combined with any kind of leave?

a) One yearb) Two yearsc) Unlimitedd) Six months

Ans:- (a) One year; (Para-551, R-I)

12. A Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding----------- days per year.

a) 15 daysb) 13 daysc) 10 days

d) 12 days

Ans:- (d) 12 days; (Para-534, R-I)

13. Apprentice Mechanics in Railways Workshops may be granted leave on full stipend for period not exceeding…...


Ans:- (a) 16 days; (Para-533, R-I)

14. Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not exceeding ………, if leave granted out side India.


Ans:- (b) 240 days; (RBE No. 42/92)

15. Study leave shall count for :-

a) Reckoning seniority b) Reckoning increment c) Earning LAP d) Earning LHAP.

Ans:- (c ) Earning LAP (R-I, 556)

LEVEL-II

16. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?

a) Group ‘A’ b) Group ‘B’ c) Group ‘C’ d) Group ‘D’

Ans:- (d) Group ‘D’ only. (Para-554 of IREC, Vol.-I)

17. When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as

a) LAP b) LHAP c) SPL Leave d) Extra ordinary leave.

Ans:- (d ) Extra ordinary leave (Para 530, R-I)

18. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is…….


Ans:- (d) 300 days; (E. S. No. 172/97)

19. Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?.

a) Senior Scale Officer b) J A Grade Officer c) DRM d) ADRM

Answer:- (d) ADRM (Rule 552, 553, R-I). 20. Leave of any kind can be combined with vacation in the case of

a) Officers b) Office Staff c) Running Staff d) Rly. School TeacherAnswer:- (d) Rly. School Teacher (Para 525, R-I).

21. What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant may be granted?

a) 120daysb) 160 daysc) 180 daysd) 300 days

Ans:- (c) 180 days; (Para 523, R-I)

22. What is the maximum limit of Leave not due that may be granted to a permanent Rly. Servant during his entire service period?

a) 360 daysb) 380 daysc) Unlimitedd) 300 days

Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E. S. No. 31/89 & Para 528,R-I, 1995 edition)

23. Within which period, Paternity Leave can be granted?

a) Six monthsb) Three monthsc) Four monthsd) 15days

Ans:- (a) 6 months; (E. S. No. 05/2000)

24. Special Disability Leave on average pay granted for accident on duty shall not exceed………

a) 120days

b) 125 daysc) 360 daysd) 280 days

Ans:- (d) 280 days; (Para 553 (iii), R-I)

25. Paternity leave is also admissible to

a) Casual Labour b) Casual labour with temporary status c) After completion of 180 days of serviced) After regular absorption

Ans:- (b) Casual labour with temporary status; (E. S. No. 143/99)

26. Staff of which Railway are entitled to avail extra Casual leave?

a) SERb) ECORc) NFRd) ECR

Ans:- (c) NFR;

27. Whom does the Compensatory Casual leave is admissible?

a) Supervisory staff b) Group ‘D’ staff c) Group ‘C’ & Group ‘D’ staff but not supervisord) Stenographer & Confidential Assistant

Ans:- (c) Group ‘C’ & Group ‘D’ staff but not supervisor; (E. S. No. 27/61)

28. Quarantine Leave

a) Withdrawn b) Admissible in critical diseases c) For Eye diseased) Wife’s SicknessAns:- (a) Withdrawn; (Para, 555, R-I)

LEVEL-III

29. Commuted leave is admissible on

a) Medical Certificateb) Request of an employee c) Discretion of competent authorityd) None

Ans:- (a) On Medical Certificate; (Para, 527, R-I)

30. If a Railway employee applies for a kind of leave say LAP, in advance, the competent authority may……..

a) Sanction as CLb) sanction as LWP

c) refuse to sanction it d) convert it as commuted leave

Ans:- (c) Refuse to sanction it; (Para, 503, R-I)

31. A Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not exceeding……

a) 3 Yearsb) 4 years c) 5 years d) 6 years

Ans:- (c) 5 years; (Para, 510, R-I)

32. Which of the following leave can be combined with vaction in case of a school teacher?a) Only LAPb) Only LHAP c) Any kind of leave d) Special disability leave

Ans:- (c) Any kind of leave; (Para, 525 (d) , R-I)

33. How many occasions does a workshop staff be granted half a day’s LAP?

a) 6 occasions b) 10 occasions c) 6 occasions d) 12 occasions

Answer :- (a ) 6 occasions ( Para539/2, R-I)

34. Hospital leave granted to a non-Gazetted Rly. Servant should not exceed a total of ……..when combined with other leave

a) 24 monthsb) 26 months c) 28 months d) 18 months

Answer :- (c ) 28 months (554/4, R-I

35. What is the maximum limitation of Leave Not Due granted on medical certificate during the entire period of service?

a) 360daysb) 365 daysc) 370 daysd) 390 days

Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E.S.No.30/89)

36. Maximum of study leave that can be granted to an employee during his entire service period is ……..a) 36 months

b) 28 months c) 24 months d) 30 months

Answer :- (a ) 36 months (170/98 )

37. In case of ‘Cut in pension’, for compulsory retirement as a measure of punishment, leave encashment is admissible for…a) 360daysb) 150 daysc) un utilized daysd) not eligilbleAns:- (d) not eligilble; (E.S.No.334/87)

38. Which of the following leave may be granted to a Rly. Servant, Volunteered to donate blood in Govt./Rly. Hospitals for railway employees.

a) Special Casual leaveb) casual leavec) LAPd) LHAP

Ans:- Special Casual leave.

39. If a railway servant resigns from service during study leave, and it is converted into regular leave as LAP/LHAP leaving balance, such a balance shall be treated as….

A) unauthorized absenceb) Extra ordinary leavec) Study leaved) Leave not due

Answer:- (b) Extra ordinary leave (R-I, Appv./ul/2/w)

40. Who is the Authority to grant study leave abroad?A) Rly. Boardb) GMc) DRMd) CPO

Answer:- (a) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)

41. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave within India?A) Rly. Boardb) GMc) DRM/CWMd) CPO

Answer:- (b) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)

42. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave for Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ categories within India?a) Rly. Boardb) GMc) DRM/CWMd) CPO

Answer:- (c ) DRM/CWM (E.S.No.77/02)

43. What is the Maximum joining time admissible to a Railway Servant?


Answer:- 15 days in case of air travel is involved (Para- 1108, R-I, 1995)

44. Which of the following employee does Special Casual leave is admissible under family welfare scheme?

a) Male employeeb) Female employeec) Both male & female employeed) None

Answer:- (c ) Both male & female employee (E.S.No.100/ 84)

45. Under small family norms a railway employee is entitled to get Special Casual leave up to…….


Answer:- 14 days (E.S.No.100/ 84)

46. Special Casual Leave is admissible foe employees who reside at a place where the date of polling is different from that of place….a) 1 dayb) 2 daysc) 3 days d) 4 days

Answer:- 1 day (E.S.No.122/ 87)

47. Who is the authority to grant Special Casual Leave for Bundh,Curfew or other disturbances?a) PHODb) HODc) DRMd) ADRM

Answer:- (b) HOD (DRM/CWM) (E.S.No.4/ 85)

48. What is the maximum Casual leave admissible in a calendar year for scouting/ Sports activities?

a) 30 daysb) 45 daysc) 15 days

d) 25 days

Answer:- 120 days (E.S.No.33/ 05)

49. Special Casual Leave is granted to cover the period of absence of Rly. Servants attending JCM…

a) Not more than 5 days in a yearb) Not more than 10 days in a yearc) 6 days in a yeard) 10 days in a year

Answer:- (a) Not more than 5 days in a year 14 days (E(L0 66 NM-1/21 dt 25-1-67)

50. If the transfer involves change of station, and the distance between the old and new station is less than 1000 k.ms, how many days of joining time is admissible?

a) Not more than 5 days b) 10 daysc) 12 daysd) 15 days

Answer:- (b) 10 days (Rly. Bd’s No. E(G)79/JT1/1 dt. 21.02.1980)

PASS RULES

Q 1. What is Pass?

(a) Pass is a Privilege.(b) To travel in Railway(c) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person

authorizing him to travel in a train gratuitously.(d) None of these.

Answer: (c)

Q 2. Family means.

(a) Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent. Bonafide student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter of any age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter. Railway Doctor’s certified invalid son daughter of any age.

(b) Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.

(c) Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age.

(d) Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.

Answer: (a)

Q 3. How many sets of P.T.O. issued to the Railway employees?

(a) 6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.

(b) 4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.

(c) 3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.

(d) 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.

Answer: (a) (Rule-6) Railway Board’s Manual.

Q 4. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?

(a) 6 sets per year.(b) 4 sets per year.(c) 3 sets per year.(d) 5 sets per year.

Answer: 3 sets per yearQ 5. Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass?

(a) 3 months (Half-set)(b) 4 months (Full-set)(c) 2 months (Half-set)(d) 5 months (Full-set)

(Answer : (a) & (b)

Q 6. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-

(a) Part time servant.(b) Servant(c) Full time paid servant.(d) Any person.

Answer : (c)

Q 7. Pass to widows/widower of Railway employee was implemented w.e.f.

(a) 12.03.1987(b) 12.03.1990(c) 12.03.1989(d) 12.03.1988

Answer: (a) Rule 9

Q 8. Maximum birth given for Reservation to Railway Officer on duty?

(a) 6 births(b) 4 births(c) 3 births(d) 2 births

Answer: (b)

Q 9. Eligibility for 1st Class Pass for Non-Gazetted staff.

Who are appointed before 01.08.1969

(a) Basic Pay – 5375 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)(b) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)(c) Basic Pay – 5100 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)(d) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)

Answer: (b)

Q 10. When Higher Class Pass issued

(a) On medical ground.(b) On Scouts & Guide(c) None of these(d) Cultural functions

Answer: (a)

Q 11. Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey (Privilege/Duty)

2nd Class Pass holder – (a) Rs. 5/-(b) Rs. 10/-(c) Rs. 15/

(d) Rs. 20/-

Answer: (b)

1st Class Pass holder - (a) Rs. 15/-(b) Rs. 25/-(c) Rs. 35/-(d) Rs. 50/-

Answer: (b)

Q 12. Loss of a Retired Complimentary Pass?

2nd Class Pass holder

(a) Rs. 10/-(b) Rs. 20/-(c) Rs. 30/(d) Rs. 40/-

Answer: (a)

Q 13. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass.

2nd Class Pass holder

(a) Rs. 10.50/-(b) Rs. 12.50/-(c) Rs. 13.50/-(d) Rs. 14.50/-

Answer: (b)

1st & 1st ‘A’ Pass holder

(a) Rs. 35/-(b) Rs. 40/-(c) Rs. 45/-(d) Rs. 50/-

Answer: (a)

Q 14. Penalties for loss of a Gold Pass.

(a) Rs. 3009/-(b) Rs. 3309/-(c) Rs. 3109/-(d) Rs. 3209/-

Answer: (b)

Q 15. Penalties for loss of a Silver Pass.

(a) Rs. 1890/-(b) Rs. 1790/-(c) Rs. 1799/-

(d) Rs. 1690/-

Answer: (b)

Q 16. Penalties for loss of a Bronze Pass.

(a) Rs. 1729/-(b) Rs. 1829/-(c) Rs. 1629/-(d) Rs. 1529/-

Answer: (a)

Q 17. Privilege issued Pass/P.T.Os. are admissible when a staff is on

(a) Any kind of leave.(b) Only extra ordinary leave.(c) Only study leave.(d) Only special disability leave.

Answer: (a)

Q 18. Weekend are issued to:

(a) Any railway employee.(b) Married railway employee.(c) If father is not alive of a railway employee.(d) Un married railway employee.

Answer: (b)

Q 19. Passes are not admissible over Nilgiri Railway during the month (except Gazetted staff)

(a) January, February, March(b) April, May, June(c) July, August, September(d) October, November, December.

Answer: (b) Rule 6-3 (XVIII)

Q 20. Full form of P.T.O.

(a) Personnel Ticket Order(b) Permanent Ticket Order(c) Privilege Ticket Order(d) Pass & Ticket Order.

Answer: (c) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (g)

Q 21. Set means

(a) Set means 3 sets of pass per year.(b) Set means 6 sets of pass per year.(c) Set means 3 sets of pass & 6 sets of P.T.O. per year.(d) Set means One set of pass or P.T.O. for Outward and Return journey.

Answer: (d) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (k)

Q 22. Break journey is not permissible in case of

(a) Transfer Pass.(b) School Pass.(c) Settlement Pass.(d) Post Retd. Complimentary Pass.

Answer: (c)

Q 23. On what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holders.

(a) Studying in Sindia School/Gwalior(b) Studying in South Point School/Kolkata(c) Studying in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur(d) Studying in Oak Grove School/Jharipani/Dehradun.

Answer: (d) Rly.Bd.’s No.E(G) LIPS 5-1/5 dt. 29.3.61.

Q 24. How many sets of Pass will be deducted for un-authorized occupying Railway quarter?

(a) One set will be deducted for two months.(b) One set will be deducted for one month.(c) One set will be deducted for one year.(d) One set will be deducted for three months.

Answer: (b)

Q 25. How much Service (minimum) is required for Post Retired Complimentary Pass

(a) 20 years(b) 25 years(c) 15 years(d) 33 years

Answer: (a)

Q 26. What basic Pay is required for traveling in 1st AC on duty for self-only?

(a) All Group ‘B’ Officers.(b) JAG & above grade Officers. Rs. 14300/-(c) Officers above Rs. 14300/-(d) SS grade officers. Rs. 14300/-

Answer: (b)

Q 27. How many break journeys are admissible in Privilege Pass?

(a) 6 nos.(b) 7 nos.(c) Any number (En-route)(d) 5 nos.

Answer: (c)

Q 28. On what routes Pass can be issued?

(a) Any route.(b) Shortest route & longest route but quicker.(c) Longest route.(d) Shortest route with 30% of the longest route.

Answer: (b)

Q 29. Irregularity for use of Passes may be condon by

(a) CPO(b) GM(c) CME(d) COM

Answer: (b)

Q 30. How many School Certificates are required for School Card Pass in a year.

(a) One in a year(b) Four in a year(c) Two in a year(d) One in whole service life

Answer: (c)

Q 31. Who is the competent authority for delayed issue of settlement pass beyond one year of retirement of Group C & D employees.

(a) Any officer(b) Dy.CPO/Pass(c) GM/AGM or CPO/DRM (d) Dy. Secretary (Pass)

Answer: (c) Pass Manual Schedule-VII – Rule XVI.

Q 32. Can Post Retired Complimentary Pass be issued to Quasi Railway Institutions?

(a) No(b) Yes(c) May be issued with the approval of GM.(d) PHOD’s approval.

Answer: (a) Schedule VII, Rule XVIII

Q 33. Split Passes are issued to which Railway Servant?

(a) Only Group ‘A’ service(b) All Officers(c) All Railway Servants (A, B, C & D)(d) Only GM/AGM.

Answer: (c)

STAFF WELFARE & EDUCATIONAL FACILITIES

Q.1. Who is primarily responsible to provide educational facilities to the wards/children of Railway employees.

a) State Government/Ministry of HRDb) Railway Ministryc) Other Agenciesd) All

Ans. a) (Board’s letter No. E/W 83/SC/2/27 dt. 13.9.88)

Q.2 Educational facilities provided by the Railways are generally confined to –

a) School levelb) College levelc) Technical leveld) Professional level

Ans. a) (Bd’s letter No.E(W)83/SC 2/27 dt. 13.9.88)

Q.3. Railway Schools functioning in various Railways colonies get recognition by the –

a) Ministry of Railways,b) Education Board/Deptt. Of Respective State Govt.c) CBSEd) CISE

Ans. b)

Q.4. To meet the educational needs of Wards/children of Railway employees, Railway colonies have following schools other than Railway own –

a) K.Vs,b) State Govt. Schoolsc) Private Schools,d) All

Ans. d)

Q.5. The admission in Railway School is restricted to

a) Child wards of Railway employees onlyb) As per merit test open to all c) Outsider to a limited extent on availability of seat.d) Only a) & c)

Ans. d)

Q.6. Minimum amount is levied on student of Rly. Schools in the form of –

a) Tuition feesb) Exams. Feesc) S.D.Fd) Science Fee

Ans. c)

Q.7. Is there any concession in the matter of Admission for SC/ST students.

a) Reservation of 15% seats for SC, 5% for STb) Reservation in (I) is inter-changeablec) No refusal in Primary classesd) All

Ans. d)

Q.8. Railway Schools do not constitute `industry’; Is there any scope for the teachers to join

a) Existing Trade Union of Railwaysb) Forming association of their ownc) Bothd) None

Ans. b)

Q.9. Railway Teachers in their individual capacity can discuss their grievances with the –

a) Personal Deptt. Officers,b) Education Board/Department, of Concerned State Govt.c) Affiliated Board/Councild) None

Ans. a)

Q.10. Where there is inadequate educational facilities available or totally absent in a Railway colony, Railway have established KVs in Railway Colonies only at –

a) Civil Sectorb) Project Sector,c) Both,d) None

Ans. a)

Q.11. Railways provide physical facilities to the KVs on nominal license fees on

a) short term leaseb) long term leasec) permanent facilitiesd) None

Ans. b)

Q.12. Privately managed schools in Railway Colonies may get non-recurring and recurring assistance in the form of

a) subsidy for expansion of school building b) furniture and equipment c) recurring adhoc grant d) all

Ans. d)

Q.13. The authority empowered to sanction recurring adhoc grant to privately managed schools on Railways land on fulfillment of certain conditions.


Ans. b)

Q.14. Railway Administration may sanction suitable grant in aid to private managed schools who are unable to balance their budget on fulfillment of certain conditions

a) Quartyerly b) Half-yearlyc) On annual basisd) As and when required

Ans. c)

Q.15. Which of the Rly Schools get a fixed amount for planning and augmenting school Library

a) High/Higher Secondary Schoolsb) Middle Schoolsc) Primary Schoolsd) All types of Schools.

Ans. d)

Q.16. Library of a Higher Secondary School maintained by a suitable teacher in absence of a librarian may get special pay

a) Rs.250/-b) Rs.200/-c) Rs.150/-d) Rs.100/-

Ans. b)

Q.17. The in-service training programme of teachers conducted by the

a) Zonal Railwayb) Rly. Boardc) NCERTd) CBSE

Ans. a)

Q.18. Children’s educational allowance is admissible to a Railway employee from Class-I to XII per month per child

a) Rs.50/-

b) Rs.100/-c) Rs.200/-d) Rs.250/-

Ans. b)

Q.19. Re-imbursement of tuition fee, educational allowance and Hotel subsidy is admissible to the wards of Rly. employees from classes

A) Nursery to XB) I – XC) I to XIID) I to Degree Course

Ans. c)

Q.20. The re-imbursement of school tuition fee for class I to XII in respect of handicapped children per month is

a) Rs.100/-b) Rs.75/-c) Rs.50/-d) Rs.25/-

Ans. a)

Q.21. Children’s educational allowance is admissible to a Rly employee when

a) child is compelled to study awayb) Absence of a school of requisite standc) Railway servant is posted at NE regiond) Any one of a) b) and c)

Ans. d)

Q.22. A Rly. servant shall not be eligible to draw children educational allowance, re-imbursement of tuition fee for a child in a class for more than –

a) 1 academic yearb) 2 academic yearsc) 3 academic yearsd) till completion

Ans. b)Q.23. Can a Railway servant eligible to get educational allowance and re-imbursement of tuition fee for the number of children born after 1.4.1987

a) 1 childb) 2 childrenc) 3 childrend) All

Ans. b)

Q.24. There is provision for supply of free uniforms at the cost of Rly.revenue to the children of Rly. Employees upto the the pay limit of Rs.5000/- p.m.

a) Primary level

b) Middle School levelc) High School leveld) Higher Secondary level

Ans. a)

Q.25. Recruitment of teachers in the Railway Schools is made by the Railway Administration concerned

The authority lies on

a) Railway Boardb) GMc) CPOd) None of these

Ans c)

Q.26. Whether ACP scheme is applicable for Railway school teacher

a) applicableb) not applicablec) Governed by the separate schemed) none of the above.

Ans. c)

Q.27. Which of the statement is not true in regard to the recruitment of TGTs/PGTs

a) no fixed DR quotab) serving teachers from feeder category promoted c) shortfall if any made good by DRd) both b) & c)

Ans. d)

Q. 28. Primary teachers, TGTs & PGTs in basic grade aqre placed in senior grade subject to found suitable by the DPC on completion of a) 8 years in basic gradeb) 10 years in basic gradec) 12 years in basic graded) non

Ans : c)

Q. 29. What percentage of teachers enjoying senior grade with higher qualification is eligible for award of selection grade

a) 8%b) 10%c) 12%d) 20%

Ans. d)

Q.30. Group-B, Headmaster/Headmistress of Secondary School eligible to get the following grant

a) Senior grade

b) Selection gradec) Bothd) None

Ans. a)

Q.31. For purpose of grant of selection grade, a TGT should have a) PG Degree in relevant subjectb) PG Degree in any subjectc) Only Bachelor Degreed) None

Ans. a)

Q.32. Computer education is provided to the students of Railway Schools at the cost of

a) Railway revenueb) Self sustenancec) SDFd) None

Ans. b)

Q.33. Upper age limit for recruitment of Railway teacher generally applicable

a) Below 28b) Below 30c) Below 40d) Below 45

Ans. c)

Q.34. To manage the functioning of the school GM can engage

a) Part-time teacherb) Substitute teacherc) A & B bothd) NoneAns. b)

Q.35.School administration of a Higher Secondary School is looked after in absence of a Headmaster by

a) Asst. Headmasterb) Vice Principalc) Senior most PGTd) Senior most TGT

Ans.c)

Q.36. A teacher of a Rly. School, if avails of full vacation in a year, is entitled to, in respect of duty performed in that year

a) LAPb) Proportionate LAPc) No LAP

d) None

Ans. c)

Q.37. A teacher of Railway School can combine with vacation

a) Only LAPb) Only LHAPc) Only CLd) Any kind of leave

Ans. d)

Q.38. With a view to improve quality of education and achieving excellence a scheme of annual award for best teacher, student etc, has been introduced from the academic year 1999-2000 at the

a) Railway Board’s levelb) Zonal Levelc) Divisional leveld) Both a & B

Ans. d)

1354017934327-quesion bank

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