100 Opthalmology Questions for Practice

8/12/2019 100 Opthalmology Questions for Practice

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100 opthalmology questions for practice

09/07/2011

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1. The first sign of Cavernous sinus thrombosis

a. Non reacting pupil

b. VIth nerve palsy

c. Proptosis

d. Colour vision problems

2. Commonest cause of bilateral proptosis in adults is seen in

a. Metastasis

b. Thyrotoxicosis

c. Orbital cellulitis

d. Cavernous haemangioma

3. IOL is contraindicated in cataract due to

a. Reiterssyndrome


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b. Ankylosing spondylitis

c. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

d. Fuchs heterochromic iridocylitis

4. A combination of mental retardation and lens subluxation is found in

a. Airports syndrome

b. Marfans syndrome

c. Downs syndrome

d. Homocystinuria

5. When the colour of one iris is different from the other, it is called

a. Iridoschisis

b. Iridodonesis

c. Heterochromia iridis

d. Heterochromia iridum

6. Cause of Oculosympathetic paralysis


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a. Keratoconus

b. Pancoast tumor

c. Eales disease

d. Nystagmius

7. Commonest muscle to get involved in thyroid related ophthalmopathy

a. Inferior rectus

b. Superior rectus

c. Medial rectus

d. Inferior oblique

8. Vogts triad is seen in

a. Keratoconus

b. Post attack of herpes simplex

c. Post attack of acute angle closure glaucoma

d. Pigmentary glaucoma


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9. Young man presents with sudden painless loss of vision. On examination there are no systemic

problems. Most probable diagnosis is

a. Retinal detachment

b. Cataract

c. Eales disease

d. OAG

10. True about Moorens ulcer

a. Painless

b. Sudden loss of vision

c. Requires steroids

d. Drug of choice is clindamicin

11. Minimum endothelial cell density (per mm square) in cornea to maintain corneal transparency is

a. 3000

b. 1000

c. 500


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d. 2500

12. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in

a. CRVO

b. Diabetic retinopathy

c. Hypertensive retinopathy

d. Ocular ischaemic syndrome

13. Chorio retinitis is caused by all except

a. Oncocerciasis

b. Cytomegalovirus

c. Toxoplamosis

d. Cryptococcosis

14. Which of them is a symptom of cataract

a. Loss of visual field

b. Circumcorneal congestion


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c. Loss of contrast sensitivity

d. Abnormal pupillary reactions

15. Patient presents with IOP of 55mm Hg, deep AC, some cells and flare, hypermature cataract, and is

diabetic. Diagnosis is

a. Angle closure glaucoma

b. Acute anterior uveitis

c. Phacolytic glaucoma

d. Neovascular glaucoma

16. Herpes Zoster ophthalmicus in a 25 yrs old patient is an indication for

a. ANA for SLE

b. ACE for sarcoidosis

c. ELISA for HIV

d. ANCA for Wegeners granulomatosis


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17. A 40 yrs old rheumatoid arthritis patients presents with gradual decrease in vision during the past

few months. Most probable diagnosis

a. Age related Macular degeneration


c. Steroid induced cataract

d. Dry eyes

18. Amaurotic cats eye reflex is seen in

a. Retrolental fibroplasias

b. Retinoblastoma

c. Complete retinal detachment

d. All

19. Oculocardioc reflex is seen in which surgery

a. Cararact

b. Keratoplasty


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c. Strabismus

d. Glaucoma

20. A constracted pupil responds to accommodation but light reflex is absunt. It is

a. Adies pupil

b. Hutchinson pupil

c. Argyll Robertson pupil

d. Marcus Gunn

21. Which of the following is a cause of sudden blindness in a quiet eye with normal media and fundus

a. Vitreous haemorrhage

b. Retrobulbar neuritis

c. Iridocyclitis

d. Optic neuritis

22. Patient with 10 yrs of DM loss of vision, he complaints of NPDR. Most probable cause of loss vision

is

a. Vitreous haemorrhage


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b. Cystoid macular edema

c. Tractional detachment

d. Neovascular glaucoma

23. Treatment of choice in Elschnias peals is

a. Trabeculotomy

b. Goniotomy

c. NdYAG capsulotomy

d. Para centesis

24. In the 25th week of her pregnancy patient complaints of sudden painless loss of vision. Reason

a. Acute angle closure glaucoma

b. Anterior uveitis

c. Exudative retinal detachment

d. Optic neuritis

25. All are true about Xanthelasma except


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a. Raised yellow plaques on upper lids

b. Seen in elderly women

c. Associated with hypercholesterolemia

d. Is malignant

26. All are retinal changes in myopia except

a. Anterior staphyloma

b. Foster fuchs spot

c. Posterior staphyloma

d. Temporal crescent

27. All are true about anterior blepharitis except

a. Inflammation of margins of lids

b. Ulcerative blepharitis has small ulcers at the base of eye lashes

c. Treatment requires doxycycline

d. Squamous blepharitis has small scales


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28. A diabetic develops severe glaucoma after 20 yrs, on examination IOP is 50 mm, has corneal

edema, new blood vessels at pupillary margin, cup disc ratio of 0.8, which kind of glaucoma is it

a. Pigmentary glaucoma

b. Neovascular glaucoma

c. Malignant glaucoma

d. Angle closure glaucoma

29. Microspherophakia is commonly seen in

a. Weil Marchesani syndrome

b. Marfans syndrome

c. Homocystinuria

d. Phenylketonuria

30. Sentinel vessels are seen in

a. Pituitary adenoma

b. Pleomorphic adenoma


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c. Retinoblastoma

d. Malignant melanoma

31. Malignancies which mimic features of anterior or posterior uveitis are called

a. Amaurosis

b. Masquerade syndrome

c. Microtropia

d. Opsoclonus

32. Which pair is incorrect

a. Rheumatoid arthritis - dry eye

b. Sarcoidosis - uveitis

c. Myeloid leukemia - chloroma

d. Behcets disease - corneal ulcer

33. Which pair is incorrect

a. HIV Kaposis sarcoma


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b. Reiters syndrome Conjunctivitis

c. Tuberculosis - Phlyctenular conjunctivitis

d. Leprosy - Optic neuritis

34. When adhesion of lid to globe takes place it is called

a. Ankyloblepharon

b. Lagophthalmus

c. Symblepharon

d. Blepharophimosis

35. Hirschbergs test reveals 3 mm temporal displacement of corneal reflex. What is the diagnosis

a. 3 degree exotropia

b. 3 degree esotropia

c. 21 degree exotropia

d. 21 degrees esotropia

36. Endophthalmitis include all except


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a. Vitreous

b. Sclera

c. Uvea

d. Retina

37. Regarding corneal transplantation what is true

a. Whole eye preserved in tissue culture

b. Donor not accepted age > 60 yrs

c. HLAmatching required

d. Specular microscopy is used to count cells

38. A patient presenting with ptosis shows retraction of lids on chewing cause is

a. Abducens paralysis

b. 3rd N palsy

c. Marcus Gunn phenomenon

d. Aberrant regeneration of 4th nerve


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39. Arden index is seen in

a. ERG

b. EOG

c. VER

d. Perimetry

40. Young female presents with unilateral proptosis which increases on bending forward, no thrill or

bruit. Diagnosis

a. Neurofibromatosis

b. Orbital varix

c. A-V fistula

d. Orbital encephalocele

41. Which of the following does not scavenge free radicles in the lens

a. Vit. A

b. Vit. C

c. Vit. E


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d. Catalase

42. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except

a. Glaucoma

b. Congenital dacryocystitis

c. Malnutrition

d. Ophthalmia neonatorum

43. Roseolaprominent dilated iris vessels is seen in

a. Tuberculosis

b. Syphilis

c. HIV

d. Leprosy

44. Synchysis refers to:

a. Liquefaction of vitreous

b. Black spots in- front of eye


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c. Collapse of vitreous

d. Detachment of vitreous

45. Lisch nodules are seen in:

a. Retinoblastoma

b. Neuroblastoma

c. Neuprfibromatosis

d. Intraocular lymphoma

46. Streak hemorrhage on the optic disc is sign of:

a. Papillitis

b. papilloedema

c. Glaucoma

d. Retrobulbar neuritis

47. Relative afferent papillary defect (RAPD) signifie:

a. Damage to anterior visual pathway


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b. Damage to suprageniculate pathway

c. Internal opthalmoplegia

d. Damage to puspillary sphincter

48. Photo opthalmia is caused by:

a. Infrared rays

b. Ultraviolet rays

c. X-rays

d. - radiation

49. Most common malignancy of conjunctivia is:

a. Sebaceous cell carcinoma

b. Malignant melanoma

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

d. Basal cell carcinoma

50. Intraocular Pressure measured by Goldmann applanation tonometer over a thin cornea is:


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a. Normal

b. Higher than normal

c. Lower than normal

d. None of the above

51. Altitudinal field defect is seen in:

a. Optic neuritis

b. Papilloedema

c. Traumatic optic neuropathy

d. Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

52. Earliest sign of recurrent ocular herpes simplex infection is:

a. Vesicles on the lids

b. Acute follicular conjunctivitis

c. Punctate epithelial keratitis

d. Dendritic epithelial keratitis


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53. Blue sclera may be associated with all except:

a. Marfans syndrome

b. Buphtalmos

c. Exophtalmos

d. High myopia

54. The afferent pathway for light papillary reflex is which one of the following

a. Trigeminal nerve

b. Optic nerve

c. Abducent nerve

d. Ciliary nerve

55. Alteration of 1 mm in axial length of the eye results in ametropis of how many diaptres

a. 1 D

b. 2 D

c. 3 D


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d. 4 D

56. Inverted Purkinje images are seen on

a. Anterior surface of cornea

b. Posterior surface of cornea

c. Anterior surface of lens

d. Posterior surface of lens

57. The corneal abrasion or an ulcer is stained by which one of the following

a. Rose Bengal dye

b. Fluorescein dye

c. Methylene blue dye

d. Alcian blue dye

58. The most common systemic association of scleritis is which of the following

a. EhlersDanlos syndrome

b. Disseminated systemic sclerosis


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c. Rheumatoid arthritis

d. Giant cell arteritis

59. The following structures are not derived from surface ectoderm

a. Crystalline lens

b. Sclera

c. Corneal epithelium

d. Epithelium of Lacrimal glands

60. The most serious complication of perforating ocular trauma is which one of the following

a. Loss of vision in traumatized eye

b. Infection

c. Sympathetic ophthalmia

d. Retinal detachment

61. Retinal haemorrhages with white centres seen in SABE are known as

a. Lisch nodules


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b. FosterFucus spots

c. Roths spots

d. Cerulean dots

62. Krukenbergs spindle is pigmentation seen on corneal endothelium

a. Malignant Glaucoma

b. Retinal Detachment

c. Uveitis

d. Pigmentary Glaucoma

63. A young man using glasses for last 10 yrs present with history of photopsiae and sudden loss of

vision in right eye which is the best examination technique?

a. Cycloplegic refraction

b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy

c. Schiotz tonometry

d. Gonioscopy


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64. Crowding phenomena is seen in

a. Myopia

b. Presbyopia

c. Hypermetropia

d. Amblyopia

65. patient trescents with cell flare mutton fat K.Ps best investigation of choice

a. X-ray sacro-iliac joint

b. Rheumatoid factor

c. Serum ACE level

d. Blood-sugar

66. A Hypertensive patient complains of sudden and painless loss of vision. On retinal examination ,

the entire retina is white with a central red glow coming from fovea .diagnosis is

a. CRAO

b. BRAO

c. CRVO


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d. Hypertensive retinopathy

67. Most important factor governing convergence of light rays on the retina is

a. Axial length

b. Corneal curvature

c. AC depth

d. Lens thickness

68. Surgery for congenital ptosis

a. LPS resection

b. Wedge resection

c. Occlusion

d. Tarsal fracture

69. Which of these field defects is not due to glaucoma?

a. Nasal step

b. Binasal hemianopia


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c. Arcuate scotoma .

d. Generalized depression

70. A 7 year old girl is brought in for evaluation of left lazy eye refraction is R eye -0.75 DS, LE + 6.0

DS Treatment of choice

a. Orthoptics

b. Glasses

c. Surgery

d. Glasses followed by occlusion

71. Commonest tumor of the orbit in children

a. Retinoblastoma

b. Rhabdomyosarcoma

c. Neuroblastoma

d. Choroidal melanoma

72. Which stromal dystrophy is autosomal recessive in nature, spreads to the limbus, has no clear

spaces in the middle and has poor vision at an early age


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a. Granular

b. Macular

c. Lattice

d. Fuchs Endothelial

73. patient present with bride red conjunctiva serous discharge and preauricular lymphadenopathy.

Many patients have presented from same community. Diagnosis is

a. entero virus70

b. streptococcus

c. adeno virus

d. Chlamydia

74. Hard stop on probing is seen in

a. Common canalicular block

b. Lacrimal pump failure

c. Lower canalicular block


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d. Nasolacrimal duct block

75. Posterior staphyloma is seen in

a. Digenerative myopia

b. Scleromalacia perforans

c. Glaucoma

d. Trauma

76. Patient is hit with a tennis ball in the eye and has enophthalmos, diplopia and anaesthesia over

eyelid. Diagnosis

a. Macular edema

b. Uveitis

c. Blow out fracture

d. Rosette cataract

77. Patient has 6/18 vision but pinhole vision improves to 6/6 diagnosis is

a. CRVO

b. Cataract


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c. Myopia


78. Neuroparalytic keratitis is seen in injury to

a. Optic nerve

b. Oculomotor nerve

c. Facial nerve

d. Trigeminal nerve

79. Watered silk appearance of fundus is seen in

a. Myopia

b. Astigmatism

c. Hypermetropia

d. Presbyopia

80. A 55 years old patient with Irvine Gass syndrome has

a. Retinitis with bright light


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b. ipsilateral optic atrophy, contralateral disc edema

c. CME after cataract surgery

d. Angle closure glaucoma

81. On retinoscopy at 67 cms refraction is +1.5 he is

a. Myopic

b. Hypermetropic

c. Astigmatic

d. Emmetropic

82. Regarding occurrence of sympathetic ophthalmitis, all of the following are true except

a. It almost always follows a perforating wound

b. Wounds in the ciliary region are more prone it

c. More common in adults than in children

d. Less common when actual suppuration develops in the injured eye

83. A salmon colored lesion in the cul-de-sac usually means


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a. Lymphoma

b. Haemangioma

c. Graves ophthalmopathy

d. Trauma

84. Vascular congestion over insertions of the rectus muscles (particularly lateral rectus) is seen in

a. Lymphoma

b. Haemangioma

c. Graves ophthalmopathy

d. Trauma

85. The cranial nerve with the longest intra caranial course is

a. VI nerve

b. V nerve

c. IV nerve

d. VII nerve


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86. A 25 year old executive presents with metamorphopsia in his right eye. On examination the fundus

shows a shallow detachment at the macula. The fluorescein angiography shows a smoke stack sign.

Which of the following management should be given?

a. Topical antibiotic corticosteroid combination

b. Systemic corticosteroid for two week and then taper

c. Pulsemethy prednisolone for three days and then pater

d. Just wait and watch for spontaneous recovery

87. Commonest site for a foreign body to lodge is in:

a. Cornea

b. Limbus

c. Conjuctiva

d. Superior sub-tarsal sulcus

88. Treatment of accommodative squint in children is by

a. Surgery

b. Convergence exercises


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c. Occlusion

d. Refractive error correction

89. All are true about Arcus Senilis except:

a. Universally present in elderly

b. Due to hypercholesterolemia

c. Lipid infiltration of cornea

d. Begins as a crescentric gray line

90. Fortification spectra (Teichopsia) are present in

a. Diplopia

b. Amblyopia

c. Migraine

d. Color Blindness

91. Fluctuating ptosis and diplopia is the presenting feature in

a. Sympathetic Ophthalmitis


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b. Angle closure glaucoma

c. High myopia

d. Myasthania gravis

92. Patient present with painless round firm swelling in the upper lid and associated Acne Rosacea

likely diagnosis is:

a. Stye

b. Cyst of Moll

c. Chalazion

d. Cyst of Zeis

93. Royal Air Force (RAF) ruler is used to measure

a. Near point of accommodation and convergence

b. Squint

c. Glaucoma

d. IOL power calculation


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94. Weiss ring is seen in

a. Trauma to lens

b. Uveitis

c. Posterior vitreous detachment

d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

95. Amslers grid is used in testing for

a. Keratoconus

b. Age related macular degeneration

c. Epiphora

d. Uveitis

96. The graph of movement of the eye is called

a. Electro retinogram

b. Electroencephalogram

c. Electronystagmogram


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d. Electrooculogram

97. D- shaped pupil is seen in

a. Anterior uveitis

b. Irododilysis

c. Chorio-retinitis

d. Marcus gunn pupil

98. Shaffers sign is seen in a

a. Open angle glaucoma

b. Trachoma

c. Steven Johnson syndrome


99. Pulsating exophthalmos is seen in

a. Blow out fracture

b. Carotidocavernous fistula


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c. Orbital varix

d. Dermoid cyst

100.CSME is seen in

a. Hypertensive retinopathy


c. Glaucomatous field defects

d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis

100 Opthalmology Questions for Practice

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