04 Test Pharmaceutical Chemistry

PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

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Contents

1. Simple Choice .............................................................................................................................2 2. Multiple Choice.........................................................................................................................37 4. Categorization ...........................................................................................................................73 5. Relation analysis........................................................................................................................98 6. Answer Key.............................................................................................................................110


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1. Simple Choice Select the correct answer by marking the appropriate capital letter. There is only one correct answer.

1. Choose the correct definition. Specific absorbance (absorptivity) is:

A. The absorbance of a 1 g/v % solution at a given wavelength. B. The absorbance of a 1 M solution at a given wavelength. C. The absorbance of a 0.001 g/v % solution in 1 cm path length at a given

wavelength. D. The absorbance of a 1 g/v % solution in 1 cm path length at a given wavelength. E. The ratio of the absorbance intensities of two adjacent maxima of the spectrum.

2. Which of the following phenomena is related to UV spectroscopy?

A. Excitation of rotations of molecules. B. Excitation of rotations of substituents. C. Excitation of electronic systems of molecules. D. Excitation of outer electrons of light atoms. E. Excitation of internal electrons of atoms.

3. Which of the following phenomena defines the bathochromic effect in electron spectroscopy?

A. An increase in the maximum intensity of the absorption curve. B. A decrease in the maximum intensity of the absorption curve. C. A shift in the absorption maximum towards shorter wavelengths. D. A shift in the absorption maximum towards longer wavelengths. E. The absorption of a mixture at a given wavelength.

4. In UV-VIS spectrophotometry, a wavelength shift is bathochromic and hyperchromic, when:

A. the absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity does not change.

B. the absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity decreases.

C. the absorption maximum is shifted to a lower wavelength and its intensity increases.

D. the absorption maximum is shifted to a higher wavelength and its intensity increases.

E. the absorption maximum is shifted to a lower wavelength and its intensity decreases.


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5. Absorbance (A) is defined in terms of the original intensity of the light falling on a cell (I0) and the reduced intensity transmitted from the cell (I). Which of the following equations is true?

A. A =II

0

D. A = -I II

0

B. II0log = A E. I

I 0log= A

C. A = -I II

0

6. The Pharmacopoeia prescribes determination of the specific rotation [ ]t for lots of pharmaceuticals. Which of the following equations is correct?

A. [ ]B

tt

1100

= D. [ ] ml 1g/100cm 1A11000

=

tt

B. [ ]B

tt

1= E. [ ]

t

tt

1100

=

C. [ ]B

tt

11000

=

where: [ ]t

= specific rotation in 10 dm3/kg

t

= rotation measured at t C, at wavelength l = length of the cell in dm

B = mass concentration of substance B in g/0.1 dm3

t = density of liquid at t C

7. Which parts of the polarimeter, if any, should be transposed?

A. 2 and 4 D. 4 and 5 B. 3 and 4 E. The sequence of the parts is

correct.

C. 2 and 3

1 2 3 4 5light source polarizer analyzer sample tube observer


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8. Which wavenumber range is prescribed by the Pharmacopoeia for IR measurements?

A. 2.5 15 cm-1 D. 670 4000 cm-1 B. 60 208 cm-1 E. 3800 6000 cm-1 C. 206 560 cm-1

9. Which of the listed light sources is used in atomic absorption spectroscopy?

A. Tungsten lamp D. NERNST lamp B. Deuterium lamp E. Hollow cathode lamp C. Helium-neon-laser

10. Which of the listed purposes is NMR spectroscopy not used for?

A. Structure elucidation and identification (with or without standards) B. Detection of impurities and decomposition products. C. Determination of ratio of stereoisomers. D. Examination of nuclear radiation. E. Determination of OH, NH and SH protons.

11. Which of the compounds listed below contains a doublet signal in its proton resonance spectrum?

A. ethyl-methylether D. n-hexane B. acetone E. diisopropylether C. diethylether

12. Which of the listed chemical shift ranges contains the 13C-NMR signal of carbonyl groups?

A. 160-240 ppm D. 50-60 ppm B. 250-280 ppm E. 100-120 ppm C. 10-30 ppm

13. What relation exists between the specific absorption coefficient and the molar absorption coefficient?

A.

D.

B.

E.

C.


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14. Chromophoric groups are those ...

A. in which n pi* and pi pi* transitions are possible. B. which cause the color of the compound. C. whose electrons are able to absorb energy. D. which contain excitable sigma-electrons. E. which donate electrons.

15. The figure shows the UV absorption spectra of a two-component drug mixture. Select the most appropriate values for the measurement using the two-wavelength method.

A. B. C. D. E.

2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 2

16. The figure shows the UV spectra of the components of Spiritus salicylatus cum resorcino and the table contains the related characteristic values. By the help of these data, select the false statements.

A1cm 1% =275

A1cm1% =297

resorcinol 167 0 salicylic acid 83 250

A. Curve 1 is the spectrum of resorcinol. B. Curve 1 is the spectrum of salicylic acid. C. At =297 nm salicylic acid can be selectively measured. D. At =275 nm the sum of the absorbances of the compounds can be measured. E. Both of the components can be determined by spectroscopy using the two-

wavelength method.

1

2


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17. Which of the following parameters does not influence the conductivity of an electrolyte?

A. The dissociation of the electrolyte. B. The number of charge-carriers. C. The temperature. D. The solvent used. E. The undissolved electrolyte in case of a saturated solution.

18. The chromatographic Rf value of a substance can be defined as: ...

A. the distance of the spot of the substance from the start, in cm. B. the distance between the start and the front, in cm. C. the distance between the spot of the substance and the front, in cm. D. the distance of the spot of the substance from the start, divided by

the distance between the start and the solvent front. E. the distance between the spot and the start, divided by the total

length of the adsorbent layer.

19. Which of the listed terms does not belong to gas-liquid chromatography (GLC)?

A. supporting material D. adsorbent B. liquid phase E. stationary phase C. mobile phase

20. Which of the listed electrodes can be used for the amperometric (dead-stop) end-point detection of a nitritometric titration?

A. A glass electrode. B. A silver electrode. C. A calomel electrode. D. A double platinum electrode. E. A Cl- ion-selective electrode.

21. Tropane alkaloids are separated by TLC on silicagel (stationary phase) with acetone-water-ammonia eluent. What elution order can be expected based on the structure of the compounds and the chromatographic system applied? (Evaluation from the front to the start; in decreasing RF order.)

A. Apoatropine, atropine, scopolamine. B. Scopolamine, apoatropine, atropine. C. Atropine, apoatropine, scopolamine. D. Scopolamine, atropine and apoatropine together. E. The compounds are not separated.


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22. Digitalis glycosides (digitoxin, acetyldigitoxin and Lanatoside-C) are separated by TLC on silicagel (stationary phase) with chloroform : ethanol (9:1) eluent. What elution order can be expected based on the structure of the glycosides and the chromatographic system applied? (Evaluation from the front to the start; in decreasing RF order.)

A. The compounds are not separated. B. Acetyldigitoxin, Lanatoside-C, digitoxin. C. Digitoxin, acetyldigitoxin, Lanatoside-C. D. Acetyldigitoxin and digitoxin together, Lanatoside-C. E. Acetyldigitoxin, digitoxin, Lanatoside-C.

23. What is the correct order of the eluotrope effect of the listed eluents in reversed phase HPLC?

A. water


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27. The acid value is:

A. The number of acidic groups in an organic compound. B. The quantity of base expressed in mg of KOH equivalent to the free

acid in 1 g of sample. C. The quantity of KOH in mg needed for neutralization of the free

acid in 100 g of sample. D. A term to characterize the acidity of multibasic acids. E. A term to express neutralization of the base content of substances.

28. The ester value is:

A. The acid value minus the saponification value. B. The saponification value minus the acid value. C. The saponification value plus the acid value. D. The number of ester groups in 1 mol of a substance. E. The quantity of KOH, expressed in grams, required to hydrolyze

100 g of an ester derivative.

29. The iodine value is:

A. The quantity of iodine, expressed in g, consumed by 1 g of a fatty substance.

B. The quantity of halogen, in g, expressed as iodine, consumed by 100 g of a substance (fat, wax).

C. The number of iodine atoms consumed by one molecule of a pharmaceutical.

D. The number of milligrams of iodine formed by oxidation of iodide by 1 g of a pharmaceutical.

E. The number of milligrams of iodine formed by oxidation of iodide by 100 g of a substance.

30. The hydroxyl value is:

A. The number of hydroxyl groups in one molecule of a pharmaceutical.

B. The number of hydroxyl groups in 1 mol of a substance. C. The number of milligrams of KOH equivalent to the amount of

acetic acid consumed for the acylation of 1 g of a sample. D. The number of grams of KOH equivalent to the amount of acetic

acid consumed for the acylation of 100 g of a substance. E. The number of milligrams of KOH required for the saponification

of a unit amount of an ester.


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31. The SCHNIGER method with the use of the SCHNIGER flask is appropriate for:

A. Quantitative determination of covalently bound halogen and sulfur content.

B. Detection of iron and heavy metal content of substances and detection of arsenic.

C. Determination of the nitrogen content of pharmaceuticals. D. Measurement of the moisture content of pharmaceuticals. E. Quantitative determination of the acidic character of

pharmaceuticals.

32. Which of the listed terms is not a physico-chemical parameter?

A. Melting interval B. Boiling interval C. Refractive index D. Density E. Saponification value

33. " Evaporate to dryness on water-bath accurately weighed 10 g of sample, then dry the residue to constant mass at 110oC." Which of the pharmacopoeial tests is described above?

A. Foreign organic substances B. Loss on drying C. Sulfated ash D. Residue on drying E. Residue on ignition

34. Fill the space with the correct term. ".................: at most 0.5%. Accurately weighed 0.50 g sample is dried in a desiccator above cc. sulfuric acid for 6 hours."

A. sulfated ash B. loss on drying C. loss on ignition D. foreign organic substances E. test with cc. sulfuric acid


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35. Which of the terms listed below does the definition refer to? "....................: it is the residue of the substance, expressed in m/m%, obtained by heating with cc. sulfuric acid and consecutive ignition."

A. test with cc. sulfuric acid B. sulfated ash C. residue on ignition D. loss on ignition E. foreign organic substances

36. Choose the pharmaceutical for which the chemical parameters cited from its monograph can be characteristic.

"Acid value: at most 1 Saponification value: at most 3 Hydroxyl value: 200-220"

A. Acidum oleinicum B. Adeps solidus C. Aethylium oleinicum D. Alcoholum cetylstearylicum E. Butyrum cacao

37. On the basis of the reaction between iodine and sulfur dioxide, the KARL-FISCHER method (under appropriate circumstances) is suitable for:

A. Determination of the heavy metal content of a pharmaceutical. B. Simultaneous measurement of the moisture and crystal water

content of a pharmaceutical. C. Measurement of solvent inclusions. D. Measurement of the oxygen content of solvents and solutions. E. Detection and measurement of volatile and oxidizable substances.

38. The isoelectric point of a molecule containing both basic and acidic groups is:

A. The potential, measured and expressed in volts, which is required for the movement of a substance in an electric field.

B. The pH value at which a given amphoteric substance is neutral. C. The pH value at which a given amphoteric substance exists as a

cation. D. The pH value at which a given amphoteric substance exists as an

anion. E. The electric field at which a given amphoteric substance is neutral.


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39. Choose the correct solution for the quantitative determination of papaverine. Content of a mixture: Codeinium chloratum Papaverinium chloratum Acidum acetylsalicylicum

A. Alkalization with sodium hydroxide, then titration of the total base content with perchloric acid. Calculation: the equivalent weight of papaverine is calculated from the ratio of molecular weights regarding the theoretical composition.

B. On alkalization with sodium bicarbonate, the papaverine base is released selectively. After extraction into chloroform, it can be titrated with perchloric acid.

C. After alkalization with sodium hydroxide, both bases can be extracted into chloroform, from where papaverine is separated by the addition of an aqueous acidic solution (pH = 2). The solution is made alkaline again, then it is extracted into chloroform, and the papaverine base can be titrated with perchloric acid.

D. From an aqueous acidic solution (pH = 2) the hydrochloric acid salt of papaverine can be extracted into chloroform. After addition of mercury(II)acetate, papaverine is titrated with perchloric acid.

E. After alkalization, both bases can be extracted into chloroform. Codeine, as a strong base, can be titrated directly. After addition of mercury(II)acetate, the papaverine content can also be measured.

40. Which of the following compounds is freely soluble in water?

A. Natrium disulfurosum D. Calcium hydrogenphosphoricum B. Carbo activatus E. Sulfur praecipitatum C. Bismuthum subnitricum

41. Choose the false statements related to the general impurity tests of the Pharmacopoeia.

A. Certain cations and anions are tested using chemical reactions. B. The changes observed in these reactions can be: colorization, precipitation (possibly

opalescence). C. The evaluation is based on comparison with reference solution or blank experiment. D. The requirement: the reaction mixture must not be changed means, that the

quantity of impurity allowed is under the detection limit. E. If the changes in the sample solution are equal to that of the reference solution, the

substance is qualified as: "it does not meet the requirements".

42. Which of the statements is false for the following reaction applied in Pharmacopoeial impurity tests? 2K2HgBr2I2 + NH3 + 3KOH = HgO. HgNH2I + 3KI + 4KBr + 2H2O

A. It is the reaction equation of the test for ammonia content. B. The reagent is called: MAYER. C. In case of low ammonia concentration yellow color is produced. D. NO3- content after reduction can also be detected by this reaction (test for NO3- and

NH3). E. The reagent is called: NESSLER-WINKLER.


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43. Which statements is correct for the general impurity tests of the Pharmacopoeia?

A. Always 1g of the sample is examined. B. A reference solution is always used for the evaluation. C. It is a qualitative test. D. It is a quantitative test. E. It is a semiquantitative test.

44. Which of the qualitative tests is carried out according to the following prescription in the monograph of Fructosum? "Dissolve 1.0 g of the substance in 10.00 ml freshly boiled and cooled water, add 2 drops of I-phenolphthalein solution. The solution must be colorless; on addition of 0.30 ml of 0.01 M NaOH, the color must turn red. "

A. Acidity. B. Alkalinity. C. Acidity and alkalinity. D. Insoluble and coloring matter. E. Readily oxidizable substances.

45. Which formula is correct for Natrium disulfurosum?

A. Na2S2O2 D. Na2S2O5 B. Na2S2O3 E. Na2S2O8 C. Na2S2O4

46. An ointment contains ephedrine hydrochloride, clioquinol and lidocaine as ingredients. An aliquot of its alkaline aqueous suspension is extracted with chloroform. Which of the components is measured on titration with perchloric acid in the chloroform phase?

A. ephedrine B. lidocaine C. ephedrine + clioquinol D. lidocaine + ephedrine E. lidocaine + clioquinol

47. An aliquot of the mixture below is refluxed with 10% HCl for 1 hour, then it is titrated with 1M NaNO2 volumetric solution using potentiometric end-point detection. Which of the components is measured? Pulvis antidoloricus: Aethylmorphinium chloratum Coffeinum Phenacetinum Acidum acetylsalicylicum

A. Phenacetin B. Caffeine C. Acetylsalicylic acid D. Ethylmorphine E. None of them


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48. An aliquot of the mixture below is shaken with 10% NaOH, then it is extracted with 70 ml of chloroform. Which of the components is measured on titration with perchloric acid in the chloroform phase using I-tropeoline solution? Pulvis antidoloricus: Aethylmorphinium chloratum Coffeinum Phenacetinum Acidum acetylsalicylicum

A. Caffeine B. Ethylmorphine + caffeine C. Ethylmorphine D. Ethylmorphine + phenacetin E. Caffeine + phenacetin

49. What does it mean? The adsorption capacity of Carbo activatus is 45%

A. Activated charcoal adsorbs by 45% less amount of phenazone than its mass. B. The content of the pharmaceutical is not less than 45%. C. 45% of phenazone added to the charcoal is adsorbed. D. The amount of the adsorbent charcoal is 45% of the mass of phenazone that can be

adsorbed. E. Not less than 45 g phenazone is adsorbed by 100 g of activated charcoal.

50. Which of the following substances can be identified by the GRIESS-ILOSVAY reagent?

A. Natrium dihydrogenphosphoricum B. Calcium carbonicum C. Ammonium bromatum D. Natrium nitrosum E. Hydrogenium peroxydatum

51. Which of the processes listed below is suitable for the synthesis of iodine?

A. The SOLVAY process. B. The reduction of the iodide content of artesian waters with sodium thiosulfate. C. The oxidation of iodate with sulfite in alkaline extract obtained after the

crystallization of salpetre (potassium nitrate). D. The oxidation of iodides with chlorine in alkaline extraction of ash obtained from

see plants. E. Catalytic oxidation of periodates with air.

52. Which of the following statements is correct? Natrium nitrosum :

A. contains a nitrogen atom of oxidation number (+5). B. upon dropping with cc. sulfuric acid brown nitrous gases are evolved. C. forms an azo dye with sulfanilic acid. D. produces a jelly-like, white precipitate with GRIESS-ILOSVAY reagent. E. undergoes oxidation with zinc to sodium nitrate in acidic solution.


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53. Which of the following pairs are Z-E isomers?

A. butyric acid isobutyric acid B. ephedrine pseudoephedrine C. quinine quinidine D. maleic acid fumaric acid E. tartaric acid succinic acid

54. How many chiral carbon atoms can be found in this molecule?

O

HO OH

OH

HHO

OH

A. B. C. D. E.

1 2 3 4 5

55. What do we call an eutomer?

A. The enantiomer of a chiral drug that has higher affinity to the receptor. B. The levorotatory enantiomer of a chiral drug. C. A drug used for euthanasia. D. The R enantiomer of chiral pharmaceuticals assigned according to the Cahn-Ingold-

Prelog convention. E. A chiral pharmaceutical compound that has enantiomers of identical

pharmacological activity.

56. Which of the procedures below is used for the industrial synthesis of sodium hydrogen carbonate?

A. The SOLVAY process B. The HABER-BOSCH process C. The MARSH reaction D. The NESSLER-WINKLER method E. The KOLBE-SCHMIDT synthesis

57. What is the official name of sodium tetraborate in the Ph. Hg. VII.?

A. Natrium tetraboricum B. Dinatrium tetraboricum C. Natrium boratum D. Natrium tetraboratum E. Dinatrium tetraboratum


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58. Which of the precipitates listed below is formed in the Ph. Hg. VII. identification reaction of Calcium hydrogenphosphoricum?

A. CaO B. Ca3(PO3)2 C. Ca(COO)2 D. CaCO3 E. Ca(HCOO)2

59. Which statement is false?

A. The partition coefficient is the concentration ratio of a compound in the organic and aqueous phases.

B. The partition coefficient depends on temperature and pressure. C. The partition coefficient depends on the concentration of the partitioning substance. D. The partition coefficient is a characteristic physico-chemical parameter of a

compound in a given solvent system. E. The higher the logP value, the more lipophilic the compound is.

60. Which of the following compounds does not exist in ionized form at gastric pH?

A. Papaverine B. Ephedrine C. Phenylbutazone D. Aminophenazone E. Morphine

61. Select the injectional narcotic agent from the listed narcotic compounds.

A. trichlororethylene B. thiabutabarbital C. dinitrogen oxide D. halothane E. methoxyflurane

62. Which of the following liquids is freely miscible with water?

A. Aether B. Alcoholum isopropylicum C. Alcoholum benzylicum D. Chloroformium E. Trichloroaethylenum


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63. Which is the specific impurity of chloroform?

A. furfural B. melubrine C. peroxide D. phosgene E. methanol

64. Select the false statement.

A. The morphine impurity of codeine can be detected with sodium nitrite. B. Codeine and ethylmorphine can be differentiated by means of the FEIGL-SILVA

reaction. C. Apomorphine turns blood-red after the addition of concentrated nitric acid. D. Morphine and nalorphine can be differentiated with FeCl3. E. In the non-aqueous acidimetric assay of morphine, all the related alkaloid impurities

are measured simultaneously.

65. Which of the compounds listed below contains a piperidine ring?

A. trimetozine B. morphine C. niflumic acid D. naproxen E. ibuprofen

66. The chemical name of apomorphine is: (-)-(R)-5,6,6a,7-tetrahydro-10,11-dihidroxy-6-methyl-4H-dibenzo[de,g]quinoline. What does the (-)-(R) prefix mean in the name?

A. It rotates the plain of polarized light to the left and at the assignment of the absolute configuration the order of the relevant substituents shows counter-clockwise direction.

B. It rotates the plain of polarized light to the left and at the assignment of the absolute configuration the order of the relevant substituents shows clockwise direction.

C. It rotates the plain of polarized light to the right and at the assignment of the absolute configuration the order of the relevant substituents shows counter-clockwise direction.

D. It rotates the plain of polarized light to the right and at the assignment of the absolute configuration the order of the relevant substituents shows clockwise direction.

E. The (R) prefix denotes the racemate form.

67. Select the correct statement for the morphine derivatives.

A. Codeine contains a phenolic hydroxyl group. B. Ethylmorphine cannot be extracted from alkaline aqueous solution into chloroform. C. Codeine and ethylmorphine can be distinguished by the ZEISEL reaction. D. Nalorphine contains a quaternary nitrogen atom. E. Codeine is the 3-methyl ether of morphine.


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68. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Pethidine is a tricyclic morphine derivative. B. Pethidine is a piperidine carboxylic acid derivative. C. Pethidine contains one chiral centre. D. Pethidine contains a quaternary nitrogen. E. Pethidine contains a pyridazine moiety.

69. Which of the following chemical names is correct for Pethidinium chloratum?

A. 4,4-diphenyl-2-(dimethyl-ammonio)-5-heptanone-chloride B. 4-(ethoxy-carbonyl)-4-phenyl-1-methyl-piperidinium-chloride C. N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenyl-ethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propionamide D. 3-ethyl-3-phenyl-2,6-piperidinedione E. 4-(3,4,5-trimethoxy-benzoyl)-morpholine

70. Select the correct substituent for the structure of methadone.

C CH2 CHCH3

RCH5C2

O

A. B. C. D.

E.

CH3 CH(CH3)2 NHCH3 N(CH3)2

ON

71. Which of the synthetic morphine analogues listed below has this structure?

NCH3

COOC2H5

A. B. C. D. E.

pentazocine levorphanol methadone pethidine diphenoxylate

72. Select the false statement. The therapeutically used barbiturates:

A. are hydrolyzed to monoureids on warming in alkaline medium B. are weak acids due to enol oxo tautomerism C. are soluble in sodium carbonate solution D. are complex-forming agents due to their several heteroatoms E. exist in various polymorphous forms


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73. Which of the following barbiturates is N-substituted?

A. barbital B. phenobarbital C. amobarbital D. cyclobarbital E. hexobarbital

74. Which is not a lactam-type 1,4-benzodiazepine derivative?

A. nitrazepam B. clonazepam C. chlordiazepoxide D. oxazepam E. diazepam

75. Which of the compounds listed below contains a 1,5-benzodiazepine skeleton?

A. diazepam B. medazepam C. clobazam D. alprazolam E. oxazepam

76. Which drug has this structure?

N

N

OH

O2N

A. B. C. D. E.

diazepam medazepam nitrazepam alprazolam flunitrazepam

77. Select the correct name of the heterocyclic skeleton in the structure of alprazolam.

N

NCl

NNH3C

A. B. C. D. E.

triazolo[4,3-a][2,3]benzodiazepine triazolo[1,2-a][1,4]benzodiazepine triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine imidazolo[4,3-a][3,1]-benzodiazepine triazolo[1,2-a][3,1]benzodiazepine


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78. What type of isomerism exists between cyclobarbital (I) and hexobarbital (II)?

N

NH

O O

O

Et

HN

NH

O O

O

Me

Me

I II A. geometric isomers D. tautomers B. structural isomers E. not isomers of any kind C. optical isomers

79. Which of the following drugs is a 2,3-benzodiazepine derivative?

A. tofisopam B. chlordiazepoxyde C. medazepam D. diazepam E. midazolam

80. Which heterocyclic moiety does midazolam contain?

N

N

N

Cl

Me

F

A. B. C. D. E.

Indolizine Quinolizine Imidazole Isoquinoline Indole

81. The following compounds have common moieties indicative of a therapeutical class. Which class?

NH

NH

O

OO

H5C2

H5C6NH

NH

O

O

H5C2

H5C6NH OO

C6H5H5C6 O

N OO

CH3H3C

CH3

NH OO

CH3H5C2

A. sedatohypnotics B. anxiolytics C. antiepileptics D. antiparkinsonian agents E. antihistamines


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82. Which substituent is present in levomepromazine?

S

NR

OCH3

R R

A. CH2 CH2 NCH3

CH3

D. CH2 CH CH2CH3

NCH3

CH3

B. CH2 CH CH2CH3

CHCH3

CH3

E. CH2 CH2 CH3NNCH2

C. CH2 CH CH2

CH3

N

83. Which of the drugs listed below has the following chemical name: 5-(3-dimethyl-ammonio-propyl)-10,11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo[b,f]azepine-chloride?

A. Imipraminium chloratum B. Chlorpromazinium chloratum C. Levomepromazinium hydrogenmaleinicum D. Trifluperidolum chloratum E. Pilocarpinium chloratum

84. Select the false statement for physostigmine?

A. It has an eseroline skeleton. B. It is an ester-type alkaloid. C. The acid component of the ester group is dimethylcarbamic acid. D. It contains three nitrogen atoms. E. When made alkaline, its aqueous solution turns red.

85. Which is the false statement for methylhomatropine bromide?

A. Its aqueous solution is neutral. B. It is readily soluble in water, and slightly soluble in chloroform. C. The base released from its alkaline aqueous solution can be extracted into

chloroform. D. It gives a precipitate with sodium tetraphenylborate even in slightly alkaline

medium. E. Its alcohol component is methyltropine.


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86. Which of the following heterocyclic rings forms part of the tropane skeleton?

A. imidazolidine B. pyrazoline C. piperazine D. pyrimidine E. pyrrolidine

87. What is the stereochemical relation between tropine and -tropine? They are:

A. enantiomers B. geometric isomers C. conformational isomers D. structural isomers E. tautomers

88. Complete the following sentence with the correct expression: ()-ephedrine and ()-pseudoephedrine are ... of each other.

A. structural isomers B. diastereomers C. enantiomers D. tautomers E. conformers

89. The following reactions are performed with a compound:

1. Copper(II) sulfate solution and a small amount of sodium hydroxide are added to its aqueous solution. The violet product can be extracted into butanol.

2. Sodium hydroxide and potassium hexacyanoferrate(III) solution is added to its aqueous solution. On heating, the characteristic odor of benzaldehyde is recognizable.

What is the name of the compound?

A. epinephrine B. amphetamine C. ephedrine D. isoprenaline E. pholedrine

90. Which of the following structural elements is characteristic of the -blockers?

A. A quaternary carbon connected to a tertiary nitrogen by two methylene groups. B. -propoxyethyl side chain. C. -amino--hydroxypropoxy side chain. D. A (-aryl--hydroxypropyl)amino side chain. E. A tropane skeleton.


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91. Which of the following compounds is the starting material in the synthesis of oxprenolol?

A. resorcinol B. pyrogallol C. hydroquinone D. pyrocatechol E. phloroglucinol

92. Choose the characteristic side chain connected to the aromatic moiety of -receptor blockers.

A. CH2 CHOH

CH2 NH CH(CH3)2

B. O CH2 CH2 CH2 NH CH(CH3)2

C. O CH2 CHOH

CH2 NH R

D. O CH CH2 CH2 NH ROH

E. O CH2 CH CH2 NH CH(CH3)2OH

93. Which of the following compounds is the starting material in the synthesis of tolazoline?

A. ethyl acetoacetate B. glutaraldehyde C. phenylhydrazine D. epichlorohydrin E. ethylenediamine

94. Select the correct name for the structure:

N

NH2

NH

A. guanoside B. debrisoquine C. guanoxan D. terbutaline E. guanethidine

95. Choose the right statement. Captopril is an N-acylated derivative of ..

A. phenylalanine B. histidine C. leucine D. proline E. tryptophane


23

96. Complete the following sentence with the correct text. In an acidic solution of Cocainium chloratum,on the action of dichromate.

A. the N-methyl group will be oxidized to carboxylic acid B. the methoxycarbonyl group will be reduced to aldehyde C. the benzoyl ester group will be hydrolyzed D. an orange-red precipitate will be formed E. free cocaine base will precipitate out as a white solid

97. Complete the following sentence with the correct text. Structure-activity investigations of cocaine revealed that:

A. the local anaesthetic effect of cocaine is due to its molecular association. B. the local anaesthetic effect does not necessitate all of the molecular moieties of

cocaine. C. for the optimum effect, cocaine needs further ester functions in its structure. D. for the activity, exclusively the presence of the methyl and quinuclidine moieties is

desired. E. a good anaesthetic effect develops only if the distance between the two nitrogens of

the cocaine skeleton is four carbon atoms (around 0,5 ).

98. Select the false statement. In synthetic local anaesthetics:

A. a lipophilic (aromatic) moiety, a linking chain and a hydrophilic dialkylamine part can generally be found.

B. the stability of amides is higher than that of esters. C. the percentage ionized form of procaine, tetracaine and lidocaine significantly

predominates that of the non-ionized one at tissue pH. D. benzocaine and procaine can be distinguished with diazonium-salt formation

reaction. E. tetracaine can be measured as a bivalent base in non-aqueous medium.

99. Which of the following reactions occur in the bromatometric assay of benzocaine?

A. electrophilic addition B. nucleophilic addition C. elimination D. electrophilic substitution E. nucleophilic substitution


24

100. There are three nitrogens in procainamide. Characterize the sequence of their basic strength.

H2N C NH CH2 CH2 NC2H5

C2H5

O

1 2 3

A. N1 < N2 < N3 B. N1 = N2 < N3 C. N2 < N3 < N1 D. N2


25

104. Which of the following substances gives a positive murexide reaction?

A. carbromal B. vincamine C. methylhomatropine D. nitrofurantoin E. xanthinol nicotinate

105. Which of the following drugs is not a nitro compound?

A. chloramphenicol B. nifedipine C. nitrazepam D. nitroglycerine E. nitrofurantoin

106. Which is the structure of methyldopa?

A. HO

HO

CH2 CCH3

COOHNH2

D. HO

HO

CH2 CHNH2

COOH

B. HO

HO

CH2 CH2 NH2

E. HO CH2 CH

CH3

NHCH3

C. HO

HO

CHOH

CH2 NHCH3

107. Which of the compounds listed below is a 3,4-dihydroisoquinoline derivative?

A. drotaverinium chloride B. bencyclane hydrogen fumarate C. papaverine chloride D. noscapine chloride E. apomorphine

108. Which of the following compounds does not contain an ester function?

A. acetylsalicylic acid B. lidocaine C. scopolamine D. benzocaine E. cocaine


26

109. Which of the following statements is not correct for this structure?

COOHCCCOOH

H OHHO H

A.

B. C. D.

E.

Official as Acidum tartaricum in Pharmacopoeia . It contains two asymmetric centres. Its configuration is erythro. On heating it melts, then carbonifies and burns without a residue. When H2O2 and FeSO4 are added to its alkaline solution, a bluish-violet complex forms.

110. What is the name of this compound?

CH3

CH3

HOH

OH

OHH3C

HOOC

A. B. C. D. E.

cholanic acid cholic acid lithocholic acid dehydrocholic acid deoxycholic acid

111. Which compound has this structure?

A. B. C. D. E.

colecalciferol ergocalciferol cholic acid ergosterol cholesterol

H

H HHO

112. Which of the following steroid skeletons contains the largest number of carbon atoms?

A. androstane B. cholane C. estrane D. pregnane E. perhydrocyclopenta[]-phenantrane

113. Which statement does not fit the structure of natural androgens?

A. They are derivatives of 10,13-dimethylsterane. B. Two double bonds can be found in ring A of the sterane skeleton. C. There is a OH or an =O group on C3. D. There is a OH or an =O group on C17. E. The anellation of the rings is trans.


27

114. Which natural androgen has this structure?

CH3

CH3

OH H

OH

HH

A. B. C. D. E.

androsterone ethisterone testosterone

dehydroepiandrosterone methanedienone

115. Which of the following groups of steroids contains an aromatic ring A?

A. estrogens B. androgens C. progestins D. glucocorticoids E. mineralocorticoids

116. Which is the C17 substituent of progesterone?

CH3

CH3

OH H

R

H

A. B. C. D. E.

=O OH CH2COCH3 COCH3 COCH2OH

117. Which is the characteristic C17 side chain in corticosteroids?

A. CH2 CH2 OH

D. CO

CH3

B. CO

CH2CH3

E. CHCH2CH2COOH

CH3

C. CO

CH2OH

118. Which compound is shown?

C

CH3

OH H

HHO

O H CCH2OH

OH

A. B. C. D. E.

corticosterone deoxycorticosterone hydrocortisone prednisolone aldosterone


28

119. Which is the C21 substituent of mazipredone?

A. morpholinyl B. piperidyl C. N-methylpiperazinyl D. 1,4-oxazinyl E. isoquinolyl

120. Which of the structural modifications listed below increases the antiinflammatory effect of hydrocortisone?

A. Elimination of the C17 side chain. B. Appearance of a 1,2 double bond. C. Formation of 11-deoxy derivative. D. Aromatization of ring A. E. Reduction of the C3 carbonyl group.

121. Which is a natural corticosteroid hormone?

A. prednisolone B. mazipredone C. triamcinolone D. hydrocortisone E. prednisone

122. Which is false for prostaglandins?

A. They are monocarboxylic acid derivatives containing 20 carbon atoms. B. They are formed from arachidonic acid in the body. C. Their acidic character is due to phenolic hydroxyl groups. D. They can be classified based on their alycyclic moiety. E. At least one chiral C atom is present in their structure.

123. Which is correct?

A. Ring A of prednisolone contains two double bonds. B. Prednisolone has an androstane skeleton. C. Prednisolone contains a piperazine ring. D. Prednisolone is a mineralocorticoid. E. There is an ester group in its structure.

124. What is the name of this "highly active" diuretic drug?

Cl

H2NO2S

NH

COOH

O

A. B. C. D. E.

acetazolamide clopamide furosemide chlorthalidone ethacrynic acid


29

125. Which chemical name belongs to aminophylline?

A. 2-aminotheophylline B. 3-aminohexahydrobenzoxazine C. salt of ethylenediamine and theophylline D. 6-aminotheophylline E. ammonium theophyllinate

126. Complete the following sentence with the correct text. Xanthine exists in two tautomeric forms, in ... equilibrium.

A. diendo-diexo B. alloxanthine-isoalloxanthine C. keto-enol D. meso-pseudo E. lactam-lactim

127. Which statement is false for spironolactone?

A. It is a pentacyclic compound. B. It is a synthetic steroid derivative. C. There is a butyrolactone ring in its structure. D. It is produced by a Spirochaeta species. E. There is an acetylthio moiety on its skeleton.

128. Select the proper solution of the equation below.

+ 5 NaIO4

CH2OHCH OHCHO HCH OHCH OHCH2OH

A. B. C. D. E.

6 HCOOH + 5 NaIO3 4 CH2O + 2 HCOOH + H2O 2 CH2O + 4 HCOOH + H2O 2 CH2O + 4 HCOOH + 5 NaIO3 + H2O 2 CH2O + 4 HCOOH + 5 NaIO3

129. Which of the following statements is correct? Glycerol:

A. is a tertiary alcohol. B. is freely miscible with water. C. enol-oxo tautomerism can occur in its molecule. D. its D and L isomers have been selected by EMIL FISCHER as the reference molecules

in the representation of configuration. E. on heating with phosphoric acid the odor of acridine is recognizable.


30

130. Which of the following substances is not a polypeptide?

A. ACTH B. angiotensin C. endorphin D. insulin E. thyroxine

131. Which is the correct chemical name of methimazole?

N

NCH3

HS

A. B. C. D. E.

2-mercapto-3-methylimidazole 1-methyl-2-thioxypyrimidine 1-methyl-2-mercaptoimidazolidine 2-mercapto-1-methylimidazole 2-mercapto-3-methylimidazoline

132. Which statement is false for insulin?

A. Human insulin differs from porcine insulin in merely one amino acid. B. Its structure is built up by 16 different amino acids. C. Two shorter peptides (A and B) form insulin. D. A and B peptides are linked by disulfide bridges in the structure of insulin. E. Its isoelectric point is in the alkaline pH range.

133. Which is the false statement referring to the molecule with the structure below?

Cl SO2 NH CO

NH

A. It is an oral antidiabetic. B. It is a non-chiral molecule. C. It can be applied in insulin-deficient diabetes. D. It has a sulfonyl-carbamide structure. E. It was prepared by Hungarian researchers.

134. Choose the wrong statement.

-Tocopherol... A. has a cromane skeleton. B. contains a phenolic function. C. is sensitive to oxidation. D. plays an antioxidant role in the organism. E. is a colorless or pale-yellow crystalline powder.


31

135. Which of the following amino acids is a building moiety of panthotenic acid (Vit. B5)?

A. -alanine B. glycine C. 4-amino-3,3-dimethylbutyric acid D. -aminobutyric acid E. p-aminobenzoic acid

136. Which name does not correspond to vitamin C?

A. ascorbic acid B. 2-keto-L-gulonic--lactone C. antiscurvy factor D. 2-keto-L-gluconic acid E. (+)-(1'R,4R)-2,3-dihydroxy-4-(1',2'-dihydroxyethyl)-2-pentene-4-olide

137. Which of the statements referring to ascorbic acid is false?

A. It has a strong reducing ability. B. Its acidic character is a consequence of the endiol structure. C. Its oxidation product is dehydroascorbic acid. D. It has no asymmetric centre. E. It absorbs light strongly in the UV region.

138. Which property of ascorbic acid is not related to the endiol structure?

A. It can be determined with bromatometry. B. It can be determined with alkalimetry. C. It is dextrorotatory. D. It forms a complex with Fe2+ ions in slightly alkaline medium. E. Its UV spectrum is pH-dependent.

139. Complete the following sentence with the correct text.

Lactose and saccharose are:.. A. geometric isomers B. diastereomers C. enantiomers D. structural isomers E. not isomers of any kind

140. What is the chemical structure of calcium (+)-D-gluconate?

A. A polyhydroxy complex of D-glucose and calcium salts. B. The product of neutralization of levorotatory gluconic acid with calcium carbonate. C. The calcium salt of dextrorotatory D-gluconic acid. D. The calcium salt of glucuronic acid. E. The calcium complex of L-gulonic acid glucoside.


32

141. Select the false statement referring to the compound below.

NN

H O

O

H3C

O

A. B. C. D. E.

It contains two lactam groups. Three carbonyl groups can be found in it. It has a pyrazolidinedione skeleton. It contains two basic nitrogens. It contains an active C4 hydrogen.

142. Which of the statements is false for phenylbutazone?

A. In its structure a butyl group is coupled also to the basic skeleton. B. It has acidic character. C. On hydrolysis monohydrazide derivatives are formed from phenylbutazone. D. One of the starting materials of its synthesis is diethyl malonate. E. In its heterocyclic skeleton C4 is chiral.

143. Which of the following heterocyclic rings is the basic skeleton of phenylbutazone?

A. pyrazolidine B. pyrrolidine C. piperazine D. diazetidine E. pyridazine

144. Name the parent compound of diclofenac.

A. anthranilic acid B. phenylacetic acid C. indolylacetic acid D. arylpropionic acid E. other

145. Which of the following heterocyclic structures is the basic skeleton of piroxicam?

SN

O

N N

OH

Me

OO

H

A. B. C. D. E.

phenothiazine 1,3-benzothiazepine 1,2-benzothiazine benzothiasole benzene


33


A. Indomethacin is an antiinflammatory drug with a pyrazolidinedione skeleton. B. Indomethacin contains a basic nitrogen. C. Indomethacin contains an m-chlorophenyl substituent. D. Indomethacin is an acylated indolylacetic acid derivative. E. Indomethacin has good water-solubility because it contains a basic nitrogen.

147. Which is correct for the non-steroidal antiinflammatory anthranilic acid derivatives?

A. Drugs of this class are N-aryl derivatives of anthranilic acid. B. Drugs of this class are N-aryl derivatives of the ethyl ester of anthranilic acid. C. Drugs of this class are N-cycloalkyl derivatives of anthranilic acid. D. Drugs of this class are N-alkyl derivatives of anthranilic acid. E. Drugs of this class are N-alkyl derivatives of the ethyl ester of anthranilic acid.

148. Which of the following drugs has the chemical name:

"2-[3-(trifluoromethyl)-anilino]-nicotinic acid"? A. naproxen B. ketamine C. paracetamol D. niflumic acid E. meprobamate

149. Substitute the appropriate answer for the phenindamine base.

It is a(n) derivative.

N CH3

A. B. C. D. E.

indane quinoline pyridindene indole benzopyridine


A. Histamine is a basic amino acid. B. Histamine contains a pyrazole ring. C. Histamine is formed from histidine in the tissues by the action of angiotensin II. D. The guanidino group of histamine is protonated at the pH of the blood. E. Histamine forms a red azo dye with diazotized sulfanilic acid.


34

151. Which statement is correct?

A. On bromination of phenol 3,4,5-tribromophenol is formed. B. Phenol can be determined quantitatively by addition of bromine. C. Phenol has a strong acidic character. D. The equivalent mass of phenol is Et=M/6 in the bromatometric assay. E. The trivial name of 1,4-dihydroxybenzene is resorcinol.

152. Which of the following compounds is not a bicyclic molecule?

A. camphor B. methenamine C. cocaine D. trantheline E. homatropine

153. Select the false statement referring to the Cinchona alkaloids.

A. There is a great difference between the basicity of the two nitrogens. B. Epiquinine has no antimalarial activity. C. The vinyl group of quinine can be saturated with bromine. D. Dihydroquinine has no antimalarial activity. E. Quinine and quinidine are diastereomers.

154. What stereoisomerism exists between quinine and quinidine? They are:

A. enantiomers B. diastereomers C. tautomers D. epimers E. structural isomers

155. Which of the following statements is correct for chloroquine?

A. It is an aminoisoquinoline derivative. B. It contains a quaternary nitrogen. C. It is an aminoquinoline derivative. D. The aromatic ring carries two chlorine atom substituents. E. It contains two nitrogens.

156. Which of the following statements is correct for tetracyclines?

A. Two of the linearly fused rings have an aromatic character. B. They contain only alcoholic hydroxyl groups. C. They have an amphoteric character. D. They contain a quaternary nitrogen. E. They contain a free carboxyl group.


35

157. Which of the following statements is correct for chloramphenicol?

A. It has four diastereomers. B. It contains a 1,2-aminoalcohol moiety. C. Both of its nitrogens are basic. D. It has cis or trans isomers. E. It contains one alcoholic hydroxyl group.

158. Which of the following chemotherapeutics contains a hydroxyethyl side chain?

A. nalidixic acid B. metronidazole C. oxolinic acid D. nitrofurantoin E. furazolidone

159. Which of the following drugs has the chemical name: 1-(2'-hydroxyethyl)-2-methyl-5-nitro-imidazole?

A. clotrimazole B. nitrofurantoin C. ketoconazole D. metronidazole E. miconazole

160. Which of the following fluoroquinolones contains a chiral centre?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. norfloxacin

C. ofloxacin

D. pefloxacin

E. enoxacin

NNHN

N

OH

O

C2H5

FOE.

NHN

N

OH

OF

OA.

NHN

N

OH

O

C2H5

FOB.

NN

N

OH

OF

O

OCH3H3C

C.

NN

N

OH

O

C2H5

FOD.

H3C


36

161. From which of the heterocycles listed below can cycloserine be derived?

A. oxazole B. isoxazolidine C. oxazolidine D. oxazine E. morpholine

162. Which of the following drugs has the chemical name: "R-(+)-4-amino-3-isoxazolidinone"?

A. chlorzoxazon B. acetazolamide C. biotin (Vit. B7) D. cycloserine E. ethosuximide

163. Complete the sentence. Carboplatin is a(n) .. derivative?

A. oxalic acid B. cis-1,2-cyclohexanedicarboxylic acid C. succinic acid D. salicylic acid E. 1,1-cyclobutanedicarboxylic acid

164. Which of the following cytostatics is an alkylating agent?

A. cyclophosphamide B. colchicine C. mercaptopurine D. methotrexate E. vinblastine

165. Which of the following cytostatics is a nitrogen mustard derivative?

A. melphalan B. busulfan C. mitobronitol D. methotrexate E. carboplatin


37

2 . Mult iple Choice

The following questions have one or more correct answers. Use the notations given below:

A: Only answer 1 is correct. B: Only answer 3 is correct. C: Only answers 1 and 5 are correct. D: Only answers 2 and 3 are correct. E: Only answers 2 and 4 are correct.

166. Which of the following structures have UV absorption that is suitable for quantitative determination as well?

HO

OH

OH

COOH

5.

HO

O

1.

HO

OH

2.

HO

O O

3.HO

OH

4.


38

167. Which of the following functional groups are auxochrome ones in UV spectroscopy?

1. NH2 2. C=O 3. N=N 4. C=CH 5. OH

168. Choose the compounds whose UV spectrum shows a significant shift upon alkalization.

NH

NH

O

O O

H5C2

H5C2O

HO

H3CO

N CH3

4.5.

HN CH3

O

OC2H5

COOHOH

N

H3CO

H3CO

OCH3

OCH3

1.

2.

3.

169. In a UV spectrophotometric assay, the content of a substance can be calculated using the following data:

1. measured absorbance, specific absorption coefficient, path length of the cell 2. measured absorbance, path length of the cell 3. measured absorbance, wavelength of the measurement 4. measured absorbance, molecular weight 5. molar absorption coefficient, measured absorbance, path length of the cell

170. A compound containing an isolated keto group is inactive in UV spectroscopy. However, a well measurable (UV active) derivative is obtained on:

1. reaction with NaBH4 2. reaction with phenylhydrazine 3. reaction with iron(III)-chloride 4. reaction with thiosemicarbazide 5. reaction with Fehling reagent

171 Which of the following substances have an absorption maximum above 220 nm?

1. cyclohexene 2. cyclohexanone 3. cyclohexanol 4. 1,3-cyclohexadiene 5. cyclohexyl methyl ether


39

172. If the Lambert-Beer law is valid, the molar absorption coefficient depends on:

1. the concentration of the absorbing substance. 2. the molecular structure of the absorbing substance. 3. the wavelength of the light used. 4. the thickness of the cell. 5. the thickness of the slit.

173. Which of the following spectroscopic methods measure the light emitted by atoms or molecules?

1. IR spectroscopy 2. flame photometry 3. atomic absorption spectroscopy 4. fluorimetry 5. UV and visible spectroscopy

174. Which of the following statements are correct for the UV spectroscopic assay of a two-component system?

1. The two components of the mixture can be determined at one wavelength if their specific absorbances are known.

2. The two components of the mixture can be determined at two wavelengths if their specific absorbances are known.

3. The two components of the mixture can be determined at one wavelength provided the concentration of one of them is known from another assay.

4. The condition of the determination of the two compounds is that one of them must have selective absorption.

5. The two components can be determined only if both have selective absorption.

175. Which of the following statements are correct for the spectrophotometric assay of progesterone in an oily injection containing estradiol benzoate and benzylalcohol as well?

1. UV spectroscopy cannot be used because the three components have highly overlapping absorption spectra.

2. The absorption of progesterone at = 240 nm can be eliminated by reduction with sodium borohydride.

3. The absorbance of the solution reduced with sodium borohydride is measured at =240 nm against an aliquot of the original (not reduced) solution.

4. The absorbance of an aliquot of the original solution is measured at =240 nm against a solution reduced with sodium borohydride.

5. The application of difference-spectrophotometry is impossible because none of the spectra of the substances is pH-dependent.


40

176. Which of the following statements are correct? The IR spectrum of a substance can be measured in:

1. a potassium bromide disk. 2. aqueous solution in a glass cell. 3. solid state, in the form of powder. 4. methanol, in a quartz cell. 5. the form of a film between two sodium chloride plates.

177. Potentiometric end-point detection is preferred to conventional visual end-point detection in:

1. non-aqueous titrations of high-resistance solutions. 2. turbid solutions. 3. dead-stop titrations. 4. colored solutions. 5. non-stoichiometric reactions.

178. Which statements apply to potentiometric titrations?

1. The current of the cell is measured against the volume of titrant. 2. The electromotive force of the cell is measured against the volume of titrant. 3. The potential of the indicator electrode is measured directly. 4. The use of a supporting electrolyte is beneficial to increase the conductance in the

case of non-aqueous and very dilute aqueous solutions. 5. The concentration of the substance being determined is computed with the use of a

calibration curve.

179. The figure shows an amperometric titration curve. Which statements apply to this type of curve?

I

ml

1. The substance being determined is electroactive, while the titrant is inactive. 2. The substance being determined is inactive, while the titrant is electroactive. 3. Both the substance being determined and the titrant are electroactive. 4. The equivalence point is at the intersection of the two lines. 5. The potential of the cell is denoted by I, while the volume of the titrant is indicated

in ml on the horizontal axis.


41

180. In water content determination with the KARL FISCHER method, biamperometric end-point detection is most frequently used. Which statements apply to this type of measurements?

1. A double platinum electrode is immersed into the cell. 2. Two electrodes, a platinum and a calomel are immersed into the cell. 3. While water is present in the solution it reacts with the titrant and current flows

through the cell. 4. The potential difference between the electrodes is registered as a function of the

KARL FISCHER titrant consumption. 5. The current, flowing through the cell is registered as a function of the KARL

FISCHER titrant consumption.

181. A calomel electrode contains:

1. Hg/HgCl2 2. a buffer solution with a suitable pH 3. Hg/ Hg2Cl2/ KCl 4. a solution of NaCl 5. Ag/AgCl

182. Select the false procedures in an instrumental pH measurement.

1. The substance is dissolved in distilled water that was not boiled for a few minutes and cooled before use.

2. The solution is stirred during the measurement. 3. The correct function of the electrode is validated using two buffer solutions. 4. The combined glass electrode is stored in a pH 7 buffer between measurements. 5. After a long-term storage, the glass electrode is immersed in dilute acid for 24 hours

before measurement.

183. Which of the following statements are correct for proton resonance spectroscopy?

1. The chemical shift of protons in unsaturated functional groups is generally higher than that of aliphatic protons.

2. In heteroaromatic systems, the chemical shift of the protons adjacent to the heteroatom is generally lower than that of farther aromatic protons.

3. The protons of benzene derivatives substituted at meta position give a single singlet signal.

4. The signal of aldehyde protons can be found in range 2-4 ppm. 5. The intensity of spin-spin interaction is characterized by coupling constants.

184. Which of the following signals can be found in the 1H-NMR spectrum of diethyl ether?

1. singlet 2. triplet 3. doublet 4. quartet 5. multiplet


42

185. What are the pharmacopoeial criteria of identity in a gas-chromatographic examination?

1. The retention time of the sample should agree with the value given in the monograph.

2. The retention time of the sample is equal to that of an identical reference standard. 3. The corrected retention time (tR-tO) of the sample should agree with the value given

in the monograph. 4. The sample and the identical reference standard injected at the same time must give

only one peak. 5. The ratio of the retention time of the sample and the dead time must fall within a

given interval.

186. Select the false statements for the pharmacopoieal HPLC and GC examinations.

1. The peak area can be determined only with an electronic integrator. 2. The area under the peak is proportional to the amount of substance injected and the

sensitivity factor of the detector. 3. With the use of a calibration curve quantitative evaluation can be performed by peak

height measurement if the peak is symmetrical. 4. The amount of the substance is proportional to the product of the peak height and

width measured at the base of the peak, and the symmetry factor is between 0.95 and 1.05.

5. The peak area can only be determined with an electronic integrator when the value of the symmetry factor is between 0.95 and 1.05.

187. Four isomers of C4H9OH are to be separated by GC. Which of the following factors influence the separation?

1. The type of the detector. 2. The polarity of the stationary phase. 3. The temperature of the column. 4. The quality of the eluent gas applied. 5. The outgoing pressure of the eluent gas.

188. Non-dissociable substances (e.g. caffeine, phenacetin) are separated by HPLC. What kind of chromatographic system can be used?

1. chemically bonded octadecyl-silica gel; methanol 2. chemically bonded octadecyl-silica gel; methanol + water mixture 3. silica gel; pentane 4. chemically bonded octyl-silica gel; acetonitrile + water mixture 5. silica gel; pentane + chloroform


43

189. Corticosteroids (hydrocortisone, cortisone, hydrocortisone acetate, cortisone acetate) are separated by TLC using silica gel as stationary; chloroform:acetone (3:1) as mobile phase. Which of the statements are correct for the retention order?

1. The ester derivatives have lower RF values than the corresponding corticosteroids. 2. The ester derivatives have higher RF values than the corresponding corticosteroids. 3. Hydrocortisone with its ester and cortisone with its ester produce one spot on the

layer respectively. 4. Cortisone migrates with higher RF value than hydrocortisone. 5. Steroids can be chromatografied only in reversed phase systems.

190. Which of the data listed below are not suitable to define the chromatographic retention?

1. So= the adsorption energy of the solute 2. Rf = retention factor 3. RM = retention parameter 4. k= capacity ratio 5. tR = retention time

191. Select the essential steps in a TLC procedure.

1. Activation of the layer. 2. Application of the substance. 3. Saturation of the chamber. 4. Development of the chromatogram. 5. Spraying with reagent.

192. Which of the listed substances are not used as a TLC stationary phase?

1. silica gel 2. alumina 3. barium sulfate 4. cellulose powder 5. silanized silica

193. Which of the following investigations can be listed in paragraph Qualitative tests of a pharmacopoeial monograph?

1. Test for melting interval. 2. Test for insoluble and coloring matter. 3. pH measurement. 4. Description of the macroscopic properties of the substance. 5. Determination of specific rotation.


44

194. Select the chemical parameters from the following pharmacopoeial data.

1. saponification value 2. specific rotation 3. density 4. boiling interval 5. peroxide value

195. Choose the correct statements.

1.

2. 3.

4.

5.

The apparatus is used for the limit test of nitrate-ammonia impurity. The apparatus is used for the limit test of arsenic impurity. The tested impurity can be quantitatively determined using this apparatus. Reduction is performed with hydrochloric acid and zinc added into the flask. Reduction is performed with the help of DEWARDA alloy and sodium hydroxide added into the flask.

196. Which of the following statements are true? Natrium hydrogencarbonicum ...

1. bubbles upon dropping with hydrochloric acid. 2. is produced by the HABER-BOSCH process. 3. gives sodium sulfate, white precipitate, upon heating with magnesium sulfate

solution. 4. decolorizes the iodine solution. 5. its aqueous solution is colorless after addition of phenolphthalein.

197. Which statements are true relating to the general impurity tests of Ph. Hg. VII.?

1. The determination of arsenic impurity is carried out by the MARSH probe. 2. In the iron impurity test reaction bromine water forms a blood-red complex with

thiocyanate ions. 3. A possible determination of ammonia impurity is based on the reaction of

ammonium ions with NESSLER-WINKLER reagent giving the solution a brownish-red color.

4. Lead impurity is detected as lead cyanide in the form of a black precipitate. 5. In the nitrate impurity test nitrogen dioxide formed by reduction of nitrate ions gives

a dark brown complex with iron(III) ions.


45

198. Choose the reagents that are not needed in the lead impurity test of Ph. Hg. VII..

1. NH4Cl 2. M HCl 3. R - Na2S 4. 1% ascorbic acid solution 5. M KCN

199. Which statements are correct relating to the lead impurity test of Ph. Hg. VII.?

1. Lead ions are detected as PbS in alkaline medium. 2. KSCN auxiliary reagent is applied to mask copper, iron and zinc ions. 3. In the lead impurity test Fe2+ ion is oxidized to Fe3+ ion with ascorbic acid. 4. Apart from lead ions bismuth ions also give the reaction. 5. The colloidal lead sulfide precipitate gives the solution a yellowish-brown color.

200. Choose the compounds whose assay is based on a redox reaction in Ph. Hg. VII..

1. Dinatrium hydrogenphosphoricum 2. Kalium bromatum 3. Bismuthum subnitricum 4. Kalium iodatum 5. Lithium carbonicum

201. Which statements are true relating to the adsorption capacity determination of Carbo activatus in Ph. Hg. VII. ?

1. Phenazone is added in known quantity to active carbon and the non-adsorbed proportion of it is measured.

2. The determination is based on the bromine addition of phenazone. 3. Phenazone has a pyrrole nucleus. 4. The phenazone excess is titrated with potassium bromide. 5. The end-point of the titration can be detected by the disappearance of the blue color

of the iodine-starch complex.

202. Which statements are true both for Natrium disulfurosum and Natrium thiosulfuricum?

1. Its aqueous solution decolorizes the iodine solution. 2. When putting it into a Bunsen flame the substance melts, then catches fire. 3. The pH of its aqueous solution is basic. 4. On acidifying its aqueous solution with hydrochloric acid sulfur precipitates in some

seconds. 5. A sample of the substance wetted with hydrochloric acid imparts the non-

illuminating flame an intense yellow color.


46

203. Which of the following compounds are starting materials in the SOLVAY process of soda production?

1. sodium sulfate 2. ammonia 3. sodium chloride 4. carbon monoxide 5. hydrochloric acid

204. Which of the following compounds give a precipitate with silver nitrate in neutral medium?

1. Natrium tetraboricum 2. Kalium bromatum 3. Bismuthum subnitricum 4. Dinatrium hydrogenphosphoricum 5. Kalium nitricum

205. Which of the following compounds form a SCHIFF base with p-nitrobenzaldehyde?

1. amphetamine 2. phenindamine 3. prenylamine 4. scopolamine 5. tripelennamine

206. Which statements are true for glacial acetic acid as a non-aqueous solvent?

1. The strength of organic acids dissolved in it increases. 2. The strength of bases dissolved in it increases and the difference between them

decreases. 3. Sulfuric acid behaves as a bivalent acid in glacial acetic acid medium. 4. Perchloric acid behaves as a strong acid in glacial acetic acid medium. 5. In glacial acetic acid, the haloide salts of bases can directly be determined.

207. Choose the compounds that are actually determined in the two titrations given below.

Pil. coffobarbitali: Phenobarbitalum Coffeinum Natrium bicarbonicum Vehiculum 2 pills are dispersed in a small amount of water and dissolved in acetic anhydride by

heating, then titrated with perchloric acid using I-tropeoline (first titration). Titration is resumed after adding I-methyl violet indicator to the solution (second titration).

First titration: 1. phenobarbital 2. sodium bicarbonate Second titration: 3. caffeine + phenobarbital 4. caffeine 5. Phenobarbital


47

208. Which statements are correct for a possible assay of a tablet containing methylhomatropine bromide, phenobarbital and papaverine chloride?

1. The alkalimetric determination of phenobarbital in alcoholic medium is not disturbed by the other components.

2. From alkaline medium papaverine can selectively be extracted to chloroform and titrated with perchloric acid in the organic solvent.

3. The argentometric determination of phenobarbital cannot be used due to the disturbing effect of the haloide salts.

4. Having determined the haloides in acidic medium by argentometry, phenobarbital can be measured in alkaline medium with silver nitrate solution.

5. In acidic medium only methylhomatropine gives a precipitate with sodium tetraphenylborate.

209. Which statements are false relating to the titration of quinine sulfate with perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid medium?

1. Quinine sulfate contains four basic N atoms altogether. 2. In glacial acetic acid, sulfuric acid protonates one of the quinuclidine N atoms. 3. The titration can only be carried out in the presence of mercury(II) acetate. 4. The equivalent mass is one third of the molar mass. 5. The molecule can be titrated in glacial acetic acid as a trivalent base.

210. Choose the powder mixture whose non-aqueous assay is correctly described in the following sentence. In a mixture of benzene and glacial acetic acid only aminophenazone is titrated with perchloric acid, the other component does not disturb the determination.

1. aminophenazone + benzocaine 2. aminophenazone + caffeine 3. aminophenazone + acetylsalicylic acid 4. aminophenazone + lidocaine 5. aminophenazone + ethylmorphine

211. Choose the powder mixtures whose non-aqueous assay is correctly described in the following sentence. The components of the powder mixture can be determined consecutively, in one experiment by titrating one component with perchloric acid in a mixture of benzene and glacial acetic acid; then the other one by resuming titration after addition of Hg(II) acetate.

1. aminophenazone + caffeine 2. lidocaine + ephedrinium chloride 3. papaverine chloride + caffeine 4. aminophenazone + ethylmorphine chloride 5. benzocaine + phenacetin


48

212. Which of the following inorganic drugs are practically insoluble in water ?

1. BaSO4 2. Na2SO4 3. Na2HPO4 4. KI 5. MgO

213. Which of the inorganic drugs listed below give a precipitate in aqueous solution with silver nitrate under adequate circumstances?

1. ZnO 2. NaCl 3. NaH2PO4 4. NaHCO3 5. Na2SO4

214. Which of the following compounds give a positive FEHLING reaction?

1. lactose 2. mannitol 3. glycerine 4. sorbitol 5. saccharin

215. Which statements are true?

1. The partition coefficient does not depend on temperature. 2. The partition coefficient is the activity ratio of a substance in two immiscible

solvents. 3. The partition coefficient depends on the concentration of the substance. 4. In the calculation of partition coefficients, activities can be replaced by

concentrations in the case of dilute solutions. 5. The lower the partition coefficient, the more lipophilic the substance is.

216. What data are needed to calculate the proportion of the transport form of monovalent weak acids?

1. logP: (partition coefficient) 2. pKa : (ionozation constant) 3. pH : (that of the given environment) 4. c : (the total concentration of the substance) 5. Mr : (relative molar mass)


49

217. What data are needed to calculate the proportion of the protonated (receptor) form of monovalent weak base-type drugs?

1. pH (that of the given environment) 2. c (the total concentration of the substance) 3. logP (partition coefficient) 4. Mr (relative molar mass) 5. pKa (ionization constant)

218. Which impurity tests are prescribed by Ph. Hg. VII. in the case of ethanol?

1. phosgene 2. methanol 3. peroxide 4. furfural 5. chloroform

219. Which of these general anaesthetics contain a halogen atom?

1. thiobutabarbital 2. halothane 3. isoflurane 4. metohexital 5. propanidid

220. Which of the following compounds are ketoses?

1. glucose 2. lactose 3. fructose 4. erythrose 5. mannitol

221. Which of the following drug molecules contain an aminoalcohol moiety?

1. ephedrine 2. nifedipine 3. imipramine 4. baclofen 5. amphetamine

222. Which compounds are dicarboxylic acids?

1. malic acid 2. citric acid 3. caproic acid 4. propionic acid 5. tartaric acid


50

223. Which liquids are miscible with water in any proportion?

1. Benzinum 2. Alcoholum isopropylicum 3. Glycerinum 4. Paraffinum liquidum 5. Aether

224. Which compounds are amphoteric?

1. baclofen 2. ethylmorphine 3. benzocaine 4. thymol 5. nicotinic acid

225. Which of the following terms and symbols denote types of tautomerism?

1. Z E 2. enol oxo 3. cis trans 4. lactam lactim 5. R S

226. Which of the following compounds are enantiomers?

1. E-cinnamic acid Z- cinnamic acid 2. R-proline S-proline 3. L-tartaric acid meso-tartaric acid 4. (+)-naproxen ()-naproxen 5. cis-cyclohexane-1,2-diol trans-cyclohexane-1,2-diol

227. Which of the following statements are true?

1. Terc-butanol and diethyl ether are structural isomers. 2. According to the CAHN-INGOLD-PRELOG convention d-glycerin-aldehyde has

S-configuration. 3. The 1,2-diequatorial substituents of cyclohexane are in cis position. 4. Compounds having R-configuration rotate the plane of the polarized light

clockwise (to the right). 5. D-tartaric acid and meso-tartaric acid are epimers.


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228. Which statements are true?

1. If neither sides of a double bond have identical substituents, these are ranked based on the CAHN-INGOLD-PRELOG convention to name the Z-E isomers.

2. 3-androstanol is the enantiomer of 3-androsztanol. 3. Both lactam-lactim and enol-oxo tautomerism are characteristic to barbiturates

therapeutically used. 4. Each natural -amino acid contains a chiral carbon atom. 5. The physicochemical properties of Z-E isomers are identical, they differ only in their

conformation.

229. Which isomerism or tautomerism types are possible in the case of hexobarbital?

1. enol oxo 2. lactam lactim 3. R S 4. cis trans 5. Z E

230. Which of the following compounds are constitutional isomers?

1. methyl-p-hydroxybenzoate methyl salicylate 2. quinine quinidine 3. tropine -tropine 4. acetylsalicylic acid phenylmalonic acid 5. maleic acid fumaric acid

231. Complete the following sentence with the correct words. A and B are ....

N

H5C2O

H5C2O

OC2H5

OC2H5

A

NH

H5C2O

H5C2O

OC2H5

OC2H5

B

1. tautomers 2. diastereomers 3. epimers 4. conformers 5. enantiomers


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232. Which properties are characteristic of inhalation narcotics?

1. high molecular mass 2. volatility 3. high association ability 4. absence of polar functional groups 5. low lipophilicity

233. Which of the following statements are true? Chloroform:

1. is miscible with water in any proportion. 2. has a higher density than water. 3. is a flammable organic solvent. 4. can contain phosgene impurity. 5. is an intravenous narcotic drug.

234. Which statements referring to morphine are correct?

1. Its isoelectric point is in the acidic pH region. 2. Its injection solution can be stabilized by adjusting its pH to about 3 3.5. 3. It is an optically inactive molecule. 4. It is more polar than its semisynthetic ether derivatives. 5. Its specific identification reaction is the CALMBERG-HUSEMANN reaction.

235. Which statements are false for morphine?

1. It contains a secondary nitrogen. 2. It contains an acidic phenol functional group. 3. It is an amphoteric molecule. 4. It contains several asymmetric carbon atoms. 5. It contains a tetrahydropyrane ring.

236. Which of the following statements for morphine are correct?

1. Morphine contains a tertiary alcoholic hydroxyl and a tertiary amino group. 2. The 5 chirality centers of morphine are situated next to one another. 3. During the morphine apomorphine rearrangement the number of asymmetry

centers decreases. 4. The aromatic ring of the molecule has a boat conformation. 5. The basic nitrogen is situated in the piperazine ring of the morphinane skeleton.


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237. Which reactions can be applied to differentiate morphine from codeine and ethylmorphine?

1. CALMBERG-HUSEMANN reaction. 2. By adding FeCl3 to its aqueous solution, a blue color develops. 3. Upon heating its solution with KH(IO3)2 the color turns to brown. 4. By adding phosphomolybdic acid to its aqueous solution a yellow precipitate is

formed. 5. MARQUIS reaction.

238. Choose the correct statements for semisynthetic morphine derivatives.

1. Saturation of the C7=C8 double bond increases the analgesic and antitussive activity.

2. Ethylmorphine is the 3-ethyl ester of morphine. 3. Oxidation of the alcoholic OH to a ketone decreases the analgesic and antitussive

activity. 4. Azidomorphine has an antagonistic activity. 5. Lipophilicity decreases on etherification of the phenolic OH.

239. Which are the most important structural elements responsible for the major analgesic activity?

1. morphinane nucleus 2. planar, aromatic ring 3. levorotatory enantiomer 4. basic nitrogen 5. two carbon atoms between the basicity center and the aromatic ring

240. Choose the correct sentences.

1. The presence of a free phenolic hydroxyl group is necessary for the apomorphine rearrangement.

2. The presence of a C7=C8 double bond is necessary for the apomorphine rearrangement.

3. In the apomorphine rearrangement ring C of morphine becomes aromatic. 4. Apomorphine is a narcotic analgesic drug. 5. Apomorphine is more stable than morphine.

241. Which of the following functional groups can be found in fentanyl?

1. carboxylic acid amide 2. ester 3. phenolic hydroxyl 4. alcoholic hydroxyl 5. carboxylic acid


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242. Which sentences are correct?

1. Methadone is a morphine analogue with a piperidine ring. 2. The analgesic activity of methadone derivatives equals or exceeds that of morphine. 3. Methadone contains two chiral carbon atoms. 4. Methadone can be titrated with perchloric acid in glacial acetic acid. 5. The activity of the diastereomers of methadone is significantly different.

243. Which statements are false for the minor analgesic salicylates?

1. Salicylic acid is not administered orally due to its gastric mucous membrane irritating property.

2. Acetylsalicylic acid hydrolyses rapidly to salicylic acid in the organism. 3. The absorption of acetylsalicylic acid from the stomach is unfavourable, since it

occurs mainly in ionized form at the pH of the stomach. 4. Salicylic acid is assumed to be the active metabolite of salicylates. 5. Salicylates have three characteristic activities: analgesic, antipyretic and

antirheumatic.

244. Which compound types belong to the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

1. morphinane derivatives 2. anthranilic acid derivatives 3. 1,4-dihydropyridines 4. arylacetic acid derivatives 5. 1-imidazoline derivatives

245. Which of the following statements are true? Noraminophenazone sodium mesylate:

1. is synthesized from sodium methanesulfonate. 2. hydrolyses in acidic medium with the formation of sulfur trioxide. 3. contains a 3-pirazoline ring. 4. contains an asymmetrical carbon atom. 5. displays lactam-lactim tautomerism.

246. Choose the correct sentences.

1. Salicylic acid can be determined by acid-base titration. 2. Salicylic acid can be identified by the KOLBE-SCHMITT color reaction. 3. Salicylic acid gives a flesh-colored precipitate with Fe(III) ions. 4. Due to its meta-hydroxyl group salicylic acid is a stronger acid than benzoic acid. 5. The characteristic impurity of salicylic acid is phenol.


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247. Choose the common properties of aminophenazone and noraminophenazone sodium mesylate.

1. It readily hydrolyses both in acidic and basic media. 2. It can be oxidized. 3. It is sensitive to light. 4. It imparts a permanent yellow color to a flame. 5. Dissolved in concentrated sulfuric acid it gives a violet colour with potassium

guaiacol sulfonate.

248. Which of the following compounds are 3-pirazoline-5-one derivatives ?

1. aminophenazone 2. piroxicam 3. chlorochine phosphate 4. phenylbutazone 5. noraminophenazone sodium mesylate

249. Which of the following drug compounds contain an ester group?

1. trimethosine 2. acetylsalicylic acid 3. phenacetin 4. methyl salicylate 5. indomethacin

250. Choose the false statements relating to barbiturates.

1. Enol-oxo tautomerism is characteristic of 5,5-disubstituted barbiturates. 2. Barbituric acid displays lactam-lactim tautomerism. 3. N-substituted barbiturates do not form precipitate with mercury(II) sulfate. 4. Barbituric acid possesses four dissociable hydrogens, therefore it has an acidic

character. 5. Every 5,5-disubstituted barbiturate is optically active.

251. Choose the correct statements relating to the structure-activity relationships of barbiturates.

1. Two lipophilic substituents are necessary at position 5 for hypnotic activity. 2. Replacement of oxygen by sulfur at position 2 increases the duration of action. 3. Branching in the C5 substituents increases the duration of action. 4. There cannot be unsaturated bonds at the C5 substituents. 5. N-methyl substitution decreases the duration of action.


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252. Which of the following structural modifications result in a decrease in the duration of action of barbiturates?

1. Formation of sodium salt. 2. N-methyl substitution. 3. Oxo thioxo substitution on the C2 atom. 4. Insertion of two identical substituents on the carbon atom at position 5. 5. Insertion of a phenyl group at position 5.

253. Choose the correct statements relating to the synthesis of barbiturates.

1. Maleic acid and urea are used in the simplest synthesis of barbituric acid. 2. Since the selective alkylation of barbituric acid is difficult, the C5 substituents are

inserted before ring closure. 3. During the synthesis of optically active barbiturates diastereomer mixtures are

formed. 4. Thiobarbiturates are synthesized by condensation with thiourea. 5. During the synthesis of hexobarbital the C5 cyclohexenyl group is introduced by the

alkylation of the pyridine ring.

254. Choose those barbiturates that are used as intravenous narcotics.

1.

NH

NH

O

O O

H5C2

H9C4

4.

N

NH

O

O O

CH2CH

CHH2CC

H3CCH5C2

CH3

2.

NH

NH

O

O S

H5C2H5C2

H3C

5.

NH

NH

O

O O

H5C2

H5C6

3.

NH

NH

O

O O

H5C2

255. Which of the following drugs give the PARRI-ZWIKKER reaction?

1. nitrazepam 2. glutethimide 3. hexobarbital 4. salicylamide 5. caffeine


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256. Which of the following tricyclic structures form the nucleus of neuroleptic (major tranquilizer) drugs?

1. XR

4.

S

X

R

2.

S

N XR

5. NR

3. N XR

257. Which of the following functional groups can be found in indometacin molecule?

1. ester 2. carboxylic acid 3. hydroxyl 4. carboxylic acid amide 5. nitrile

258. Choose the characteristic N10 side chain of neuroleptic phenothiazines.

1. -phenylethyl 2. aromatic acyl 3. dimethylaminopropyl 4. aminoethyl 5. piperidinyl

259. Which statements are incorrect for phenothiazine derivatives?

1. They contain two basic nitrogen atoms. 2. They are sensitive to oxygen and light. 3. They form complexes due to their electron donor atoms. 4. They have high lipophilicity. 5. The nitrogen in the side chain can be either aliphatic or alicyclic.


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260. Which statements are true for the structure-activity relationships of phenothiazines?

1. The steric structure has no importance in the neuroleptic activity. 2. The distance between the nitrogen atoms in the side chain and the ring must be 3

carbon atoms. 3. The increasing electron-withdrawing ability of the C2 substituent enhances the

neuroleptic activity. 4. The aliphatic or alicyclic environment of the nitrogen in the side chain has no

influence on the activity of phenothiazines. 5. Branching in the N10 side chain eliminates the neuroleptic activity.

261. Which statements are correct for the structure-activity relationships of anxiolytic 1,4-benzodiazepines?

1. The presence of an aromatic substituent at position 5 is necessary for the activity. 2. An electron-withdrawing group at position 7 decreases the activity. 3. The presence of an aromatic substituent at position 6 is essential for the activity. 4. The presence of an alkyl substituent at position 5 is necessary for the activity. 5. The insertion of a nitro group at position 7 results in antagonistic activity.

262. Choose the heterocyclic components that can be found in the structure of midazolam.

1. morpholine 2. 1,4-benzodiazepine 3. triazole 4. imidazole 5. pirazole

263. What are the main groups of anxiolytics (minor tranquilizers) based on their structure?

1. benzodiazepine derivatives 2. piperazinedione derivatives 3. barbituric acid derivatives 4. urethane derivatives 5. propanediol derivatives

264. Which statements are correct for the molecule of the given structure?

CH2 CCH3

HNCH3

CH2 C CH

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

It is a sympathomimetic phenylalkylamine.

It is an achiral molecule.

It is a selective MAO-B inhibitor antiparkinsonian drug.

It is an amphoteric molecule.

It contains an allyl group.


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265. Which statements for neostigmine are false?

1. Neostigmine is a phenolic ester. 2. It contains a quaternary nitrogen atom. 3. It is an indirect parasympatholytic drug. 4. Neostigmine is more stable than physostigmine. 5. During its alkaline hydrolysis dimethylamine is formed.

266. Which words complete the sentence correctly? Scopine (A) and scopoline (B) are ... of each other.

O

NCH3

H

OH

HO

NCH3

HO

A B

1. structural isomers 2. diastereomers 3. epimers 4. enantiomers 5. conformers

267. Choose the correct statements relating to trantheline bromide.

1. It is a tertiary ammonium salt. 2. It is an ester derivative. 3. Its acid component is xanthene-9-carboxylic acid. 4. Its alcohol component is diisopropyl-(2-hydroxyethyl)-amine. 5. It easily penetrates the blood-brain barrier.

268. Which acids are used for esterification in synthetic parasympatholytics instead of tropic acid?

1. xanthene-9-carboxylic acid 2. xanthine-9-carboxylic acid 3. carbamic acid 4. benzoic acid 5. mandelic acid

269. Which of the following statements are false? Ephedrine:

1. contains a primary amino group. 2. is a phenylalkylamine. 3. forms a violet complex with copper (II) sulfate in basic medium. 4. contains two asymmetrical carbon atoms. 5. and -ephedrine are diastereomers.


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270. Which of the following functional groups can be found in epinephrine (adrenaline)?

1. tertiary aliphatic amine 2. phenolic hydroxyl group 3. primary aliphatic amine 4. secondary aliphatic amine 5. tertiary alcoholic hydroxyl group

271. Which of the following compounds belong to catecholamines?

1. amphetamine

04 Test Pharmaceutical Chemistry

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