: Project Management Professional Exam Deluxe...

PMP®: Project Management Professional Exam Deluxe Study Guide

Bonus Exam Questions

Chapter 1

1. You are the project manager for your company’s upcoming

move. Several departments in your company are moving to a

new building. You’ve completed the Initiating process for this

project and know that the next set of processes for this project

will occur in which order?

A. Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing,

Closing

B. Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing,

Closing

C. Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling,

Closing

D. Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling,

Closing

Answer: D

Remember the IPECC acronym (which sounds like syrup of

Ipecac) for the project process order: Initiating, Planning,

Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.

2. You are a project manager for a pharmaceutical company.

You are responsible for acquiring and assigning resources to

your projects and for making all of the day-to-day decisions

regarding project issues. You report to a manager who also

manages four other project managers. What type of

organizational structure is this?

A. Strong matrix

B. Balanced matrix

C. Functional

D. Weak matrix

Answer: A

Strong matrix organizations are characterized by giving

project managers full authority for projects. Project managers

in a strong matrix organization usually report to a manager of

project managers.

3. Your company is introducing a new product for the holiday

season. This new product will be offered on the company

website and in the mail-order catalog. You will use

incremental steps to help you refine the characteristics of the

product. Which of the following will you perform to

determine the characteristics and features of the new product?

A. Iteration

B. Progressive elaboration

C. Earned value analysis

D. Requirements analysis

Answer: B

The best answer is B. The process of taking incremental steps

to examine and refine the characteristics of the product of the

project is called progressive elaboration. Processes may be

progressively elaborated as well.

4. You are a project leader responsible for upgrading and

installing three of your company’s servers. Because of your

expertise, you are also responsible for answering and

resolving escalated calls from the help desk. What type of

organization do you work in?

A. Weak matrix

B. Projectized

C. Functional

D. Balanced matrix

Answer: A

Weak matrix organizations are a lot like functional

organizations except that in a weak matrix structure, duties

are usually split between projects and functional duties.

Project managers are usually called project leaders or project

coordinators in an organization like this, and they report to

functional managers.

Chapter 2

1. Which of the following are the processes in the Project

Communications Management knowledge area?

A. Plan Communications Management, Manage

Communications, Develop Project Management Plan,

and Control Communications

B. Plan Communications Management, Manage

Communications, Develop Project Management Plan,

Control Communications, and Close Project or Phase

C. Plan Communications Management, Manage

Communications, Control Communications

D. Plan Communications Management, Manage

Communications, Direct and Manage Project Work,

and Control Communications

Answer: C

Project Communications Management includes Plan

Communications Management, Manage Communications,

and Control Communications.

2. According to the PMBOK® Guide, each of the following is a

type of need or demand that brings about a project except

which one?

A. Marketing demand

B. Social need

C. Legal requirement

D. Stakeholder demand

Answer: D

The needs and demands that bring about a project include

market demand, strategic opportunity/business need,

customer requests, technological advance, legal requirement,

ecological impacts, and social need. Stakeholder demands

will likely drive the project request, but this is not a need or

demand that brings about a project.

3. Your selection committee is trying to decide between two

projects. Funds exist to undertake only one of the projects.

You know that all of the following are true except which one?

A. Project selection methods are a tool and technique of

the Initiation process.

B. IRR is the discount rate when NPV equals zero.

C. The discounted cash flow technique evaluates the cash

inflows for each period and compares this to the initial

investment.

D. Payback period is the least precise of all the cash flow

calculations used to select projects.

Answer: C

The discounted cash flow technique evaluates the cash

inflows for the entire project and compares this to the initial

investment.

4. Your project was selected and approved by the selection

committee. Your next step is to create a project charter. All of

the following are true regarding project charters except which

one?

A. The charter describes the business need of the project.

B. The charter includes a description of the product of the

project.

C. The charter recognizes the existence of the project and

commits organizational resources to the project.

D. The charter is published by the project manager and

signed by the sponsor and stakeholders.

Answer: D

Project charters describe the business need of the project and

include a description of the product of the project. The project

charter identifies the project manager, recognizes the

existence of the project, and commits organization resources

to the project. The project charter should be published by the

project sponsor or the person who initiated the project.

5. You’ve been asked to prepare a cash flow analysis for the

project your selection committee is considering assigning to

your project team. The project cost is $148,000. The expected

inflows are $80,000 the first year, $15,000 per quarter the

second year, and $8,000 per quarter thereafter. What is the

payback period?

A. 28 months

B. 27 months

C. 25 months

D. 24 months

Answer: B

First year inflows are $80,000 in 12 months, the second year

inflows are $60,000 in 12 months, and the first quarter of the

third year inflows are $8,000 in 3 months, making the

payback period 27 months.

6. Your selection committee has determined they have the funds

to apply resources to two projects. Project A will cost

$164,000. Its expected inflows are $25,000 per quarter the

first year and $32,000 per quarter thereafter. The IRR for

Project A is 23 percent. Project B has a payback period of 19

months and its IRR is 26 percent. The selection committee

has decided that company resources should be applied to the

most valuable project first. How should the projects be

prioritized?

A. Project B should be first because its IRR is higher than

Project A’s.

B. Project B should be first because its payback period is

shorter than Project A’s.

C. Project A should be first because its IRR value is

lower than Project B’s.

D. Project A should be first because its payback period is

shorter than Project B’s.

Answer: A

Payback period is the least precise cash flow technique and

shouldn’t be used as the deciding factor in projects when

other cash flow techniques are available. Projects with the

highest IRRs should be chosen over projects with low IRR

values.

7. You’ve prepared the following analysis for two different

projects for review by the selection committee. Project A’s

payback period is 8 months and its NPV is –27. Project B’s

payback period is 10 months and its NPV is 150. Which

project should the selection committee pick?

A. Project A, because its NPV is lower than Project B’s

B. Project B, because its NPV is highest and there is less

than six months difference between payback periods

C. Project B, because its NPV is a positive value

D. Project A, because its payback period is shorter than

Project B’s payback period

Answer: C

Projects with negative NPV values should not be considered.

8. Project selection methods are used to help choose and

prioritize between projects, or determine if a project is worth

pursuing. Which of the following describe the selection

methods you might use during the Initiating process group?

A. Constrained optimization methods, which use analysis

and comparative approaches, and benefit measurement

methods, which are mathematical formulas

B. Mathematical analysis methods, which use

mathematical formulas, and benefit/cost analysis,

which use analysis and comparative approaches

C. Mathematical analysis methods and benefit/cost

analysis, which both use mathematical formulas

D. Constrained optimization methods, which are

mathematical formulas, and benefit measurement

methods, which use analysis and comparative

approaches

Answer: D

Constrained optimization methods are mathematical formulas

that use linear, dynamic, integer, nonlinear, and algorithm

formulas to make selections. Benefit measurement methods

use analysis and comparative approaches such as benefit/cost

analysis.

Chapter 3

1. You are the project manager responsible for customizing and

installing your company’s software at the client site. You’ve

completed the Initiating process and are now working on the

Planning processes. This project has a completion date of

December 1. You’ve penciled in Kathy as the lead

programmer for this project. She is tentatively scheduled to

work on this project starting July 1 and ending November 4.

She and her manager have always agreed to work on your

projects in the past. This is an example of what?

A. An assumption, because you have not yet checked on

Kathy’s availability.

B. A constraint, because Kathy must work between the

dates assigned in order to complete the project by

December 1

C. A constraint you’ve identified during the Resource

Planning process

D. An assumption you’ve made during the Resource

Planning process

Answer: A

Assumptions are events or actions believed to be true and

should always be documented. In this question, you believe

Kathy will be available to work on your project, which makes

this an assumption.

2. Project teams are limited by which of the following?

A. Risks

B. Technology

C. Constraints

D. Requirements

Answer: C

Constraints limit or restrict the actions of the project team.

They can also dictate the actions of the project team.

3. Your project requires the manufacturing of a component part

that will be installed into the final product. You’ve hired an

external vendor to produce these parts for your company. The

component part has specific measurable dimensions and must

be manufactured to these exact specifications or your final

product will not work as expected. You’ve also requested

they deliver exactly 75 of these parts by May 31. Which of

the following have you defined for the vendor?

A. Requirements, because you’ve described specific

results, outcomes, and due dates that are measurable

and verifiable

B. Deliverables, because you’ve described specific

results, outcomes, and due dates that are measurable

and verifiable

C. Constraints, because the vendor’s product must

precisely meet your specifications or it won’t work

with the final product

D. Assumptions, because the vendor’s product must

precisely meet your specifications or it won’t work

with the final product

Answer: B

The best answer is B. Although requirements describe the

specifications or necessary prerequisites for the product,

deliverables are outputs that must be produced to bring the

phase or project to completion. They are tangible and can be

measured and easily proved.

4. The documentation of project goals, deliverables, and

requirements so that they can be used as a baseline for future

project decisions is accomplished by writing and publishing

which of the following documents?

A. Project charter

B. Scope statement

C. Communications management plan

D. Scope management plan

Answer: B

It’s important that the scope statement contain project goals,

deliverables, and requirements and be signed off by the

stakeholders. That way, everyone has the same understanding

regarding the goals of the project and what will be delivered.

5. Project acceptance criteria, deliverables, project exclusions,

constraints, and assumptions are all documented in which of

the following?

A. Project charter

B. Scope statement

C. Communications plan

D. Project management plan

Answer: B

The scope statement also documents the product scope

description.

6. One of the deliverables for your project is a specific piece of

hardware that must be built to exact specifications. If the

hardware is not sized correctly, project process will stop until

the hardware is corrected. What might this deliverable be

called?

A. Constraint

B. Critical success factor

C. Conditional requirement

D. Constrained deliverable

Answer: B

Critical success factors are deliverables or objectives that

must be met in order for the project to be considered

complete.

7. According to the PMBOK® Guide, this document helps assure

business value is realized when the project is complete.

A. Scope statement

B. Requirements traceability matrix

C. WBS

D. Requirements management plan

Answer: B

The requirements traceability matrix helps assure business

value is realized when the project is complete because each

requirement is linked to a business and project objective.

8. Your project is not proceeding well. Your team recently had

to redesign one of the components of the final product to

better comply with customer requirements. This rework has

increased project costs and impacted the completion of other

tasks on the WBS. This setback also seems to have caused a

problem with morale among team members. Which of the

following is true?

A. The deliverables were not defined with measurable or

verifiable outcomes.

B. The problem occurred because the WBS was not

broken down to the lowest level of detail.

C. The customer requirements were not communicated to

the project team before the work began.

D. The problem was caused by poor scope definition.

Answer: D

Poor scope definition can lead to rework, increased project

costs, and poor morale.

9. Your project has been decomposed and the WBS has been

constructed. Your final WBS contains five levels. All of the

following are true regarding the WBS except which one?

A. This project’s work package level is level five.

B. The WBS is a deliverables-oriented grouping of

project deliverables and elements.

C. A code of accounts will be assigned only to level five

of this WBS.

D. Level five for this project will facilitate resource

assignments and cost and time estimates.

Answer: C

The code of accounts is assigned to every level of the WBS.

Chapter 4

1. During the Sequence Activities process, you discover that

industry best practices techniques for your project dictate that

activity A be completed using an automated process while

Activity B should be completed using a manual process. This

type of dependency is known as preferred logic, or soft logic.

What is another name for this dependency?

A. External dependency

B. Preferred dependency

C. Mandatory dependency

D. Discretionary dependency

Answer: D

Discretionary dependency is also known a preferred logic or

soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are process driven and

can be determined by the project management team or by

industry best practices techniques and standards.

2. Define Activities involves decomposing the work package

levels into units of work called what?

A. Schedule activities

B. Activities

C. Tasks

D. Code of accounts

Answer: A

Schedule activities are decomposed from the work package

level during Define Activities.

3. The four logical relationships known as finish-to-start, start-

to-finish, start-to-start, and finish-to-finish are used in which

of the following diagramming methods?

A. GERT

B. PDM

C. CPM

D. ADM

Answer: B

The PDM is further defined by the four types of logical

relationships mentioned in the question. CPM is a method

used to determine early start and early finish dates during

schedule development.

4. This process is where start and finish dates for your project

activities are determined and activity sequences and durations

are finalized. Some of the inputs to this process include

calendars, lead and lags, and activity attributes. Which

process is this question describing?

A. Develop Schedule

B. Sequence Activities

C. Estimate Activity Duration

D. Estimate Activity Resources

Answer: A

The Develop Schedule process is where the project tasks are

finalized, start and finish dates are determined, and activity

sequences and activity durations are finalized.

5. All of the following are true regarding lead and lag time

except which one?

A. Leads and lags are used when there are delays between

dependent and independent activities in the project

schedule.

B. Leads require time to be subtracted from the start date

or the finish date of the dependent activity.

C. Lags delay successor activities and require time to be

added to the start date or the finish date of the

dependent activity.

D. Lead time is used more often than lag time.

Answer: D

Leads require time to be subtracted from the start or finish

date of the dependent activity, while lags delay successor

activities and require time to be added to the dependent

activity. Lag time is used more often than lead time.

6. Which of the following mathematical analysis techniques

calculates the earliest start and finish date and the latest start

and finish date?

A. GERT

B. Duration compression

C. PERT

D. CPM

Answer: D

The critical path method determines the earliest start and

finish date and the latest start and finish date for each activity.

All activities with zero float are said to be on the critical path.

7. You’ve calculated the critical path for your upcoming project.

Which of the following is true regarding the critical path?

A. It’s determined using expected value.

B. It is the longest full path on the project.

C. It’s made up of tasks with float time greater than zero.

D. It allows for conditional looping and branching.

Answer: B

The critical path is the longest full path on the project, and it

comprises tasks with zero float time. Critical path is

calculated using the CPM, which determines a single early

start and finish date and a single late start and finish date.

8. Total slack time is described as ___________________.

A. the amount of time you can delay the start of a task

without delaying the start of a successor task

B. the amount of time you can delay the start of a task

without delaying the latest finish date of a successor

task

C. the amount of time you can delay the start of a task

without delaying the ending of the project

D. the amount of time you can delay the start of a task

without delaying the latest start date of a successor

task

Answer: C

Total slack time is the amount of time you can delay the start

of a task without delaying the ending of the project. Free

slack is the amount of time you can delay the start of a task

without delaying the start of a successor task.

9. Your project sponsor has approached you and asked if there is

any way you can speed up the project. Due to some unique

marketing opportunities, the organization stands to increase

profits dramatically if you can finish this project ahead of

schedule. After some analysis, you inform the project sponsor

that you will be able to finish the project ahead of schedule

provided you can hire an outside vendor to complete the

activities associated some of the WBS elements. This will

increase the cost of the project by $115,000. The sponsor

agrees to pay the additional cost. This an example of what?

A. Crashing, which is a compression technique used

during the Schedule Development process

B. Fast tracking, which is a compression technique used

during the Estimate Activity Duration process

C. Crashing, which is a compression technique used

during the Estimate Activity Duration process

D. Fast tracking, which is a compression technique used

during the Develop Schedule process

Answer: A

Crashing and fast tracking are both duration compression

techniques used during the Develop Schedule process.

Crashing looks at cost and schedule trade-offs, while fast

tracking is starting two tasks at the same time that were

previously scheduled to start sequentially.

10. This tool and technique produces schedule projections and

probabilities. It estimates critical path duration estimates and

float time by simulating multiple activity durations many

times to come up with the schedule projections and their

probabilities. What technique is this?

A. Parametric modeling

B. Monte Carlo analysis

C. Design of experiments

D. PERT

Answer: B

Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique that calculates

the probability of all the possible project completion dates.

Monte Carlo analysis is one of the what-if scenario analysis

tools and techniques. It can also be used for cost estimating.

11. You are calculating PERT times for a programming activity

on your project. Your lead programmer said the earliest

possible completion time would be 200 days. The most likely

time is 280 days and the longest it might take is 330 days.

What is the expected value?

A. 235

B. 300

C. 203

D. 275

Answer: D

The formula for expected value is [optimistic + pessimistic +

(4 most likely)] / 6. The formula for this question is [200 +

330 + (4 280)] / 6) = 275.

12. You’re interested in knowing within a 95.44 percent

confidence level how long the programming activity for your

customer object will take. Which of the following is true if

the expected value is 410 days and the standard deviation is

15, which of the following is a 95 percent confidence level?

A. There is a 95 percent chance of completing this

activity between 380 days and 440 days.

B. There is a 95 percent chance of completing this

activity between 395 days and 425.

C. There is a 95 percent chance of completing this


D. There is a 95 percent chance of completing this


Answer: A

Work will finish within plus or minus two standard deviations

95.44 percent of the time.

13. You’ve discovered that one of your programmers is assigned

too many tasks. You decide to assign some of her less critical

tasks to other team members who are underallocated in order

to keep the project on schedule. This is an example of which

of the following?

A. Resource requirements analysis

B. Fast tracking

C. Resource leveling heuristics

D. Contingency reserves

Answer: C

Resource leveling heuristics attempts to smooth out resource

assignments without overloading individuals while keeping

the project on schedule.

14. Project constraints and assumptions are two of the pieces of

information contained in this Develop Schedule output.

Milestones, schedule activities, and activity attributes may

also be included.

A. Project management updates

B. Schedule data

C. Project schedule

D. Schedule baseline

Answer: B

Schedule data is the supporting data concerning the schedule

and includes milestones, schedule activities, activity

attributes, and constraints and assumptions.

15. If the expected value for project duration = 110 days and

standard deviation = 7.34 and standard deviation squared =

53.88, what is the project duration for 95 percent confidence

factor?

A. The project will be completed within 102.66 days and

117.34 days.

B. The project will be completed within 56.12 days and

163.88 days.

C. The project will be completed within 95.02 days and

124.98 days.

D. The project will be completed within 95.32 days and

124.68 days.

Answer: D

A 95 percent confidence factor is calculated by subtracting 2

standard deviations from the project duration to find the least

amount of time to completion and then adding 2 standard

deviations to the project duration to find the most amount of

time to completion.

Chapter 5

1. Each of the following is an element of the cost management

plan except for which one?

A. Level of accuracy

B. Reporting formats

C. Units of measure

D. Cost aggregation method

Answer: D

Cost aggregation is a tool and technique of the Determine

Budget process.

2. Which of the following is used during the Project Cost

Management Knowledge Area to monitor and control project

costs? It is used to calculate earned value performance

measures and consists of factors such as actual cost, schedule,

and scope.

A. Control account

B. Code of accounts

C. Chart of accounts

D. Control thresholds

Answer: A

Control accounts are assigned to the WBS and allow for the

calculation of earned value performance measures.

3. All of the following are true regarding the Determine Budget

process except which one?

A. Assigns cost estimates to the project activities in order

to establish the budget.

B. The cost baseline plots the sum of estimated costs in a

linear graph.

C. Estimates in the cost baseline are used to measure

variances and performance later in the project.

D. The cost baseline, once established, is the expected

cost for the project.

Answer: B

Cost baselines plot the sum of estimated costs expected per

period and are graphically displayed as S curves.

4. This tool and technique of Estimate Costs generally provides

the most accurate estimate.

A. Analogous estimating

B. Bottom-up estimating

C. Three-point estimating

D. Parametric estimating

Answer: B

Bottom-up estimating is generally the most accurate

estimating technique, but accuracy can be affected by the size

and complexity of the project.

5. This cost estimating technique is a form of expert judgment

and is one of the least accurate cost estimating techniques.

A. Analogous estimating

B. Bottom-up estimating

C. Parametric estimating

D. Three-point estimating

Answer: A

Analogous estimating uses the actual cost of a completed

project that’s similar to the current project as the basis for

estimating the cost of the project. This is also called top-down

estimating and is a form of expert judgment.

6. Which of the following lists the correct outputs of the

Estimate Cost process?

A. Activity cost estimates, cost management plan,

organizational process assets updates

B. Activity cost estimates, reserve analysis, cost

management plan

C. Activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, project

documents updates

D. Activity cost estimates, reserve analysis, project

documents updates

Answer: C

The outputs of the Estimate Cost process are activity cost

estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates

7. The difference between the funding requirements and the cost

performance baseline at the end of the project is known as

which of the following?

A. Cost threshold

B. Contingency reserve

C. Cost aggregation

D. Management reserve

Answer: D

Management reserve is the difference between the funding

requirements and the cost performance baseline at the end of

the project.

8. During the Planning processes on your recent project, you

met with a group of 14 important stakeholders to determine

information needs, including the purpose for the

communication, frequency of communication, and format and

method of transmission. Which of the following is true?

A. This information is documented in the stakeholder

communication plan, which is an output of the Plan

Communications process. There are 98 lines of

communication.

B. This information is documented in the

communications management plan, which is an output

of the Plan Communications process. There are 112

lines of communication.

C. This information is documented in the

communications management plan, which is an output

of the Plan Communications process. There are 105

lines of communication.

D. This information is documented in the stakeholder

communication plan, which is an output of the Plan

Communications process. There are 120 lines of

communication.

Answer: C

The communications management plan describes several

elements regarding project information and is an output of the

Plan Communications process. The formula for lines of

communication is 15 (15 – 1) / 2 = 105.

9. Your team has 7 members including yourself. How many

lines of communication are there among the members?

A. 7

B. 14

C. 21

D. 28

Answer: C

The formula for lines of communication is n (n – 1) / 2, so

the answer to this question is calculated this way: 7 (7 – 1) /

2 = 21.

Chapter 6

1. You are working on the risk management plan for your

project. According to the PMBOK® Guide, risk categories are

a component of the risk management plan and may include

which of the following types of risks?

A. Project management risks, secondary risks, and

organizational risks

B. Technical risks, quality or performance risks,

secondary risks, and risk triggers

C. Technical risks, quality or performance risks, project

management risks, organizational risks, and external

risks

D. Project management risks and external risks

Answer: C

The best answer is C because it contains all the risk categories

defined in The PMBOK® Guide.

2. You’ve progressed through the risk processes and are now

ready to determine what impact the risks that you’ve

identified will have on the project and the probability that

they’ll occur. Using tools and techniques such as risk

probability and impact assessment, probability and impact

matrix, and risk urgency assessment will help you create the

risk register and overall risk ranking for the project. What

process are you in?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Identify Risk

C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: A

The tools and techniques of the Perform Qualitative Risk

Analysis process include risk probability and impact

assessment, probability and impact matrix, risk data quality

assessment, risk categorization, risk urgency assessment, and

expert judgment.

3. You’ve developed the following information for your PI

matrix:

Probability Medium Risk Scores High Risk Scores

.6 .12 .24 .36 .48

You are evaluating risks to determine their overall risk

ranking for the project. You know that the hardware

compatibility risk has a .6 probability of occurring with a .4

impact. Which of the following is true?

A. You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform

Quantitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware

compatibility risk should receive a medium overall risk

ranking.

B. You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform

Qualitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware

compatibility risk should receive a high overall risk

rating.

C. You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform

Quantitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware

compatibility risk should receive a high overall risk

ranking.

D. You’re using a tool and technique of the Perform

Qualitative Risk Analysis process and the hardware

compatibility risk should receive a medium overall risk

ranking.

Answer: D

Probability impact matrix is a tool and technique of the

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process and is used to

show the combination of the probability of the risk (using a

probability scale) and the severity of the risk (using an impact

scale, which shows the severity of the impact).

4. You are in the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process

and are using a tool and technique that is a quantitative

method of analyzing the potential impact of risk events. This

tool can also be used to determine stakeholder risk tolerance

levels. What tool and technique is this question referring to?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Decision tree analysis

C. Simulation

D. Risk probability and impact

Answer: A

Sensitivity analysis analyzes the potential impact of risk

events. It is a quantitative analysis method.

5. This component of the risk register update output of the

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process contains the

forecasted results of the project schedule and project costs.

The results also include projected completion dates and costs.

Each of these results has a confidence level associated with it.

Which output is this question describing?

A. Prioritized list of quantified risks

B. Probabilistic analysis of the project

C. Probability of achieving the cost and time objectives

D. Trends in quantitative risk analysis results

Answer: B

Probabilistic analysis of the project is the forecasted results of

the project schedule and costs as a result of the outcomes of

risk analysis. Confidence levels are assigned to describe the

level of confidence placed on the result.

6. These strategies are used to deal with negative risks.

A. Avoid, exploit, share, enhance

B. Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept

C. Share, exploit, enhance, accept

D. Exploit, transfer, mitigate, share

Answer: B

The strategies used to deal with negative risks are avoid,

transfer, mitigate, and accept.

Chapter 7

1. Which type of contract carries the highest risk to the buyer

and why?

A. Time and materials contracts because the full amount

of the material costs id not known at the time of the

contract

B. Unit price contracts because the amount for the goods

or services rendered is unknown at the time of the

contract

C. Cost-reimbursable contracts because the total costs are

uncertain

D. Fixed price plus incentive contracts because the bonus

amount is uncertain

Answer: C

Cost-reimbursable contracts carry the highest risk to the

buyer because the total costs are not known at the beginning

of the project. Cost-reimbursable contracts include cost plus

fixed fee contracts and cost plus incentive fee contracts, also

known as cost plus percentage of cost.

2. This element of the project plan can affect the Plan

Procurement Management process and vice versa.

A. Schedule

B. Budget

C. WBS

D. Staffing management plan

Answer: A

The project schedule can affect the Plan Procurement

Management process, and the Plan Procurement Management

process may also have an effect on the project schedule.

3. All of the following are a type of procurement document

except for which one?

A. IFB

B. SOW

C. Contract

D. RFP

Answer: B

The statement of work describes the work of the project and

is included with the project documents.

4. Standards and regulations concerning the work of the project

should be taken into consideration during the Planning

processes. All of the following are true regarding standards

and regulations except which one?

A. Standards and regulations make up one of the elements

included in the enterprise environmental factors input

to the Plan Quality process.

B. Regulations are approved by a recognized body and

employ rules and guidelines that should be followed.

C. Regulations are typically imposed by governments.

D. Standards are not mandatory.

Answer: B

Standards are approved by a recognized body and employ

rules and guidelines that should be followed. Regulations are

mandatory and are usually driven by government bodies.

5. Which of the following tools and techniques of Plan Quality

Management is an analytical technique that identifies

variables that will have the greatest effect on overall project

outcomes?

A. Benchmarking

B. Design of experiments

C. Flowcharts

D. Cost-benefit analysis

Answer: B

Design of experiments is an analytical technique that

identifies elements, or variables, that will have the greatest

effect on overall project outcomes. This process uses

experiments to determine the ideal solution for a problem

using a limited number of sample cases.

6. This output of the Plan Quality Management process is used

to specifically describe what is being measured and how it

will be measured.

A. Quality checklists

B. Quality management plan

C. Process improvement plan

D. Quality metrics

Answer: D

Outputs to the Plan Quality Management process include the

quality management plan, quality metrics (also known as

operational definitions), quality checklists, process

improvement plan, quality baseline, and project document

updates. Quality metrics describe what is being measured and

how it will be measured.

7. You are working on the Plan Human Resources Management

process and have gathered all of the inputs to this process. All

of the following are true regarding this process except which

one?

A. Staff acquisition describes how team members are

acquired and is a component of the staffing

management plan, which is an input to this process.

B. Roles and responsibilities, an output of this process,

describes the roles, authority, responsibility, and

competency of team members.

C. Project organization charts might take the form of

hierarchical charts, matrix-based charts, or text-

oriented formats.

D. Templates and checklists are the components of the

organizational process assets that should be considered

as an input to this process.

Answer: A

Staff acquisition is a component of the staffing management

plan, which is an output of the Plan Human Resource

Management process.

8. The Plan Human Resource Management process in the

PMBOK® Guide lists several key environmental factors

project teams should consider. Each of the following is a

factor noted in this process except for which one?

A. Organizational structures

B. Location and logistics

C. Standardized role descriptions

D. Collective bargaining agreements

Answer: C

Standardized role descriptions are part of the organizational

process assets input to this process.

9. You are developing a chart that links the project roles and

responsibilities to the scope definition and WBS elements.

Resource names will be assigned to each of the WBS

elements so that you can see at a glance which activities will

require what types of resources. You have just developed


A. RACI

B. OBS

C. RBS

D. RAM

Answer: D

The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) links WBS

elements with resource names in a chart form.

10. This management plan documents how and when human

resources are introduced to the project and later released.

Sometimes, this plan includes a resource histogram. What

type of plan is this?

A. Communications management plan

B. Resource management plan

C. Staffing management plan

D. Organizational management plan

Answer: C

The staffing management plan documents how and when

human resources are brought on and off the project. Resource

histograms plot resource time and hours needed in chart form.

Chapter 8

1. You are a project manager for a large metropolitan hospital.

You’ve worked with your current project team for a long time

and have established a good working relationship with them.

The team has worked on several major projects under your

leadership and has always done an outstanding job. What

stage of team development is this team in?

A. Norming

B. Forming

C. Performing

D. Conforming

Answer: C

The performing stage of team development occurs when a

team works very well together and is productive and

effective. Team members work harmoniously and their level

of trust is high.

2. You are a project manager for a large metropolitan hospital.

You’ve worked with your current project team for a long time

and have established a good working relationship them. One

of the team members has been promoted to a project manager

and a new team member will be introduced. The new team

member is well respected and your team is eager to get going

on the next project. Which stage will the project team be in

when the new team member comes on board?

A. Norming

B. Forming

C. Performing

D. Storming

Answer: B

When new team members are introduced, the team starts over

again in the forming stage.

3. You’ve given your project team a specific set of expectations

and promised them the new hardware and software they’ve

requested as the motivation for completing the project on

time. You believe they will perform at their best. Which

motivational theory does this describe?

A. Theory Y

B. Hygiene Theory

C. Maslow’s hierarchy

D. Achievement Theory

Answer: A

Theory Y conjectures that people will perform their best if

they know what’s expected of them and they have proper

motivations.

4. You are a new project manager and have given your project

team a specific set of expectations and promised them new

hardware and software as the motivation for completing the

project on time. Unfortunately, the project team does not

perform to your expectations and the project is completed

behind schedule. You later discover that the hardware and

software you promised as motivation was not important to

them. In the past, they’ve been given time off as a reward for

completing projects on time and were publicly recognized at

the company’s quarterly meeting for achieving their goals. If

you had studied reward and recognition systems in the team

development process, you would know that all of the

following are true regarding reward and recognition except

which one?

A. Recognition should be carried out in a public setting

like a company or department meeting.

B. Rewards should be in proportion to the achievement.

C. Recognition and rewards should be linked to

performance.

D. Motivators and rewards should be realistic and

desirable to the recipient.

Answer: A

Recognition does not have to be carried out in a public

setting. Some team members would rather receive private

recognition from the project manager in a personal setting as

opposed to being publicly recognized.

5. Which of the following are conflict resolution techniques?

A. Forming, smoothing, confrontation, performing

B. Storming, withdrawal, compromise, smoothing,

forcing

C. Smoothing, compromise, confrontation, withdrawal

D. Forcing, smoothing, compromise, confrontation,

withdrawal

Answer: D

The conflict resolution techniques are forcing, smoothing,

compromise, confrontation, and withdrawal. Project

managers should use the confrontation, also called problem

solving, technique most often because it is the best of the

resolution techniques.

6. At your recent status meeting, a problem surfaced that the

group discussed. Jessica approached you the day after the

meeting to express her concern that the problem was not

really resolved because after thinking about it, she felt her

concerns were still valid and should be addressed. The

conflict resolution technique practiced at the status meeting

was which of the following?

A. Smoothing

B. Forcing

C. Confrontation

D. Withdrawal

Answer: A

Smoothing is a temporary way to resolve conflict; one or

more parties attempt to make the conflict appear less

important than it is and thereby get agreement to their

solution. After thinking it through, the folks who gave in to

the solution resurface their original issues and the conflict

comes back to life. Although it’s not listed in this question,

compromise is the other conflict resolution technique.

7. Your project team works in two different buildings across the

city from each other. The team has been struggling to perform

effectively and has a difficult time resolving problems.

You’ve approached your management team with which of the

following solutions to help resolve this issue?

A. Training

B. Co-location

C. Reward and recognition

D. Mediation

Answer: B

Co-location is physically locating your team members in the

same place or holding all team meetings in a common room

and requiring the team members to attend.

8. Status review meetings serve all the following purposes

except which one?

A. To formally exchange project information

B. To provide updated status on project progress

C. To alert the project manager to potential risk events

D. To encompass demonstrations that show the product

progress

Answer: D

Status review meetings are not for show-and-tell purposes.

You should conduct separate meetings for the purpose of

demonstrating product or project progress.

9. You are performing at the highest level of achievement just

for the satisfaction it brings. Your other basic needs have

been met and you’ve reached a state of independence. Which

of the following is true?

A. This is the highest level of achievement of the

Achievement Theory.

B. This is the self-actualization level of Maslow’s

hierarchy.

C. This is the highest level of achievement of the

Expectancy Theory.

D. This describes the highest level of satisfaction of

Theory Y.

Answer: B

Self-actualization is a state of independence where you

perform at your highest level of achievement.

10. You are a project manager and have just passed the PMP

exam. Due to your extensive experience and your newly

awarded certification, you’ve been asked to head up your

company’s new project management office. The team

members assigned to this department do not have as much

project management experience as you do, and none of them

have received their PMP certification. As a result, they follow

your lead on decisions regarding the project management

processes you want to put into place. What type of power is

this?

A. Referent

B. Legitimate

C. Punishment

D. Expert

Answer: D

Expert power occurs when the person being influenced

believes the person doing the influencing is knowledgeable

on the subject or has special skills that make them an expert.

Chapter 9

1. You are a project manager that needs to obtain some services

for your project from a local vendor. You have published the

RFP and have received bids and proposals. You are using a

predefined set of performance criteria to screen unsuitable

vendors. Which tool and technique within the proposal

evaluation techniques in the Conduct Procurements process

are you using?

A. Bidder conferences

B. Screening systems

C. Weighting systems

D. Seller rating systems

Answer: B

Screening systems use predefined performance criteria to

screen out unsuitable vendors.

2. What are the four contract life cycle processes?

A. Procurement, solicitation, source selection, award

B. Requirement, solicitation, requisitions, procurement

C. Procurement, requisition, solicitation, sward

D. Requirement, requisition, solicitation, award

Answer: D

Requirement is where the project and contract needs are

established. Requisition is the process of preparing requests

for proposals. Solicitation is obtaining bids and proposals

from vendors, and award is where vendors are chosen and

contracts are awarded.

3. In the midst of contract negotiations, your vendor reminds

you that the issue you’ve just brought up for discussion was

already decided at the last meeting and there is no need to

discuss it again as a decision was already reached. This is an

example of ___________________ .

A. smoothing

B. compromise

C. withdrawal

D. fait accompli

Answer: D

Fait accompli occurs when one party convinces the other that

the issue under discussion is no longer relevant or cannot be

changed.

4. All of the following are true regarding the Conduct

Procurements process except which one?

A. This process monitors vendor performance for

adherence to requirements of the contract.

B. Payment systems are used to process seller invoices.

C. Contested changes must be resolved using arbitration.

D. Terminating contracts for nonperformance requires a

contract change request be submitted through the

contract change control system.

Answer: C

Contested changes may result in disputes, claims, or appeals,

which can be resolved between the parties themselves,

through the court system, or using arbitration.

5. The Perform Quality Assurance process is concerned with all

of the following except which one?

A. Assures the project satisfies the quality standards set

out in the quality management plan.

B. Monitors results to assure they comply with quality

standards.

C. Is concerned with the correctness of the work.

D. The project manager has the greatest impact on quality

during this process.

Answer: B

Perform Quality Control is the process that monitors results to

assure they comply with quality standards.

6. Quality improvements come about as a result of which of the

following?

A. Change requests

B. Verification of work results

C. Corrective actions

D. Quality audits

Answer: D

Quality audits identify corrective actions that need to be

implemented, and they assure the quality plan is adhered to,

that applicable laws and standards are followed, and that the

product of the project is fit for use. Their primary purpose is

to identify quality improvements.

7. You are managing communications on your project. You

know that all of the following are true regarding information

exchange except which one?

A. The sender is responsible for making sure the

information is understood correctly.

B. Putting the information in a format the listener will

understand is known as encoding.

C. The sender must present the information in a clear and

concise format.

D. Listeners filter the information they receive through

their own knowledge of the subject and cultural

influences.

Answer: A

Receivers are responsible for making sure they understand the

information that’s been presented and for making sure they

have all the information they need. If the receiver is unclear,

they should ask clarifying questions or ask the sender to

rephrase the information.

8. All of the following are methods the information management

system might use to distribute information except

___________________.

A. email

B. electronic databases

C. voicemail

D. websites

Answer: B

Methods of distributing information might include email,

hard copy, voicemail, videoconferencing, websites, and

collaboration software. Electronic databases are a means to

store information.

9. The tools and techniques of Manage Stakeholder Engagement

include all of the following except which one?

A. Communication methods

B. Interpersonal skills

C. Issue log

D. Management skills

Answer: C

The tools and techniques for Manage Stakeholder

Engagement are communication methods, interpersonal skills,

and management skills.

Chapter 10

1. All of the following are true regarding the Monitor and

Control Project Work process except for which one?

A. This process reports on and compares actual project

results.

B. This process monitors and controls project work from

Initiating through the Monitor and Control process

group.

C. This process monitors and approves change requests.

D. This process analyzes performance data and

recommends preventive or corrective actions.

Answer: B

This process monitors and controls project work from

Initiating through Closing

2. Which of the following processes must be integrated and

coordinated during the Control Procurements process?

A. Control Communications, Control Procurements,

Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change Control,

and Control Risks

B. Direct and Manage Project Work, Control

Communications, and Perform Integrated Change

Control

C. Plan Procurements, Control Communications, Control

Quality, and Perform Integrated Change Control

D. Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality,

Perform Integrated Change Control, and Control Risks

Answer: D

The processes that must be integrated and coordinated during

the Control Procurements process are Direct and Manage

Project Work, Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change

Control, and Control Risks.

3. Control Communications involves collecting, distributing,

storing, archiving, and organizing project information. Work

performance information is one of the primary outputs of this

process. All of the following are true regarding work

performance information except for which one?

A. This information is used to analyze information such

as the status of deliverables.

B. Forecasts of ETC might be reported in this output.

C. This might take the form of status reports, memos, or

updates.

D. The status of change requests might be reported in this

output.

Answer: C

Status reports, memos, and updates are types of work

performance reports. Work performance information is

included in these reports.

4. Corrective action is from of a change request. Change

requests (including approved change requests) are outputs of

which process group and inputs to which process group.

respectively?

A. Outputs of Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and

Controlling, and inputs to Executing and to Monitoring

and Controlling

B. Outputs of Executing and Monitoring and Controlling,

and inputs to Monitoring and Controlling

C. Outputs of Executing and Monitoring and Controlling,

and inputs to Executing and Monitoring and

Controlling

D. Outputs of Planning and Executing, and inputs to

Executing and Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: A

Change requests are an output of the Plan Procurement

Management process (a Planning process) and are outputs of

several Executing and Monitoring and Controlling process.

Approved change requests are an input to the Direct and

Manage Project Work process (an Executing process) and

change requests are an input to the Perform Integrated

Change Control process (a Monitoring and Controlling

process). Change requests are also outputs of several

Monitoring and Controlling processes.

5. Which of the following groups is responsible for approving or

denying change requests after reviewing?

A. CRB

B. CCB

C. CRC

D. CCC

Answer: B

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and

approving or denying change requests.

6. Change control systems serve all of the following purposes

except which one?

A. Tracks the status of change requests

B. Defines the level of authority needed to approve

changes

C. Describes the impact of the change to the product

description

D. Documents the procedures that describe how to submit

and manage change requests

Answer: C

Change control systems describe the management impacts of

the changes as they pertain to project performance.

7. The configuration management system accomplishes all of

the following except which one?

A. Identifies the physical characteristics of the product of

the project

B. Controls changes to the physical characteristics of the

product of the project

C. Documents changes to verify that requirements are met

D. Tracks the status of change requests and reports on

them

Answer: D

Change control systems track the status of change requests

and report on them.

8. Which of the following option isn’t a forecasting method?

A. Judgmental methods and communication methods

B. Methods such as simulation techniques, probabilistic

forecasting, and ensemble forecasting

C. Causal/econometric methods, including regression

analysis, autoregressive moving average, and

econometrics

D. Time series methods

Answer: A

Forecasting methods include time series methods,

causal/econometric methods, judgmental methods, and other

methods (such as simulation, probabilistic forecasting, and

ensemble forecasting).

9. Approved changes are an output of the Perform Integrated

Change Control process. All of the following are true

regarding this process except which one?

A. Baseline changes should be documented in the change

control system or the configuration management

system.

B. Baseline changes are implemented during the Perform

Integrated Change Control process.

C. You should document all the actions taken during this

process in the project document updates output.

D. Changes should be reflected from the current point in

time forward.

Answer: B

All approved changes are implemented in the Direct and

Manage Project Work process, not the Perform Integrated

Change Control process.

10. The Control Stakeholder Engagement process concerns which

of the following?

A. Documenting important information about stakeholder

interests in the stakeholder management plan

B. Monitoring the communication needs of the project

stakeholders so they receive what they need when they

need it

C. Documenting contact information and basic

information in the stakeholder register

D. Monitoring your stakeholder relationships and making

certain the stakeholders continue to stay engaged on

the project

Answer: D

Control Stakeholder Engagement involves monitoring your

stakeholder relationships and making certain stakeholders

stay engaged on the process.

Chapter 11

1. Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique of the

Control Risks process. Variance analysis is used to gather and

evaluate project performance information. Which of the

following best describes variance analysis?

A. It determines if project performance is improving or

worsening over time by analyzing project results for

variances.

B. It is the most often used performance measurement

tool.

C. It compares the expected project plan results with the

actual results to determine if variances exist.

D. It examines schedule, cost, and scope project

measurements together to determine if variances exist.

Answer: C

Variance analysis compares the expected project plan results

with the actual results to determine if variances exist.

2. Risk responses and contingency plans are examples of which

of the following?

A. Corrective action

B. Work authorization action

C. Organizational action

D. Preventive action

Answer: D

Risk responses and contingency plans, which are examples of

preventive actions, reduce the potential impacts of the risk

event if it occurs.

3. The tools and techniques of Control Risk are used throughout

the life of the project to monitor risks. Which of the following

lists the tools and techniques of this process?

A. Risk reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend

analysis, technical performance measurements, reserve

analysis, and status meetings

B. Risk audits, risk reviews, reserve analysis, and earned

value analysis

C. Risk reassessment, risk audits, additional risk

identification and analysis, technical performance

measurements, risk audits, risk reviews, and status

meetings

D. Trend analysis, earned value analysis, risk audits,

reserve analysis, additional risk identification and

analysis

Answer: A

The tools and techniques of Control Risk include risk

reassessment, risk audits, variance and trend analysis,

technical performance measurement, reserve analysis, and

status meetings.

4. You are in the Control Costs process. You’ve recently

received an approved change as a result of one of the cost

performance measurements. This is considered a budget

update. This revised cost estimate, or budget update, will

require that all appropriate parties agree to a change to which

of the following?

A. Project costs

B. Project schedule

C. Cost baseline

D. Cost estimates

Answer: C

Budget updates, which are a type of revised cost estimate,

require changes to the cost baseline to reflect the new cost

estimates.

5. This performance measurement is the direct and indirect costs

of work to date.

A. AC

B. PV

C. EV

D. CV

Answer: A

Actual cost (AC) is the actual cost of the work to date,

including direct and indirect costs.

6. You have gathered the following cost measurements for your

project: EV = 120, AC = 115, PV = 135. Which of the

following statements is true?

A. The project is ahead of schedule and costs are lower

than planned.

B. The project is behind schedule and costs are lower than

planned.

C. The project is behind schedule and costs are higher

than planned.

D. The project is ahead of schedule and costs are higher

than planned.

Answer: B

SV for this project is (120 – 135) = –15, so this project is

behind schedule. The CV for this project is (120 – 115) = 5,

which means the costs are lower than what was planned for

the project at this point in time.


project: EV = 120, AC = 115, PV = 135, ETC = 100. What is

the CPI and SPI?

A. CPI = .89 and SPI = 1.04

B. CPI = .96 and SPI = 1.13

C. CPI = 1.13 and SPI = .96

D. CPI = 1.04 and SPI = .89

Answer: D

CPI for this project is (120 / 115) = 1.04, and SPI for this

project is (120 / 135) = .89.


project: EV = 200, AC = 190, PV = 135, BAC = 210. You

expect the project to continue as it has in the past and that

ETC uses the budgeted rate. Which of the following is the

correct EAC given the circumstances (rounded up)?

A. 179

B. 130

C. 200

D. 218

Answer: C

The formula for EAC given these circumstances is as follows:

EAC = AC + BAC – EV. Therefore, our calculation looks like

this: 190 + 210 – 200 = 200.


project: EV = 132, AC = 115, PV = 135, BAC = 140. You

expect future performance and variances to behave like past

performance and variances. Which of the following is the

correct EAC given the circumstances (rounded up)?

A. 122

B. 147

C. 113

D. 8

Answer: A

The formula for EAC when future performance is expected to

be the same as past performance is EAC = BAC/ CPI. CPI is

132/115 = 1.15. EAC is 140/1.15 = 122.


project: AC = 200, PV = 215, EV = 200, BAC = 225. What is

the ETC if cost variances are not excepted to be typical to

what you’ve seen to date?

A. 20

B. 25

C. 15

D. 10

Answer: B

ETC is calculated this way: ETC = BAC – EV so our formula

for this project looks like this: 225 – 200 = 25.

11. The Control Schedule process manages changes to the

schedule. All of the following are true regarding Control

Schedule except which one?

A. Scope changes will impact the project schedule and

will require schedule changes and revisions.

B. Control Schedule defines how changes to the schedule

will be managed.

C. The work performance data output of this process

includes schedule updates.

D. Changes to approved baseline schedule start and end

dates are called revisions.

Answer: C

Work performance data is an input of this process and work

performance information is the output.

12. During the Control Quality process, this tool and technique

included in the Seven Basic Quality Tools is used to monitor

repetitive activities and plot sample variance measurements to

determine if the product is in control (which is defined by

being within plus or minus three standard deviations of the

mean). Which tool and technique does this describe?

A. Scatter diagrams

B. Statistical sampling

C. Pareto chart

D. Control charts

Answer: D

Control charts measure the results of processes over time and

display the results in graph form. The mean is shown in the

middle of the chart, with the upper control limit and lower

control limits shown as three plus or minus standard

deviations from the mean. Processes are said to be out of

control when they exceed the upper or lower control limits.

13. This tool and technique included in the Seven Basic Quality

Tools of the Control Quality process displays work results in

histogram form that rank-orders the most important factors by

their frequency over time. Which tool and technique is it?

A. Run chart

B. Flow chart

C. Pareto diagram

D. Scatter diagram

Answer: C

Pareto diagrams are histograms that rank-order the most

important factors (such as delays, costs, and defects) by their

frequency over time. Pareto’s theory says you’ll get the most

benefit from spending the majority of your time fixing the

most important problems.

14. Which of the following is true regarding common causes of

variances?

A. They result from random variances, known or

predictable variances, or variances that are always

present in the process and are depicted in scatter

diagrams.

B. They result from random variances or variances that

are always present in the process and are depicted in

Pareto diagrams.

C. They result from random variances, known or

predictable variances, or variances that are always

present in the process and are depicted in control

charts.

D. They result from random variances or variances that

are always present in the process and are depicted in

flow charts.

Answer: C

Common causes of variances are a result of random

variances, known or predictable variances, or variances that

are always present in the process. Control charts depict

common causes of variances.

15. Which of the following are the tools and techniques of the

Validate Scope process?

A. Inspection and group decision-making techniques

B. Variance and trend analysis and inspection

C. Performance reviews and group decision-making

techniques

D. Variance and trend analysis

Answer: A

Inspection and group decision-making techniques are the

tools and techniques of the Validate Scope process.

16. All of the following are true regarding scope changes except

which one?

A. Scope changes will likely require adjustments to some

of the Planning processes.

B. Scope changes will likely bring about quality

improvements.

C. Changes to project scope should also be accounted for

in the product scope.

D. Changes to the agreed-upon WBS constitute a scope

change.

Answer: B

Quality improvements are realized as a result of quality

audits, not scope changes.

Chapter 12

1. Product verification determines if all of the work of the

project was completed correctly and satisfactorily according

to stakeholder expectations during which process?

A. Validate Scope

B. Close Procurements

C. Close Project or Phase

D. Perform Quality Assurance

Answer: B

Close Procurements determines if the work described in the

contract was completed accurately and satisfactorily. This

process is called product verification. Product documentation

is verified and accepted during the Validate Scope process.

2. Your project was recently accepted by the stakeholders. The

goals were achieved and the project was closed out. What

type of project ending is this?

A. Starvation

B. Addition

C. Integration

D. Extinction

Answer: D

Extinction means the project has been completed and

accepted by the stakeholders. It no longer exists, the goals

have been achieved, and the project’s been closed out.

3. Which one of the following is the key activity performed

during the Closing process group?

A. Creating project archives for future reference

B. Performing post-implementation audits

C. Disseminating information to formalize project closure

D. Identifying and documenting lessons learned

Answer: C

Disseminating information to formalize project closure is the

key activity in the Closing process group.

4. Close Project or Phase is part of which Project Management

Knowledge Area?

A. Procurement Management

B. Quality Management

C. Integration Management

D. Communications Management

Answer: C

Close Project or Phase belongs to the Project Integration

Management knowledge area.

5. All of the following are true regarding procurement audits

except which one?

A. They’re performed during Plan Procurement

Management through Close Project or Phase.

B. They’re reviews of the process to determine if the

process is meeting the right need.

C. They identify lessons learned during the procurement

process.

D. They identify flawed processes or procedures and

allow you to make corrections.

Answer: A

Procurement audits are performed during Plan Procurement

Management and proceed through Close Procurements.

6. Your project has been completed, accepted, and closed out.

You want to evaluate project goals and compare them to the

product of the project, review successes and failures, and

document possible improvements for future projects. You can

accomplish this by performing which of the following?

A. Procurement audit

B. Project and product verification

C. Post-implementation audit

D. Identifying and documenting lessons learned

Answer: C

Post-implementation audits are not an official output of the

Closing processes but are sometimes required by

organizations to evaluate project goals, review successes and

failures, and document possible improvements for future

projects.

7. Attaining customer satisfaction is an important factor that

project managers should be concerned about. The one key

thing you can do as the project manager to ensure customer

satisfaction?

A. Monitor quality and take corrective action as necessary

to keep the process in control

B. Define the requirements and obtain sign-off from the

stakeholders, ensuring that they agree to the

requirements

C. Provide accurate performance measurements

throughout the project via the information distribution

system

D. Make certain all important project information is

delivered during status meetings

Answer: B

The key thing that you can do to assure customer satisfaction

is to document requirements and obtain sign-off on the

requirements of the project. This ensures that stakeholders are

aware of and agree to the requirements and they know what

the project is expected to deliver.

8. As a certified project manager, you are responsible for

ensuring integrity on your project. All of the following are

helpful in ensuring integrity in the project management

profession except which one?

A. Following the PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional

Conduct

B. Following company guidelines regarding conflicts of

interest and ensuring that your personal interests are

not compromised

C. Practicing honesty in reporting when required by your

manager

D. Practicing and applying established project

management processes to your project

Answer: C

You should always practice honesty in reporting, whether

your manager requires you to or not.

9. You have been appointed to head up a project management

office for your organization. While working in this capacity,

you develop project management templates and training

materials that will be used to train others in your organization

on project management techniques. The materials you’ve

developed are very impressive, and you’re thinking about

publishing and selling them for your own profit. Which of the

following is the appropriate response?

A. You decide to pursue publishing opportunities since

you developed the materials and they belong to you.

B. You decide to pursue publishing opportunities after

you delete all the references to your company data.

You know that most company data is confidential and

you shouldn’t publish it.

C. The materials you’ve developed were produced with

the help of other team members and some vendor

information you received at a recent conference. You

decide not to pursue publication because you didn’t

really write everything personally.

D. Materials developed while on the job belong to your

organization and as such are intellectual property. You

decide to drop the idea altogether.

Answer: D

Intellectual property includes intangible items like software,

patents, and business processes that are developed by an

organization and have commercial value. Since you

developed these materials for your company, the materials

belong to the organization and you should not try to

personally profit from them.

10. In the midst of your project, you discover that the byproduct

of one of your newly developed manufacturing processes

causes environmental damage. However, the damage is

minimal and almost unnoticeable. Most inspectors will not

likely examine this area for damage. What is the most

appropriate response?

A. Inform the project sponsors that there is no problem

except for one small, isolated area that no one will ever

ask about. Tell them you’ve corrected the problem so

that it won’t occur again.

B. Inform the project sponsors that you are investigating

the production process to determine the extent of the

problem and will take whatever corrective action is

necessary.

C. Do nothing since the damage is minimal and no one

will really notice it anyway.

D. Inform the project sponsors you’ve already taken

corrective action even though nothing has been done to

correct the problem. Since it’s unnoticeable, they

won’t know if the problem has been fixed or not.

Answer: B

The most appropriate response is to inform the project

sponsors that you are investigating the process to determine

the extent of the problem and will take corrective action. This

action ensures your integrity and adheres to honest reporting

standards as required in the PMI® Code of Ethics and

Professional Conduct.

11. You are working on a very prestigious, important project.

Your project sponsor has promised a generous bonus if you

can complete the project ahead of schedule. You know if you

complete this project early, you’ll receive media attention and

write-ups in some of the important journals for your industry.

You’ve examined the schedule and found that the project is

actually behind schedule at this point in time. You’re not

worried and decide to do which of the following?

A. Inform the project sponsor you are right on schedule

and hope to complete the project early while taking no

action to get the project realigned with the schedule.

B. Delete activities from the project schedule to decrease

the amount of time it takes to complete all project

activities.

C. Inform the project sponsor that you’re behind schedule

and are not sure the project will be completed early.

You tell the project sponsor that you’ll examine ways

to get the project back on schedule but can’t promise

an early delivery.

D. Inform the project sponsor that some of the

requirements on the project are really a separate

project and shouldn’t be counted as part of the

deliverables on this project

Answer: C

Honesty in reporting project status ensures your integrity as a

project manager and is one of the standards outlined in the

PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

12. You are a project manager for a company that has just merged

with another company from a foreign country. Your new

team is made up of members from your original organization

and the merged company. Each company had its own unique

culture that is very different from the other. Each country also

has a different set of cultural standards. Everyone on the team

is struggling with these cultural differences. You decide to do


A. Note those team members who are causing the most

turmoil over the cultural issues so that it can be

reflected in their upcoming performance appraisals.

B. Inform management that they must come out with a

new code of conduct for the newly formed

organization soon.

C. Require all team members to attend diversity training

to help them become more aware of cultural

differences. This will help them function more

efficiently as a team.

D. Inform the team of your role as project manager and

require them to treat each other fairly and with respect.

This establishes your authority right away and will

show the team that you’re in control.

Answer: C

Recognizing and dealing with cultural differences is best

accomplished with diversity training.

: Project Management Professional Exam Deluxe...

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