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Detailed Solutions:
1. principles would be the unanimous choice that would
emerge from the political conception of justice as
fairness, let us derive both 1 and 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
2. The passage is about justice not the structure of
society, or principles, or only the idea of justice. This
makes 1, 2 and 4 incorrect. 3 is the name of the work
from where the basic ideas of the passage have been
picked up by the author Justice as Fairness.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
3. I have to express considerable scepticism...of one
particular set of principles for just institutions makes 4
incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
4. 1 is correct from He arguessociety governed by these
principles would have good reason to affirm a sense of
justice based on in the first paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
5. 1 is correct from He argues that since these principles
would be chosen by all
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
6. these principles would be the unanimous choice that
would emerge from the political conception of justice as
fairness, makes 4 incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
7. The author is skeptical and critical of Rawls theory but
he doesnt reject it outright. From the last paragraph, we
can infer only that Rawls accepts there are some
incurable problems with the theory.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
8. He does not abandon, at least explicitly, his theory of
justice as fairness, and yet he seems to accept that there
are incurable problems in getting a unanimous
agreement on one set of principles of justice in the
original position, which cannot but have devastating
implications for his theory of 'justice as fairness.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
9. Refer to the explanation for the previous question.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
10. From the second paragraph, The choice of basic
principles of justice is the first act in Rawlss multi-
staged unfolding of social justice.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
11. 3 is correct from, I would argue, reflect the fact that
impartiality can take many different forms and
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
12. 2 is correct from, I have to express considerable
scepticism about Rawlss highly specific claim about the
unique choice, in the original position, of one particular
set of principles for just institutions
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
13. 2 is correct from, There are genuinely plural, and
sometimes conflicting, general concerns that bear on our
understanding of justice.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
14. 3 is correct from, there is a general theory of how to
treat people in an unbiased and impartial way, focusing,
respectively, on effective use and utility, economic equity
and distributional fairness
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
15. 1 is correct from, Indeed, in his Justice as Fairness: A
Restatement, Rawls notes
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
16. Olivia now spent her mornings in the warmth of our
flat; it was too cold and misty to paint until the sun had
reached its zenith at midday, makes 1 correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
17. Due to the deadly weather, people prefer to stay indoors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
18. 1, 3 and 4 contradict the passage. From the passage,
The only colours are the red and yellow silk flags
flying over the new Muslim graves in Nizamuddin.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
19. The passage states, the goats fattening for slaughter
huddle together under sackcloth coats; some are given
old cardigans to wear
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Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
20. 4 is incorrect from, I had become fascinated with that
period of Delhis history known as the Twilight. 3
contradicts the passage. The author talks about his
association with Iris Portal and the Haxby sisters in the
passage thus making 2 incorrect, and 1 correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
21. 3 is stated near the end of the second paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
22. 2 contradicts the passage. 3 is incorrect because Nadir
Shah didnt help in the prosperity of Delhi but rather the
presence of his rule exacerbated the pace of decline of
Delhi. 4 is incorrect because by the end of the eighteenth
century, Delhi was in ruins.
Option 1 is correct from, Nadir Shahs massacre
exacerbated the decline of the Mughal Empire which had
been steadily contracting since the death of Aurangzeb.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
23. The features and attributes of Emperor Shah Alam are
mentioned in the fifth paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
24. 1 is correct from, the elaborate etiquette of Mughal
society was scrupulously maintained; poetry, music and
the arts flourished.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
25. None of the statements can be concluded from the
passage to be correct. Hence, the question has been
marked as AMBIGUOUS.
26. The summers of Delhi have not been mentioned, making
2 and 3 incorrect. The passage describes the winter of
Delhi as bitter and unwelcome.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
27. 1 and 2 are mentioned in paragraph 6. 4 is also
mentioned in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
28. Google entered the market quite some time after Yahoo!,
making 3 and 4 incorrect. 1 is stated in paragraph 9. 2 is
the opposite of 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
29. From the first paragraph, sex, God and jobs are most
frequently searched for.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
30. 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect from, no single word or
subject accounts for more than 1 or 2 percent of all
Google searches at any given time.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
31. 1 is stated in paragraph 7.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
32. 4 is correct from, only a third of our searches are U.S.-
based, and less than half are in English.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
33. 2 is correct from, only a third of our searches are U.S.-
based, and less than half are in English.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
34. 4 is correct from, They presume that the information
theyre looking for is certainly available
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
35. 1 is correct from, Brin and Page, who met as Stanford
University students in computer science in 1995
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
36. 2 and 3 are contrary to the passage. 4 is incorrect
because of Central Asia.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
37. 1, 2 and 3 are contrary to the passage and thus can be
eliminated.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
38. 2, 3 and 4 can be inferred to be correct from the passage.
However, there is no mention about growth being
regulated by the PI management style.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
39. A proponent is a person who puts forward a proposition
or supports a particular cause. But from the passage we
can infer that Khandwalla is a critique of the PI style of
management. Thus, eliminate options 1, 3 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
40. 1 is correct from, the humane rather than the
surgical turnaround strategy
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
41. The first line is Another style which is only partially
dependent on situational factors for its effectiveness is
the Pioneering-Innovative management.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
42. 3 is correct from, the past Pl has an insignificant effect
on present norms, decisions and managerial functions.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
43. 4 contradicts the passage the current levels of PI in
organizations are more strongly influenced by strategic
decisions taken in the past than the other way around.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
44. 1 is correct from, Once PI management becomes
operative, it improves overall performance
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Thus, eliminate options 2, 3 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
45. 1 is correct from, PI management is an outcome rather
than a cause of managerial policies and practices.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
46. 2 is correct from, past norms regarding excellence,
expertise, dedication and the lower levels of dependency
facilitated current PI levels
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
47. The characteristics of PI management are explicitly
mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage from
which we can eliminate options 1, 2 and 4.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
48. 2 is correct from, administered a questionnaire to the
top level executives of 75 varied organisations.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
49. 1 is correct from, the operative mode of the top
management sets the tone for the lower levels.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
50. From the passage, Like Likert, Khandwalla preferred to
use the expression management rather than
leadership, though his theory could easily be taken for a
theory of leadership.
Thus, eliminate options 1, 2 and 3.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
51. A talks about the men and is the opening sentence, since
the others have they. Statement D is the logical link
that follows because of the word they which talks about
the men from the opening sentence. Statement C is the
next link in the chain and this can be determined by the
pronoun it in the sentence which refers to water
mentioned in the previous sentence.
A-D-B-C is the best sequence, but is not available. A-D-C
is the most appropriate link. This eliminates options 1
and 3.
B as the opening sentence would be grammatically
wrong. It fits better at the end than at the start.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
52. The opening sentence is B which refers to all managers.
D is the next link as it talks about the effectiveness of the
managers. C elaborates on the decision-making capacity
of the managers and should follow D. A is about the
outcome of the decision and follows D.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
53. D is the best opening sentence as the author is
introducing the subject. C follows D as here the author
explains his reason for taking up the subject. A follows
next due to also in the statement and B follows A as the
explanation continues further.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
54. B should follow A as the pronoun those refers to firms
in A. Likewise, A is the opening sentence. D should follow
B as it provides further information about the
investigation.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
55. D talks about the new plant not being a threat and B talks
about the new concern supplying the metal. Thus, B
follows D. C talks about the shortage of metal and we can
infer that C follows B. The use of the word moreover in
A helps to deduce that it follows C.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
56. C introduces the subject. A explains the causes of
success or failure and so should follow C. B explains
how motivation and opportunity can be supplied and
thus follows C.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
57. B is the opening sentence as it introduces the night and
the track. The passage is on the track; hence, C follows.
Hard and firm describes the track and follows C. The
word also in A signifies that it should follow D.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
58. The idiom in this sentence is backseat driving, which
means using criticism and interfering in the affairs of
others.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
59. A wet blanket refers to a person who dampens others
enthusiasm or fun.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
60. Weigh anchor means to raise, lift, or hoist something.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
61. Chequered (US. checkered) means marked by various
shifts or changes.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
62. Sauce for gander is sauce for the goose means what is
appropriate for one person is also appropriate for the
other (esp. used with reference to men and women).
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
63. At the drop of a hat means at the slightest provocation
or without delay.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
64. Retract means to draw back or withdraw. Cover up is
something that is done in a hushed manner and not
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ordered. Disseminate and publicize distort the
meaning of the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
65. Time is always structured.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
66. While writing a book, focus on the topic is essential.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
67. Philosophical works require the most patience. One
who does not have patience cannot be enlightened or
absorb anything.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
68. To strive, to seek, to find require the infinitive to yield
in order to maintain parallelism in the sentence. Options
1 and 4 can be eliminated.
These words describe means of reaching the goal. Yield
has an opposite meaning of giving up. Therefore, not to
yield fits in the logical context of the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
69. Halts and ceases mean stop, and hence do not fit in
since 'stop' is already there in the sentence. This
eliminates 2 and 3. Accelerates is not be in sync with if
not stops, eliminating 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
70. Surprise can only be associated with something that is
discreet or veiled. Allusion is a casual reference. Oblique
is indirect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
71. Perfunctorily means hastily which is opposite to what is
required. Explicitly means clearly and honestly means
truthfully but neither word brings out the meaning of
the sentence. Assiduously means thoroughly and fits
aptly in the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
72. Plot structures are intricate. Trite means boring and
aesthetic means beautiful. Neither word is relevant in
the meaning of the sentence. Eclectic distorts the
meaning of the sentence. Delineation means description
and fits well with the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
73. Suspicion is synonymous with distrust.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
74. A negative word is required for the blank. Auspicious is
unrelated in the context. Accomplished and masterful
have positive connotations.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
75. The sentence here talks about a mixture which
evaporates easily. Volatile suits the context.
Hence the correct answer is, option 1.
76. reported on experiments that were never carried
out refers to deceitful. The most appropriate pair of
words in the context of the sentence is fraudulent-
deceptive.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
77. Ebb and brink are negative, which is not in line with
universal acclaim.
Zenith is better than extremity.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
78. Invalidated, restrained and lessened refer to
reducing and are inappropriate in this context where
the requirement is for increasing.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
79. 2 has a subject-verb agreement error. 3 incorrectly uses
the comma and has a missing preposition, of. 4 has
irregardless which is non-standard usage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
80. 1 has a subject-verb agreement error: the correct usage
is does. 3 has faulty construction: the use of the word
requiring in place of which requires is improper usage.
4 has an error in parallelism. 2 has no errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
81. 2, 3 & 4 are inconsistent with the first part in tense. 1 has
no problem as such.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
82. 1, 3 and 4 have tense inconsistency. Option 2 has no such
problem.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
83. Alike both in 1 is improper usage, and risewhich are
on the increase is redundant. 3 is incorrect because
medical malpractice cases is replaced by medical
malpractices which changes the meaning. 2 is free from
errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
84. Arbitrary in 2 is improper usage: it should be
arbitrarily. 3 uses was in place of seemed. Was
signifies something that has happened, whereas,
seemed means something that appears to be. 4 distorts
the meaning by transferring arbitrary to conductor. 1
does not have any errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
85. 1 is incorrect because 'her' generosity is transferred to
contributions, changing the meaning. 2 and 3 express
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ideas contradictory to the sentence. 4 is clear and
precise.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
86. 1 is wrong due to tense inconsistency. 3 changes the
meaning. 4 lacks total and all, which render the
meaning incomplete. 2 is consistent with the sentence.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
87. 1 lacks his before work. 2 is wrong because the
although suits more in the beginning of the sentence. 4
changes the meaning. 3 has no errors.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
88. 2, 3 & 4 lack consistency of tense with the sentence. 1 has
no such issues.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
89. Acceptance speech as a phrase does not require the
preposition of.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
90. The preposition by in 4 should be of.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
91. By in 2 is wrong. A struggle is not by something, it is
with something.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
92. Or in place of and in 3 is inappropriate usage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
93. Past tense in 2 instead of present tense as in 1 is
incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
94. Us in option 3 is incorrect.
Hence, option 3.
95. Pickpocketers is incorrect: the correct usage is
pickpockets.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
96. His in 1 should come after both and not before it.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
97. Fall in 2 should be continuous tense to match 1.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
98. More than is redundant.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
99. Present tense in 4 is inconsistent.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
100. Owing is incorrect usage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
101. 4x3 8x2 63x 9 = 0
Hence, option 2.
102. Let the year of the mans birth be y.
Then, y + x = x2
y = x(x 1)
Now looking at the options we find that only 1806 can be
written in the form x(x 1), where x = 43.
Hence, option 1.
103. Let the train travel at s km/hr.
In 1 hour it travels s km.
Let the remaining distance be x km. Then,
Total distance = s + x = 10s
Using the second condition,
s = 60
Total distance = 60 10 = 600 km.
Hence, option 3.
104. At 7O clock the angle between the hour and minute hand
= 210 (in clockwise direction)
Relative speed of minute hand & hour hand = 5.5
degrees/minute.
The angle between the two hands is 84 in two cases
(i) The minute hand travels a distance of 210 84 = 126
(ii) The minute hand gains 84 over the hour hand i.e. it
travels 210 + 84 = 294
Hence, option 1.
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105. Substituting the values of x given in the options, we find
that only x = 1 satisfies the equation.
Hence, option 1.
106. log x 5 log 3 = 2
x = 35 10 2 = 2.43
Hence, option 3.
107. Let there be x marbles originally.
Let y marbles remain after this
The last statement in the question is redundant.
The given information is insufficient to answer the
question.
Hence, option 2.
108. (100h + 10t + u) (100u + 10t + h) = 99(h u)
As the units digit of the resultant is 4, we can say that
h u = 6
99 (h u) = 99 6 = 594
The required digits are 9 and 5 from right to left.
Hence, option 2.
109. Let there be x cows and y chickens.
4x + 2y = 14 + 2 (x + y)
x = 7
Hence, option 2.
= a2 a2 = a4
Hence, option 4.
Hence, option 1.
Hence, option 3.
113.
By the tangent secant theorem,
PA2 = PB PC
Let PB = x
x2 + 20x 300 = 0
(x + 30) (x 10) =0
x = 10
Hence, option 2.
114. Let the three numbers be a, b and c.
Also, a + b + c = 98
b = 30
Hence, option 3.
115. Let h be the original height of the candles. The first
candle burns by an amount equal to h/4 every hour and
the second candle burns by an amount equal to h/3
every hour.
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Hence, option 4.
116.
(20)10 = (110)4
Hence, option 1.
117. As the two met in the centre of the pool, their speeds
must be equal and both of them cover a distance equal to
half the length of the pool in 1.5 minutes.
In the first 1.5 minutes, Hari travels from A to B and Ravi
from C to B.
In the second 1.5 minutes, Hari travels from B to C and
Ravi from B to A.
In the third 1.5 minutes Hari travels from C to B and Ravi
from A to B.
They passed each other the second time 4.5 minutes
after starting.
Hence, option 2.
118. x : y : z :: 2 : 3 : 5
x + y + z = 100
y = 30 and x = 20
But y = ax 10
30 = 20a 10
a = 2
Hence, option 1.
119. Let 10x + y be the number.
= (10x + y)2 (10y + x)2
= 99(x2 y2)
= 99(x + y) (x y)
The result is thus always divisible by 9, the sum of the
digits and the difference of the digits.
Hence, option 2.
Hence, option 1.
121. The sum of roots of the equation 4x2 + 5 8x = 0
Hence, option 4.
122. 2x2 + 6x + 5y + 1 = 0
2x(x + 3) + 5y + 1 = 0 (i)
Also, 2x + y + 3 = 0
2x = (y + 3) (ii)
Substituting (ii) & (iii) in (i),
(y + 3) (y + 3) + 10y + 2 = 0
(3 + y) (3 y) + 10y + 2 = 0
(9 y2) + 10y + 2 = 0
y2 + 10y 7 = 0
Hence, option 3.
123. Let t = 5, u = 3
Then we are looking for the number 531.
531 = 5 100 + 3 10 + 1
= 100t + 10u + 1
Hence, option 2.
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124.
The largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semicircle
is an isosceles right triangle.
AC = BC and ACB = 90
Hence, option 1.
Hence, option 4.
126.
Before meeting A, B travels 60 + 12 = 72 km
And A travels 60 12 = 48 km
Let Vb be the speed of B and Va be speed of A.
Now Vb = Va + 4
2Va + 8 = 3V
Va = 8
Hence, option 2.
127. Let the second machine address 500 envelopes in x
minutes.
Now, both machines address 500 envelopes in 2 minutes.
Let, making of 500 envelopes count to completing one
unit of work.
Solving this equation will give the value of x.
Hence, option 2.
128. Let there be y girls after 15 girls leave and let x be the
number of boys.
2y = x
Now after 45 boys left, there were 5 girls for each boy.
y = 5(x 45)
y = 5x (5 45)
2y = 10x (2 5 45)
x = 10x (10 45)
x = 50
y = 25
Hence, numbers of girls at the beginning = 25 + 15 = 40
Hence, option 1.
129. Let n1 (i.e. 4) be the number of pairs of black socks and n2
be the number of pairs of blue socks.
Let x be cost price per pair of blue socks.
Cost price of each pair of black socks = 2xs
Now if number of blue socks and black socks get
interchanged then bill increases by 50%.
6n1x + 3n2x = 4n2x + 2n1x
4n1x = n2x
Hence, option 3.
130. Water carried by pipe cross sectional area.
Water carried by pipe with 6 inches = k (6/2)2 = 9k and
water carried by pipe with 1 inch diameter = k (1/2)2
= k/4
Hence, option 3
as S = S1 + S2 Now S1 = GP with first term = 1/7 and common ratio
= 1/72
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Similarly, S2 = GP with first term as (2/72) and common
ratio as (1/72).
S = S1 + S2
Hence, option 4.
132.
Let ABC be the triangle with h as the altitude and BC as
base. Let PQRS be the rectangle inscribed in triangle ABC.
As height of rectangle = PS = x, and base of the rectangle
= SR = 2x = PQ
Now, height of APQ = height of triangle height of rectangle
= h x
Now, APQ and ABC are similar.
Hence, option 3.
133. Consider option 1:
x + y = 0
y = x
y = (1) x
x is directly proportional to y.
Consider option 2:
3xy =10
Hence, x is inversely proportional to y.
Consider option 3:
x = 5y
Hence, x is directly proportional to y.
Consider option 4:
3x + y = 10
y = 10 3x
As y cannot be expressed as (k x), where k is some
constant hence, x is neither directly nor inversely
proportional to y.
Hence, option 4.
134. log10 (a2 15a) = 2
a2 15a = 102
a2 15a 100 = 0
a2 20a + 5a 100 = 0
a (a 20) + 5 (a 20) = 0
(a 20) (a + 5) = 0
a = 20 or a = 5
Hence, option 2.
Hence, option 4.
136. Let n be the number of people present in the party.
Now, number of handshakess will be, (n 1)
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n(n 1) = 56
n2 n 56 = 0
Solving this we get,
n = 8 or n = 7
Since n cannot be negative.
n = 8
Hence, option 4.
137. Since the required number leaves a remainders which is
one less than the divisor, we can say that the number is
one less than the LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
Now, LCM (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10) = 2 3 2 5 7 2
3 = 2520
Desired number = 2520 1 = 2519
Hence, option 4.
138.
Let ABCD be square inscribed in a semicircle with radius
r.
Let a1 be the length of side of square ABCD
(a1/2)2 + a12 = r2
Now, length of a side of square inscribed
(where, r = radius of the circle)
Area of the square inscribed in full circle square = a2 =
2r2
Hence, option 3.
139. Equation of a line containing points (6, 12) and
(0, 6) is,
y + 6 = 3x Only option 1 satisfies the above equation.
Hence, option 1.
140. Let x be the list price of the goods.
Cost price of goods (for the merchant) = 0.8x
He wants to make a profit which is 20% of the selling
price.
Cost price = 0.8 selling price
Selling price = x
As he gives 20% discount on marked price, hence, selling
price = 0.8 marked price
Hence, option 4.
x2(m + 1) x[b(m + 1) + a(m 1)] + c(m 1) = 0 The roots are numerically equal but of opposite signs,
their sum is 0.
Hence, option 1.
142. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of
the A. P.
2a + 9d = 4a + 8d
Hence, option 1.
143. Let the speed of the faster and slower cyclist be a and b
respectively.
By given conditions,
ar rb = at + tb
Hence, option 1.
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Hence, option 4.
145. For a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0
As the first student makes a mistake only in the constant
term, his sum of roots is correct.
Sum of roots of the equation = 8 + 2 = 10
As the second student makes a mistake only in the
coefficient of x, his product of roots is correct.
Product of roots of the equation = (9) (1) = 9
the quadratic equation is,
x2 (sum of roots)x + (product of roots) = 0
x2 10x + 9 = 0
Hence, option 1.
146. Let length and breadth of rectangle be l and b
respectively.
By given conditions,
Hence, option 4.
147. x y3
x = ky3
Hence, option 3.
148. 2x 3 > 7 x
3x > 10
Hence, option 4.
3m = 4n (i)
14r = 9t (ii)
Multiplying (i) and (ii), we get
14 3mr = 9 4nt
7mr = 6nt
Hence, option 2.
150. Let A, B and C do the work in a, b and c days respectively.
Subtracting (ii) from (i),
Adding (iii) and (iv)
A can do the job alone in 3 days.
Hence, option 2.
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151. We fill the following table by the data that is directly
given.
Flat Sport Occupation
Ambrish Cricket(N) Mechanical Engineer
Amit 3rd Chess Power Engineer
Rohit
Manu 3rd Cricket(R)
Tarun 5th Quality Inspector
As the football player is a design engineer he has to be
Rohit. So Rohit stays in the 2nd flat.
We can then see that Ambrish has to stay in the 4th flat
and Tarun has to play Tennis.
So we have the following:
Flat Sport Occupation
Ambrish 4th Cricket(N) Mechanical Engineer
Amit 3rd Chess Power Engineer
Rohit 2nd Football Design Engineer
Manu 3rd Cricket(R) Mechanical Engineer
Tarun 5th Tennis Quality Inspector
From the table, Ambrish stays in the 4th flat.
Hence, option 1.
152. From the table in the solution to the first question of this
set, Tarun plays Tennis.
Hence, option 4.
153. From the table in the solution to the first question of this
set, Rohit plays Football.
Hence, option 3.
154. We have the following from the oldest to the youngest:
Chess Player > Cricket Player (Regional) > Football >
Tennis > Cricket Player (National)
Amit > Manu > Rohit > Tarun > Ambrish
Thus Rohit lies between Manu and Tarun agewise. Rohit
is the design engineer.
Hence, option 4.
155. From the table, Amit and Manu stay in the 3rd flat.
Hence, option 3.
156. From the table, the Chess player is a power engineer.
Hence option 1.
157. From the data given, we get the following table.
Gender Computer hardware Marketing
P Male
Q Female
R Female
S Male
T Female
X Male
From the table, we can conclude that the male partner
who knows marketing but does not know computer
hardware is S.
Hence, option 1.
158. From the table in the solution to the first question of the
set, the female partner who is well versed in computer
hardware but does not know marketing is R.
Hence, option 4.
159. From the table, the female partner who neither knows
hardware nor marketing is T.
Hence, option 3.
160. The Nepalese is in Track 3 and the Chinese is in the
Track 1.
From the given conditions, the Englishman has to be in
Track 5.
The Indian can be either in Track 2 or 4.
Hence, option 3.
161. It is given that the Nepalese is in Track 4 and the Indian
is in Track 3.
Since the Iraqi is not in one of the extreme tracks, he has
to be in Track 2.
From the given conditions i.e. statement (i) & (iii), we get
that both the Englishman and the Chinese cannot be in
Track 5.
But both of them cannot be on the same track i.e. Track
1.
Hence, option 4.
162.
1 Iraqi 2 Chinese 3 Indian 4
We know that the Iraqi is to the left of the Chinese and
the Chinese is to the left of the Indian.
The Nepalese and the Englishman can thus be in the four
places 1, 2, 3 and 4 - shown above. As the Iraqi cannot
be in an extreme track, one out of the Nepalese and
Englishman has to be to his immediate left in place 1.
Also as the Nepalese and the Englishman cannot be
adjacent to each other, one of them has to be in place 2, 3
or 4.
In any of these cases the Iraqi is in Track 2.
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Hence, option 1.
163. EELILSUOBR can be rearranged to get the word
REBELLIOUS.
The antonym of REBELLIOUS is Submissive.
Hence, option 2.
164. NEMIUECPD can be rearranged to get the word
IMPUDENCE, which has one meaning as lack of
modesty.
Therefore, its antonym is modesty.
Hence, option 2.
165. CLVAIGNIALT can be rearranged to get the word
VACILLATING, which also means not resolute.
Therefore, its antonym is resolute.
Hence, option 3.
166. The hunter has just sparrows, pigeons, doves.
Let the number of sparrows, pigeons & doves be s, p & d
respectively.
From the 1st, 2nd, & 3rd statement, we get,
p + d = 6, s + d = 6, p + s = 6
Adding all three we get, 2p + 2s + 2d = 18
p + s + d = 9
Thus, the hunter had 9 birds.
Hence, option 2.
167. The family tree can be drawn as follows.
From the family tree, John is Kulwants grandson.
Hence, option 3.
168. From the family tree obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set above, Tinu is Johns cousin sister.
Hence, option 2.
169. From the family tree obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set, Ritu is Gagans niece. Mukesh is Ritus
husband and so he is Gagans Nephew in law.
Hence, option 4.
170. Consider each statement
1. Mohan may or may not be younger than Kulwant.
2. Mukesh & Gagan can have the same surname.
3. Since Madhav is Rakeshs son, Madhav is definitely
younger than Rakesh.
4. Pushpa may or may not be younger than Mohan.
Hence, option 3.
171. After making the required changes we get the new
sequence (1st sequence) as compared to the conventional
sequence (2nd sequence) as :
A Z Y X E W V T I S R Q P N O M L K J H U G F D C B
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Since the new sequence represents the letter in the
original sequence, we get
Z B
Y C
X D
W F
and so on.
According to new sequence
PUNYT MUNCH
VTFHC GHWTY
PREHG MKETV
Hence, PUNYT is a valid word in the new sequence.
Hence, option 1.
172. ITXNA IHDNA
YTOHV CHOTG
YTINA CHINA
Hence, option 3.
173. FILLS WIQQJ
NIPKA NIMRA
AKIEQ ARIEL
Hence, option 3.
174. PUJYQE MUSCLE
WQOOX FLOOD
JHINH STINT
All of the above are valid words.
Hence, option 4.
175. Statement I:
Consider the Net worth to borrowing ratio for each year.
In 200506 and 2006-07 it is greater than 2.
In 200708 and 2009-10 it is greater than 1.5.
Only in 2008-09 it is less than 1.5
Statement I is correct.
Statement II:
Consider the Net worth to profit ratio for each year. The
year with the lowest value of this ratio will be the year
with the highest ratio of profit to Net worth. In each of
the years from 2005-06 to 2008-09, the ratio of Net
worth to profit is greater than 15. In 2009-10 alone it
falls below 15.
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The profit to net worth ratio has been the highest in
the year 2009-10
Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option 1.
176. Statement I:
We can observe that the percentage growth in profit will
be lowest in either 2007-08 or in 2008-09.
In 2007-08, the growth is 80/924 and in 2008-09 it is
71/1004
In the latter, the numerator is smaller than the former
and the denominator is bigger. So the latter is smaller
than the former.
The percentage growth in profit over the previous year
is the lowest in the year 2008-09.
Statement I is correct.
Statement II:
Consider the net sales to profit ratios for all years. In all
the years except in 2006-07 it is greater than 2. Hence
this ratio is the least in 2006-07. So the ratio of profit to
net sales is highest in 2006-07.
Statement II is correct.
Hence, option 3.
177. Statement I:
The value added in 2009-10 is more than 1.5 times that
in 2008-09. In no other year is this ratio so high. So
clearly, the percentage value added growth over the
previous year has been the highest in the year 2009-10.
Statement I is correct.
Statement II:
In the year 2005-06 the ratio of Net worth to profit is
greater than 20. In no other year is it so high. So the ratio
of profit to Net worth has been the lowest in the year
2005 06.
Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option 1.
178. Statement I:
From the solution to the third question of this set, we can
see that percentage value added growth over the
previous year has been the highest in the year 2009 10.
Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II:
The value added is greater than 1.1 times the previous
year in all years except in 2006-07. Hence, the
percentage value added growth over the previous year
has been the lowest in the year 2006-07.
Statement II is correct.
Hence option 2.
179. Statement I:
From the solution to question 176, we can see that there
is an inconsistency in the trend of the ratio of Net Sales
to Profit in the year 2006-07.
Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II:
We can see that the ratio of Networth to profit is the
highest in 2005-06 (>20) and lowest in 2009-10 (< 15)
We only need to see if this ratio decreases over the years
2006-07, 2007-08 and 2008-09.
The values of the ratio of Networth to Profit in 2006-07,
2007-08 and 2008-09 are approximately 18, 17.2 and
16.72 respectively.
Thus the ratio of profit to Networth has been
consistently improving over the period under review.
Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option 4.
180. Statement I:
Consider 2005-06
Estimating similarly we can see that the ratio less than
15 in 2006-07 and 2007-08, and is very close to 15 in
2008-09 and 2009-10.
In 2008-09,
17978 15 = 269670 > 267100
The ratio is less than 15.
In 2009-10,
23273 15 = 349095 < 421800
The ratio is greater than 15.
Statement I is correct.
Statement II:
From the solution to the third question of this set, the
ratio of Networth to profit is greater than 20 only for 1
year.
Statement II is correct.
Hence, option 3.
181. From the solution to the second question, we can see
that statement I is correct.
Also, we can see that profit to Net sales ratio was the
highest in the year 2006 07.
Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, option 1.
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182. From the solution to the third question, we can see that
both statements I and II are correct.
Hence, option 3.
183. Since CARTOON is written as BBQUNPM, we can observe
that the code changes the given word by changing the
letters of the word by changing the first letter to the
letter that comes before it and the second letter to the
letter that comes after it and the patterns continues in a
similar fashion.
Hence, OSHNZSX will stand for PRIMARY.
Hence, option 4.
184. Given that A < B < D, C < D and B > E.
Hence, D is the heaviest.
Hence, option 2.
185. There are 5 experts and 4 languages. Each expert knows
more than one language. Therefore make a grid with the
experts in the rows and the languages in the columns.
Mark a tick for every language that an expert knows.
J, H, E and F stand for Japanese, Hindi, English and
French respectively.
The grid is as shown below.
Expert J H E F
R1
R2
R3
R4
R5
R4 knows Japanese & French. Since R5 knows French, he
can talk to R4 without an interpreter.
Only R1and R2 know Japanese, apart from R4. Therefore,
both R1 and R2 can talk to R4 without an interpreter.
Hence, option 4.
186. Consider the grid obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set. Two people need an interpreter if
they have no language in common.
R3 knows Hindi and English and R4 knows Japanese and
French. Since they have no language in common, R3 and
R4 need an interpreter.
Hence, option 4.
187. Consider the grid obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set. Two people know French. Three
people know each of English, Hindi and Japanese.
Thus, French is the least commonly used language.
Hence, option 2.
188. Consider the grid obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set. R3 talks in Hindi or English and R4
talks in Japanese or French.
Therefore, an interpreter should know at least one
language from Hindi and English and at least one from
Japanese and French.
Consider each expert in the option.
R1 Japanese and Hindi
R1 is a valid interpreter.
R2 Japanese and English
R2 is a valid interpreter.
R5 Hindi, English and French
R5 is a valid interpreter.
Thus, any of these can be a valid interpreter.
Hence, option 4.
189. Consider the grid obtained in the solution to the first
question of the set. R6 has to know two languages such
that maximum experts understand him.
Consider English & French 4 people i.e. R2, R3, R4 & R5
can understand R6.
Consider Japanese & Hindi All 5 people can understand
R6.
Consider English & Hindi 4 people i.e. R1, R2, R3 & R5
can understand R6.
Hence, R6 should know Japanese & Hindi.
Hence, option 2.
190. The numeric value of each letter is:
A 1 N 13
B 2 O 12
C 3 P 11
D 4 Q 10
E 5 R 9
F 6 S 8
G 7 T 7
H 8 U 6
I 9 V 5
J 10 W 4
K 11 X 3
L 12 Y 2
M 13 Z 1
The numeric value of each option is:
Since, the numerator is positive and denominator is
negative, the equation cannot be a whole number.
Since the numerator is negative and denominator is
positive, the equation cannot be a whole number.
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The numerator has no multiple of 27 but the
denominator has. So the equation cannot be a whole
number.
None of the equations is a whole number.
Hence, option 4.
191. Find the salary of each person using the table obtained in
the given solution:
PREM = (11) (9) (5) (13) = 99 65 = 6435
SHAN = (8) (8) (1) (13) = 64 13 = 832
RAMU = (9) (1) (13) (6) = 9 78 = 702
Note There can be other four letter names possible (for
example MMMM) that can draw more salary than PREM
Hence, option 4.
192. Consider each option using the table obtained in the
solution to the first question.
GS TSZ
[(7) (8)] [(7) (8) (1)]
= (56) (56) = 0
GS TSZ = 0
PRO = (11) (9) (12) = 1188
DLW = (4) (12) (4) = 192
PRO DLW
ROD = (9) (12) (4) = 432
YET = (2) (5) (7) = 70
ROD YET
Hence, option 1.
193. Rectangle Economy Class Passengers
Circles Working Executives
Triangles Indians
Only segments 5 and 6 represent the passengers which
are executives as well as travel in economy class. But
since the hotels service does not include Indians, only
segment 6 will be the required segment that the hotel
should concentrate upon.
Hence, option 2.
194. As shown in the figure only segment 5 and 6 represent
the passengers who are Executives and who travel by
Economy Class.
Hence, option 1.
195. The Indian executives are represented by the segments 4
and 5 but the Indian executives who do not travel by
economy class is represented by segment 4 only, as
segment 5 passengers travel by economy class.
Hence, option 4.
196. Segments 1, 2, 5 and 6 represent passengers travelling
by economy class. Out of these segments, segments 5 and
6 represent the passengers who are executives.
Hence, the required areas, which the airline company
must focus on are 1 and 2.
Hence, option 3.
197. Dibleen is Simrans and Sagars mother. Since Chitra and
Simran are sisters, Dibleen is also the mother of Chitra
and Chitra, Simran and Sagar are siblings.
Hence, option 4.
198. A + B A is the boss of B
A B A is the subordinate of B
A * B A is the colleague of B
From the above information
Devesh Shirish + Kartik Devesh is the subordinate of
Shirish and Shirish is the boss of Kartik.
Hence, Shirish is the boss.
Hence, option 1.
199. Since, the student is at the tenth from all ends he must be
the student who is common in the rows.
Since, he is the tenth from all the ends; there must be 9
students (including the student at the end) in between
all the four ends and the given student.
Hence, the number of students in the group = 9 4 + 1
= 37
Hence, option 3.
200. After selling half of the balance eggs and another half an
egg to Shivani the grocer is left with 7 eggs.
Let, the number of eggs that he had before he sold eggs
to Shivani x.
x = 15
Similarly we get the number of eggs that the author had
before he sold eggs to Deepak to be 31 and the number
of eggs that he had before he sold eggs to Anurag as 63.
Hence, he started with 63 eggs.
Hence, option 2.